This is a reading response assignment that requires 2 pages in the Chicago Manual Style. The paper should include a summary and critique. I am not trying to get an A on this assignment. I would like it to look like I wrote it so I’ll need someone to give it about 80% instead of 100%. Another person took the job and left me high and dry after informing them I needed the assignment (8 hours after purchase) ..
Question 182 Document Response
To what extent were Arthur Woodley’s and John Kerry’s experiences in Vietnam consistent with the goals of American policy as described by Kennedy and McNamara? Would Kennedy and McNamara have considered Woodley and Kerry model soldiers? Would Heinl have considered them model soldiers? Explain your answers. (Chapter 29, Reading the American Past)
Question 183 Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal.
Part I: Short Answer: Answer the following questions in two paragraphs per question. 1. Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal. 2. Why was the United States so reluctant to get involved in World War II? 3. What was the impact of World War II on American society? 4. Explain the motives and aims of the U.S. policy of “containment.” 5. Describe the “six-pronged” defensive strategy developed during the Truman era. 6. How did U.S. involvement in Guatemala, Cuba, and Iran (in the 1950’s) reflect Eisenhower’s “New Look” in American foreign policy? 7. What key factors contributed to the period of prosperity in the 1950’s? 8. Describe and explain the increase in religious participation in America in the 1950’s. 9. Describe and analyze the aims and key programs in Johnson’s “Great Society.” 10. Briefly explain why it was so difficult for three American presidents–Kennedy, Johnson, and Nixon–to withdraw from Vietnam, even though they all claimed to want to get out. 11. Explain America’s “move to the right” at the end of the 20th century. 12. Explain the Watergate scandal. What events led to it? Why did it lead to Nixon’s resignation? 13. What were the costs and benefits of globalization to the United States in the 1990’s and early 2000’s? 14. What impact did the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001 have on U.S. foreign and domestic policies? 15. What was Obama’s reform agenda, and what obstacles stood in the way of that agenda? Part II: Essay Answer each in an essay of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Write an essay in which you describe, analyze, and evaluate the struggle for civil rights since World War II. You should have a thesis that reflects your evaluation of the situation during this era, and should support that thesis with numerous details and examples from assigned readings. B. Write an essay in which you explain and analyze the significance of the Vietnam War in American life and history. In doing so, you should have a clear thesis and support that thesis with specific examples from the assigned readings. C. Write an essay in which you describe, how and why has America changed since 1865 in terms of equal rights, economic problems/issues, foreign policy, and/or culture?
Question 184 Civil Rights Matrix
Complete the Civil Rights Matrix by summarizing and stating the significance of each of the “snapshots” in the pursuit of Civil Rights in America. Be sure to use sources contained in the topic/course materials and/or from your instructor to complete the assignment. This assignment uses a scoring guide. Please review the scoring guide prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. While GCU style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using GCU documentation guidelines, which can be found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.
Question 185 The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells
The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells This is a YouTube video that provides updated explanations of human development. This primary source documentary includes interactive timelines of the migration of early people that is well detailed and presents a great deal of information on human DNA. Students are to view this documentary in its entirety and answer the following question in Forum discussion. Discuss how does this documentary enhance your understanding of the debate between the ideas of creation and evolution. Provide examples from the documentary to help support your answer.
Question 186 Multicultural Curriculum Design
I need this assignment by 8 am May 1st Items need 2 page report Plus powerpoint including everything I should say in the video I already have selected a a topic and I have an outline! Look at the lesson plan to help you type the 2 page paper Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video explaining everything like how I made changes to the originally lesson plan! The powerpoint should tell me everything I need to say on the video. Like, how I demonstrated how I used the revised curriculum. and how I plan to teach the new curriculum to my class. Look below for teach instructions Curriculum Design You will take an existing curriculum unit or a professional development activity and create a new and improved unit or activity that embeds multicultural perspectives. The curriculum activity you choose should be already established and documented (online or via hard copy) because the original will be submitted along with the revised multicultural document. You should clearly identify within the report a minimum of 8-10 examples of Bank’s levels of multicultural curriculum reform. You will be asked to submit on video tape a portion of this unit that you have presented to a class (8-10 minutes) to demonstrate how you used the revised curriculum. All reports need to include an APPENDIX section that includes the following items: 1. Lesson plans 2. Resources 3. Visuals 4. Activities that you would use. Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video and the powerpoint just needs to tell me what to say and how I demonstrated how you used the revised curriculum…
Question 187 Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms
Instructions Complete a differentiation chart for your classroom. Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms. Using the course material and readings, show how you can apply the following strategies to your classroom to address the various learning needs within that classroom. (You will probably not have specifics on student interests or styles but you can generically incorporate activities that students can connect their interest and a variety of learning styles to the curricular content. Plan for students who are more visual learners, auditory learners, tactile, kinesthetic and those who require multimodal approaches.) The first column should have the type of differentiation. Then in column 2, state the subject you will use the specific strategy in. The third column, describe how you will use this strategy. In the last column, consider how you will group students for each strategy. Some strategies may be large group, small group, or even one-on-one. Compacting Tiered Assignments Independent Study Contracts Learning Centers Choice boards Adjusting questions (be sure and write comprehension questions according to Bloom’s taxonomy) Flexible Grouping Pre-teaching Re-teaching Response to Intervention Make sure to add a title page, reference page, and in-text citations.
Question 188 Early Childhood Education
Reflecting on the need to communicate the numerous critical and time sensitive issues in Early Childhood Education, what do you: Propose is the most timely and important Suggest is the best method(s) for informing and maintaining informational access to the public and policy makers (identify your audience) on the issue(s) Identify as your strengths to now engage in such work Perceive to still be weakness(es) that may hinder you work. How will you navigate and succeed regardless of said limitation(s). Respond in a professionally written 2-3 page paper
Question 189 What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”
What changes or trends have you observed or reviewed in your readings that might confirm the growing diversity of young children who attend early childhood programs? How have individuals in you community responded to these changes? Identify the best methods for educating ELL students to high achievement levels. What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”?
Describe the affects of poverty on brain development? What are the basic tenets in the promotion of resiliency? Why are the early years particularly important for all children in the areas of longterm learning and developmental outcomes?
Question 191 community engagement
The book review you write should be academic (likely with references to a few other sources – 3 is fine) and it should include some description of the book, an analysis of the content and an overall evaluation of how and why the book contributes to the field or participatory learning, research, theory, facilitation, and community engagement. You might also consider doing some of the required course reading in advance and then use some of that reading to compare the text with other topics that are related. For example, I suggest reading the first two chapters in Pedagogy of the Oppressed by Paulo Friere as they apply to all of the books considered as texts. Finally, what do you consider strengths and weaknesses in the book, key learnings, and what does the book say or not say about participation, popular education, dialogue or other key concepts in participatory realms of thinking and doing (or ideas linked to community engagement and adult learning). More generally, the book review is a critique of why you would or would not recommend this book based on the content, writing, theory and ideas presented. Reviews should explain and critique why the book is or is not significant in the given topic. The review will be evaluated based on the above criteria, clarity of writing style, proper formatting, grammar, use of APA style, and your critical analysis of the content. Proofread carefully. The review should be 1000-1250 words max. (12 pt font in times new roman with 1 inch margins). Use APA style (6th Ed). All instructions I received from my prof. Plz check carefully and I attached book too for your review. If your review will be good, I will offer you my others assignments too
Question 192 How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism
How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism? Identify examples of institutional racism. Discuss the implications of instructional racism on children’s development on family functioning and on society in general.
Question 193 Education
Specifically, discuss the emotional impact on the parent(s) when children develop proficiency that they themselves do not have. 2. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of parent’s limited English proficiency? (Remember not every ELL parent speaks Spanish. Therefore, a Spanish interpreter is not a solve all solution and is difficult to find interpreters in all languages) 3. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of a parent’s limited educational background? 4. Specifically, how will you minimize the mismatch between school culture and home culture? 5. Specifically, how will you work to minimize the logistical issue barriers (work hours, transportation, etc) to maximize parent involvement?
Question 194 High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components
High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components? 2. Describe the messages that media (television, movies, magazines, newspapers, Internet) convey about people living with limited incomes or within the poverty threshold. Identify at least five specific examples examples which demonstrate those messages. 3. What is the importance of resiliency? Give an example of how you have been resilient?
【Actually this EDUCATIONassignment is due July.4. It is a bit urgent. Take this order if you are confident to complete it on time in a satisfactory quality.】 ————————————————————————– This assignment has Part I and Part II. Part I is a 2-page lesson plan, using the provided template. Part II is an analytic paper that should be 1,000 words (+/-10%) not including references. 【Detailed Instructions for this assignment are in the attachment files, which I will provide you in our message box for convenience. 】 Read them carefully
Question 196 create a Newletter
Parent Newsletter: Based on the classroom you observed, develop a newsletter for that parent population. The newsletter should cover the current learning objectives and/or activities taking place in the class or camp, inform parents about how to help with the class or camp, reminders about what their child needs to do or bring, and upcoming events such as field trips or splash days. The newsletter must include information about how to contact the teacher with questions or in an emergency (phone, email, or text), increase family awareness of the daily routines and activities of the class, and how to request a parent-teacher conference, or if there is already a schedule for conferences established. Be creative and welcoming, design your newsletter in the way you think parents would be interested in reading it and that gives them suggestions for increasing their involvement/engagement with the class. Use the material from the readings about communicating with families as you develop the newsletter to make it relevant. The Parent Newsletter should be developed with correct spelling and format, using pictures or graphics to make it appealing, and most importantly,provide timely and relevant information for families who are the intended audience. After you have edited and spell checked your newsletter, save it as a PDF and submit to the Dropbox for this assignment.
Question 197 Family Involvement Plan
Family Involvement Plan: This portion of the project focuses on the generation of two reports. The first report will establish ways to assist the family in developing or maintaining a high and comfortable level of involvement in their current early childhood care/education setting. The second report will create a school/childcare plan that promotes additional involvement opportunities for all families involved in the setting. You will use your Family Interview report to assist you in developing these two plans. Each plan is to be three -five pages and provide detailed and descriptive information that specifies what the family should do and what the child care/education setting should do for all families. The purpose of both reports is to use the strategies learned in your course readings and from the interview to create an applied project that assists families and child care settings alike.
Question 199 What is Inclusive Teaching
What is Inclusive Teaching? 2. How do Personal Identity and Otherness work together? How do Personal Identify and Otherness work in isolation? 3. How do educator’s experiences affect inclusion? How will your personal biases affect your role as a teacher?
Question 200 Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals
Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals. According to Powell and Driver (2013), “teachers and school staff can talk with parents about the possibility of their child needing to undergo an evaluation for ADHD, but the official diagnosis must come from a medical professional or clinician (i.e., medical doctor, psychiatrist, or psychologist)” (Section 5.5). Reflect on what this statement means to you. How can you talk with parents about this subject without sounding as if you are diagnosing? What advice can you provide to parents who come to you with concerns about their child without implying that a disability is present? I need this assignment done by tomorrow
Question 201 Problems Students Face
Topic: Problems that students face Type: Documented persuasive essay Purpose: To convince the reader to believe as the author does using documented evidenceSources: 7 Quoted 5 non internet 3 different magazine or journal sources Length: 3 pages 1 Bibliography page
Question 202 What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences
Course Reflection Write a one- to two-page reflection that addresses the following: a.How has your own image of children with learning disabilities been affected during this class? b.What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences? c.How do you see this class affecting how you will plan and implement curricula for young children? d.What is one topic you might like to research and gain new information on based on your learning in class?
Question 203 children must develop strong self-regulation skills
Regardless of a child’s unique qualities, one thing remains the same; to improve learning and behavior, children must develop strong self-regulation skills. Read the article from the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC), “Developing Young Children’s Self-Regulation Through Everyday Experiences (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” The marshmallow experiment is a famous test conducted by Walter Mischel at Stanford University and discussed by Daniel Goleman in his popular work. In the 1960s, a group of four-year-olds were given a marshmallow and promised another only if they could wait 20 minutes before eating the first one. Some children could wait and others could not. The researchers then followed the progress of each child into adolescence, and demonstrated that those with the ability to wait were better adjusted and more dependable (determined via surveys of their parents and teachers), and scored an average of 210 points higher on the Scholastic Aptitude Test. Read the American Psychological Association (APA) article, “Delaying Gratification (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” Reflect on the information in the NAEYC article, the article, and your text and explain how toddlers with better self-regulation skills are less likely to demonstrate behavior problems in preschool. Explain why these self-regulation skills are so important and how you will promote the learning of self-regulation. How will you deliberately teach self-regulation as part of everyday experience? Share an example of your own self-regulation skills that you can model for others.
* It’s not letting me change the date, but I would need this today. You will watch two video clips this week; (1) The leadership style of General Patton from the 1970 Academy Award winning film Patton and (2) The leadership style of Colonel Lawrence Chamberlain in Gettysburg as he begins his leadership for the Union Army just prior to the Battle of Gettysburg. Patton video: Please analyze some of the transactional leadership skills of this heroic World War II leader to our quest of enhancing student learning in today’s schools. Consider Patton’s leadership strengths that could prove helpful in causing positive change in classrooms today, as well as aspects of Patton’s leadership that would not be effective or recommended in leading students today. Chamberlain video: One of Chamberlain’s first roles as a leader is to transform 120 mutineers into a fighting army. In this segment from the famed film titled Gettysburg, you will observe a revered transformational leader in action who helped change the course of American history. In a 3-4-page paper, identify the leadership style depicted in each of the video clips you viewed this week and compare/contrast the efforts made by the video leaders to develop a shared vision, establish a working relationship, and enlist others in the effort before them. Make relevant applications of these strengths to your leadership today in the classroom. In addition, please describe your thoughts about the benefits and/or disadvantages of adopting a transformational leadership style versus a transactional one. Cite information you have gleaned from your text readings. Include an APA appropriate reference page (view your APA handbook or online resources for assistance). Paper must follow APA 6th edition writing style.
Question 206 expanding
use the details from my Circle of Viewpoints document to write a post from the perspective of Thomas Jefferson, as if I was an actor portraying him in the discussion board.
Based on Attached file- 1. Provide an Abstract of the reading between 90-100 Words; 2. Two (2) issues for discussion of your choosing based on the reading; 3. Two (2) concepts that you did not know what they meant (or that were unclear to you) with your best definition/explanation of them. 4. The reading assignment should be two and half pages
take you away from the computer and into the streets (not literally). Find six people in your circle of acquaintances, colleagues, or friends, and then ask them the following questions: What kind of change have you experienced in an organization? In what way did the leaders in your organization prepare you for the change? (please be as specific as possible) How was the change communicated to the organization (i.e., suddenly, carefully planned communication)? Was there buy-in from the organization’s employees? Explain how you felt during the change. Describe your feelings after the change. What one thing would you do differently if you were leading the change? Once you have gathered the responses, analyze the answers, and then summarize your findings in a table structured in a comprehensible way that will help you convey your findings to readers. Next, create a PowerPoint, 12 powerpoint slides. Five scholarly resources, APA format. Example format inculded
Please change wording of answers for questions 6 and beyond. Respond to questions that have not been answers using same format. To answer these questions, expert must watch this documentary: http://www.dailymotion.com/video/x40jndd Lastly, write a 3-paragraph with a reflection of the documentary. NOTE: ANSWERS MUST BE DESCRIPTIVE AND WRITTEN IN FULL SENTENCES. ALL ANSWERS AND REFLECTION MUST BE AT THE UNIVERSITY LEVEL, EXPRESS CLEARLY, AND HAVE CORRECT GRAMMAR.
Using the recommendations and models presented on the websites www.susanireland.com and www.best-interview-strategies.com, develop (or update) your resume so that it is ready for your school counseling position search process. In addition to your resume, prepare a form cover letter that will serve as the template for your job search. Keep in mind that this letter will need to be modified depending on the school districts and schools to which you are applying. This document should be 4 pages in length. Job post for a cover letter: https://www.glassdoor.com/job-listing/counselor-teacherjobs-JV_IC1131270_KO0,9_KE10,21.htm?jl=2212370944
Compare and contrast the reasons why the Western Roman Empire ended in 476 and the Eastern Roman Empire
Use twelve point type and double space. Have a cover page with the title of your review, the course number and section, your name, date submitted, your tutor’s name and the word count. Use Chicago style footnotes. Write an essay in formal academic English (800-1000 words) on ONE of these topics:
How did the environments of six Physiographic regions of Canada
Assignment Format: All assignment are to be in 12 point font with a cover page with an assignment title, your name, course code Hist 112 DE, assignment number, word count and tutor’s name (Prof. Howard Hisdal) on the bottom. Use Chicago style footnoting and include a bibliography even if the only book you used was the textbook. Send in assignments as Microsoft Word attachments.
Development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americans
Directions: 1. Listen to podcast/radio show on “The Invention of Race” at https://www.wnyc.org/story/invention-race/ A summary of the show is “Compiled by Award-winning producer John Biewen from the “Seeing White” series. The Invention of Race traces the development of racial and racist ideas from the ancient world – when there was no notion of race – up to the founding of the United States as, fundamentally, a nation of and for white people.” 2. Create a timeline of the development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americas (up to the founding of the United States). Your timeline should include the date, and a few words on each event/law/action/etc. you chose that played a role in constructing race. Your timeline should reflect the evolution of understanding or thinking about race over time.
Lois Banner’s Steel Engraving Lady
Questions: 1. How did society view women in the Romantic period? 2. What were beauty ideals of the Romantic era? How did the steel engraving lady play into the concept of Romantic beauty ideals? 3. How did the popular clothing and silhouette of this period support society’s views on attaining ideal Romantic era beauty? 4. What were some of the ways women in this period tried to achieve ideal Romantic beauty? 5. Pick a picture from current fashion magazine today, attach it to your assignment book. Can you find any similarities to Romantic beauty ideals as discussed in the reading “Steel Engraving Lady” in the current fashion image that you chose?
two pages of letter style paper. Analyze the primary source documents by Samuel Seabury and Thomas Paine. Imagine that somehow the two had read each other’s works and had the chance to write to each other about independence and government. You will write two letters: one from Seabury to Paine and another from Paine to Seabury. What would have been their perspectives on government? What would they have said to each other?
Digital Source Analysis
write a short (400-500 word) dialogue between Adam Smith and Karl Marx in which they analyze the opening scenes of the movie. In the dialogue that you write, you should have each theorist draw upon their own writings to answer the following questions: 1. How would each analyze the conditions in the factory and the labor that the Little Tramp performs? 2. How would each explain the interactions between the Little Tramp and his co-workers? 3. How would each explain the “feeding machine” scene? 4. Why does the main character (the Little Tramp) have a nervous breakdown? 5. What is the remedy? (or, What would bring about a better future for the Little Tramp?) Please note that the dialogue should be written as a dialogue (like in a play). For example Karl Marx: Statement Adam Smith: Response to statement
To what extent did the age of European expansion impact the Chinese? Who benefited more from this seaborne interaction? Explain, with examples. 2. Compare and contrast the governmental systems of British and Spanish colonies in the Americas. Why were the British colonists of North America more inclined toward independence than their Spanish American counterparts? Explain, with examples.
Read Article and do three paragraphs on it based on this link https://worldwar1letters.wordpress.com/2009/06/ no longer than 450 words, but no shorter than 300. P1- Should provide the title of the source, a very brief summary of the text and say what students hope to critique-argue in P2. Students need to provide an argument-thesis driven statement. A summary alone is neither desirable nor enough to thoroughly complete the assignment. P2- Should be an analytical paragraph that provides (at least) one example from the text to support the author’s claim…ie. The slave’s story provides insight into the cruelty of the system, “insert quotation from text here.” Using direct quotations provides clarity and helps to support the author’s claims. P3- Should summarize briefly what was covered in P1 and P2 and also say something about the significance of this document for the study of world history and how it shows global interconnectivity. (How is the world connected?) Do not throw this paragraph away, put as much effort into it as P1 and P2.
Iron Jawed Angels
What to do: In this discussion, I would like you to write a post that touches on some of the following topics relating to Iron Jawed Angels (below). Make sure to incorporate specific details from the film AND specific details from lecture and readings to help back up your ideas. Anacronism: Can you think of a few examples in the film where the filmmaker took license with history? For example, where did they put in modern details, attitudes, or sensibilities to make the film resonate with a 21st century audience? (Anacronism = something, a word, object or an event, that is mistakenly paced in a time where is does not belong). We are not looking for obscure inaccuracies, just major ones that might be important when critiquing the overall value of the film. The whole story? Do you think that someone watching this movie will get an accurate depiction of how the 19th Amendment was won? Explain to reason for your answer with specific details from readings and lecture to show your knowledge . How does “Iron Jawed Angels” compare to our textbook and lecture accounts of the road to suffrage (1848-1920)? The merit of the film? What do you think is the greatest merit of the film? Are the anachronisms and limited chosen narrative outweighed by the film’s overall value? Provide specific examples to explain your answer.
Film as history. Whether we historians like it or not, many Americans get most of their ‘history’ from Hollywood films (and TV shows). These films may be inaccurate, biased toward modern sensibilities, or politically motivated. Are there dangers or advantages of using popular films to learn history? Provide specific examples to explain your answer. Discussion Directions: NOTE: This post needs to be your own work. This means: Resist the temptation to google “Iron Jawed Angels + Anachronism.” If you write some obscure details about the inaccuracy of number of stars on the American flag or incorrect door handles being used or how the wrist watches were from the wrong time period, I will be pretty sure that you looked up that information online (or else you will need to prove to me how you came to be so knowledgeable in the subject of historic door handles…). Please only use our readings and lectures this week as the basis for your discussion. Do not go online looking for additional information. One of your goals is to demonstrate that you have completed this week’s assigned materials. Also you will have to watch this lecture and give evidences from it. This is the link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VBsAeAz0yBQ&feature=youtu.be
Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION
Watch the entire “BE UNREALISTIC” (Ft. Will Smith) video: Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill TWO PARAGRAPHS (more 350 words per paragraph) respond to the following questions (after watching the entire video). First, notice that Will Smith tells stories about his life, and what lesson he learned from that experience. Second, write a SUMMARY of some of the key points that Will Smith makes in the video. Then, select ONE STATEMENT he makes that is the most significant one. Why was it picked and explain. NO HEADER OR FOOTER, NO RESEARCH, IT IS JUST AN OPINION PAPER, A SINGLE SHEET.
How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries
What major political challenges faced the new nations of the Western Hemisphere in the nineteenth century, and how well did they deal with those problems?* How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries?*
How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact
500 word discussion I will provide links for the topic Discussion topic: Rome was a city. Roman History is the story of a city that encompassed the known world. A new world order came into being that lasted for a thousand years. Its main components were: Roman law, Roman ethics, Roman practicality, Roman finance, Roman rule, Roman military strength, Roman science. Seeing it in perspective, Rome as a city conquered other great city-cultures. Choose ONE of the following and respond to it in 500 words after opening a new thread in DiscussionRome came into contact, early in her History, with neighboring cultures such as the Etruscans and the Greeks of southern Italy. How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact? Roman writers believed that Rome became a world power out of necessity. Since early in her expansion, Rome came to be in a state of perpetual war. Are there modern parallels to be drawn from contemporary powers that dwell in a state of perpetual war? Who gained the most from Rome’s war based economy and war inspired politics? Who gains in today’s states from their war based economy and war inspired politics?
ONE paragraph (350 words minimum) based on the information read. MUST start by giving the author, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What is the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from reading of this story/document? MSUT use ONE DIRECT QUOTE from the document. Post TITLE of document.
watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files
REQUIREMENTS: 12 Font, 350 words, single page, correctly identified the author, title and date of document, and information about the author, summary the document accurately, describing the main points that the author is making about the issue at hand, a direct quote from the document that will be provide is a MUST. Accurate details MUST describe the importance of the document relevant to the major issues of the time period..Again, will provide document to complete assignment.
Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain
Read EWC Document 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain,” and write a paragraph responding to the prompt at the end. (follow the link in the Canvas Module for Week 12 to access the document) Your response to the prompt should be about a paragraph in length but no longer than a page. It should begin with an introductory sentence that responds directly and completely to the prompt. This sentence establishes your main point (that is, your argument or thesis). In about four to six additional sentences, you should present evidence to support your thesis. Present at least two pieces of concrete evidence drawn from Document 29.7. You must cite any material paraphrased from the source document with a simple parenthetical citation. You must enclose any material taken word-for-word from the source document in quotation marks and cite it with a simple parenthetical citation. See the following examples: In this famous speech, British Prime Minister Winston Church warned that the Soviet Union controlled eastern European countries liberated from Nazi Germany after the end of World War II.
(EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) In this speech, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill famously warned that “an iron curtain has descended across” Europe, and that the Soviet Union exercised an “increasing measure of control” on the countries behind it. (EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) Be sure to analyze the evidence you present by explaining why it means what you think it means. Conclude your paragraph by restating your main point (that is, your argument/thesis/direct response to the prompt) and perhaps reflecting on the broader significance of the document you’ve read. Type your response in MS Word or any similar word processing software. Proofread your essay carefully to eliminate errors in grammar, punctuation, and usage. Save the file and then upload it to Canvas. Your work will be compared with the turnitin.com database to detect plagiarism by searching for similarities with internet sources and/or the work of other students around the world.
12 Font, 350 words, single page, writing pertains to the document that will be provided, which will require author’s name, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What was the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from the document? MUST use a direct quote from the document. DRAFT needed 2 days prior to due date. No research or citations needed.
watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files
watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files
James Davidson, Courtesans and Fishcakes.
Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?) .Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well.
Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of the book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 4-5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations.
Portfolio Reflection
In this module, we’ve learned a great deal about the value of history, how learning from the past may help provide definition to our present world perspective and how studying and learning from our ancient ancestors can potentially contribute in shaping our own future. Throughout this course, we have examined various civilizations and in each one we’ve learned about a myriad of aspects that helped influence our ancestors’ capacity to act responsibly and determine their roles or abilities to contribute to society. For this reflection, you will answer the question: “What can I, as an historian of the ancient world, learn and apply from the history of my ancient ancestors to my own role in contributing to and acting responsibly for the betterment of society?” In order to answer this question effectively for your reflection you must: Pick one common theme/criteria topic (from the list below) that you think significantly influenced an individual from the ancient world to act responsibly and contribute towards society. o Technology o Politics/Bureaucracy o Law/Ethics o Arts/Sciences o Economy/Business o Education o Military/Police o Religion/Morals & Traditions Explain how at least one specific example (one individual) from at least three different civilizations covered throughout this course supports your selected theme/criteria.
(So, your essay will talk about 3 different people – each from a different civilization that we discussed.) Support each of your examples with evidence from the articles in the M13 learning module about why we study history. In total, you must reference at least three of the articles in the learning activities, Support each of your examples with evidence from the module where we discussed their civilization (So, you will reference at least 3 learning modules in your paper.) Connect how understanding the history of your ancient ancestors in the context of your selected theme/ criteria has influenced your sense of responsibility and contributing role towards the betterment of society. In other words, what have you learned from their experiences that can help you act more responsibly today? Lastly, make sure you provide proper internal citations and a properly formatted bibliography This is going into your portfolio so be sure to make sure that you have fixed all grammatical and formatting issues before submission. For your bibliography, it does NOT have to be annotated. The only sources you’ll be using will be from your readings, so you MUST include internal citations and a full, properly MLA formatted bibliography with your paper, but you don’t need to annotated the sources in your bib. Your paper must be 2-3 pages in length (NOT including your bibliography) and follow MLA guidelines (double-spaced, 12pt. Times New Roman font, one-inch margins).
Applicant Cover Letter
To Apply: Applicants will need to submit a one-page cover letter (single-spaced) describing their motives and intent for applying for this position and interning at Pitt Community College (parent company for the newspaper). This letter should: 1) Indicate the applicant’s views concerning the value of studying history and the past. Does this internship (this course) have any value beyond fulfilling an educational requirement? Cover letters should also highlight any personal attributes, interests, and personal experiences that qualify the applicant for this position. 2) Demonstrate the applicant’s understanding of primary and secondary historical sources, the differences between these sources, and their ability to apply these sources critically to the past in order to create analytic interpretations of the past. 3) To show a final understanding of primary and secondary sources and your ability to perform as a historical journalist, conclude your cover letter by explaining the type of sources (primary/secondary) you will be creating for your readers when authoring news stories for AHL.
Is American History Learner a primary or secondary source? We will be looking specifically at the thoughtfulness to your answer of this question when evaluating applications. Be sure to review the syllabus and Internet Course Tutorial before forming your position on this question. You’ll need to have a good handle on what the course is trying to achieve to best answer this question. Submitting Application Applications should be uploaded through the Applicant Cover Letter link in the Summer Internship Module. Please make sure to submit applications by the due date indicated in Applicant Cover Letter link. Upon submission, intern applicants will be required to participate in a survey related to AHL as a source. (MANDATORY) Ensuring Success: Applicants’ cover letters will be assessed on three criteria. First, cover letters need to comprehensively fulfill cover letter requirements outlined above in the “To Apply” section. Second, submissions will be assessed based on the effective use of provided materials in preparing your application. The meat of your analysis should be based on the “What is History and How Do We Practice It?” lesson. (We’ll be looking to see who shows a strong understanding of the materials provided.) Third, cover letters must be composed and submitted in a standardized and professional cover letter format stipulated in the examples provided in the “Applicant Resources” section of the module.
Thomas Nast Obituary
Obituary Format and Objectives: Formatting: Obituaries need to be a minimum of one page, double-spaced and written in size 12 Times New Roman font. American History Learner is committed to journalistic integrity and accuracy. Journalists will need to note any sources that were used in completing this assignment. Objectives: Brief description of the individual’s age, location, and cause of death. Basic description of the individual’s major professional/personal achievements. What should this person be most remembered (legacy) for historically? Obituary needs to place this discussion of the individual in a historic context by describing some of the premier social, political, economic, or cultural events defining the period the individual lived. Integration of primary and secondary sources in your historical analysis. At American History Learner our focus is on historical and journalistic integrity. Obituaries need not glamorize or patronize individuals. Your obituary needs to be professional, unbiased, and note both accomplishments and offer valid criticisms when necessary. Provide an appropriate and creative title for this piece. Our research department has compiled some basic resources you may be interested in consulting when writing your first assignment.
See Module 2 Resources. Notes on Success: Management will be looking closely at your first piece for American History Learner. We will assess the effectiveness of your obituary based on some of the following criteria: historical accuracy, meeting of obituary goals, demonstration of understanding of historical significance and context of the individual, style and grammar, commitment/genuineness/inventiveness, and originality and journalistic integrity. While you have a series of provided readings on Nast that will serve as the research basis of your assignment, it is a good idea to first read the general historical concepts in your textbook that this assignment is built upon. The following portions of your textbook are all historically relevant to this study: Here’s a list of the readings that would be a helpful backdrop when considering the historical context of Thomas Nast. Reconstruction: Chapter 16 Introduction and parts 16.1, 16.3 Industrialization and Urbanization: Chapter 18 Introduction and 18.3 Chapter 19 Introduction and parts 19.1, 19.3, and 19.4 Needless to say, American History Learner is committed to academic and journalistic integrity. Any violation of our parent company, Pitt CC’s academic integrity and plagiarism policy, will result in automatic termination. See your employee handbook and Internet Course Tutorial for a more specific elaboration of AHL’s standards. Please provide an appropriate, creative title with your submission.
Critical responses must identify the main objectives/points of the articles/videos. What do the authors commonly agree upon and/or state as their central focus? How are these articles and videos “speaking” to one another or, are divergent ideas presented? Additionally, students must analyze central points made by authors to develop their own thesis and construct their own claims.
How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century
How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century? Provide specific evidence from the textbook to support your response. The author podcast is also a good resource. http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/04/podcast.aspx (due 6/6/19) 5.Discuss the ways in which both supporters and opponents of independence used the concepts of ‘freedom’ and ‘slavery’ during the American Revolution. Be sure to consider the perspectives of both free and enslaved peoples. Chapter 5 Podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/05/podcast.aspx (due 6/7/19) 6.Read the documents located on pages 248 and 249. In one essay address the questions at the end of page 249. Chapter 6 author podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/06/podcast.aspx (due 6/10/19)
Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people
Do not use the internet or web resources to respond to this discussion board question(s). Use Yefru’s work and the readings on eLearn to participate in this discussion. Be sure that you review the discussion board requirements on your syllabus for full credit. Be original in your thinking as well. So, as you are composing your posts, be sure to write your post in your own words, your own voice, while placing quotations around a sentence or two that you may lift from the text to support your opinion. But remember that your opinion is taken from your clear and concise understanding of the critical ideas from the readings. #1. Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people. How are their ideas similar or different to one another? Be sure to know that Kant and Hume were white philosophers and Blyden and Crummell were African Americans who lived during the 1800s; evidence the sources from eLearn. However, all responses must be written in your OWN words. #2. Why is Dr. Yefru having this conversation about Hume, Kant. Blyden and Crummell in his introductory chapter? Sit with this question a bit. This is an introductory course to the discipline of Africana studies where we promote African-centered critical thinking (which we will discuss next week.) Why is this discussion important for Yefru? What does Yefru think about the ideas of Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell?
Miss education of the negro
NOTE: YOU HAVE TO USE THE Mis-education of the Negro AND THREE OUTSIDE READINGS OF YOUR CHOICE FROM THOSE ASSIGNED IN CLASS TO COMPOSE YOUR PRECISE. KEYS TO COMPOSING A HIGH QUALITY PRECIS (1) Please identify a common theme covered in the book and the articles (race, gender or class etc). (2) Upon identifying this theme which is present in the works, organize your information to address the questions associated with the assignment in paragraph form (see the syllabus). Your discussion will first start with the book and through the common theme incorporate the outside readings. (3) Proofread your essay and make sure it follows the formatting guidelines and cites the relevant materials in the proper way. PLEASE FIND THE CHICAGO STYLE GUIDE ATTACHED TO THIS MESSAGE WHICH SPECIFICALLY APPLIES TO YOUR BIBLIOGRAPHY AND FOOTNOTES. ***Also, an example paper is attached.***
What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction
Part I: Short Answer Answer EACH in a paragraph (or two) per question. 1. What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction? What problems made reconstruction so difficult? 2. What were the main forms of white resistance to the efforts of reconstructionists? What were the black codes? What effect did they have? 3. What were the various meanings of freedom that emerged after emancipation among freed blacks? How was this resisted by white southerners? 4. What was involved in the “redeeming” of the South? How and why did this occur? Why did white supremacy become the foundation of southern politics in the 1870’s? 5. What were the main ways Indians resisted attempts to annihilate them (and their culture)? 6. Explain “Social Darwinism” and “laissez-faire” economics (particularly as they related to the “Gilded Age”). 7. Identify the following and explain how each acquired his fortune (both in terms of industry and tactics): Jay Gould, Andrew Carnegie, and John D. Rockefeller. 8. What role did the federal government play in the growth and profitability of the railroads (including in response to strikes)? 9. What were the various positions people took on the currency (or “free silver”) debate(s) in the Gilded Age and why did they take these various positions? 10. Explain “bossism.” What were it’s advantages and disadvantages?
11. Explain the spoils system. How did it eventually end and why did its demise lead to the increase in the influence of business in politics? 12. Why was there an increase in lynchings at the end of the 19th century? 13. Explain the role of women in politics in the last decades of the nineteenth century. What causes did they endorse, what obstacles did they face, and what role did the “cult of domesticity” play in their tactics/power? 14. Compare the roles played in policy and public life by the Republican and Democratic parties during Reconstruction and during the Gilded Age. What causes did they support and what kinds of voters and support did each attract during each of these periods? 15. Explain the nature of migration and immigration during the last half of the 19th-century. 16. Explain the goals and programs of both the Farmers Alliance and the People’s Party (Populist Party). 17. What were the main issues motivating the labor unions during the Gilded Age, how did they try to achieve them, and why were they unsuccessful? 18. Identify each of the following and explain why they were important: Homestead lockout, Cripple Creek miners’ strike, Pullman boycott, and Coxey’s army. 19. Identify and explain each of the following: Monroe Doctrine, Open Door policy, and yellow journalism. 20. How did the U.S. come to control Cuba, the Philippines, Puerto Rico, and Guam?
21. Why, and in what ways, did the situation of Black Americans actually worsen during the Progressive Era? Explain the case of Plessy v. Ferguson. 22. Explain the contrasting views of Booker T. Washington and W.E.B. Dubois. 23. Explain the ideology of the Progressives, both in terms of the “social gospel” and in terms of their understanding of Darwinism. (Illustrate with examples of actions they undertook.) 24. Compare the following: anarchists, socialists, and progressives. 25. Explain Roosevelt’s “square deal” and describe his actions as both reformer and conservationist. 26. How did Wilsons’ progressivism differ from Roosevelt’s? How did Wilson’s progressive agenda change during his presidency? 27. Explain Wilson’s notion of “national determination” and explain why it was problematic. 28. Explain how and why dissent was suppressed during World War I and comment on its possible effects. 29. In what sense, and why, had American culture drastically changed after World War I? 30. Describe and explain the “Great Migrations” of Black Americans and Mexicans during the early 20th century.
31. What were the causes of the economic crisis (1928-1932) that led to the Great Depression? Part II: Essay Answer these in seperate essays of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle between labor and management/ownership in U.S. history from the Civil War to 1932. In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. B. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle for women’s rights during this period (1865-1932). In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. C. In what sense might we consider the United States an imperialist country during the post-Civil War era up to the end of Word War I? In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims.
The limits of power
This is a book review on The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism. Here is the instructions by my teacher: II. Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?). Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well. Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations Biographical Sketch: Andrew J. Bacevich, Sr. (born 1947 in Normal, Illinois) is a professor of international relations at Boston University and a retired career officer in the United States Army.
He is a former director of Boston University’s Center for International Relations (from 1998 to 2005), and author of several books, including American Empire: The Realities and Consequences of US Diplomacy (2002), The New American Militarism: How Americans are Seduced by War (2005) and The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism (2008). He has been “a persistent, vocal critic of the US occupation of Iraq, calling the conflict a catastrophic failure.”[1] In March 2007, he described George W. Bush’s endorsement of such “preventive wars” as “immoral, illicit, and imprudent.”[1][2] His son, also an Army officer, died fighting in the Iraq War in May 2007.[1]
The Impact of Globalization on Conflict
Think about the previous examination of China. For this project, your job is to write the content for a new page of this course titled India and Globalization. After reading your page, other students should be able to do the following: Identify positive effects of globalization on India Identify negative effects of globalization on India Compare modern U.S. relations with India to relations with China Your pages should include commentary with your thoughts on the following question: Why does the U.S. have a better chance of maintaining long-term strong relations with India than it does with China? Include a picture with a caption to go on your page. You may find images using the Google image search function with key words such as: India, Globalization, industry, economy, and trade Include a list of four more websites or articles that you read to support the information on your page. (You should not include the websites below.) Use the The CIA Country Factbook to review data about India’s people and its economy, and then use the rest of the links to examine globalization’s effects on India. BBC News: Is globalisation a force for good in India? Economy Watch: Globalization in India Effects of Globalization on Indian Industry Use a search engine to find more information about globalization’s effect on India by searching with the following key words: “globalization, India, trade, economy, media, effect”
Homeworknest.com – Get Solutions to Accounting homework
QUESTION 1
Jean Marsh Jean Marsh owns a small business making and selling children’s toys. The following trial balance was extracted from her books on 31 December 2020. DR$ CR $ 15,000 2,000 90,000 3,400 6,100 18,000 800 18,500 16,900 10,400 Capital Drawings Sales Inventory at 1 January 2020: Raw materials Finished goods Purchases of raw materials Carriage inwards Factory wages Office salaries J Marsh: salary and expenses General expenses: Factory Office Lighting Rent Insurance Advertising Bad debts Discount received Carriage outwards Plant and machinery, at cost less depreciation Car, at cost less depreciation Bank Cash in hand Accounts receivable and accounts payable 1,200 750 2,500 3,750 950 1,400 650 1,600 375 9,100 4,200 3,600 325 7,700 112,600 6,000 112,600 You are given the following additional information: 1. Inventory on 31 December 2020: Raw materials $2,900. Finished goods $8,200 there was no work in progress. 2. Depreciation for the year is to be charged as follows: Plant and machinery $1,500. Car $500. 3. On 31 December 2020 insurance paid in advance was $150 and office general expenses unpaid were $75. 4. Lighting and rent are to be apportioned: 4/5 factory; 1/5 office. Insurance is to be apportioned: 4 Factory; 4 offices. 5. Jean is a business salesperson and her salary and expenses are to be treated as selling expenses. She has sole use of the business car. Required: For the year ended 31 December 2020 prepare: (a) the manufacturing account showing prime cost and factory cost of production. (b) The trading account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss. (c) The profit or loss account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss distinguishes between administrative and selling costs. (d) A Statement of Financial Position as of 31 December 2020.
QUESTION 2
Mlangozi Limited sells plumbing fixtures on terms of 2/10 net 30. Its financial statements for the last three years are as follows: 2018 Sh.?000? 2019 Sh.?000? 2020 Sh.?000? Cash 30000 20000 5000 Accounts receivable 200000 260000 290000 Inventory 400000 480000 600000 Net fixed asset 800000 800000 800000 Accounts payable 230000 300000 380000 Accruals 200000 210000 225000 Bank loan, short term 100000 100000 140000 Long term debt 300000 300000 300000 Common stock 100000 100000 100000 Retained earnings 500000 550000 550000 Additional information: Sales 4000000 4300000 3800000 Cost of goods 3200000 3600000 3300000 sold Net profit 300000 200000 100000 Required:
a) For each of the three years, analyze the company’s trends in profitability, liquidity, and efficiency (12 Marks)
b) comment on the factors that may have caused the changes in profitability and liquidity from the above analysis (3 Marks)
QUESTION 3
Serra do Mar Corporation manufactures and distributes leisure clothing. Selected transactions completed by the Serra do Mar during the current fiscal year are as follows: 8. Split the common stock 3 for 1 and reduced the par from $18 to $6 per share. After the split, there were 600,000 common shares outstanding. Mar. 20. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on 20,000 shares of preferred stock and $0.14 on the 600,000 shares of $10 par common stock to stockholders of record on March 31, payable on April 20. Jan. Apr. 20. Paid the cash dividends. May 8. Purchased 50,000 shares of the corporation’s own common stock at $48, recording the stock at cost. Actions: Organization, Capital Stock Transactions, and Dividends Aug. 2. Sold 30,000 shares of treasury stock at $56, receiving cash. Sept. 15. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on the preferred stock and $0.07 on the common stock (before the stock dividend). In addition, a 1% common stock dividend was declared on the common stock outstanding, to be capitalized at the fair market value of the common stock, which is estimated at $52. Oct. 15. Paid the cash dividends and issued the certificates for the con on the stock dividend. Instructions T? Journalize the transactions.
QUESTION 4
Discuss the effect of the intercompany sale of the building Khap Corporation acquired an 80 percent interest in Khun Corporation in 2014. On January 1, 2016, Khap sold a building with a five-year remaining useful life to Khun for $150,000 cash. The building’s book value was $100,000. Khun still owns the building on December 31, 2016.
REQUIRED
How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016, and the balance of Khap’s Investment in the Khun account on December 31, 2016?
How will the consolidated financial statement of Khap Corporation and Subsidiary for 2016 be affected by the intercompany sale of the building?
How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2017 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun account on December 31, 2017, if Khun still owns the building in 2017?
If Khun sold the building back to Khap at the same price and date, how and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun’s account at December 31, 2016?
QUESTION 5
The Glass Co. has a firm commitment dated April 1 to purchase cocoa with delivery on June 15. The commitment is for 1,000 metric tons of cocoa at P700 per ton. In order to hedge against decreases in the spot prices of cocoa, the company designated an option as a hedge against changes in the fair value of the commitment. The put option was acquired on April 1 for a premium of P1, 000 and has a strike price of P700 per ton. The option has a notional amount of 1,000 tons and an expiration date of June 15. Spot prices per ton and the value of the option at selected dates are as follows: April 1 April 30 May 31 June 15 Spot price per ton P701 P696 P697 P695 Fair value of option P1,000 P4,300 P3,500 P5,000 The change in the option’s time value will be excluded from an assessment of hedge effectiveness or split accounting is used. What is the gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on May 31, gain or (loss) on option contract on May 31, gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on June 15, and gain or loss on option contract on June 15, respectively?
QUESTION 6
2-38 Labor cost, overtime, and idle time. Jim Anderson works in the production department of Midwest Steelworks as a machine operator Jim, a long-time employee of Midwest, is paid on an hourly basis at a rate of $20 per hour. Jim works five-hour shifts per week Monday-Friday (40 hours). Any time Jim works over and above these 40 hours is considered overtime for which he is paid at a rate of time and a half 1830 per hour). If the overtime falls on weekends, Jim is paid at a rate of double time ($40 per hour), Jim is also paid an additional $20 per hour for any holidays worked, even if it is part of his regular 40 hours Jim is paid his regular wages even if the machines are down (not operating due to regular machine maintenance, slow order periods, or unexpected mechanical problems. These hours are considered “idle time.” During December Jim worked the following hours: Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Hours worked including machine downtime 44 3.5 43 6.4 48 5.8 46 2 60 CHAPTER 2 AN INTRODUCTION TO COST TERMS AND PURPOSES Included in the total hours worked are two company holidays Christmas Eve and Christmas Day during Week 4. All overtime worked by Jim was Monday-Friday, except for the hours worked in Week 3. All of the Week 3 overtime hours were worked on a Saturday Required 1. Calculate {n} direct manufacturing labor, (b) idle time, (c) overtime and holiday premium, and (d) total earnings for Jim in December 2 Is idle time and overtime premium a direct or indirect cost of the products that Jim worked on in December? Explain
QUESTION 7
Company XYZ is looking for a Finance/Accounting intern. The student filling this position will handle a wide range of important duties.
Responsibilities
*Assist with month-end financial reports
*Post journal entries
*Help with accounts receivable, payable, and bank statement reconciliation
*Assist with audits
*Balance sheet reconciliation
*Work with the finance team on yearly forecasting efforts*Manage the monthly tracking of our physical inventory
*Support the payment processing team
*Data entry
*Credit checks
Requirements
Applicants should be Business, Finance, Economics or Accounting majors, proficient in Microsoft Office applications. Attention to detail, the ability to multi-task and excellent communication skills are all essential to this position.
Majors
Business, Finance, Economics, Accounting
QUESTION 8
Which of the following basic elements of financial statements is more associated with the balance sheet than the income statement?
You can get economics assignments help from our expert economic assignment essay writers at Homework Nest today. Find an economics prof at homeworknest.com
Econ 3057, 4438, 8038: Industrial
Organisation
Assignment 6 solution
Semester I 2020
Due: Friday May 29th at 5 pm
[30 points] Freezeme is the unique supplier of refrigerators in a market with two types
of consumers. Each consumer is interested in buying at most one unit. Refrigerators
might come in di¤erent qualities. From any given quality level S, a consumer of type
1 derives a utility of
U1 = S p;
and a consumer of type 2 gets utility
U2 = S p;
where p is the price, and > 1 is a constant. If a consumer does not buy, his/her
utility is 0. Freezeme found out that there are 100 consumers of type 1 and 70 of type
2.
Freezeme has a marginal cost of production of 10 (regardless of quality) and the
(quantity-independent) cost of developing a product of quality S is S2
2 .
(a) Suppose Freezeme develop two refrigerators, one of quality S1, the other one of
quality S2, with S2 > S1. Freezeme.s product manager I.S. Cold claims that
their products can be considered as being vertically di¤erentiated. Is she right?
Explain your answer. [4 points]
(b) Suppose that Freezeme could distinguish between consumers of type 1 and con-
sumers of type 2. Freezeme wants to develop two di¤erent fridges to serve the two
di¤erent types of consumers. What would Freezeme.s optimal price and quality
for each group of consumers be? [For each given quality, the .rm uses uniform
1
pricing. That is, the .rm charges pi for product with quality Si, i = 1; 2.] Assume
that the .rm can prevent arbitrage. [8 points]
(c) Under which condition is the quality produced for type 2 consumers greater than
the quality for type 1 consumers? Explain why the .rm would ever want to o¤er
a product of lower quality to the higher valuation type consumers. [4 points]
Assume for the remainder of this problem that Freezeme is unable to distinguish
between consumers of type 1 and consumers of type 2. Also assume that the
condition you identi.ed in part (c) holds.
(d) Freezeme wants to serve the two types of consumers with two di¤erent qualities,
S1 and S2. The .rm wants to .nd the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that
maximize their pro.t. [(Si; pi) for type i of consumers.] In order to do so, they
need to separate the two types of consumers. Given a menu f(S1; p1); (S2; p2)g,
write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers purchase the
products. Write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers
prefer to purchase the quality price pair intended for them rather than the one
intended for the other type. [These constraints will be in terms (S1; p1) and
(S2; p2).] [4 points]
(e) Find the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that maximize Freezemen.s pro.t
assuming that the .rm wants to o¤er two di¤erent qualities S2 > S1. [Hint: Two
out of the four inequalities constraints will be binding.] [10 points]
2
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Start a new post with the following information and give it an appropriate subject, like “Patton
Ch 1”:
a) From the appropriate chapter, select a question from the Questions for
Review from the end of the appropriate chapter in the e-book, (copy) the question in your
initial post (1 point).
b) Using your own words, correctly answer the selected question (2 points).
c) Read and reply to another classmate’s post (1 point).
d) Provide a thoughtful and correct reply (1 point).
Use the data in HAPPINESS.RAW for this question. See also Computer Exercise C15 in Chapter 13.
(i) Estimate a probit probability model relatingvhappytooccattendandregattend, and include a full set of year dummies. Find the average partial effects foroccat- tendandregattend. How do these compare with those from estimating a linear probability model?
(ii) Define a variable,highinc, equal to one if family income is above $25,000. Includehighinc,unem10,educ, andteensto the probit estimation in part (ii). Is the APE ofregattendaffected much? What about its statistical significance?
(iii) Discuss the APEs and statistical significance of the four new variables in part (ii). Do the estimates make sense?
(iv) Controlling for the factors in part (ii), do there appear to be differences in happi- ness by gender or race? Justify your answer.
Attachments:
How does the DD schedule shift if there is a decline in investment demand? 2. Suppose there is a permanent fall in private aggregate demand for a country’s output (a downward shift of the entire aggregate demand schedule). What is the effect on output? What government policy response would you recommend? 3. A new government is elected and announces that once it is inaugurated, it will increase the money supply. Use the DD-AA model to study the economy’s response to this announcement.
During the current COVID-19 pandemic many countries have imposed quarantine on their
populations in order to limit/ stop the spread of the disease and avoid overload on the health
system. While these measures are justified from the health perspective, they have major economic
consequences. In this assignment you are asked to analyse different economic aspects related to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
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manager of a nightclub realizes that demand for drinks is more elastic among students and is trying to determine the optimal pricing schedule. Specifically, he estimates the following average demand for his customer types: Under 25: q^r=18-5p Over 25: q=10-2p The two age groups visit the nightclub in equal numbers on average. Assume that drinks cost the club $2 to make. If the manager cannot identify to which group his customers belong, what is the uniform monopoly price? If the manager can identify to which group his customers belong, what price will he charge each group. Assume the manager can only charge a single price to each group. If the manager can charge a separate entry fee and a price per drink for each group, what two-part price will the manager set for reach group. Now suppose that once again it is impossible to identify which group the customers belong. Suppose the manager lowers the price of drinks to equal to marginal cost and still wanted to attract both customers, what entry fee would the manager set?
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A student has to decide whether to go to a party on the night before an exam. If they go to the
party, then they have the probability ? of writing a good exam and the probability 1 ? of writing
a bad exam. If they do not go to the party, then they have the probability > ? of writing a good
exam.
The student has the utility u = x1/2 + H if they go to the party and get the mark x on the exam.
But, if they do not go to the party they have the utility u = x1/2. The professor gets to choose xb
(the mark she gives to bad exams) and xg the mark she gives to good exams. Students also have
the option of going to the party and then quitting the course. This gives them the utility U + H
where U > 0.
(a) What is the student’s expected utility from going to the party and her expected utility from
not going to the party?
(b) Assuming students do not quit the course, what marks (xg, xb) can the professor set to stop
students partying? Draw a picture of this set of marks with yg = pxg on one axis and
yb = pxb on the other. Explain how this set changes as H and ? change.
(c) What marks can the professor set so the students prefer partying and taking the exam to
quitting the course? What marks can the professor set so the students prefer not partying and
taking the exam to quitting the course? Show these sets on a new picture.
(d) Suppose that the professor wants to promote equity and thus aims to make the di?erence
xg xb as small as possible while still stopping students from going to the party, but she
ignores the possibility that students will quit the course. What marks (xg, xb) should she set
to achieve her objective? Will this result in the outcome she planned?
(e) Suppose now the professor wants to minimise xg xb while still getting students to not party
and attend the course. Plot the contours of her objective function on your (yg, yb) picture.
What marks (xg, xb) should she set to achieve her objective now?
(f) The professor has other variables that she can control: she can make the exam harder, which
decreases and ?, and she can make the party fail by calling the campus authorities, which
decreases H. How does each of these variables a?ect her ability to achieve the objectives
described above?
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
Demand components: Consumption
b) What factors usually determine individual consumption? In light of these factors analyse
how the situation with the COVID-19 pandemic is likely to affect aggregate consumption.
Use the theory studied in the course in your answer. You may want to provide some
examples for your chosen country.
Part 3 (20 marks)
Demand components: Investment and net exports
Analyse the effects of the COVID-19 pandemic on investment and trade (exports and imports, in
particular). Refer to the theories studied in the course. Provide some examples from your chosen
country. Do you think investment and trade will also be affected after the pandemic is over?
Explain.
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The tabulation of the incremental cash ?ows between alternatives A and B is shown on the next page. Alternative A has a 3-year life and alternative B a 6-year life. If neither alternative has a salvage value, what is ( a ) the ?rst cost of alternative A and ( b ) the ? rst cost of alternative B? Year Incremental Cash Flow (B – A), $ 0 –20,000 1 5,000 2 5,000 3 12,000 4 5,000 5 5,000 6 5,000
Based on consulting economist’s report, th total and marginal cost functions for Advanced Electronics, Inc. are
TC = 200 + 5Q – 0.04Q2 + 0.001Q3
MC = 5 – 0.08Q + 0.003Q2
The president of the company determines that knowing only these equations is inadequate for decision making. You have been directed to do the following:
Determine the level of fixed cost (if any) and equations for average total cost.
Determine the rate of output that results in minimum average variable cost
If fixed costs increase to $500, what output rate will result in minimum average variable cost
You are given the following model:
appr = b 0 + b1 loanprc + b 2atotinc +b 3 atotinc.^2sq. + b4obrat + b5pubrec + u,
4 5 2 b 0 b1 b 2 b 3 b b ,
in which:
– approve: =1 if loan is approved, and 0 if not.
– obrat: other obligations, % of total income
– pubrec: = 1 if filed for bankruptcy
– atotinc: Total monthly income
– loanprc: loan amount /purchase price
– atotinc.^2sq. = atotinc* atotinc
What sign would you expect from each partial slope coefficient in the model above? Justify your answers.
From the estimation of model above, one can obtain the following:
Interpret the coefficients of pubrec, and of loanprc.
How do you explain the signs of atotinc and atotinc^2 ?
Assuming that global international trade sharply declines because of the “trade war” (in the forms
of increases in tariff and other trade barriers such as import quota and export subsidies on both
sides) between the U.S. and China, the U.S. and the European Union, and the U.S. and Japan.
Everything being equal, explain in 700-800 words the likely impact on the following:
• Global productivity, economic growth and inflation
• Australian consumers who buy goods imported from China, Japan and the United States.
• Australian producers who need to source from both China and the United States.
• Australian exporters such as a mining company who exports iron ore and coal to China and
Japan.
An economy produces three goods: houses, guns, and apples. The price of each is $1. For the purposes of this problem, assume that all exchange involving houses involves newly constructed houses.
(a) Households buy 10 houses and 90 apples, eating them. The government buys 10 guns. There is no other economic activity. What are the values of the different components of GDP (consumption, investment, government spending, exports/imports)?
(b) The next year, households buy 10 houses and 90 apples. The government buys 10 guns. Farmers take the seeds from 10 more apples and plant them. Households then sell 10 apples to France for $1 each and buy 10 bananas from Canada for $2 each, eating them too. What are the values of the components of GDP?
(c) Return to the economy in part 1a. The government notices that the two richest households consume 40 apples each, while the ten poorest consume one each. It levies a tax of 30 apples on each of the rich households, and gives 6 apples each to the 10 poorest households. All other purchases by households and the government are the same as in
(a). Calculate the components of GDP.
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A company must purchase one reactor to be used in an overall operation. Four reactors have been designed, all of which are equally capable of giving the required service. The following data apply to the four designs:
Q1: Cost-saving proposals 600 words (max. 200 words per proposal)Recognising these cost elements of this business, or a typical business like this, propose ways it can cleverly save costs (be more cost-efficient) by: (i) reducing fixed cost (ii) reducing variable cost (iii) cost-shifting (passing on/sharing part of the costs onto customers, workers, the government, the public in general etc.) (iv) aiming to achieve better economies of scale ?Propose three cost-saving ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: two of (i) and one of (ii). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any).
Q2: Competitive strategy proposals 600 words (max. 200 word per proposal) What competitive strategy can your chosen business use to gain an advantage in sales over its rivals? ? (i) the five generic competitive strategies (ii) the 4Cs (contrast, combination, constraint, context) (iii) the 4Qs (questions: 1. Is your business relevant? Can you make it more relevant/offer real or essential or higher consumer needs? 2. Are customers dependent on you or not? How to make them more dependent? 3. Do customers prefer us to our competitors? How to make them prefer us? 4. Are we excellent at something? How do we become excellent compared to rivals?)(iv) six ways to differentiate yourself (product, service, channel, relationship etc.) ?Propose three ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: (ii), (ii) again, and (iv). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any)
In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on household income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged. The government would now like you to help them understand “hoarding” behaviour and its effect on the market. We will define
hoarding behaviour as the tendency to buy excessive amounts of a good, though individuals are not expected to usemore of the good. For example, the government sees that individuals are hoarding toilet paper—they are buying excessive amounts, though they are using a normal amount. (6 marks) a. You decide to describe individual hoarding behaviour using game theory. You model the behaviour using a simultaneous game between two players. Assume the actions that each player can choose are to “hoard” or “not hoard”. You are seeing that nearly everyone people in society is engaging in various types of hoarding behaviours, even though everyone would be better off without any hoarding. What type of game can best describe the decision to “hoard” versus “not hoard”? (1 marks)
Given your answer to part (a), assign a set of real payoffs to each action, drawthe normal form game and defineand describethe Nash Equilibrium. (3 marks)
Is the Nash Equilibrium socially efficient? If not, what types of policy might you recommend to encourage individuals to achieve an outcome that is efficient? (2 marks)
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Find a real world example from 2019-2020 of a change in market conditions, for example an observed change in prices or the quantity of a good or service. Using theories of economics, such as the demand and supply model, explain the impact of changing market conditions on the price and quantity of goods or services traded. The real world example:
will be sourced from newspapers or other media.
be for a specific city, country or global and over some time period.
The assignment must, as a minimum, include:
an introduction;
a description of the relevant market, including the product or service, location and degree of competitiveness;
an analysis (including appropriate diagrams) of how changing market conditions are influencing or have influenced or may influence prices/quantities, and
a conclusion.
In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on individuals’ income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged with and without social distancing. Now that people are “social distancing” and are on home quarantine they are spending significantly more time at home and have more free time since they do not need to commute to work. In part (a), (b) and (c), you need to discuss how the market moves (what happens to supply and demand) and thus what happens to the equilibrium price and quantity. (5 marks) a. Ceteris paribus, describe with graph and words what happens in the market for online moving streaming, e.g. Netflix. Assume there is only oneonline moving streaming service. You do not need to consider the market for other goods. (2 marks)
Given you answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for books, which is a perfectly competitive market (consider both digital and print books as a single category). Your answer should consider two key “facts” of the case: (1) people have more time at home and (2) people are watching more movies. (2 marks)
Given your answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for popcorn. You should assume that even in the time of the pandemic, people enjoy eating popcorn while watching a movie. (1 mark)
Using the principles of economics covered in learning materials from week 1 to week 10 inclusive,
students should apply their understanding to analyse the macroeconomic issues and the policy
responses. Students are expected to conduct some basic research and to reference journal articles,
professional websites and other sources in the process.
Required:
The due date for this group assignment is Week 10.
Total marks: 80
Based on the article above, you are required to complete the following questions:
1. Using a diagram, illustrate and describe Australia’s rate of inflation since 2000. (10 marks)
2. Describe the measures undertaken by the Reserve Bank of Australia in combating inflation while
maintaining low unemployment. Discuss whether they have been successful. (20 marks)
3. Discuss the impacts (both positive and negative) of inflation which have influenced the
macroeconomic variables of the real Gross Domestic Product and total employment of Australia.
(20 marks)
4. Describe the type(s) of unemployment Australia is currently facing? Analyse how these types of
unemployment affect the Australian economy. (20 marks)
5. Using examples from the article, explain the following microeconomic concepts. (10 marks)
i. Diseconomies of scale
ii. Negative externalities
6. i. Overall presentation/formatting of the group report. (5 marks)
ii. Referencing (formatting and accuracy). (5 marks)
Using the principles of economics covered in learning materials from week 1 to week 10 inclusive,
students should apply their understanding to analyse the macroeconomic issues and the policy
responses. Students are expected to conduct some basic research and to reference journal articles,
professional websites and other sources in the process.
Required:
The due date for this group assignment is Week 10.
Total marks: 80
Based on the article above, you are required to complete the following questions:
1. Using a diagram, illustrate and describe Australia’s rate of inflation since 2000. (10 marks)
2. Describe the measures undertaken by the Reserve Bank of Australia in combating inflation while
maintaining low unemployment. Discuss whether they have been successful. (20 marks)
3. Discuss the impacts (both positive and negative) of inflation which have influenced the
macroeconomic variables of the real Gross Domestic Product and total employment of Australia.
(20 marks)
4. Describe the type(s) of unemployment Australia is currently facing? Analyse how these types of
unemployment affect the Australian economy. (20 marks)
5. Using examples from the article, explain the following microeconomic concepts. (10 marks)
i. Diseconomies of scale
ii. Negative externalities
6. i. Overall presentation/formatting of the group report. (5 marks)
ii. Referencing (formatting and accuracy). (5 marks)
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Explain the difference between monopoly and monopoly power. In reality, do monopolists always have more monopoly power than firms in oligopolistic sectors? Why or why not? With the aid of an example,
Question1
In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics(NBS)as indicated by the table below:
Production in Nepal
Position
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
X
Y
Z
Rice (1000 tons)
0
10
26
37
45
50
55
59
66
77
80
Machinery (units)
90
89
85
80
75
70
65
60
50
30
0
Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier(PPF)for Nepal can be plotted as below:
Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:
A.Name positions B, V and D. Also,as indicated in thetable, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice??????????(3marks)
B.Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:
B1:Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers.Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizerson Nepal’s economy usingone of thePPF above.
(2marks)
B2:Also,supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steelon the economy of Nepal usingone of the PPF above. (2 marks)
B3:Finally, theMinister of Finance in Nepal advicesthe World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion.This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank.Explain the impact ofthese 100 billion budgetary allocationsto the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above.??(3 marks)
Assessment Question Week 3:
Markets in Action: Demand and Supply
Question 2
Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply forriceat various prices, answer the questions that follow.
Thegraph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the tablebelowidentifying the shortage or surplus.
Price (10kg bag)
Demand
(10 kg bags)
Supply (SS)
(10 kg bags)
Surplus (+)
Shortage (-)
10
89
29
20
70
40
30
55
55
40
39
67
50
25
80
60
11
95
A.Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity forrice? ???????(3 marks)
B.Also, please examine the factors thatcanmotivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and theeffectsofthatgovernmentlegislation on the rice market.????? (7marks)
Assessment Question Week4:
Price Elasticity of demand and supply
Question 3
The price for cigarettessold by Big Tobacco Co Ltdwas6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was1000 packets.However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltddecided to increase the price by 25% during the monthofApril. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8.As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:
A.Advise yourmanagement ofthe strategy that could be adoptedby your firm to maintainsales.?(5 Marks)
B.Also,advise your government on recommendedinterventions in the cigarette market.?????????(5Marks)
Assessment Question Week5:
Production costs
Question 4
John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering.In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills.John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.
After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further,to start the businessJohn used hisownpremises. He wasreceiving$12,000from rentper year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.
John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:
Item
Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section
400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section
190,000
2 Cashiers(wages per worker)
55,000
Pizza ingredients
50,000
Manager
75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker)
60,000
Equipment
10,000
??
Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work???(10 marks)
Assessment Question Week6:
Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly
Question 5
The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland.Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)
Students select a real-world case study based on their own industry or workplace context, and submit a 2500-word report on an appropriate aspect of business economics. The assessment task is intended to simulate the composition of a formal report to senior management concerning a strategic initiative.
Following the problem solving and decision making approach discussed in Chapter 1 to solve the following issues relevant to the selected workplace industry and incorporate the following:
Does the company make decisions based on depreciation or overhead? If so, does this lead to bad decisions? What can be done to fix the problem? What was the profit consequences of the change [Refer to Chapter 3 of the prescribed textbook especially on Sunk Cost of Depreciation or Fixed Cost of Overhead].
Describe an extant decision made by the company. Discuss the marginal cost and marginal benefit of the decision. Was the right decision reached? If not, what should be done differently? What was the profit consequences of the change?[Chapter 3: Benefits, Costs, and Decisions].
c.Describe an investment decision the company has made. Discuss the opportunity costs and benefits of the decision. Did your company make the right decision? If not, what would you do differently? What was the NPV of the investment? [Refer to Chapter 5 of the prescribed textbook: Investment Decisions: Look Ahead and Reason Back].
Students are expected to demonstrate a sound theoretical and practical understanding of managerial economics in their analysis and discussions, as well as an awareness of the moral, ethical, and cultural aspects economics decision-making.
The composition of the formal report is staged across the first four weeks of the course, whereby students prepare a component of the report and share their research to receive informal peer feedback:
Week 2: Select Your Case Study and Describe
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(a) Explain how GDP is measured in your country. Provide real life examples. (4 marks)
While your textbook is your first point of reference, you should consult other references in order to receive full marks. Use real life examples (with references) to support your discussion.
(b) Explain the macroeconomic effects of COVID-19 pandemic on your country using economic theory, real life data and illustrate them on appropriate diagrams. (10 marks)
This is your case study that you need to describe in details, provide relevant information, use table, diagrams where appropriate. You should use real data as much as possible. Refer to the textbook for the theoretical framework.
(b) Using your home country as a case study outline two main economic measures government applied to the national economy due to COVID-19 pandemic. Analyse the effect of such measures on inflation, output and employment using economic theory. What measures would you suggest and why? Explain using theory and real data. (12 marks)
During the current COVID-19 pandemic many countries have imposed quarantine on their
populations in order to limit/ stop the spread of the disease and avoid overload on the health
system. While these measures are justified from the health perspective, they have major economic
consequences. In this assignment you are asked to analyse different economic aspects related to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
Demand components: Consumption
b) What factors usually determine individual consumption? In light of these factors analyse
how the situation with the COVID-19 pandemic is likely to affect aggregate consumption.
Use the theory studied in the course in your answer. You may want to provide some
examples for your chosen country.
Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions: A. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks) B. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow: Economics Homework Help at HomeworkNest.com Point B is inside the PPF curve. It shows efficient utilization of resources, and the production can be increased by using the resources efficiently. Point V is on the PPF, which shows the full utilization of resources. Point D is outside the PPF curve, which shows production at this point is beyond the potential of Nepal due to limited resources. Thus, this would be the unattainable level of production given the available resources (Galles, Graves & Sexton, 2019). If Nepal produces 10,000 more rice, the point moves to V from T. Thus, the rice would increase by 10,000, and machinery production would reduce by ten units. Hence, the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 units of rice is ten units of rice. B) 1. Production of fertilizers means that rice
ATT&T and Time Warner (Spectrum) has been viewed a great deal since it may have great benefits for customers. But the critics of such merger claim that this deal will hurt customers. Should the Government approve this merger? Provide your arguments or against the deal.
Let the fixed price of good is Birr 72. If the cost function of perfect competitive market is given by C= Q3-12Q2+10Q+100, then find profit maximizing level of output
Question 1
Using a production possibilities frontier (PPF) diagram, determine how does the PPF change
in response to the following events:
a) Reducing skilled migration into the country
b) Imposing import taxes (tariffs) on intermediate inputs
c) Increasing the expenditure on research and development
d) An increase in the retirement age
e) The effects of natural disaster
Question 2
Identify what sort of effect the following events have:
a) A decrease in oil prices as a consequence of a price dispute in the world oil markets
b) The onset and prevalence of a pandemic
c) The implementation of subsidies to manufacturing of cars in Australia
d) The implementation of a Carbon tax in the economy. A Carbon tax is charged
according to the level of emissions of greenhouse gases in an economy.
e) The implementation of a new loan program to university students in the education
sector
You are required to explain whether the event acts on the demand or supply side, and whether
the event leads to a quantity or price change, or leads to a shift in demand and/or supply.
Make sure to explain what sort of assumptions you are making on the elasticities of demand
and supply.
Question 3
Compare the impact of a recession that reduces consumer income by 10 percent on the
consumption of technology goods and house rentals. Suppose that the income elasticity of
demand for technology goods is 3 and the income elasticity of demand for house rentals is
0.3. Based on your response, make a policy argument to support through government
funding either businesses or house rentals.
In 1984 and 1985, the small Latin American country of Bolivia experienced hyperinflation. Below are some key macroeconomic data from those years: Macroeconomic Data for Bolivia, April 1984 – October 1985
Are rapid economic growth and equal distribution of personal income necessarily conflicting objectives?
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Analyse and evaluate the market structure of the airline industry. In your analysis, determine
whether the current market is concentrated or not. In your discussion, use economic tools or models
to make this decision. You should also consider who owns Jetstar when making these calculations.
2. With the events of COVID-19, there is a possibility that Virgin Australia may fold. Assuming this
market share will be taken up by QANTAS, calculate the new HHI for the industry. What do you think
will happen to air ticket prices? Explain and justify with relevant economic concepts
3. A couple of States, including NSW, are expected to help bail out Virgin Australia. Do you think this
will be good for the industry? Do you think it will be good for Qantas?
Tutorial Submission Question 1
Assessment Question Week 2:
Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
Question 1
In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics (NBS) as indicated by the table below:
Production in Nepal
Position
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
X
Y
Z
Rice (1000 tons)
0
10
26
37
45
50
55
59
66
77
80
Machinery (units)
90
89
85
80
75
70
65
60
50
30
0
Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier (PPF) for Nepal can be plotted as below:
Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:
Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks)
Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:
B1: Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers. Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizers on Nepal’s economy using one of the PPF above.
(2 marks)
B2: Also, supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steel on the economy of Nepal using one of the PPF above. (2 marks)
B3: Finally, the Minister of Finance in Nepal advices the World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion. This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank. Explain the impact of these 100 billion budgetary allocations to the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above. (3 marks)
Assessment Question Week 3:
Markets in Action: Demand and Supply
Question 2
Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply for rice at various prices, answer the questions that follow.
The graph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the table below identifying the shortage or surplus.
Price (10kg bag)
Demand
(10 kg bags)
Supply (SS)
(10 kg bags)
Surplus (+)
Shortage (-)
10
89
29
20
70
40
30
55
55
40
39
67
50
25
80
60
11
95
Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity for rice? (3 marks)
Also, please examine the factors that can motivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and the effects of that government legislation on the rice market. (7marks)
Assessment Question Week4:
Price Elasticity of demand and supply
Question 3
The price for cigarettes sold by Big Tobacco Co Ltd was 6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was 1000 packets. However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltd decided to increase the price by 25% during the month of April. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8. As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:
Advise your management of the strategy that could be adopted by your firm to maintain sales. (5 Marks)
Also, advise your government on recommended interventions in the cigarette market. (5 Marks)
Assessment Question Week 5:
Production costs
Question 4
John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering. In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills. John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.
After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further, to start the business John used his own premises. He was receiving $12,000 from rent per year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.
John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:
Item
Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section
400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section
190,000
2 Cashiers (wages per worker)
55,000
Pizza ingredients
50,000
Manager
75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker)
60,000
Equipment
10,000
Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work (10 marks)
Assessment Question Week6:
Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly
Question 5
The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland. Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)
Attachments:
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Your goal: to advise them on how to be cost-efficient, be more competitive in the market, grow the business, and design their pricing and non-pricing strategies.
In essence: you will develop ideas to make that business more successful, and more resilient and long-lasting, even in fierce competitive situations or in very difficult economic conditions. You will present it in a report (see sample report in the ‘Questions: research report’ document.
(i) published data you find about the business on the Internet— their website, possibly with photographs of their premise, location, how many staff they employ (you can just judge this yourself, if that information is not available), online information about their products or services. See the ‘questions: research report’ document again, instruction no. 3.
You may not be able to get all of these but get as much information as you reasonably can. Use your judgement for the rest or rely on past visits to the shop or store (or what people told you about visits to the store). You do not need to be very precise.
(ii) the business should be a business in Sydney or Manly.
Instruction:
1) The answers of the assignment must be printed.
2) Make sure that the content of your answers is clear and understandable.
Question 1)
The Oslo Accords (including the Protocol on Economic Relations) signed in 1994 had set the stage for the National Palestinian Authority (NPA) to assume political and economic sovereignty in major WBG cities. Although, the skewed integration withOccupation state )Israel( economy (the dependence on) Israeli( economy) did not structurally change. The Palestinian Central Bureau of Statistics (PCBS) have published data for national accounts for this period:
Use the data posted in this web-link to answer the following questions:
1) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2004 and 2014.
2) Use pie graph to describe the share of GDP components in 2014.
Question 2)
The relative recovery of the Palestinian economy prevailed in the 90s was cut short by the breakout of the Second Intifada in September 2000. Following this date, Palestinians endured devastating measures including, relentless Israeli internal and external closures, loss of land and other natural resource, an astronomical rise in unemployment, mainly due to the termination of labor inflow to Israel, and the purposely destruction of physical infrastructure by Israel.
a) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2000 and 2008.
b) What is the GDP component that cause the change in read GDP between 2000 and 2008.
Question 3)
In short, talk about the most important provisions of Paris economic agreement ( Paris Protocol) signed in 1994, explain its effects on the Palestinian economy.
Analyze the baseline model of Schumpeterian growth in Section 14.1 assuming that (14.5) is not satisfied.
(a) Show that monopolists set a limit price.
(b) Characterize the BGP equilibrium growth rate.
(c) Characterize the Pareto optimal allocation, and compare it to the equilibrium.
(d) Now consider a hypothetical economy in which the previous highest quality producer disappears, so that the monopolist can charge a markup of 1/(1- ß) instead of the limit price. Show that the BGP growth rate in this hypothetical economy is strictly greater than the growth rate characterized in part b. Explain this result.
Students who successfully complete this subject will be able to:
1. demonstrate an advanced level of understanding of theories that propose exogenous drivers of economic
growth to explain economic growth differences;
2. demonstrate integrated knowledge of theories that propose endogenous drivers of economic growth to
explain economic growth differences and recognise that social and environmental issues are inextricably
linked to economic growth;
3. contrast real economic data on theory-informed drivers of economic growth in a rich and a poor country
to design advanced-level and integrated economic growth policy recommendations for the poor country.
These outcomes will contribute to your overall achievement of course learning outcomes. Your course learning
outcomes can be located in the entry for your course in the electronic JCU Course and Subject Handbook 2020 (click
on ‘Course Information’ bar/ select ‘Undergraduate Courses’ or ‘Postgraduate Courses’/ select relevant course/
scroll down to ‘Academic Requirements for Course Completion’, ‘Course learning outcomes’).
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Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide various examples & compare different states for each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)
Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quar-
ter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96 txt,
seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the
growth rate series of the real GDP.
The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC cri-
terion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?
The sample PACF of xt specifies an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is
it adequate? Why?
What is the model for xt if one uses in-sample model comparison?
Why?
Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using
the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the
backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model
for xt. Justify the choice.
To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in
tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.
Pick one question to answer only.
1. How can states respond effectively to cyber-attacks originating beyond their own borders?
Compare and evaluate responses of two or three different governments.
2. How have the Internet and cyber-weapons
impacted on-going conflicts, and how will they
impact conflicts in the future? Respond using
multiple recent, ongoing, or potential future
conflict scenarios.
Write a MATLAB code (.m file) to compare the bit error rate of (15,11) Hamming code and ¼-convolutional code in addition to the performance of uncoded system. The simulation parameters are shown below:
Daily foreign exchange rates (spot rates) can be obtained from the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. The data are the noon buying rates in New York City certified by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. Consider the exchange rates between the U.S. dollar and the British pound and Japanese yen from January 2, 2007 to November 30, 2011.
(i) Compute the daily log return of each exchange rate.
(ii) Compute the sample mean, standard deviation, skewness, excess kurtosis, minimum, and maximum of the log returns of each exchange rate.
(iii) Obtain a density plot of the daily log returns of Dollar-Yen exchange rate.
(iv) Test H0 : = 0 versus Ha : 6= 0, where denotes the mean of the daily log return of Dollar-Yen exchange rate. Use the 5% significance level to draw the conclusion. If not specifically specified, use 5% significance level to draw conclusions in the exercises.
Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quarter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96.txt, seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the growth rate series of the real GDP.
(a) The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC criterion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?
(b) The sample PACF of xt species an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is it adequate? Why?
(c) What is the model for xt if one uses in-sample model comparison? Why?
(d) Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model for xt. Justify the choice.
To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.
Consider the daily stock returns of Procter & Gamble from September 1, 2001, to September 30, 2011. The simple returns are available from CRSP and in the le d-pg-0111.txt. Transform the simple returns to log returns.
(a) Is there any serial correlation in the log returns?
(b) Fit an MA model, where the maximum order is Q = 20, to the log returns to remove serial correlations. Write down the fitted model. Is the model adequate?
(c) Let rt be the residuals of the MA model and xt = 100*rt. Is there ARCH effect in xt?
(d) Fit an EGARCH model to xt. Perform model checking and write down the fitted model.
Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide examples of each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)
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What does the name of the IS curve stand for? Note the following identity might give you some hint:
My to break the left-hand side of the above equation into three kinds of savings. We have discussed under the consumption model the idea of precautionary savings. Does the idea of precautionary saving apply to the government level and/or the country level? Be creative and please give some concrete examples.
Brazil’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
America’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
Evaluation of China’s Trade Policies and Economy.
Who wrote this article, when, how did they gather this information? Did they provide Apple with this information and ask them to comment on their data?
Profile Apple:
How many products and what kind does it produce
What year did Apple move to global supply chains and why? What do they claim about foreign workers and factories
What is Apple’s strategy for production? Which other industries follow this model?
What is the rationale for this? How does Apple relate this to innovation?
How many workers are employed by foreign contractors in producing Apple products?
How many workers are employed in US by Apple? Overseas?
What is Apple’s profit per employee?
At the time of this article, what is the current value of the stock? What has been the increase in value since 2005? Before the impact of the Coronavirus?
What is an example of a manager’s salary package? What is Tim Cook’s package?
Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions: A. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks) B. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:
Analytical Study of the supply and demand
Economics as a science.
Consumerism Impact and Evolution.
Interest rate as a political factor in an organization.
Impact of Unemployment in today’s economy.
Illegal Immigration affecting a country’s Economy.
Impact of Supply and Demand on Pricing.
(a) Is there a difference between the price of oil in the market for oil and the price of reserves in the market for reserves? Explain. (b) What is the Hotelling Rule? (c) Does it assume profit maximization by owners of oil deposits? (d) What does it imply about the price at which oil is sold over time? (e) How would you expect non-renewable resource by a monopolist to differ from extraction by a price-taking firm? (f) With a pollution externality, Pigou demonstrated that the presence of a harmful real externality leads private decision making by a profit-maximizing firm to generate an outcome that is not socially optimal. Is that also the case with the inter-temporal externality associated with extraction of this non-renewable resource – is the profit maximizing extraction also not socially optimal? Explain. (g) Is socially optimal extraction of a non-renewable resource sustainable? Lecture: Non-Renewable Resources – Economics of oil 2 (a) A non-renewable resource firms owns two deposits of copper, where the potential amount of copper in the deposits are the same but one is located at a shallower depth and has a lower cost of extraction. How should it exploit those two resources? Should it extract some copper from each deposit every year, or should it do something different? Describe the extraction strategy it should employ, and the underlying economic rationale. (b) Has the world price of oil risen, from 2000 to now, approximately at the interest rate, as a simple version of the Hotelling rule would suggest? (e) If not, why not? What factors could explain this?
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Questions1: Mathematics
An investor is considering purchasing a bond with a 7.89 percent coupon interest rate, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $1019.06. the bond will mature in nine years. Based on this information, answer the following questions:
What is the bond’s current yield?
What is the bond’s approximate yield to maturity?
What is the bond’s yield to maturity using a financial calculator?
Question2: Business
Search the internet for financial statements of publicly traded companies. Students are required to utilize different financial statements from the Week 2 Individual Assignment.
Analyze the financial ratios of the identified publicly traded company in a minimum 1,400 words including the following:
Review week 2 graded assignment feedback and restate/revise the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of an additional (different company from week 2) publicly traded company—then compare this second company ratios with the ratios you computed for the company from week 2 “Revenue Forecast” assignment). Include both verbiage and a chart to compare the company’s ratios from week 2assignment with the ratios from the company for this week’s assignment.
Display your calculations.
Question 1: Statistics
Though 70% of women with children younger than 18 years participate in the labor force, society still upholds the stay at home mother as the traditional model. Some believe that employment distracts mothers from their parenting role, affecting the well-being of children.
Question 1: In the GSS 2024, respondents were asked to indicate their level of agreement to the statement, “A working mother hurts children”. Of the 435 male respondents who answered the question, 18% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.
Question 2: of the 566 female respondents who answered the question, 40% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.
P.S. these questions are on chegg
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Question 3: Business
1What are some ways that social media has changed your daily life? What can marketers take advantage of for their promotional purposes?
Choose a local business that is utilizing social media effectively. Analyze what they are doing by conducting your own social media monitoring. What tools can you use? What are the company’s objectives? What are they doing right?
1.3 Provide some examples of brands that have garnered success with social media. Provide some examples of some brands that have not been successful with social media. Based on this comparison, what are the key ingredients to getting customers to engage with a brand?
1.4 Assume you are starting a new yogurt store on campus. Develop a profile of your likely target market. What social media tools do you think will be most effective at reaching that audience? Why?
Question 4: Business
Topic: Is it ever moral to break a promise? A rational analysis and conclusion.
Thread: The Reading & Study materials this module/week discuss the complex issue of poverty, and the moral imperative of promise-keeping is mentioned several times. After reviewing the Reading & Study materials, compose a 500-600 word argument that is objective, carefully-constructed, and free of emotion (and hence it should not contain any exclamation points) in support of your opinion on each of the following questions.
Why is promise-keeping morally important?
Is it ever morally permissible to break a promise?
If you answer “yes” to #2, then what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally acceptable?
If you answer “no” to #2, then explain why you believe it is never permissible. How would you handle difficult scenarios wherein someone has made a promise the keeping of which would have significant undesirable consequences?
Is it ever morally obligatory to break a promise?
If you answer “yes” to #5, what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally obligatory?
Be sure to carefully define your terms. You are encouraged to support your position with rational arguments, fitting examples, and expert sources. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.
You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. This is a university-level writing assignment and therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).
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Reply: After reading your classmates’ threads, choose one to which you will respond, then write a reply that interacts with your classmate’s thread and presents a well-reasoned alternative to his or her approach to the issue. You do not have to defend a position that is diametrically opposed to your classmate’s position, but you do need to either defend a position that is significantly different from his/hers or defend the same position in a very different way. If possible, you must reply to a classmate to whom no one else has yet replied. Treat your classmate’s opinion with sensitivity and respect.
This is a university-level writing assignment. Therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).
Your reply must be 500–600 words. You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself (including your classmate’s thread) must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.
Question 5: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Explain how training can be an organizational competitive strategy.
Question 6: Business
Imagine that your training plans are not yielding the expected results in learning according to the data that you’ve analyzed. There has been discussion with the leadership team about issues with employees not being motivated to learn, and employee surveys have confirmed that employees are not sufficiently motivated. Your team has been asked by the HR Director to investigate what may be causing the lack of motivation. Your investigation should consider barriers to learning, motivational theories, and alternatives for enhancing employee motivation.
Create a report of no more than 700 words that summarizes various motivational theories.
Write a report that includes the following components:
A comparison of motivational theories
Alternatives that should be considered to enhance learner motivation
The impact on self-efficacy on learning
Recommendations for improving motivation for learning
Data that you will collect to determine whether or not your recommendations are having a positive effect upon employee motivation
Strategies for enhancing the retention of learning
Post-implementation surveys and analysis to determine the effectiveness of training on motivation
Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.
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Question 7: Business
As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.
While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.
SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.
Instructions:
Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!
Questions
Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?
Question 8: History
According to Khrushchev’s address to the 20th Congress of the Communist Party in February 1956, what were Stalin’s major crimes? To what degree were these problems resolved under later Soviet leaders? How would Russia’s current leaders react to this speech? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence
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Question 9: Language
Differences between Urdu and Modern Standard Arabic
Topic: consonants :
Form: essay form
Compare and contrast consonants inventory in ​two languages​ by following these criteria: (Write the paper using essay form)
(introduction)
Start the essay with a paragraph of the ​history​ of the two languages. Do they have a common origin?
(body)
The ​number​ of consonants these languages have.
Are there any special features associated with “language1†which are not present in “language
?â€2
(conclusion)
End the essay by relating the first paragraph with the rest of the paragraphs by stating how these two languages’ origins resulted in similar or different consonants inventory, ​highlighting the biggest similarities or differences.
Citation using ​APA style.
Maximum 3 pages. ​Minimum: cover the criteria assigned in 3 paragraphs​.
*note: use consonants IPA symbols for consonants
Questions 10: History
Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) What were the global forces that influenced the civil rights movement within the United States? 2) What reasons have been advanced to explain why the Soviet system collapsed in 1991? Which do you think are the most persuasive? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation Respond to at least two of your classmates. Each response should: Be at least 50 words in length and include more than one’s agreement or disagreement with another student’s post React to the classmate’s post and demonstrate higher-order thinking (challenge, connect, suggest, question, or expand) Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation
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Question 11: Business
It’s a 2 part assignment. First part is to write a profile of a wine consumer, like who is the type of person that consumes wine, age, loyalty to a particular brand? Is there a preference to certain types of wine? any difference between a younger wine consumer vs an older consumer. something general like that.
2nd part is what is the image of wine from Chile, locally and internationally
Question 12: Political Science
how has the war on drugs affected living in Latin America and in the US”.
Question 13: Psychology
Answer in complete sentences. Chapter 11 A. What neurotransmitters are active during any emotional output? B. How do appraisals impact our emotional experiences? Chapter 12 D. In what way can intrinsic motivation be more powerful than extrinsic motivation for achieving something? E. Explain the attachment theory as it pertains to the romantic relationship.
Question 14: History
HIEU 201 LECTURE QUIZ 1
Question 1
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
Question 2
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
Question 3
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
Question 4
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?
Question 5
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
Question 6
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
Question 7
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
Question 8
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
Question 9
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
Question 10
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
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Question 15: Mathematics
How much will a $7,500 EE savings bond cost when you initially purchase it? Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, approximately how long will it take for the bond to reach its stated face value?
When you initially purchase it, the EE saving bond will cost $ 3750
Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, the length of time it will take for the bond to reach its stated face value is ___ years.
Question 16: Biology
NUR 602 Midterm Study GUIDE – Chanberlain College of Nursing
Question 17: Psychology
A criticism of the use of anesthesia during childbirth is that it
A baby is defined as post mature if it
Question 18: Education
Which of the following are traits that effective teachers demonstrate in their dealings with peers, administrators, and parents?
According to Gary Borich, which of the following is a characteristic behavior of effective teachers?
Question 19: Health Care
Nutritional Principles in Nursing: Evaluating Diets Module 11
NURSING: NUR1172 N Garcia NUT Mod11 Diets
Question 20: Health Care
Bparker Module 01 PowerPoint Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Vitamins Minerals Water
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Question 21: Health Care
Walden NURS6660 Final Exam ( 2019)
Question 22: Health Care
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Rashidah is a 55-year-old female who is experiencing acute chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as “pressure and squeezing.” When she becomes nauseous and light-headed, her son insists that he take her to the emergency room.
Health History: She started smoking when she was 18, attempted to quit several times in her 40s, and had her last cigarette on her 50th birthday. She has been overweight for most of her adult life, but has gained 20 pounds in the last few years, which increased her BMI to 34. The last time she had a physical exam was when she turned 50. Her vital signs and blood test results from that exam are listed below.
BP: 178/90
HDL: 62 mg/dl
LDL: 190 mg/dl
Triglycerides: 174 mg/dl
Total cholesterol: 252 mg/dl
Fasting blood glucose: 128 mg/dl
Which of these statements is most likely correct?
Selected Answer:
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
In the emergency room, multiple tests are performed. Which of these results would confirm myocardial damage?
Selected Answer:
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
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Which of Rashidah’s physical exam lab test results was within normal limits for her age and sex?
Selected Answer:
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
Given her last physical exam results, Rashidah’s physician believes she has likely had undiagnosed atherosclerosis for years. Briefly describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis.
Selected Answer: Atherosclerosis is the narrowing of arteries from plaque build up on the arterie walls. When there is a build up of plaque it makes it harder for the body to get oxygen rich blood through out the body. If there is too much build up in the ateries it can cause a blockage which can make it more likely to have blood clots
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Rashidah’s most recent Body Mass Index indicates that she is:
Selected Answer:
Obese
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following statements is true?
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
A coronary angiography is performed and shows a complete blockage of the LAD. Briefly describe what this means.
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following treatments would help correct Rashidah’s condition?
Selected Answer:
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Rashidah quit smoking 5 years ago, but still suffered a myocardial infarction. She is tempted to start smoking again since quitting “obviously didn’t make me healthier.” What does research tell us about her future health risks if she resumes smoking?
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Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Before Rashidah is discharged from the hospital, her care team informs her that she may experience stable angina, a form of chest pain, in the future. Briefly explain how angina is different from the pain associated with a myocardial infarction.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Roberto is a 78-year-old male who has recently been diagnosed with Class III Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). His physician told him that his left ventricle has become stiff and cannot relax. Although there is no current treatment that can “fix” Roberto’s condition, he is prescribed two medications- an ACE inhibitor and beta blockers.
There are multiple types of CHF. Which of these types does Roberto have?
Selected Answer:
Question 12
0 out of 1 points
Which of these statements is most likely true of Roberto’s current symptoms?
Selected Answer:
Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Because of the dysfunction of Roberto’s left ventricle, which of these findings is most likely?
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Briefly describe how beta-blockers will influence Roberto’s heart function, specifically the physiology of the ventricles.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Briefly describe how ACE-inhibitors will influence Roberto’s heart function.
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
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Roberto’s doctor orders several tests of his heart function, including “ejection fraction.” Briefly explain what an ejection fraction measures. (Include what a normal measurement would be.)
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following conditions may have led to Roberto’s CHF?
Selected Answer:
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following choices is NOT a risk factor for developing CHF?
Selected Answer:
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
Which heart valve opens to allow blood to leave the left ventricle?
Aortic valve
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Further testing reveals that Roberto has hypertrophy of the left ventricle. How does this finding relate to his diagnosis?
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Question 23: Health Care
BSC 2347 Module 1 Case Study / BSC2347 AP 2 Module 1 Human Anatomy and Physiology II Case Study
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Correct Jasper is a 7-year-old boy who has had flu-like symptoms for several weeks. It was mild at first, but his parents notice that he has been getting worse. They took him to his pediatrician last week, but he was sent home with suggestions to use OTC medication to treat his symptoms while his body recovered from what appeared to be a mild infection. Jasper appears weak, has lost 3-4 pounds in the last month, and has been complaining of headaches. Jasper’s parents have now brought him back to the clinic and another physician orders a CBC.
What is a CBC? In your own words, briefly describe why it is useful.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Correct The physician suspects that Jasper may have leukemia. Which of the lab results most likely lead the physician to this conclusion?
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Correct Jasper exhibits many symptoms that could relate to a diagnosis of leukemia. List and briefly explain 2 other symptoms of leukemia that are NOT mentioned in this case study.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
Correct Because of Jasper’s age, which type of leukemia is the most likely?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Correct
If Jasper has ALL, which of the following lab results is most likely?
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Correct What is the most common type of childhood leukemia? In your own words, briefly describe the pathophysiology of the disease.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Correct Which of these tests would NOT be helpful in diagnosing leukemia?
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Correct In your own words, briefly describe the difference between myelogenous and lymphocytic leukemia.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Correct Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for ALL?
Selected Answer:
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Correct Assuming that Jasper has the most common type of childhood leukemia, what is his prognosis?
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1 points
Incorrect Elsa is an 11-month-old girl. Her parents have brought her to her pediatrician because they have noticed she seems lethargic and pale. Both parents have noticed that she appears bloated, doesn’t want to eat as much as she has before, and is tired and “cranky all the time.” They suspected she might be suffering from anemia, since she was being fed a low-iron formula, so they had switched to a high-iron formula. The change made no difference in her symptoms. The pediatrician notes that Elsa’s belly appears swollen. Her vital signs show that her temperature is normal and her heart rate is on the low end of the normal range for her age. She has dropped from the 50th percentile in height and weight (at her last check-up) to the 10th percentile in both height and weight.
Blood test results:
Hemoglobin: 5 g/dl
RBC: 4.6×106 cells/ml
MCV: 65
WBC 15,000 cells/ml
Platelet count: 250,000
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Which of Elsa’s symptoms is NOT typical of anemia in infants?
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Correct In your own words, briefly describe why Elsa’s parents changed her formula to the high-iron baby formula.
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Correct Which of her blood test results is within normal range?
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Correct Elsa’s blood sampled was analyzed under a microscope and it was determined that her red blood cells were “hypochromatic” and “microcytic.” Explain, in your own words, what these terms mean.
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Correct Elsa’s pediatrician suspects that she has thalassemia. Which of the following statements is true of thalassemia?
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Correct In your own words, explain why hemoglobin is important in hematology.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Correct It is determined that Elsa is experiencing beta-thalassemia major. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding this diagnosis?
Selected Answer:
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Correct Because Elsa has received a confirmed diagnosis of beta-thalassemia major, which of the following statements is true about her parents?
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Correct As Elsa gets older, which of the following choices is NOT a likely complication of her disorder?
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Correct In your own words, briefly describe how thalassemia is related to Elsa’s failure to thrive.
Selected Answer:
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Question 2: Psychology
Introduction Guided Response#1 This is what i wrote i have to response back to students and the Teacher
Hello everyone. It is my sincere congratulations to you for making it this far and for being part of this class. I am again looking for a fun and exciting time together and with our instructor. My name is Tishawn Thomas I am 42 years old and reside in Easton, Pennsylvania. I come from Brooklyn, New York. I have a Bachelor of Arts in Social Science and Master of Arts in Special Education from Ashford University. I am kind of old school because I love jazz and classical rock. Currently, I have joined this class to take a master’s program in psychology to enable me become a licensed counselling psychologist.
When navigating the left I found this course very interesting. I have reviewed the major theoretical approaches, research methods, and assessment instruments that will be covered in the course and I must say that this course will be interesting. I am looking forward to learning how the theoretical approaches and research methods can be combined with the assessment instruments to assist personality analysis.
The model of personality that I am more interested in researching further is the five-factor model (FFM) of personality. The FFM is a set of five personality trait dimensions, often called the Big Five: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience. The initial model was advanced by Raymond Christal and Ernest Types in 1961. In 1990, J.M. Digman advanced the five-factor personality model, which was later extended by Lewis Goldberg, making Goldberg the father of FFM. This model is important in my current and future careers because it provides me with a basis of judgement and personality analysis. As an educator, the five-factor model provides an opportunity for understanding students and engaging them appropriately.
References
Choca, J. P. (1999). Evolution of million’s personality prototypes. Journal of Personality Assessment, 72(3), 353-364
Jung, C. G. (1933). Psychological Types. New York: Harcourt, Brace.
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Guided Response#1
Glad to be in class with you. I too enjoy the Big Five as it tends to show up in the entertainment industry. One simply has to look to Harry Potter to see the how the Big Five and in extension psychology affects people without them knowing. People subscribe and find out their ‘houses’ on a daily basis by taking a personality test that places them in one of the five houses of Harry Potter. It’s simply amazes me how much we use psychology daily. There are many ways the Big Five may be used even when assisting persons with PTSD. Each personality handles stressors differently and would need to be assisted in a different way. I’m glad to be in class with you.
Guided Response#2
Welcome to the course and I am excited to about you. As a Marriage and Family Therapist here in California I can attest to the very rewarding and challenging nature of the job and how important self care is. My favorite part of the work is finding a way to engage the client to access their own resources to solve their problems. I am curious how you will balance all you do?
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Question 3: Biology
ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab
PURPOSE:
Soil Sampling
To introduce students to:
Bucket auger sampling
Head space analysis
Sieve soil sizing procedure and plotting
Soil moisture by difference method
The soil texture by feel procedure
INTRODUCTION
For this lab you will be taking samples using a bucket auger which you will then analyze using head space analysis, soil moisture by difference and by moisture probe, and perform soil texture by feel protocol. In addition, you will analyze a pre-dried soil sample using sieve analysis.
Headspace analyses done in the field typically use a photoionization detector (PID). The PID uses ultraviolet light to irradiate the sample, thus ionizing it. The analysis chamber is composed of two plates between which an electric field is established by application of a difference in potential on each plate. Since the plates are not in contact, electricity can only flow through the circuit by bridging the electric field. When a sample is introduced, UV light ionizes gaseous molecules present, and the ions travel to the charged plates. When the ions reach the charged plates, an electric current is produced. The magnitude of the current is proportional to the concentration of ions preset (and, by extension, the concentration of molecules present). Although the exact response of the detector depends on the lamp ionization energy and the ionization potential of the molecules present, the PID responds to almost all VOCs – though not equally. Consequently, both false positives and under reporting of VOC concentrations are relatively common.
Refer to the accompanying slides for instructions on sieve analysis and workup.
ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab
METHODS Equipment List:
Bucket auger
Sample container
Temperature probe
Soil moisture probe
4×8’ sheet of plastic (optional)
Mason jar with foil lid
Weigh boats or pieces of aluminum foil
PID air sampler
Sieve stack and shaker
Small shovel for backfill
Procedure: Sample Collection
Using a decontaminated bucket auger, you will collect a soil sample from a depth of at least 3” below ground surface (bgs).
Use the decontaminated bucket auger to remove the top 3” of soil
One individual from each table, measure the temperature of the soil and the soil
moisture using the soil moisture probe (both at 3” bgs)
Collect soil sample with bucket auger
o Place in clean container and seal immediately, place on ice o Be sure to collect enough for:
Head space analysis
§Texture by feel protocol
§Moisture analysis (at least 3 samples)
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Headspace Sampling
Weigh a small portion of your soil sample and place in a clean mason jar:
Should be enough to completely cover the bottom of the jar to a depth of at
least 1 inch
Place a square of aluminum foil over the opening of the jar (shiny side up)
and screw the retaining ring down to seal
Allow sample to rest in jar at room temp for at least 5 minutes, and take a
reading of the headspace in the jar (using PID)
o Pierce the foil with the sampling probe, being careful not to tear too
large of a hole
o Insert the probe approximately 4 cm (1.5 in) and sample until the
reading has stabilized
·Place tape over the opening you created with the sampling probe and allow
sample to rest another 10 minutes, then sample headspace again
ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab
In addition to the sample you collected, there will be 2 additional soil samples provided upon which you should perform headspace analysis. You are only required to measure each of the additional samples once.
Moisture Determination
Each table will perform a moisture determination
Place at least 3 samples of your soil into either weigh boats or pieces of foil
Weigh samples (and container)
Place in oven for 24 hours (record start time)
After 24 hours remove samples and weigh again (record end time)
Determine % water content (by mass)
Sieve Sizing
Follow directions and analysis instructions found in the accompanying slides
REPORT
Include all of the normal sections, be sure to include:
Analyses
Be sure to complete and include in your report (I expect all to be professionally formatted):
All analyses included in the sieve slides (size distribution plot, sizing, coefficients of uniformity and gradation, etc.)
Soil moisture analysis
Headspace analysis
Discussion Questions:
What kind of soil did you have by the ‘Soil Texture by Feel’ test? What color was the soil? What does that tell you?
Compare the soil moisture by difference value to that obtained from the soil probe – provide a quantitative analysis.
How did the headspace analysis of your sample compare to those of the provided samples?
What are the Coefficients of Uniformity and Gradation for your soil sample? What does that mean about the variability in grain size for your sample? What about the soil’s ability to drain effectively?
Compare the results of the Soil Texture by Feel test and Coefficients of Gradation and Uniformity – are they contradictory?
What percent of your soil sample was lost during the sieve procedure? Is any explanation required?
What two reagents are used in preparation of the chloride complex
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Question 2: Psychology
University of Phoenix Material
Week Four Homework Exercise 1
PSYCH/610 Version 2
Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch 8–10 of Methods in Behavioral Research:
What is a confounding variable and why do researchers try to eliminate confounding variables? Provide two examples of confounding variables.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of posttest only design and pretest-posttest design?
What is meant by sensitivity of a dependent variable?
What are the differences between an independent groups design and a repeated measures design?
How does an experimenter’s expectations and participant expectations affect outcomes?
Provide an example of a factorial design. What are the key features of a factorial design? What are the advantages of a factorial design?
Describe at least four different dependent variables.
What are some ways researchers can manipulate independent variables?
What is the difference between main effects and interactions?
How do moderator variables impact results? Provide an example.
A researcher is interested in studying the effects of story endings on preference ratings. He randomly assigns participants into two groups: predictable ending or surprise ending. He instructs them to read the story and provide preference ratings. The experimenter’s variation of story endings is a __________ (straightforward or staged) manipulation.
A researcher was interested in investigating the vocabulary skills of 6th graders in a program for gifted students. She gave a group of participants a test of vocabulary that was aimed at the 7th-grade level. She quickly discovered that there was limited variability in the scores because nearly all the students answered 90% or more of the questions correctly. This outcome is called a _______ effect.
Question 3: Chemistry
The fuel for your car is a mixture of octane and several other hydrocarbons. What mass of CO2 will be produced when 219 g of C8H18 react completely in the following equation?
2 C8H18 + 25 O2 → 16 CO2 + 18 H2O
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Question 4: Computer Science
Using C, write a simple program to exhaustively list (generate) all binary strings of length N. Your program should read N > 5
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Question 5: Computer Science
THE UNIVERSITY OF THE WEST INDIES
ASSIGNMENT 1
SEMESTER I, 2019/2020
Code and Name of Course: COMP2201 – Discrete Mathematics
Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
AREA
DESCRIPTION
Objectives
To have a student apply the knowledge garnered during the first few weeks of the course
Title
Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
Deliverable
The answers for the questions which follow the given case
Instructions
1.
2. 3.
Review Lectures of the first three weeks of the course, the COMP2201 Text and any other related Discrete Mathematics material
Read the Assignment 1 Sheet thoroughly
Submit the gradable solution by using the
COMP2201 Assignment 1 – Individual located within the ASSIGNMENTS Section of the OURVLE COMP2201 Course Environment. This may also be accessed by choosing the Assignments section below “Activities”
Format
The solution for this assignment must be submitted as a Microsoft Word document.
Your ID number should form part of the Microsoft Word file name. The file name should take the format “COMP2201 Assignment 1 Semester 1 2019- 2020 XXXXXXXX” where XXXXXXXX represents the student ID number.
Upload Constraint
The solution for this assignment should be uploaded in the relevant space provided in OURVLE (See “Instructions” section above). A message indicating “File uploaded successfully” will acknowledge that the file has been sent successfully.
Do NOT assume your project has been received if you do not get this acknowledgement.
Scoring Rubric
Your electronic submission will be evaluated on:
Your attempt of the compulsory questions 1, 4 and 7
The response submitted for each question (See detail individual
marks below) – Maximum 50 marks
The actual grade of 50 marks will be displayed. The actual grade allocated is the percentage of the maximum marks (5 points)
Late Assignments
Late assignments are accepted. These are however graded then 25% deducted for each day of late submission.
Expectation
It is expected that students will discuss means to a solution. The actual work written is expected to reflect each student’s uniqueness. Where replication of work is identified, each paper will be graded. The allocated grade to each student’s piece of work for where this anomaly is identified will be the grade divided by the number of replications discovered.
Due Date
Sunday, October 6, 2019
Question 1 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 2 and 3.]
Given a sequence with n objects where there are n1 indistinguishable objects of type 1, n2 indistinguishable objects of type 2, …, nt indistinguishable objects of type t
(a) Where the number of repetitions of each object is known as in the string
PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS
show why the formula for the number of unordered k-selections of t types is 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 𝑜𝑟 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 [3]
𝑘 𝑡−1
(b) Using the word from question (a) as an example, show that the reason given for question (a) holds. [2]
(c) Hence, determine the number of unordered 3-selection of the said string PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS [2]
(d) Using your formula in (b), state a simplified formula for the number of unique codewords, assuming a codeword such as
PNU276(*#*$!dqjb
is made up of the letters of the word in (a) , 3 distinct digits where order is not important, 6 special characters (allowing repeats with order not being important), and 4 lowercase letters of the English alphabet where order is important, all in the same order. For ease of reference, it is accepted that there are 32 special characters. [3]
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Question 2 [2 marks]
By applying Pascal’s Identity, determine the row of Pascal’s triangle containing the following binomial coefficients (8) , 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 8 [2]
𝑘
Question 3 [6 marks]
Solve the following question using Tree Diagrams.
A seven-person committee composed of Tian, Uber, Vera, Weir, Xylo, Yani and
Zoey is to select a president, treasurer and liaison officer. How many selections are
there in which either Tian is treasurer and Zoey is not an officer, or Weir is president
or Vera is treasurer? [6]
Question 4 [5 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 5 and 6.]
(a) Why is the study of modular arithmetic important? [2]
(b) Construct the Addition and Multiplication Tables in Z10. [3]
Question 5 [3 marks]
Expand the following expression using the binomial theorem: ( –2p2 + 3q – 4r2 )4 [3]
Question 6 [5 marks]
(a) If any nine letters (of the 23-letter Latin alphabet) could be used to form a ten-letter words, how many words would have at least one repeated
letter? [3]
(b) A computer access password consists of from four to nine letters chosen from
the 26 in the alphabet with repetitions not allowed. How many different passwords are possible? [2]
Question 7 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 8 and 9.]
(a) Use modular arithmetic to explain why a date that falls on Saturday this year
will fall on Tuesday eight years from now. [2]
(b) The Greek Mathematician Euclid developed an algorithm to determine the
Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) also known as the Highest Common Factor (HCF). Develop an algorithm to determine the Least Common Multiple
(LCM). [3]
(c) Using the algorithm provided for section (b) of this question, illustrate how
your algorithm would find the Least Common Multiple of 55692 and 119340. [3]
(d) Using the Euclidean Algorithm, illustrate how the Highest Common Factor of 55692 and 119340. [2]
Question 8 [5 marks]
The function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr takes a list of integers, int_list and returns
True if they are NOT consecutive numbers within the Fibonacci sequence; False is returned otherwise. Using any programming language taught in your first year at the university, write the function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr . [5]
Question 9 [4 marks + Bonus 5 marks (to an assignment maximum of 50 marks)]
Let f(n) be defined by
𝑓(1) = 2
𝑓(𝑛) = 32𝑓 (𝑛) + 3𝑛5 2
if n > 1 and n = 2m, where m is a positive integer.
(a) By using the principles of Recurrence Relation, find a general formula
for f(n)
(b) Hence show that f(n) = Θ (n5 log 2 n).
[4] [Bonus – 5]
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Question 6: General Question
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Question 4: Engineering
High resolution digital TV broadcasting (HDTV) uses a form of SSB-AM for signal transmission. 2. Regular sinusoidal AM is often called double-sideband AM (DSB-AM). WHY??? 3. When AM and FM are used? 4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of FM and AM?
Question 5: Business
ACCT. 510 – Accounting for Business Decisions
TEAM PROJECT
FALL 2019
The basic financial statements of a company include the balance sheet, income statement and cash flow statement. Each statement contains specific information about the company. When viewed together, much can be learned about how the company operates and the impact of decisions made during the period.
Obtain the 2017 and 2018 annual reports for Starbucks. Use the information in the financial statements to respond to the following questions:
Write out the basic accounting (balance sheet) equation and provide the values reported by Starbucks at September 30, 2018.
Did total assets increase or decrease in 2018 over the previous year?
How much inventory did the company have at September 30, 2018?
What are the major operating revenue accounts? What percentage is each to total revenues?
What are the major operating expense accounts? What percentage is each to total operating expenses?
Describe the company’s revenue recognition policy, if reported. (See significant accounting policies).
What is Starbuck’s gross margin in 2018? Was this an increase or decrease from 2017?
What type of costs do you think is included in Starbuck’s ‘Cost of Sales?’
How do ‘cost of sales’ differ from ‘operating expenses’
What inventory valuation method does the company use?
What were cash flows from operating activities?
What were cash flows from investing activities?
What were cash flows from financing activities?
What was the increase/decrease in cash in 2018 from 2017?
Ratio Analysis: Compute the following ratios for 2017 and 2018 for Starbucks?
Current Ratio
Quick Ratio
Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio
Inventory Turnover Ratio
Debt-to-Equity Ratio
Return on Equity
Return on Assets
Quality of Net Income (Cash Flows from Operating Activities/Net Income)
Profit Margin
What does each ratio measure and what does your results suggest about the company?
If available, find the industry ratios for the most recent year, compare to your results, and discuss why you believe your company differs or is similar to the industry.
Were there any economy, industry or company-specific factors that impact Starbuck’s future income and growth? If so, briefly discuss.
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Question 6: Other
Hotel Rwanda
How does this film illustrate the concepts of “forward-looking” and “backward-looking” justice? How is the problem of personhood discussed in this film?
Question 7: Other
Unit V Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.
Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.
Option 1: Procter & Gamble (pp. 332–333)
Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for P&G? How does this relate to the company’s brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of P&G, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
P&G’s impressive portfolio includes some of the strongest brand names in the world. What are some of the challenges associated with being the market leader in so many different categories?
With social media becoming increasingly important and with fewer people watching traditional commercials on television, what does P&G need to do to maintain its strong brand images?
What risks will P&G face in the future?
Option 2: Caterpillar (pp. 394–395)
Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for Caterpillar? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of Caterpillar, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
What were some of the key steps that made Caterpillar the industry leader in earth-moving machinery? Explain how Caterpillar’s products differ from competitors.
Discuss Caterpillar’s future. What should it do next with its product line? Where is the future growth for this company?
Option 3: The Ritz-Carlton (pp. 424–425)
Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for The Ritz-Carlton? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of The Ritz-Carlton, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies.
How does The Ritz-Carlton match up to competing hotels? What are its key differences?
Discuss the importance of the “wow stories” in maintaining top quality customer service for a luxury hotel like The Ritz-Carlton.
In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.
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Unit 5 DB AM
Consider the many means of differentiating products and services. Which technology brand does the best at impacting consumer buying decisions? Why? In an attempt to maintain diversity in this discussion forum, please bring a different brand example into this discussion than your fellow classmates.
Question 8: Finance
A project requires an initial investment of $700,000 depreciated straight-line to $0 in 10 years. The investment is expected to generate annual sales of $400,000 with annual costs of $120,000 for 10 years. Assume a tax rate of 30% and a discount rate of 15%. What is the NPV of the project?
Question 9: Psychology
So, imagine you are a researcher trying to find a new medication to treat depression.
What would be a type 1 errors?
What would be a type 2 error?
You don’t have to tell us the research and null hypotheses, just tell us what happened, (ex: what you thought you found, and what you really did find).
Question 10: Finance
A Bank has $100 million in capital, and $900 million of checkable deposit. The bank currently maintains a total reserve of $100 million dollars, $200 million in T-bills, and rest in loans. A new corporate customer opens a checkable deposit account, and deposit $100 million.
1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?
1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?
1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.
1d. What is the equity multiplier?
1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)
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1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.
1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?
1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?
1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.
1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?
1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?
Discuss an experiment that you would like to perform. State 1. the population that you wish to study and 2. what the factor (or factors) would be. 3. How would you sample your subjects from that population? 4. How would you set up the experiment (Block design? Matched pairs? Double-blind?) How you would ensure 5. control, 6. randomization, and 7. replication? 8. What sort of conclusion could be drawn from the results
Question 7: Finance
Answer the following question regarding the price of a five percent coupon bond with the face value of $1000, which matures in three years from today. Coupon is paid annually at the end of the year. Your investment plan is to purchase the coupon bond today and hold it to the maturity.
a) Assuming the market price of bond is $1000, what would be the yield to maturity?
b) Suppose that you can reinvest your coupon at the annual rate of return of 3%. What is your effective
annual rate of return on the bond investment. Why is your effective rate of return different from the yield to maturity, if it is different? Under what circumstance, effective rate of return is equal to yield to maturity?
c) Now suppose the market price of bond drops to $900 right after the purchase. Would you expect higher or lower effective rate of return on the bond investment than the yield to maturity you compute in a? Explain why.
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Question 11: Finance
1d. What is the equity multiplier?
1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)
1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.
1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?
1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?
1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.
1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?
1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?
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Question 12: Mathematics
Describe using pseudocode as described in class an algorithm that takes a list of n integers a1, a2, …, an, and returns a count
Question 13: Engineering
The University has recently leased a building for new campus. The building will
house some Administrative offices, classrooms, library, and computer labs.
There will be four computer labs that will be used for instruction. Each of these
labs will have 32 computers (30 student computers and 1 instructor computer). Each
of these labs will also have a server in the closet located inside the lab.
In addition to the six regular labs, there will also be a Additional Computer Lab
that will provide computer access to students to do their assignment. There will be
63 computers in this lab and a server in the closet.
The library will also have some computers to allow students access to the library
resources. There will be 64 computers for students to read digital resources.
In this project you are required to design a network for a typical academic
institution that requires its computers to communicate with each other and on the
internet. It aims to provide student labs, provide computers for its education and
administrative staff and also set up a web server. The institution has just purchased
one T1 connection providing 1.5Mbps for upload and download. It has also
purchased the network address 12.22.32.0/24 from its ISP.
Additionally, make sure that all sub-networks are split up allowing them the
fastest access possible depending on their requirements. Also keep the design as
simple as possible allowing efficient troubleshooting while guaranteeing the least
downtime in the system.
As a Network Administrator, Design and Draw the network including
topology and Subnet for this institution with proper explanation/justification and
wherever the data necessary proceed with your assumption.
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Question 14: Economics
Explain how the following changes in aggregate demand or short-run aggregate supply, will affect the level of total output and the price level in the short run.
An increase in aggregate demand
A decrease in aggregate demand
An increase in short-run aggregate supply
A reduction in short-run aggregate supply
In the Keynesian framework, which of the following events might cause a recession? Which might cause inflation? Sketch AD/AS diagrams to illustrate your answers.
An increase in government purchases
An increase in nominal wages
A major improvement in technology
A reduction in net exports
Question 15: Psychology
The relationship between social media use and narcissistic personality trait
Question 16: Economics
Your submission should include the screenshots of the STATA outputs (graphs, summary tables, regression tables) along with your answers to the questions.
Stata file Growth.dta contains contains data on average growth rates over 1960-1995 for 65 countries, along with variables that are potentially related to growth. These data were provided by Professor Ross Levine of Brown University and were used in his paper with, Thorsten Beck and Norman Loayza “Finance and the Sources of Growth” Journal of Financial Economics, 2000, Vol. 58, pp. 261- 300.
Using this dataset, we would like to study determinants of GDP growth rate.
Variable
Definition
Country name
Name of country
growth
Average annual percentage growth of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)* from 1960 to 1995.
rgdp60
The value of GDP* per capita in 1960, converted to 1960 US dollars
Years school
Average number of years of schooling of adult residents in that country in 1960
1) Report a summary table where you have the mean, median, standard deviation, etc. of the outcome variable (growth) and the explanatory variables listed above (rgdp60 and years school). Interpret these results.
2) Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable rgdp60. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?
4) Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable years school. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?
3) Run a regression of growth on rgdp60.
a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient.
b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation?
c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.
5) Run a regression of growth on years school.
a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient. b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation.
c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.
Question 17: Psychology
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University of Phoenix Material
Correlation
A researcher is interested in investigating the relationship between viewing time (in seconds) and ratings of aesthetic appreciation. Participants are asked to view a painting for as long as they like. Time (in seconds) is measured. After the viewing time, the researcher asks the participants to provide a ‘preference rating’ for the painting on a scale ranging from 1-10. Create a scatter plot depicting the following data:
Viewing Time in Seconds
Preference Rating
10
3
12
4
24
7
5
3
16
6
3
4
11
4
5
2
21
8
23
9
9
5
3
3
17
5
14
6
What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference? Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of greater preference for paintings? Explain. Submit your scatter plot and your answers to the questions to your instructor.
Last assignment!! Please use the word document to get data from scatter plot. Whoever chooses part 1 needs to create plot for everyone to be able to answer the other 3 questions. Please be mindful of that before selecting part one. It would need to be in before everyone else completes their part.
Part 1 – create scatter plot–Dawn
Part 2 – What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference?
Part 3 – Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of greater preference for paintings?
Part 4 – Please explain why or why not?
Part 5 – Separate parts for assignment – Put completed parts together – edit – submit – Tanya
Correlation
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A researcher is interested in investigating the relationship between viewing time (in seconds) and ratings of aesthetic appreciation. Participants are asked to view a painting for as long as they like. Time (in seconds) is measured. After the viewing time, the researcher asks the participants to provide a ‘preference rating’ for the painting on a scale ranging from 1-10. Create a scatter plot depicting the following data:
Viewing Time in Seconds
Preference Rating
10
3
12
4
24
7
5
3
16
6
3
4
11
4
5
2
21
8
23
9
9
5
3
3
17
5
14
6
What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference? Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of greater preference for paintings? Explain. Submit your scatter plot and your answers to the questions to your instructor.
Question 18: Business
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Exercise A
Barney Company makes and sells stuffed animals. One product, Michael Bears, sells for $28 per bear. Michael Bears have fixed costs of $100,000 per month and a variable cost of $12 per bear. Howe many Michael Bears must be produced and sold each month to break even?
Exercise B
What is meant by the term break-even point? What are two ways in which the break-even point can be expressed? What is the relevant range?
Question 19: Chemistry
Using equations 1 and 2 and their respective equilibrium constants, K, determine the equilibrium constant for the third equation:
A –> B K1=0.10
3A + C –> D K2=0.020
D –> C +3B K=?
Question 20: Psychology
University of Phoenix Material
Week Eight Homework Exercise
Answer the following questions covering material from Ch. 14 of Methods in Behavioral Research:
What is replication, and what role does it play in increasing the external validity or generalizability of a study? In what way is the IRB involved in using participants in a research study?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using college students as participants in research studies?
What potential problems can arise from generalization of results to different cultures or ethnic groups?
What is meta-analysis, and how is it useful to practitioners and scholars?
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True or false: In many cases, meta analyses involves calculating an average effect size for a relationship between variables.
True or false: Many constructs, such as physical attractiveness and self-esteem, appear constant across cultures; thus, external validity is less of a concern when conducting research on such constructs. Provide a brief explanation of your answer.
Summarize the main points of the course, emphasizing the importance of research to the psychology profession.
Question 21: Psychology
University of Phoenix Material
Week Seven Homework Exercise
Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch. 13 of Methods in Behavioral Research:
Define inferential statistics and how researchers use inferential statistics to draw conclusions from sample data.
Define probability and discuss how it relates to the concept of statistical significance.
A researcher is studying the effects of yoga on depression. Participants are randomly assigned to one of two groups: yoga and medication (experimental group); or support group and medication (control group). What is the null hypothesis? What is the research hypothesis?
In the scenario described in the previous question, the researcher implements two programs simultaneously: a 6-week yoga program coupled with medication management and a 6-week support group program coupled with medication management. At the end of the 6 weeks, participants complete a questionnaire measuring depression. The researcher compares the mean score of the experimental group with the mean score of the control group. What statistical test would be most appropriate for this purpose and why? What is the role of probability in this statistical test?
In the scenario described in the previous questions, the researcher predicted that participants in the experimental group—yoga plus medication—would score significantly lower on measures of depression than would participants in the control group—support group plus medication. True or false: A two-tailed test of significance is most appropriate in this case. Explain your response.
Explain the relationship between the alpha level (or significance level) and Type I error. What is a Type II error? How are Type I and Type II errors different?
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A researcher is studying the effects of sex—male and female—and dietary sugar on energy level. Male and female participants agree to follow either a high sugar or low sugar diet for eight weeks. The researcher asks the participants to complete a number of questionnaires, including one assessing energy level, before and after the program. The researcher is interested in determining whether a high or low sugar diet affects reported energy levels differently for men and women. At the end of the program, the researcher examines scores on the energy level scale for the following groups: Men – low sugar diet; Men – high sugar diet; Women – low sugar diet; Women – high sugar diet. What statistic could the researcher use to assess the data? What criteria did you use to determine the appropriate statistical test?
Question 22: Chemistry
Consider the following calculation:
x=(b−c)/a
The following experimental values and their errors are obtained:
a = 22.1, Δa = 1.4
b = 29.6, Δb = 1.2
c = 25.7, Δc = 1.2
What is the absolute error in x (Δx)?
Note we are not asking for the value of x itself, only its error. Report your answer to 2 significant figures.
Question 23: English
Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the word, spend the morning studying. In the afternoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such
as helping on the farm, looking after people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.
One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. “I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people”, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ”You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.”
To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.
What is the writer trying to do in the text?
give an opinion about a particular student
give an opinion about his own experience of education
describe the activities the student
s do in their free time
describe his own experience of education
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Question 24: Economics
A Bank has $100 million in capital, and $900 million of checkable deposit. The bank currently maintains a total reserve of $100 million dollars, $200 million in T-bills, and rest in loans. A new corporate customer opens a checkable deposit account, and deposit $100 million.
1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?
1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?
1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.
1d. What is the equity multiplier?
1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)
1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.
1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?
1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?
1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.
1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?
1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?
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Question 25: Computer Science
Define an array of 100 ints, and write a loop (including the body) to initialize every element in the array to 0. You can name the array whatever you’d like.
Question 26: Physics
Design a digital circuit that receives a 4 bits BCD-coded(*) number X = abcd and returns a signal M7=1 if X ≥ 7, and M7=0 otherwise. The algorithm below shows the functional description of the circuit (“dc” means a “don’t care” combination).
Inputs and outputs of the circuit must be named as: a, b, c, d, and M7. Respect the upper and lowercases.
(*): BCD code (Binary Coded Decimal) encodes any base-10 number from 0 to 9 in base-2, using 4 bits. That is, 0 is coded by 0000, 1 by 0001, 2 by 0010 and so on until 9, which is encoded by 1001. Base-10 numbers higher than 9 require at least 2 digits and, consequently, they will never enter to the circuit.
if X > 1001 then M7<=dc; else if X > 0110 then M7<=1; else M7<=0; end if; end if;
Question 27: Other
Power-flow programs are used to analyze large transmission grids and the complex interaction between transmission grids and the power markets. Historically, these transmission grids were designed primarily by local utilities to meet the needs of their own customers. But increasingly there is a need for coordinated transmission system planning to create coordinated, continent-spanning grids. Describe in detail some of the issues associated with such large-scale system planning
Question 28: Physics
a) What is an island in an interconnected power system?
[3]
(b)Why is a micro grid designed to be able to operate in both grid-connected and
standalone modes?
[4]
(c) When operating in the stand-alone mode, what control features should be
associated with a micro grid?
Question 29: Other
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Analyze how standardizing procedures and documenting steps can improve outcomes when performing a complex procedure. Review the peer-reviewed journal article, The Next Wave of Hospital Innovation to Make Patients Safer. Articulate your position as the top administrator concerned about the importance of professional conduct and negligence in SCIP quality guidelines.
High Reliability Organizing emphasizes the varying actions that can affect patient safety given that standardized systems ignore the fact that each patient is different. Ascertain the major ramifications when the health care team “fails to rescue” the patient. Identify what hospital policies should be in place and identify previous case laws.
Analyze the four (4) elements required of a plaintiff to prove medical negligence.
Discuss the overarching duties of the health care governing board in mitigating the effects of medical non-compliance as they apply to the rules of practice set forth in the We Care Hospital governing board’s manifesto.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not quality as academic resources.
Question 30: Mathematics
Let T:R^3->R^3 be the transformation that reflects each vector x=(x_1, x_2,x_3) through the plane x_3=0 onto T(x)=(x_1,x_2,-x_3). Prove that T is a linear transformation
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Question 31: Geology
Name the five factors that involve in soil formations. With regard to each of these factors of soil formation compare a forested rocky mountain slope to the semi-arid grassland plains.
Question 32: General
GUIDELINES FOR WRITING A RESEARCH ESSAY
The Objective
The overall objective of a research paper is to present a thesis (a coherent and substantiated/evidence-supported argument) about a topic. The ideas that inform the paper are often those of the researcher and other people. It is the student’s responsibility to faithfully and meticulously acknowledge other people’s ideas by citing the sources. Quotation marks must be used for direct quotes.
The Requirements The research paper should be a maximum of 8-10 double-spaced typed pages/2000- 2500 words (of text). Font size should be 12 points. Margins should be a minimum of 1 inch. Papers that significantly depart from these requirements will be given a lower grade. Students may discuss the assignment, but the essay must be the student’s own work. Plagiarism and any other form of academic dishonesty will be heavily penalized.
The Assignment
Regions across the world are deeply entwined in economic, political, cultural, and environmental processes and activities. The term globalization is used to describe these transcontinental and interregional flows, processes and activities that bind the world’s regions. What are the impacts of globalization in our world of stark regional and social inequalities? “Globalization invites a fundamental questioning of the prospects for developing economies and the world’s poorest people in an era marked by powerful forces of world-wide economic, political and cultural interconnectedness, over which they have little direct political control”, according to McGrew (2000: 346) (McGrew, A., 2000. Sustainable globalization? The global politics of development and exclusion in the new world order. In Allen, T. and Thomas, A. (eds.), Poverty and Development into the 21st Century. Oxford: Oxford University Press). China is a key driver of globalization. There is a narrative that “China is quietly reshaping the world.” For example, China has, since 2013, spent US$300 billion, and plans to spend another US$1 trillion on an infrastructure project called the “Belt and Road” project (the largest ever infrastructure project) connecting countries across the globe from East Asia, to Southeast Asia, South Asia, Central Asia, Russia, Southwest Asia, Northeast Africa, and Europe. The regions in which this project occur comprise 65% of the world’s population and one-third of the world’s economic activities. The project is expected to increase interregional trade and economic cooperation. Beyond this massive infrastructure plan, China’s political, cultural and economic relations with other regions of the world have escalated at an astounding speed since the 1980s. Ninety-two countries in the various world regions have China as their largest international trade partner. Africa is a region which is experiencing rapid and deepening regional ties with China. McGrew (2000) invites us to fundamentally question which region and its people are (or are not) the primary beneficiaries of the increasing and deepening ties between China and Africa, and why. Write an explanatory research essay on: China-Africa Relations: Who Benefits, Who Loses, and Why.
1
Note: This assignment will be the subject of one of the questions posed in the final exam
The essay must be informed by the research of scholars and specialists, which is typically published in peer-reviewed academic journals and books. There are multiple academic journals and book resources in the University of Regina library, including electronic databases, which report the findings of research. Do subject and key word searches for the topic, for example, China and Africa economic relations, in order to identify the relevant journals and other sources of information. Seek the assistance of the librarians if you need help!
To help you with this assignment and to provide a solid context for a comprehensive explanation of China-Africa relations, please proceed as follows:
Read: a) The journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled
“Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76, as an example of “a middle-of-the-road/win-win” discussion of China-Africa relations. Note that there are other perspectives that question the balanced/win-win approach and instead emphasize the skewed benefits of this relationship for China, and the heavy costs for African countries.
b) The short article by Manuel, Anja (2017) entitled “China is quietly reshaping the world” https://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2017/10/china- belt-and-road/542667/ that describes the emerging scale of China’s ties with the rest of the world and some of the implications.
Do further library research to gather the key research-based material that would substantiate and support your arguments and discussion relating to the topic;
Prepare a one-page research proposal/plan that outlines:
a) The title of the essay;
b) The thesis statement (central idea/overall argument) of the essay. The thesis
statement is the overall (overarching) assertion/point regarding the topic, and
the rationale for making that assertion/point;
c) The objectives/goals that would be met by the essay in order to
comprehensively address the topic and its related thesis statement;
d) The argument/discussion you intend to make under each objective/goal and
the sources you intend to use in support of each argument/discussion.
An excellent exercise would be to identify the thesis statement (and rationale), and the objectives of the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76;
2
Append a reference list to the plan. Note that a minimum of 5 reputable academic sources, e.g. academic journal articles, is required;
Submit the proposal to your professor for comments, no later than Tuesday October 29; and
Finally, after careful consideration of the proposal and the Professor’s comments, start preparing the essay.
A sample of a research proposal is posted in URCOURSES
Writing Tips
Your final essay must reflect a thesis—an organized, well-structured, and coherent argument focused on the topic. The common rule is to have an introduction, main body, and a conclusion.
Introduction: provide a context for the topic, and a statement of the thesis and objectives of the paper.
Main body: present, in full, the analysis of evidence to support/substantiate arguments and systematically organize the discussion in paragraphs. Section headings are useful for improving the coherency of arguments (see example of journal articles, such as the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76).
Conclusions: summarize the thesis and highlight any related issues.
Grading
First class papers (A- to A+; 80% and above) will score very high on each of the criteria below. Lower grades will be inadequate in one or more of these criteria.
Research
a) Has the student provided relevant references, and a cited references list
and a bibliography that follow carefully the citation rules*?
b) Are there enough sources and are these sources actually used in a
substantive manner in the paper?
c) Are most of the sources academic refereed sources?
d) Are the references relatively recent or dated?
*Reference citations should conform to the APA (American Psychological Association) style. See PDF of summaries and samples of APA citation style in URCOURSES.
3
Argument: organization, logic, and coherence
a) Is a thesis (central idea/claim/assertion) clearly expressed and is it set in an
appropriate larger context?
b) Is the topic effectively limited in its scope?
c) Are the aims and objectives of the essay outlined clearly?
d) Is an analytical, easy to follow, and convincing argument sustained
throughout the essay?
e) Are ideas well developed and logical?
f) Does the essay have a clear structure with smooth transitions of sentences
and paragraphs?
g) Does the essay have a strong introduction and conclusion?
h) Does the conclusion follow from the evidence?
Argument: depth and breadth of evidence
a) Is sufficient evidence (specific empirical examples from specific research
in specific locations) provided to support the thesis and arguments?
b) Is the evidence factually correct, substantive, and precise?
c) Is the evidence provided relevant to the thesis?
d) Are there relevant facts and alternative arguments that are ignored?
Writing: style and mechanics
a) Are sentences clear, well-structured, focused, and meaningful?
b) Are grammar, spelling, and punctuation of excellent quality?
c) Does the paper demonstrate careful proof-reading and superior editing?
ANY CHALLENGE TO THE ASSIGNED GRADE MUST BE IN WRITING, AND MUST CLEARLY INDICATE THE SPECIFIC REASONS FOR DISSATISFACTION, AND MUST PROVIDE EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT THE REQUEST FOR CHANGE.
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Question 33: History
Instruction
How did the societies discussed in this chapter deal with the political, economic, and social challenges that they faced after World War I? How did these challenges differ from one region to another? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation
Question 34: History
Instruction
Review the telegrams under “Opposing Viewpoints” titled “Communications Between Berlin and Saint Petersburg on the Eve of World War II.” Based on these documents, what was the chief issue that led to the outbreak of war? Was Emperor William II correct when he told Tsar Nicholas II that the latter would “have to bear the responsibility for war or peace”? What do these telegrams suggest about why wars happen? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence
Question 35: History
Instruction
Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) How have historians answered the question of whether the United States or the Soviet Union bears the primary responsibility for the Cold War, and what evidence can be presented on each side of the issue? 2) How did the Cold War impact the nations of Southeast Asia? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation
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Question 8: Other
Unit II Essay
Marketing Plan: Part I
Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed below. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the three parts of the marketing plan that you will compose in Units II (Part I), IV (Part II), and VII (Part III). The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).
Scenarios for your start-up company are explained below. (Note that these descriptions are basic, and you will need to be creative and develop the business idea/model for your selected scenario.)
Scenario #1
Travel Supreme is a start-up travel organization with the mission of assisting customers with travel planning. While today’s customers enjoy developing their vacations themselves, Travel Supreme believes there are travel services that are still in demand. Initial research needs to develop what types of travel services are in demand by this target market.
Scenario #2
IT to Seniors is a start-up company interested in ensuring a positive experience for seniors (65 and older) with respect to the use of technological gadgets, software, the Internet, and/or any additional aspects of technology. Initial research will provide an idea of the business model that would be in most demand for this target market.
Scenario #3
Galaxy Restaurant is a start-up restaurant developed with the idea of providing the customer with a unique dining experience. This could extend from the product offering, service offering, atmosphere, or a host of other unique experiences. Initial research will provide an idea of what this unique dining experience would look like.
Scenario #4
Women on the Go is a startup company targeted at women who need assistance with the selection and purchasing of their clothing/accessories. This service is aimed at the more affluent customer who simply does not have the time and/or knowledge to dress to the business or social setting that they are expected to fulfill. Initial research will provide insight into the types of services that this particular target market would be interested in.
Remember to choose one of the aforementioned scenarios to use for the entire course. Submissions will be completed in Units II, IV, and VII and, together, will comprise a full marketing plan. While this is a cumulative marketing plan, submit only the designated unit’s work.
This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.
Include an introduction/overview of the company.
This section of the marketing plan should introduce the company and business model along with a brief description of the products/services.
Discuss market research strategies.
This section of the marketing plan should discuss the research strategies that will be used by your company to understand the target market(s), industry, competition, and/or any other aspects of the company that will provide valuable insight into profitable operations.
Describe the macro environment through a political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis.
In this section, you will compile a PEST analysis of your company. You will analyze how the changes in the macro environment as described in the PEST will impact the company and, specifically, the marketing decisions.
Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).
Select an existing company, and think about applying the political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis to this company. Discuss with your fellow students how using the PEST tool best assists marketers in analyzing the external environment in which they are operating. Review the Unit II Lesson in order to better understand the PEST analysis tool. Please bring forward a company that fellow students have not previously discussed.
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Question 9: Economics
(a) The specific-factors model holds that an increase in the relative price of a good lead to real gains for the specific factor used in that sector, losses for the other specific factor, and an ambiguous change in the real wage for labour, whereas the Heckscher Ohlin model predicts unambiguous real gains for one factor and losses for the other. In other words, the industry of employment should not matter in Heckscher Ohlin model but it does in the alternative model. Discuss the underlying causes of these different predictions.
(b) Think about an extension of the specific-factors model, in which, in addition to their wage, labour also earns some part of the rental on specific factor in their industry, i.e., farmers who own their own land and manufacturing workers who salary includes a profit based bonus. Discuss how this extension affects the conclusion of the model.
*Found two sources on course hero
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Question 10: Health Care
Promotional Plan Assignment
In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:
Write a 2-3 page recommendation for the integrated promotional plan necessary to successfully market your health care product or service.
Describe the audience you hope to reach with the promotion efforts, the primary message to be delivered across all media, and the rationale for your media choices. Take into consideration the geographic reach of your target market, and adapt your media choices accordingly.
Also, be realistic in cost considerations – do not plan a $2 million ad campaign for a product that will only create $1 million in revenue. The U.S. Small Business Administration suggests spending 7-8% of sales revenue on marketing and advertising each year. So, a new product expected to produce $10 million in sales annually might have a $700,000–$800,000 ad budget for the first year.
You will need to research the costs of local media and other communications such as public relations or special events to create an estimated budget for your total promotional plan. Much of this information can be found on the websites of local media outlets (search “ad rates”). For purposes of this assignment, estimated costs are acceptable.
Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to promotion and advertising. Be sure to include the use of traditional media and interactive/social media that you feel are the best choices to reach your target consumers. Explain why you have chosen these media, using the concepts of market segmentation and consumer buying behavior.
Question 11: Finance
Westlake Corporation has the following information (obtained) from its balance sheet, income statement and statement of retained earnings.
Increase in current assets
$50
Operating income
$75
Interest expense
$25
Increase in accounts payable
$35
dividends
$15
Increase in common stock
$20
Increase in net fixed assets
$23
Depreciation expense
$12
Income taxes
$17
Calculate the free cash flow from operations. (Answer found on chegg)
Question 12: Business
Provide a description of the company at which you work. The Company will be a government agency and primary product is travel arrangements. The system is called Defense travel system. (DTS)
Describe an “agency problem” (not just any problem) within the firm and discuss what you think is causing the problem and how the problem might be better controlled.
Describe the job dimensions of the firm and discuss whether or not you believe the current design is appropriate for the firm. Discuss any suggestions you might have for improving the job design.
Describe the compensation package for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or not you believe that the compensation package is effective. Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the compensation package.
Describe the individual performance measures for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or notyou believe that the performance measures are effective. Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the performance measures.
Question 13: Psychology
Survey discussion (please engage in the discussion the professor will be looking at this discussion thread. Please respond to this thread with your comments.
Team, why is it important to write good survey questions? and who is it important to?
Question 14: Other
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Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.
Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.
Option 1: Nike (pp. 30–31)
How has the industry in which Nike resides been doing over the last 5 years?
What are the pros, cons, and risks associated with Nike’s core marketing strategy? How have they managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
Who are the top three competitors of Nike, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Looking at the competitors you discussed in question #3, what would you recommend as being the next steps for these competitors and, subsequently, the next steps for Nike to combat these competitors?
Option 2: Cisco (pp. 58–59)
How is building a brand in a business-to-business (B2B) context different than that of a business-to-consumer (B2C) market? How has Cisco managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
How has the industry in which Cisco resides been doing over the last 5 years?
Who are the top three competitors of Cisco, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Is Cisco’s plan to reach out to consumers a viable one? Why, or why not? As a marketing manager for Cisco, what would you recommend to be the next steps?
Option 3: Intel (pp. 59–60)
Discuss how Intel changed ingredient-marketing history. What did it do so well in those initial marketing campaigns? How did Intel manage to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
How has the industry in which Intel resides been doing over the last 5 years?
Who are the top three competitors of Intel, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Evaluate Intel’s greatest risks and strengths as the industry moves out of the personal computer (PC) era. Identify the next steps that Intel needs to employ in order to maintain its competitive advantage.
In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.
Discuss an example of an organization that you believe does either a good job or a not-so-good job of marketing. Explain your rationale. For the sake of diversity within the class discussion, please do not duplicate organizations that have already been discussed by your fellow classmates.
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You may not be able to find all challengers (it’s early) but at least list the incumbent.
S. Senator
S. House of Representatives
Texas State Senator
Texas State Representative
Some School Board Members
Texas Railroad Commissioner
Texas Supreme Court
Texas Court of Criminal Appeals
Pick ONE of the offices above. Analyze and evaluate the candidate’s platforms. What goals or positions do they share? Where do they differ? In your opinion, which candidate is more aligned with Texas’ changing demographics? In your opinion, which candidate do you think will win the election? In your opinion, will the “best” candidate win?
If you can’t find a challenger, at least evaluate the incumbent’s background and platform and determine if he/she should face a challenger.
Resources:
You should be able to find most, if not all, of the information you need here:
By following links on the site above, you should be able to learn more about the candidates, including following links to candidates’ websites, Facebook profiles and Twitter pages.
My area: location for representatives is:
4900 Valley Ridge Drive
Irving, Texas 75062
Question 16: Economics
Based on your findings in the readings, place yourself in the role of a person determining the U.S. currency rate. Recently, you found that the U.S. dollar appreciated against the New Zealand dollar and depreciated against the Chinese yuan. If your goal was to promote U.S. exports, what would be your strategies? Address the concepts below within your essay submission.
Discuss the operation of the foreign exchange market.
Explain how traders benefit from the forward exchange market.
Describe how exchange rates are determined in a free market.
In addition to addressing the bullets listed above, your essay should be comprised of the sections listed below.
Introduction: Include an engaging paragraph or two on the important concepts that the reader will learn about while reading your essay assignment.
Discussion: Provide a brief summary of one article by comparing and contrasting the advantages and disadvantages of promoting U.S. exports. Then, briefly state your position in light of the article. The online databases listed below are recommended in order to find articles for the essay assignment.
Business Source Complete
ABI/INFORM Collection
Conclusion: Summarize the main results, and provide policy recommendations to promote U.S. exports.
Your APA-style essay should be a minimum of 500 words in length, not counting the title and reference pages. You are required to use a minimum of two sources; at least one source must come from the CSU Online Library (one source may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.
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Question 17: Engineering
We have a piece of cardboard that is 50cm by 20 cm and we are going to cut out the corners and fold up the sides to form a box. Determine the height of the box that will give the maximum volume.
Question 18: Mathematics
Find two positive number whose product is 750 and and for which the sum of one and ten times the other is a minimum
Question 19: English
Write an exemplification essay in which you argue the internet and social media (facebook,instagram,twitter,etc.) helps people feel good about themselves through sharing images, comments,stories,confessions,etc., or bad about themselves, for instance because it as an invasion of privacy. Some topics you could include are online bullying, the many internet challenges ( tide pod challenge, the Kylie Jenner Challenge, the cinnamon challenge,etc.) or on the other side how the internet and social media helps people stay connected.
If you use any quotes from an outside source cite it both in the, for example (Jones 56) and on the last page as a works cited listing.
Question 20: Economics
A monopolist is operating at an output level where |ε| = 3. The govern- ment imposes a quantity tax of $6 per unit of output. If the demand curve facing the monopolist is linear, how much does the price rise?
Question 21: History
Compare and contrast the steamboats of the antebellum years with technologies today. In your estimation, what modern technology compares to steamboats in its transformative power?
This answer is on Chegg
Question 22: English
One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”
Question 23: Business
Instruction
CASE STUDY Nissan Company Nissan Motor Company, Ltd, shortened to Nissan, is a Japanese multinational automaker. Head quartered in Japan, founded 1932. It formerly marketed vehicles under the “Datsun” brand name and is one of the largest car manufacturers –revenue appx $90 billion USD (2007) and Employees 190,000 (2008). Nissan continues its quest to optimize product development and deliver highly innovative technology. Today, in various countries and regions around the world they enjoy a reputation for creating truly innovative vehicles and service programs. With facilities around the world, the Qashqai, Micra, Micra C+C and Note are produced by Nissan Motor Manufacturing (UK) Ltd in Sunderland, Tyne & Wear. • Answer the following questions on the above case, you should review about this company through secondary available information and use APA style references 1) Describe the nature of operations management in the organization. In doing this, first describe the operation process of the production system. Second, identify operations decisions and responsibilities. Finally, write a short paper on some of the challenges facing operations management.? (Marks 2) (word count maximum:500) 2) Evaluate Nissan Motor Company in terms of its emphasis on the operations strategy objectives? What are the order winners and the order qualifiers? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 3) What is the proper role of the operations function in product design? (Marks .05) (word count maximum:100) 4) How to manage production and operation issues in the context of demand uncertainty and fluctuation? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 5) Suppose that Nissan Motor Company has considering moving from a batch process to an assembly-line process to better meet evolving market needs. What concerns might the following functions have about this proposed process change: marketing, finance, human resources, accounting, and information systems? (Marks 0.5) (word count maximum:150).
Question 24: Other
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Instruction
Conduct research on behavior skills assessments. Then, complete a self-evaluation using information you gained or realized through this week’s Books and Resources. Prepare a written appraisal of your own specific skills and behaviors, and then examine how these can be beneficial to guide organizational change as a leader/coach. Determine how these findings would affect your personal relations and those of others within an organization. Then, provide real world examples of the application to support your assessment. Support your assessment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assessment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
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Question 25: Mathematics
With only a part-time job and the need for a professional wardrobe, Rachel quickly maxed out her credit card the summer after graduation. With her first full-time paycheck in August, she vowed to pay $210 each month toward paying down her $7,424 outstanding balance and not to use the card. The card has an annual interest rate of 24 percent. How long will it take Rachel to pay for her wardrove? Should she shop for a new card? Why or why not?
If Rachel continues to pay $210 per month, it will take her 62 months to pay for her wardrobe. Answer is 62 how did we get 62?
Question 26: Business
Refer Attachment for questions. Pls refer the YouTube links.
Requirements Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)
Case: Discussion on Australian Auto Industry
Some videos related to the event covered in the case:
this topic, we will focus more on the flow of capital globally. Obviously, the global capital market provides opportunities as well as risks for investors & companies looking for financing. However, a major development over the past 2 decades — a rather worrisome one in my mind — has been the dominance of financial institutions (the ultimate handlers of capital) in the world economy. Financial industry emerged to serve the “real” industries. For instance, the creation of install payments allowed the exponential sales growth for Singer sewing machines. The innovative mortgage products allow us to enjoy the ownership of a house before we save up enough to buy one. But now, the servant has become the master — CEOs of companies now listen to Wall Street and try to meet the earnings estimate of some analysts who may have never set foot on the floor of any factory. Private equity fund managers buy and sell companies, often destroying the core competencies and the culture of a company while dressing up the balance sheet and then they exit with 100% to 300% returns in 1 to 3 years. A newly college-minted investment banker can make $200k plus while a senior engineer makes half of that. Smart graduates from MIT go to Wall Street to do financial engineering rather than real engineering. With their ingenious engineering, we now have all kinds of financial products. While the real-world economy is about $70 trillion, outstanding derivative contracts are estimated to be more than 10 times that, some of which we don’t know what they are and how they work or how risky they are and whether they will lead to another financial crisis like 2008 again. With my rather “biased” negative view of Wall Street out in the open (Mind you, I have an MBA in finance),
I would like that you think about the following:
1) In what ways can a company be exposed to foreign exchange risks? What are some of the ways to hedge? Should companies try to make money from such hedging activities?
2) What are the causes of the global financial crisis of 2008? What caused the crisis in Greece a few years back? Have we (governments, financial institutions, investors etc.) made enough changes (or any changes at all) to prevent future crises?
Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)
Question 27: Religious Studies
Please imagine, that you are the architect of a new society. It is up to you to determine the social order, the culture, the norms and values of this totally new world. You are indeed creating a religion, but you are not limited to theological tenets. Your goal is to influence the way that your community interacts with one another. Therefore, it is important to think about what you want people to believe. How should individuals interact with one another, and what boundaries and rules will govern those interactions? Is there a sacred space that encourages community in this new society like a church, synagogue, or the Kaaba in Muhammad’s day? What holidays are important if there are any? Does your religion believe in a spiritual realm, or how does it deal with death, life, and the afterlife if at all?
Please think about all of the religious teachers that we have discussed such as the Buddha, Confucius, Lao Tzu, Moses, Jesus, and Muhammad, to name a few and their stories. Think about what they taught and the challenges they faced in influencing others to believe and behave in a certain manner. Like them, …others will be dissecting your “Religion” centuries from now, and they will determine if what you’ve organized and constructed is a good and logical system to follow. Nevertheless, your goal is to achieve the common ends of promoting social cohesion, or helping people to achieve an eternal reality, or simply the best “good” within the individuals that encounter your religion. This is your world, and the fate of it will lie in your system of beliefs.
Below are a few elements to include and/or consider for your new society. Just remember…its success depends on the health of your socio-religious ideas that you put forward.
Name of Religion:
Founder:
The story of the Founder:
Circumstances of Birth, Childhood, Adult Life (Ex: Story of Buddha in the Palace & the Four Passing sights; Jesus’ virgin birth narrative)
Country and the realities of their day, etc. (Confucius and the Warring States of China; Buddha and the caste system)
Religious Creed: a written formal statement of beliefs that highlight central tenets of your religion.
Nicene Creed (Catholicism)
Shahadah (Islam)
Major Tenets of Belief: Primary characteristics, practices, or beliefs that define a follower of your religion. You can include your Ten Commandments extra credit for this.
Ten Commandments (Judaism)
Eight Noble Truths (Buddhism)
5 Pillars (Islam)
Denominations: Give at least 2-3 variations of your initial belief system and how they differ from original, or orthodox belief. What happened? What caused the split?
Religious Symbols: Think of a symbol that already exists, or that you can create, that represents your religion and belief system.
Re-visit your Iconography assignment from Lesson 9
Other Things to Consider:
What is your religion’s view of God?
What is your religion’s view of the afterlife?
How can someone be initiated into your religion?
Is this religion the only way to truth?
Does your religion address any social realities like politics, social order, and behavior? Is there a Caste system, or other social programs? Think Confucius’ deliberate tradition
Is there a day of the week that your religion congregates? What does this look like?
What holidays are important, and how are they relevant to your religion? (Feel free to create a holiday)
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Question 28: Education
Research a health care organization or network that spans several states with in the United States (United Healthcare, Vanguard, Banner Health, etc.). Assess the readiness of the health care organization or network you chose in regard to meeting the health care needs of citizens in the next decade.
Prepare a 1,000 word paper in APA format that presents your assessment and proposes a strategic plan to ensure readiness. Include the following:
Describe the health care organization or network.
Describe the organization’s overall readiness based on your findings.
Prepare a strategic plan to address issues pertaining to network growth, nurse staffing, resource management, and patient satisfaction.
Identify any current or potential issues within the organizational culture and discuss how these issues may affect aspects of the strategic plan.
Propose a theory or model that could be used to support implementation of the strategic plan for this organization. Explain why this theory or model is best.
Question 29: English
One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”
Question 30: Chemistry
An ice freezer behind a restaurant has a Freon leak, releasing 42.39 g of C2H2F3Cl into the air every week. If the leak is not fixed, how many kilograms of fluorine will be released into the air over 6 months? Assume there are 4 weeks in a month.
Question 31: Chemistry
The compound known as butylated hydroxytoluene, abbreviated as BHT, contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. A 3.876 g sample of BHT was combusted in an oxygen rich environment to produce 11.61 g of CO2(g) and 3.803 g of H2O(g).
Question 1: Engineering
Research Paper
Solid fuel and component recovery from tetra-pak
waste using hydrothermal treatment
Question 2: Computer Science
Java Tutor-A*
COSC 520/CPMA 580: Artificial Intelligence
Assignment #2: 19-Puzzle
Points: 100
Consider a variant of the 8-puzzle where there are 19 tiles plus a blank, arranged in the shape of a cross. An example would be:
The rules of the puzzle are the same as that of the 8-puzzle. A tile may be moved to the blank space in each move (or you can think of it as moving the blank). The goal is to get all the tiles in the following order using the fewest number of moves:
Write an program using the A* algorithm to solve this puzzle.
The program should use a consistent heuristic measure for h. One possible function is the Manhattan distance: For any non-blank tile, find the difference in the x-direction from where the tile is to where it should be in the solution and add that to the difference in the y-direction from where the tile is to where it should be. Sum up these numbers for all the non-blank tiles to calculate h.
The program should read in the starting state from standard input and print out the states that lead to the goal to standard output. The input and output will consist of just the numbers, not the lines as shown above. The number 0 will indicate the blank in the input and the output.
Allowable Code
You may use any code from the book or from class. You may use the APIs for a PriorityQueue, HashMap or HashTable, and ArrayList, or similar code for these data structures (and accredit the code.) You must write your own A* algorithm code or use the book’s code.
Sample Run
java Puzzle
Start State:
21
63
4 11 5 7 0 8
10 12 13 14 15 9
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 0
10 12 13 14 15 9
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 9
10 12 13 14 15 0
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 9
10 12 13 14 0 15
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 9
10 12 13 0 14 15
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 9
10 12 0 13 14 15
16 17
18 19
21
63
4 11 5 7 8 9
10 0 12 13 14 15
16 17
18 19
21
63 405789
10 11 12 13 14 15
16 17 18 19
21
63 450789
10 11 12 13 14 15
16 17
18 19
21
03 456789
10 11 12 13 14 15
16 17
18 19
01
23 456789
10 11 12 13 14 15
16 17
18 19
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Question 3: Engineering
suppose first and second ball drawn from urn are red and black what is the probability you have presented with urn c2
Question 4: Engineering
Acetone is typically produced in commercial quantities as a by-product during the formation of phenol. Benzene is alkylated to cumene, which is further oxidised to cumene hydro peroxide and finally cleaved to yield phenol and acetone. However, acetone manufactured thus generally contains small amounts of the reactant benzene and the desired product phenol. In the past, these impurities were deemed to be within allowable limits. However, recent downward revisions of these limits, particularly in the pharmaceutical industry, has made alternative processes (which do not involve benzene) more attractive. You are required to design one such alternative process, using isopropyl alcohol as the reactant and appropriate catalyst(s) that will achieve minimal effluent discharge. Assume an operating period of 8000 hrs on stream and 95% purity of the final product.
Question 5: Computer Science
COMP 2412
Fall 2019
Assignment 1#
Total Marks: 30
Notes:
For each assignment question submit program files (C/C++).
Make a document file and write pseudocodes for all three
program.
Each question has 10 marks (5 for pseudocode and 5 for the
implementation)
Your program should have well documented too. If your code is
not well documented (commented), you will recive 20% (1 mark) penalties on each question.
Final Deliverables:
Three program files for three tasks and one document file which will have pseudocodes. And finally compressed all files in one assignment1.zip file.
Write the C/C++ program that uses a recursive function to print the elements of a list in reverse order.
Write a C/C++ program for the recursive algorithm that removes all occurrences of a specific character from a string.
Write down a program which will create a list (simple linear linked list) of nodes. Each node consists of two fields. The first field is a
pointer to a structure that contains a student id (integer) and a grade- point average (float). The second field is a link. The data are to be read from a text file. Your program should read a file of 10 students (with student id and grade point average) and test the function you wrote (by printing student’s information on screen).
Question 6: Engineering
6-13. As a junior field engineer, you have been asked to assist the contractor on your job in resolving the following problem. A 4.9 kW motor and gear drive rated at 175 rpm has been shipped with the four impellers described below. The baffled rapid mix tank into which it is to be installed is 3.0 m3 in volume (1.56 m diameter by 1.56 m deep). Which impeller should be used? Assume a water temperature of 10°C, a G = 1,000 s–1, a water density of 1,000 kg/m3, and that the motor power to water power efficiency is 80%. Show the calculations to justify your decision.
Impellers
Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.48 m, Np = 1.0
Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.61 m, Np = 1.0
having read rachel harveys essay my serenity. Write a paragraph describing your serenity. Like the author,you should convey an impression not just of the feeling itself or of the setting that produces it ,but both
Question 8: Mathematics
Suppose that, historically, April has experienced rain and a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 20 days. Also, historically, the month of April has had a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 25 days. You have scheduled a golf tournament for April 12. If the temperature is between 35 and 50 degrees on that day, what will be the probability that the players will get wet?
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estion 9: Accounting
Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd., manufactures grass collection attachments for Lawn Mowers that are sold in the market. The income statement for 2018 indicated an operating loss of $420,000 details of which are given below: Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd. Sales (30,000 attachments @$500 each) 15,000,000 Fixed Costs 5,670,000 Variable Costs 9,750,000 Operating income (420,000) Mr Samuel (cost accountant) and Mr Martin, his assistant, have been asked by the owners of Laurie Manufacturing to see if there are ways to reduce costs. After some thinking and some analysis, Martin proposes to Samuel the following two options: 1.Option 1 – To reduce the variable costs by 70%, by procuring cheaper direct raw materials. 2.Option 2 – To reduce the company’s variable costs by 60%, by reducing the costs it currently incurs for safe disposal of wasted plastic resulting from the manufacture of the grass collection attachments. Samuel is concerned that this would expose Laurie Manufacturing to potential 3 environmental liabilities. He requests Martin to factor into his analysis an estimation of potential environmental liabilities. Samuel responds by saying: “We are not violating any laws. There is some possibility that we may have to incur environmental costs in the future, but if we bring it up now, this proposal will not go through because the owners will always assume that these costs could be larger than they turn out to be. We may be in danger of the company closing down and costing our jobs. The only reason our competitors are making money is because they are doing exactly what I am proposing.” REQUIRED: 1. Show calculations for break even revenues for 2018. 2. Show calculations to determine the break even revenues for 2018, if variable costs are at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 3. Show calculations to determine the operating income for 2018, if variable costs were at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 4. Evaluate Martin’s comments in line with the ethical standards as advanced by the Institute of Management Accountants. 5. How would the non-inclusion of environmental costs impact Laurie Manufacturing in the future.
Question 10: Business
Excel has the capability to convert/summarize numbers into visual representation through various charts. Share with the class why charts are important. Are there particular types of charts for specific purposes? For instance, when is the right time to use a pie chart instead of a line chart or a bar chart?
Question 11: Other
You are a manager in charge of a marketing research project. Your goal is to determine what effects different levels of advertising have on consumption behavior. Based on the results of the project you will recommend the amount of money to be budgeted for advertising different products next year. Your supervisor will require strong justification for your recommendations, so your research design has to be as sound as possible. However, your resources (time, money, and labor) are limited. Develop a research project to address this problem. Focus on the kind of research designs you would use, why you would use them, and how you would conduct the research.
Question 12: Computer Science
Let us consider the following Elliptic Curve Equation y 2 = x 3 + x + 6 mod 11 over the
Prime field of 𝑍ଵଵ
∗ and solve the following questions
a. Find the list of points lies on the elliptic curve
b. Assume that 𝑃 = (5,2), Calculate 5. 𝑃 = (𝑥, 𝑦) and find (𝑥, 𝑦)
Directions: (1) For each set of variables provided, please form a research question, (2) next, create a Research and Null hypotheses, (3) identify which variable is the independent variable and which variable is the dependent variable, (4) provide a conceptual definition for each variable, (5) lastly, create five indicators for each of your conceptual definitions (if needed).
I have done the first one for you as an example.
Cash Incentives and Test Performance
RQ: Will cash incentives increase test performance?
HA: Cash incentives will increase test performance.
HO: There is no relationship between cash incentives and test performance.
IV: Cash incentives
DV: Test performance
Conceptualization 1: For the purposes of this research cash incentives will be defined as a cash award for grades received on an examination.
Indicators for conceptualization 1: $50 for an A, $40 for a B, $20 for a C, $0 for D or F.
Conceptualization 2: For the purposes of this research, test performance is defined as grade received on an exam.
Indicators for conceptualization 2: None needed. The conceptualization does not require operationalization as it already specifies exactly how the concept will be measured.
Attractiveness of Person and Perceived Credibility
RQ:
HA:
HO:
IV:
DV:
Conceptualization 1:
Indicators for conceptualization 1:
Conceptualization 2:
Indicators for conceptualization 2:
Academic Stress and Prescription Amphetamine Abuse
RQ:
HA:
HO:
IV:
DV:
Conceptualization 1:
Indicators for conceptualization 1:
Conceptualization 2:
Indicators for conceptualization 2:
Intelligence and Assertiveness
RQ:
HA:
HO:
IV:
DV:
Conceptualization 1:
Indicators for conceptualization 1:
Conceptualization 2:
Indicators for conceptualization 2:
Number of Hours of Daylight and Suicide
RQ:
HA:
HO:
IV:
DV:
Conceptualization 1:
Indicators for conceptualization 1:
Conceptualization 2:
Indicators for conceptualization 2:
Question 14: Business
Select one element of the Marketing mix and discuss how marketing research could help that area. Be specific in your recommendations.
Your original response is due, and then reply to another student’s post . The required length for your original posting is 350 words, and your reply should be a minimum of 250 words.
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Question 15: Communications
This week you will have the opportunity to write a letter to the editor as a way to explore your research topic. If you have never read any letters to the editor, you might find reading a few as a way to see what it is you will be writing. The source you choose to read them from will not matter since the content and guidelines for letters to the editor are quite similar. As I wrote in the syllabus, the letters are short (usually about 200 words so one typed page double spaced) and are to the point with a specific focus. This means you will want to write about an aspect of your research topic.
Question 16: Psychology
I just need an introduction paragraph for the paragraph below… 100 words
A well-known researcher at a major university has two graduate student assistants. He conducts three studies in his laboratory, all of which involve very labor-intensive procedures. The graduate research assistants complete all of the data collection. They also assist in writing the Discussion section of the final article, adding their thoughts and suggestions to the various drafts. The article is accepted into a leading journal for publication. The primary researcher lists only himself as author of the article, claiming that he wrote at least 75% of the final paper.
Describe the ethical consideration(s) involved with the scenario.
Has the primary researcher committed an ethical violation?
Question 17: Physics
In a cycling road race consisting of a flat section and an uphill section, a particular cyclist pedals with an average power of 324 Watts for 5.50 hrs on the flat section of the course, and an average power of 418 Watts for 30.0 mins while climbing the uphill section, which has an average grade of 6%. Potentially useful information: power=energy/time; 1 watt= 1 joule/sec; 1kcal= 4186 J; 1kcal = 1 food Calorie.
(A) calculate the average mechanical power output of the cyclist over the whole race.
(B) given that the human body has an efficiency of 25.0% at converting foo energy into mechanical output, how many kcal of food energy must the cyclist consume to replace the mechanical energy expended during the race?
Question 18: Mathematics
Find The Limit As X Approaches 0 Of (5x-tan(5x))/x^3 Using L’Hospital’s Rule.
Question 19: Health Care
Objectives & Target Market Assignment
In this writing assignment, you will complete the following steps:
Write at least two marketing objectives to be accomplished by this marketing plan. Be sure that your objectives are stated in a way to meet the criteria for “S.M.A.R.T.” goals, which means they are:
Specific — answer the who, what, when, where, why questions
Measurable – include a numeric objective (“increase sales to $10 million”)
Attainable – within your reach, even if optimistic (you are willing to commit)
Realistic – have a reasonable likelihood of being met (you are able to commit)
Timely – have a deadline or time period attached
Based on your analysis of the market data, and a comprehensive understanding of the customer and the buying processes, write a 2-3 page description of the major segments of the market and the specific target market segment you have chosen to serve. Be sure to include a discussion of demographic and psychographic factors if you are targeting a consumer segment, or for business targets, a discussion of whether you are serving a producer, reseller, institution or government unit. Include your reasons for concluding that this is the target market segment that is most likely to be served profitably by your firm.
Please combine all sections of this draft (Marketing Objectives and Target Market Strategy) into a single document, along with citation of sources.
Question 20: Economics
On September 6, Sam Goldfarb reported for the Wall Street Journal that the “average yield on double-B bonds, the highest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has fallen to 4.07% from 4.69% at the start of May, according to Bloomberg Barclays data. The average yield on a tiple-C bond, close to the lowest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has increased to 10.89% from 9.64%”. Explain why the average yield on double-B bonds has decreased, while the average yield on triple-C bonds rose?
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Question 21: Economics
Visit WSJ.com Bond Benchmark page, and calculate the risk premium on the latest Baa corporate bond relative to AA corporate bonds.
Question 22: Accounting
Need to completely answer three accounting case questions. Please take a look at the attached document and answer the case study questions completely and accurately.
Accounting discussion Questions
Case A Revenue Recognition
Smooth Blend, Inc., a calendar year company, produces several blends of whiskey. Maturing whiskey is stored for 3 years in a large, dark aromatic warehouse owned by Smooth Blend. Smooth Blend sells the whiskey to Distributor Company at the beginning of the aging process (January 1, 2011). Distributor Company will pick up the whiskey at the end of the aging process (December 31, 2013) and take it to its facilities for bottling. Distributor Company pays the full purchase price to Smooth Blend on January 1, 2011 to protect itself against price increases.
When should Smooth Blend recognize revenue? Why?
Would your answer change
If the quality control manager of Distributor Company had the right to taste the whiskey on December 31, 2013 and receive a full refund if not satisfied with the quality of the liquor?
If there was no right of return but Smooth Blend promised to help Distributor Company attract customers?
If Smooth Blend acquired a fixed price option from Distributor Company to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?
How would your answer change if Smooth Blend sold the whiskey to Friendly Bank, agrees to oversee the aging process on the bank’s behalf, and acquires a fixed price forward from Friendly Bank to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?
Case B: Revenue Recognition: Timing
Accountants from Construction Company, Boat Builder Company and BMW are discussing revenue recognition. All are calendar year companies. A description of the production process of each company follows.
Construction Company builds homes on lots it owns. It currently is building a home for Billy Bob (BB). The terms of the contract required BB to pay the entire $200,000 price of the home on the date the construction contract was signed (October 1, 2012). The advance payment protects BB from a forecasted increase in home prices. The contract promises BB that he can move into the house no later than 9 months from when he signs the contract (June 30, 2013). The total expected cost of completing the house is $150,000. If the house is not completed by June 30, 2013 Construction Company must pay BB a $1,500 penalty each week until he can move into the house. Construction Company spends
$20,000 to lay the foundation for the house in 2012. It completes the house for $2,000 under budget on July 1.
Boat Builder Company currently is completing work on a boat that a customer contracted for on September 30, 2012 and expects to take delivery of on August 1, 2013. The $200,000 fixed price contract does not obligate the customer to pay Boat Builder until the boat is delivered and the title transfers to the customer. The boat is a basic design offered by Boat Builder. Customers individualize the basic boat by selecting custom trim, accessories and other finish details. Boat Builder typically fulfills specific customer orders rather than holding boats in inventory. If the customer cancels the contract prior to delivery, Boat Builder must be paid for any work completed up to that date. Boat Builder incurs initial design and selling costs of $10,000. Boat Builder’s actual and expected building costs are
$150,000, which consists of raw materials of $50,000 and labor costs of $100,000. The raw materials are purchased on October 1, 2012. Raw materials are consumed and direct labor costs are incurred evenly over the construction period.
BMW agrees to sell Joe Customer a new BMW 650i for $85,000 on December 4, 2012 through one of its company-owned dealerships. The cost to BMW to produce the car is $60,000. Because of the highly specified nature of the options requested by this customer, BMW must build the car from scratch, a process that will take 8 weeks. BMW anticipates delivering the vehicle on February 1, 2013.
Under current GAAP, how much revenue should Construction Company, Boat Builder and BMW recognize in 2012 and 2013? Please answer in a minimum of 200 words
Case C: Cellular Telephone Contract
XTel runs a promotion in which new customers who sign a two-year contract receive a free phone. There is a one-time activation fee of $50 and a monthly fee of $40 for the ongoing service. The same monthly fee is charged by XTel regardless of whether the free phone is provided. Each phone costs XTel $100.
XTel frequently sells the phone separately for $120. XTel is not required to refund any portion of the fee paid for any reason. XTel is a sufficiently capitalized, experienced and profitable business. There is no reason to believe the two years of service will not be provided.
How should XTel account for this transaction? Please answer completely with a minimum of 150 words.
Friedman identifies 10 ‘Flatteners” in part 2 of TWIF that he believes have accelerated the pace of Globalization. For this discussion assignment, you should rank what you believe to be the top 3 of these 10 flatteners in order of their impact. In other words, identify your first, second and third most important Flattener based on TWIF or other observations or information you may have. Give a brief explanation for why these particular flatteners are so important and a rationale for your ranking as part of your contribution. Feel free to comment on the responses of your peers.
Question 25: Business
Current position of the organisation: Provide an outline of goals and the philosophy of the
organisation. Present the current target market and performance of the organisation. (10 Marks)
2. Analysis of the business environment: Effectively assess the Micro-Environment, Market /
Task environment and Macro-Environment of your organisation. (20 Marks)
3. Roles and skills of managers: To discuss the overlapping roles of managers and the skills
required of them in order to take the organisation. The management style of the management
team and its relevance to the achievement of the organisational goals. (15 Marks)
4. Human Resources: An assessment of the organisations human resources in terms of skills,
motivation and retention. (15 Marks)
3
5. Change Management: Ways in which management can react to the changing business
environment. Discuss the inter-related approaches which the organisation can adopt in reacting
to the environment. (10 Marks)
6. Organisation Design: The fundamental principles underlying organisation design should be
discussed. Evaluate the organisational structure of the organisation and its suitability for the
growth and expansion of the organisation. (15Marks)
7. Recommendations: Present possible recommendations and critical success factors that the
organisation should implement to achieve the desired goals.
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Question 26: History
Instruction
In one paragraph, identify which 3 colonies you feel were the best examples of what would become the United States. Then explain why for each in 1-2 sentences. Total length of paragraph should be 5-8 sentences. Consider values important to us today as Americans, which colonies really influenced these core values the most?
Question 27: Health Care
(Title of the paper): Identify the prevalence of tick-borne diseases from existing data and the risk of co-infection in the United States for the last two decades then provide public health recommendations to increase awareness regarding the tick-borne diseases
Nature & scope of proposed paper:
Tick-borne diseases have been a significant public health problem in the last two decades. Climate change and global warming are two crucial factors affecting the growth of tick-borne pathogens that should be controlled to maintain humans and domestic animals’ health (Sutherst, 2004). According to the CDC report (CDC, 2016) listed that top five tick-borne diseases in the United States: anaplasmosis, babesiosis, Lyme disease, spotted fever rickettsiosis, and ehrlichiosis. Regarding to the geographical distribution to TBD, the CDC demonstrated in the 2016 report that cases have been found of Babesiosis in the east coast states, west coast states, southern states, northern states; additionally, anaplasmosis cases have been found in Colorado, Idaho, New Mexico, Alaska, and Hawaii in (2016, CDC). The US Department of Health and Human Services has released in ‘Tick-borne Disease Working Group 2018 report’ (HHS,2018) to the Secretary and the Congress that Lyme disease has raised by 300% in the northeastern states and 250% in the north-central states.
There are three significant tick-borne diseases in the northeast states, including, Lyme disease, babesiosis, and anaplasmosis according to the (CDC, 2018). The Lyme disease profile contains the disease agents: Borrelia burgdorferi and B. mayonii; as well as the mode of transmission: a lone star tick bite; also, the disease has two stages localized stage and disseminated stage; additionally, the incubation period: 3 days to a month (CDC, 2018). The second TB disease is babesiosis including the agents: Babesia microti and other Babesia species; also, the disease could be transmitted by the vector Ixodes scapularis ticks and the signs of the disease are mostly asymptomatic, however, sometimes it could be lethal; lastly, the incubation period is one to more than nine weeks (CDC, 2018). The third tick-borne disease profile is anaplasmosis. The anaplasmosis’ agent is Anaplasma phagocytophilum also the diseases could transfer by a bite from an infected tick and a contaminated blood transfusion (CDC, 2018). In addition to the epidemiological profile of the tick-borne disease, the risks of co-infection consider a significant health problem that concerns the public health community. In a retrospective cohort study conducted by (Fida, 2019) stated that 37% of patients with babesiosis developed non-fatal co-infection of Lyme diseases and anaplasmosis.
In conclusion, this project aims to identify the magnitude of tick-borne disease in the US, create a geographical map of at least four of tick-borne diseases in the US, compose an epidemiological profile of 4 TB diseases, finally develop public health recommendation of the prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases.
TBD- Tick-borne disease TB- Tick-borne
Objectives (please list a minimum of three):
By 9/12/19, conduct literature reviews with a minimum of 15 evidence-based article of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the US.
By 9/19/19, identify the prevalence of a minimum 4 of tick-borne diseases in the United States specifically the northern states of the US from existing data.
By 9/25/19, distinguish prevalence of co-infection and the risk of tick-borne diseases co-infections from existing data.
By 10/10/19, create geographical map of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the northern states or in the US by using existing maps
By 10/20/19, arrange epidemiological profile of 5 tick-borne diseases in the north east states.
By 11/1/19, develop minimum of 4 public health recommendations focusing on prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases in the US.
By 11/15/19, finalize and submit the report, portfolio, and the poster.
Strategies to be used:
Review of the literature (primary studies, case studies) and public health sites including the CDC, MMWR, https://www.cdc.gov/ticks/diseases/index.html to identify tick borne diseases in the US, prevalence, and epidemiological profiles.
Site resources to be used (if special permission is needed to gain access to data, records, etc. how it will be arranged):
Identify which competencies you will be developing during the course of your APE (please identify a minimum of five competencies, of which three must be foundational competencies):
FC1: Apply epidemiological methods to the breadth of settings and situations in public health practice
FC2: Select quantitative and qualitative data collection methods appropriate for a given public health context
FC3: Analyze quantitative and qualitative data using biostatistics, informatics, computer-based programming and software, as appropriate.
FC4: Interpret results of data analysis for public health research, policy or practice
FC7: Assess population needs, assets, and capacities that affect communities’ health
EPIC1: Identify key sources of data for epidemiologic purposes.
EPIC2: Describe a public health problem in terms of magnitude, person, time and place.
EPIC3: Apply the basic terminology and definitions of epidemiology.
EPIC4: Draw appropriate inferences from epidemiologic data.
References: (AMA or APA formatting)
Fida, M., Challener, D., Hamdi, A., O’horo, J., & Abu Saleh, O. (2019, June). Babesiosis: A Retrospective Review of 38 Cases in the Upper Midwest. In Open forum infectious diseases (Vol. 6, No. 7, p. ofz311). US: Oxford University Press.
Hersh, M. H., Ostfeld, R. S., McHenry, D. J., Tibbetts, M., Brunner, J. L., Killilea, M. E., … & Keesing, F. (2014). Co-infection of blacklegged ticks with Babesia microti and Borrelia burgdorferi is higher than expected and acquired from small mammal hosts. PloS one, 9(6), e99348.
Sutherst, R. W. (2004). Global change and human vulnerability to vector-borne diseases. Clinical microbiology reviews, 17(1), 136-173.
Final products (Each student must include two products. Students must match their identified competencies to their products. A specific deliverable can cover more than one competency
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Question 28: Sociology
Instruction
Based on your reading of Ghetto, and other materials we have covered in this course, your essay will outline forces that influence the lives of those residing in ghettos and how the activities of people affect life in the ghetto. You will accomplish this by answering the following questions: 1. What political, economic, and cultural forces influence life in ghettos? In answering this question, you will want to outline the economic and political forces that influenced people’s pursuit of livelihood opportunities in the economy (both formal and informal). More specifically, you will want to discuss the economic, cultural and political factors that contributed to overall condition and the day to day lives of the residents. 2. How do race, class, and gender differences play a role living in the ghetto? In answering this question, you will relate specific examples from the book on how differences in race, class, and gender influence interactions between different types of people. Are these differences causes of tension or sources of unfairness? You will also describe how ideas about race and class influence outsider’s perceptions and, in turn, how those perceptions influence institutional ‘solutions’ to the perceived problems. Are the tactics used to address the (perceived) problems effective (or not)? 3. How does space affect the life of the residents and the city? In answering this question, you will use evidence from the book to argue whether the people and their activities are positive or negative influences on the life of the city as a whole. In other words, you will use specific evidence from the book to evaluate whether outsiders’ negative perceptions of street people are accurate (or not). FORMAT : Your essay should be 4 pages long, not including your bibliography (a cover sheet is not necessary). It should be in 12-point font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Writing much less than 4 pages will hurt your grade. You must use the APA system for references.
Question 29: Education
Instruction
Using Leverage Leadership 2.0: A Practical Guide to Building Exceptional Schools 2nd Edition as a tool to complete the paper. (this book is mandatory in writing this paper) The paper should be on building school culture and a vision that would be beneficial to the entire school. (Staff, students and parents) Research project or research paper: Topics for the research project/paper may come from any listed in the course training materials, review of literature, the textbook, or a topic of interest to the individual consistent with the content of this course. The research paper should be eight to ten pages in length and utilize the American Psychological Association (APA) documentation and include at least 8 sources. Projects may be done in PowerPoint, Publisher or other 21st-century software appropriate for the task, but should contain internal citations and end with a reference list that is matched to the sources cited in the project.
Project Grading Rubric
SCALE
1
2
3
4
Total Points
Organization (Focus and rationale)
No focus/no rationale
Information somewhat relates to the topic and rationale
Information tied to topic and supports rationale
Information presented in logical and engaging sequence, closely tied to topic/supports rationale
Content knowledge
No research evident (e.g. power point slides only with no elaboration)
Some research evident (e.g. power point slides with limited elaboration)
Research evident (e.g. power point slides with some elaboration)
Extensive research evident (e.g. explanation and elaboration in notes of power point)
Introduction
Introduction does not convey the topic.
Introduction provides a general thesis.
Introduction delineates subtopics and general thesis.
Introduction clearly delineates subtopics, intended audience, key questions(s), terms, and specific thesis.
Closure
Conclusion is not evident.
Review of key elements with some connection to thesis/purpose of project.
Review of Key elements with a strong connection to thesis/purpose of project.
Strong review of key elements, insightful integration with thesis/purpose of project.
Grammar & Mechanics
Grammar and mechanics substantially detract from the project.
Grammar and mechanics interfere with the project.
Grammar and mechanics are minimal and do not detract from the project.
The project is free from grammar and mechanical errors.
APA Style
Does not follow APA style.
Errors in APA style are noticeable.
Minimal errors in APA style.
No errors in APA style.
Requirements
8-9 pages (research paper)
15-19 slides (project)
No sources
3-4 pages
(research paper)
No sources
8-10 slides
(project)
2-3 sources
5-6 pages
(research paper)
1-3 sources,
11-12 slides
(Project)
5-6 sources
7 pages
(research paper)
4-5 sources
13-14 slides
(Project)
8+ sources,
8-10 pages
(research paper)
6+ sources
15-19 slides
(Project)
Question 30: Education
Write a narrative (3,750-4,000 words) that summarizes the important information about the 10 articles you selected and describes how the studies form the research gap that your dissertation will fill. Your narrative should include the following: A summary of the key points of each article (purpose, research method, research design, sample, data collection instrument, results). A description of how these studies individually lead to the research gap that your dissertation study will fill.
Instruction
With the construction of the 10 Strategic Points for your dissertation study, you began to draft the literature review (Point 2) of the study to illuminate an identified gap in the literature to be filled by your dissertation study. While the literature review ultimately requires more than simply summarizing studies in some logical order, summarizing and paraphrasing are the beginning points of a solid literature review. In this assignment, you will summarize several studies from Point 2 (Literature Review) of your 10 Strategic Points document and the references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. From those summaries, you will describe how the studies form the gap that your dissertation will fill. Remember, to illuminate a gap in the research, the articles surveyed must have been published within the last 5 years General Requirements: Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment: Refer to the draft of the 10 Strategic Points that you developed for your dissertation study in Topic 5 of RES-850. You may also use a more recent version of this document if one is available. Refer to the list of 10 references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment. Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Directions: Locate the draft of the 10 Strategic Points from Topic 5 of RES-850 (or a more recent version if one is available) and the 10 references to studies that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final topic of RES-850. Choose five articles from your draft of the 10 Strategic Points and 5 articles from those you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. The articles you choose must have been published within the last 5 years. I have all the articles and reference
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Question 1: General Question
Chamberlain NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam) graded A
Chamberlain NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam) graded A
Question 2: History
Background to the assignment: Who “owns” the past? Who has the right to define what the past means for us today? This assignment asks you to reflect on these questions. In the course of this assignment, you will discover that ancient history can sometimes be very contemporary, reminding us that the past is always present with us. Many of the conflicts in our world today have ancient roots, which is one of the reasons studying the past is important.
Description of the assignment: Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to Safe Assign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.
Question 3: Business
What is your favorite brand of sandwich cookie? If you’re like most Americans, chances are its Oreo. In fact, Oreos are so popular that many people think Oreo was the original sandwich cookie. But they’re wrong. Sunshine first marketed its Hydrox sandwich cookie in 1908. Hydrox thrived until 1912, when Nabisco (now part of Kraft) launched Oreo. With Nabisco’s superior distribution and advertising, Hydrox was soon outmatched. By 1998, Hydrox sales totaled $16 million, while Oreo’s revenues were at $374 million. Hydrox has been purchased by Keebler (subsequently purchased by Kellogg), whose elves are trying to give the cookie a major facelift. You are part of the Keebler team deciding what to do with the Hydrox brand.
Purpose: To show students how important branding can be to product success. Students try to relaunch the Hydrox cookie brand (the original chocolate sandwich cookie) by investigating branding issues, including brand name and brand mark, determining the role of packaging, and assessing the feasibility of brand extensions
Instructions:
Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.
Activities and questions to answer:
Can you re-create Hydrox through a name change? What kind of brand name could go head-to-head with Oreo? (Most people unfamiliar with Hydrox think it is a cleaning product.) Make a list of five possibilities to be submitted with this assignment.
Next, how can you package your renewed sandwich cookie to make it more attractive on the shelf than Oreo? What about package size? Draft a brief packaging plan for the new Hydrox (or whatever name you chose).
Can you modify the original formula to make something new and more competitive? Will a brand extension work here? Why or why not?
Question 4: Business
Firm/Product Selection: Introduce the company and the product or service for which you wish to propose to engage in an international activity.
Proposed Company: https://www.shinola.com (Made in Detroit USA)
Brief about the history of the company through to current situation.
What needs does this product/service satisfy?(e.g., Harley Davidson motorcycle is often not a means of transportation, but satisfies a buyer’s desire for freedom/power/ escape from mundane rule-bound life)
How does the firm provide this product/service and satisfy needs?(e.g., Harley Davidson builds this American icon with often retro-style and powerful engine product, effective branding)
Minimum 2 pages’ word report (12pt).
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Question 5: Business
Complete the Internal Versus External Candidates worksheet
University of Phoenix Material
Internal vs. External Candidates Worksheet
Compare in a total of 525 to 700 words the strategies used to evaluate internal versus external candidates.
Strategy
Pros
Cons
Assess in 175 words the factors that should be considered when deciding whether to hire from within to seek external candidates.
Select a position with which you are familiar.
Determine in 175 words whether you would hire using an internal or external process.
Defend your recommendation.
References
APA-formatted citation
APA-formatted citation
Question 6: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss non-traditional applicant pools. To what extent is this population hired at your current or previous organization?
Question 7: Business
Read the opening vignette, “Sourcing Top Talent at McAfee” on page 143 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 6.
Assess the following in 150 words: Introduction
Just an introduction is need
Determine three metrics that McAfee should use to evaluate the effectiveness of its talent community in sourcing top talent.
Explain your rationale for selecting these three metrics.
Propose other ways in which McAfee can keep its talent pipeline full of high-quality potential job applicants.
Question 8: Business
Watch the below two videos and Read Netflix in India.
1) What are the key differences between USA and China, both formal (political economical and legal systems etc. ) and informal (culture, social norms etc.) institutions? What do you have to say to Eric Li?
2) Identify the major macro-environment factors in India that impact Netflix’s operation in India. What do you recommend to Netflix to achieve better performance in India?
Question 9: Business
How tightly do you fit into a particular market segment? Do you think you can be neatly classified? If you think your purchasing habits make you an enigma to marketers, you may need to think again.
Instructions: Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.
Purpose: This exercise quickly shows students the limitations of using only demographics to describe their customers, and really clarifies the process of segmentation and positioning for them.
Activities
Visit the following website located in this folder named: Segments
Click on the link above and then type in your zip code. The database will generate many cluster descriptions based on your ZIP code. Depending on the functionality of the Web site at the time you access the database, you may need to reenter your ZIP code multiple times if you want to read all the cluster descriptions.
Now review the demographic and psychographic data for the segments. Please provide insights on their life stage, lifestyle, and others things that they like such as automobiles, music, health, books, magazines, beauty products, and income. Then think about which products in that category would appeal to each of the clusters generated by your ZIP code search. Please name 3 to 4 of the groups identified and provide feedback on similarities between the groups. For example, a car that appeals to a cluster titled “Young Bohemians” may not be the car of choice for the cluster “Pools and Patios.” If your search generated only one cluster type, you may wish to enter other ZIP codes for your area of town or for your region.
Write a short statement that describes what you have learned about the most common segments for your zip code.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Considering the internal labor market at your organization ( Marshalls), what competency or skill gap needs to be closed? What’s the approach to doing so?
Question 11: Business
Use a position that you would like to obtain (CEO) to create job duties and at least three KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics).
Answer the following questions in 350 words for each KSAO:
Is the KSAO necessary prior to hiring, or can it be trained?
What is the importance of each characteristic relative to the others?
What is the approximate time the employee will spend on each duty?
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Question 12: Economics
Matching Definitions
( ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
() The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
() Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
() Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
() Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
() The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
() Percent of disposable income that household save
() Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
() The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
() The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.
Consumption schedule
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)
Average propensity to consume (APC)
Wealth effect
Savings schedule
Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
Average propensity to save (APS)
Paradox of thrift
Multiplier
45 degree line
Question 13: Economics
Matching Definitions
( ) the percentage of adults who are in the labor force and thus seeking jobs,
but who do not have jobs
( ) unemployment that occurs because individuals lack skills valued by
employers, or the job is no longer there.
( ) those who have stopped looking for employment due to the lack of suitable
positions available.
( ) the unemployment rate that would exist if cyclical unemployment were 0%.
( ) a contractual provision that wage increases will keep up with inflation.
( ) “Take this job and shove it!” results in this.
( ) When demand rises faster than supply, causing price to rise.
( ) the adults in an economy who are either employed or who are unemployed
and looking for a job
( ) unemployment closely tied to the business cycle, like higher unemployment
during a recession.
( ) Rising production costs cause the supply of goods and services to decline and prices to rise..
Unemployment rate
labor force
Discouraged workers
frictional unemployment
COLAs
cyclical unemployment
structural unemployment
Natural rate of unemployment
Demand-pull inflation
Cost-push inflation
Question 14: Economics
Matching Definitions
value of a country’s output found by adding up C + Ig + G + Xn
value of a country’s output found by adding the costs incurred and income (including profits) generated by production of goods and services during the period
a measure of inflation
value of a country’s output expressed in the current year’s dollars.
output provided to other businesses at an intermediate stage of production, not for final users.
output used directly for consumption, investment, government, and trade purposes.
Increase in worth of a good or service provided at each stage of production
=100
value of a country’s output expressed in the base year’s dollars.
the value of the output of all goods and services produced within a country in a year
GDP
Intermediate goods
Final goods
Value added
Expenditure approach
Income approach
Nominal GDP
Real GDP
Price index
Base year
Question 15: Psychology
Read the Research Paper Instructions and Research Paper Rubric. Decide which specific DSM disorder you plan to research for the Research Paper assignment. Go to the LU Online Library and begin researching for your paper, locating one journal article to share with the class. Share your chosen topic with the class and your reasoning behind your interest in the selected topic. Within your post, provide a 150-word summary of one journal article that you are interested in using for your research paper. Provide the journal (full text) as an attachment. Include at least one direct quote from the journal article (not more than 25 words). (Note that the entire post should be 200-250 words. For this assignment, the direct quote is included in the required word count). All citations should be in APA format. As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.
Research a specific mental disorder within the realm of Abnormal Psychology. The topic must be one which is discussed in the course textbook and described in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The length of the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages, and must not exceed 10 pages of summarized research findings in current APA format. All sources used must be scholarly journals. In addition to this, include a current APA-style title page, abstract, and references; these do not count toward the minimum number of pages required. The paper must be organized with sub-headings reflecting the required sections (I–IX).
The research paper will address the following aspects, organized in this order:
* Title Page: APA-style
* Abstract: APA-style
Introduction: Introduce and describe the topic. Discuss the DSM classification for the disorder, including a discussion of the specific criteria as described in the DSM (1/2 page).
Historical: Describe the disorder in a historical context (how the view of disorder has changed over time, how cause/treatment options have changed, etc). (1 page).
III. Cause of the Illness: Current research as to the cause of the illness (1 page).
Treatment: Various treatment approaches for this disorder, including the benefits of the treatment (1 page).
Prevention: Research as to the prevention of the illness (1 page).
Cross Cultural: Cross-cultural issues pertaining to the topic (1 page).
VII. Biblical Worldview: Discuss the topic from a Christian worldview perspective, including disorder’s cause, treatment, and prevention. Utilize the Bible and a journal source written from a biblical/theological perspective on the topic (1 page).
VIII. Conclusion: Include a closing summary of the research, including ideas for future research on the topic (1/2 page).
References: APA-style. See also References Grading Rubric and instructions.
* Organize the paper according to directions. Include current APA-style Level 1 sub-titles. Do not use Roman numerals.
* The use of 3rd person point of view is expected for this type of scholarly research assignment.
* Correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation is expected in writing at this level.
* Include not more than ½ page of directly quoted material. Directly quoted material in excess of ½ page would not count towards length/content requirements of the paper.
* Current APA formatting is required.
* Course textbook is not permitted as a source.
* All sources must be journal articles dated within the past 10 years.
Research Paper Grading Rubric
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Content 70%
140 points
Advanced 90-100% (A)
Proficient 70-89% (B-C)
Developing 1-69% (< D)
Not present
Content (20 points each)
126 to 140 points
The paper exceeds content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
98 to 125 points
The paper meets content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
1 to 97 points
The paper meets some of the content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: Detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
0 points
Not present.
Structure 30%
60 points
Advanced 90-100% (A)
Proficient 70-89% (B-C)
Developing 1-69% (< D)
Not present
Organizational Elements
9 to 10 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
7 to 8 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
1 to 6 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
0 points
Not present.
General APA
18 to 20 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
14 to 17 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
1 to 13 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
0 points
Not present.
Title page, abstract, reference page formatting
27 to 30 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
21 to 26 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
1 to 20 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
0 points
Not present.
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Question 16: Education
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
SEJPME Pre Test and Post Test (Study Guide) / SEJPME Final Exam (Study Guide)
SEJPME I POST TEST
1) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? [objective81]
speed and dispersion
provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone
amphibious assault
——————————————————————————–
2) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named? [objective88]
Skipper
Aladdin
Sinbad
Smoky
——————————————————————————–
3) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____. [objective92]
none of the answers are correct
the Army Reserve
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
the Army National Guard
——————————————————————————–
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
——————————————————————————–
5) Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.) [objective79]
rifle cartridges loading
drill formations
proper care of equipment
bayonet usage
——————————————————————————–
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
to organize forces
——————————————————————————–
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
——————————————————————————–
8) Derived from the integration of Service cultures and competencies and requires teamwork amongst all Services and Military Departments to accomplish objectives in the best interest of national security unfettered by parochialism. _____ best describes this concept. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed: N]
Integration
Interdependence
Diversity
Jointness
——————————————————————————–
9) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? [objective90]
after all of the planning is completed
early in the planning process
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
late in the planning process
——————————————————————————–
10) One of the three approaches within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program includes preventative strategies which include addressing and eliminating the stigma and other factors that prevent Service members (and their families) from seeking help early and focus on achieving increased performance. [objective105]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
11) Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies? [objective85]
commanders
chief petty officers
admirals
——————————————————————————–
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
——————————————————————————–
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
coordination
consensus
——————————————————————————–
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
——————————————————————————–
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
17) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present. [objective86] [Remediation Accessed :N]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
18) While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview. [objective75] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
19) Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and _____. [objective103]
limiting the number of times they take vacations
remaining single
maintaining dental health and hygiene
being able to engage in critical thinking
——————————————————————————–
20) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. [objective95]
Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
——————————————————————————–
21) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [objective60]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
——————————————————————————–
22) Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification. [objective100]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
23) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.) [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
establish favorable security conditions
secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action
strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships
secure the United States from direct attack
——————————————————————————–
24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative. [objective101]
seek out professional assistance
acknowledge our own prejudice
know all of the facts
critically think about
——————————————————————————–
25) _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. [objective59]
Irregular
Asymmetric
Joint
Traditional
——————————————————————————–
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
——————————————————————————–
27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective83]
Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service
Bureau of Navigation
Steamboat Inspection Service
Transportation Security Administration
Life Saving Service
——————————————————————————–
28) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.) [objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
signals intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
——————————————————————————–
30) Joint _____ is the component of joint force development that entails collecting observations, analyzing them, and taking the necessary steps to turn them into changes in behavior that improve the mission ready capabilities of the joint force. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]
lessons learned
concepts
education
doctrine
——————————————————————————–
31) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl? [objective87]
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
——————————————————————————–
32) The major challenge in working toward unity of effort often comes from _____. [objective62]
disjunctions in the three levels of interagency coordination
the news media reporting on governmental and military actions
a lack of sufficient resources applied to the problem
bipartisan politics and infighting in Congress
——————————————————————————–
33) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
——————————————————————————–
34) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required.
subordinate unified command
combatant command
joint task force
Service component command
——————————————————————————–
35) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
36) What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.) [objective73] [Remediation Accessed :N]
shaping the international environment
responding to crises
preparing now for an uncertain future
secure the United States from direct attack
——————————————————————————–
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), “. . .requires leaders at every echelon to be _____.” [objective98] [Remediation Accessed :N]
impartial
adaptable
decisive
strict adherents to doctrine
——————————————————————————–
38) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
——————————————————————————–
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
——————————————————————————–
40) After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____. [objective93]
combating weapons of mass destruction
cyberspace operations
support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza
global operations against terrorist networks
——————————————————————————–
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
——————————————————————————–
42) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
——————————————————————————–
43) The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.) [objective80] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the Far East
the Black Sea
the Mediterranean Sea
northern Europe
——————————————————————————–
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
——————————————————————————–
45) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
——————————————————————————–
46) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the combatant commanders. [objective56]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. [objective104]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
48) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) [objective82]
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
——————————————————————————–
49) To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)
culture and economics
non-governmental agencies
internally displaced personnel (IDPs)
——————————————————————————–
50) The principle of joint operations designed to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary use of force is _____. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
proportionality
perseverance
restraint
legitimacy
——————————————————————————–
ADDITIONAL POST TEST QUESTIONS
1) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
2) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____. [objective96]
deter aggressors from attacking the U.S.
support and defend U.S. allies and partners
defend the homeland
fight and win the Nation’s wars
——————————————————————————–
3) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective77]
maritime security
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
——————————————————————————–
4) During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____. [objective70]
develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws
enforce local rules of engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE
properly control, maintain, protect and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, international law, and policy
target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war
——————————————————————————–
5) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer. [objective86]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
6) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01? [objective75]
conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land-based aviation
all of the answers are correct
organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations
provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases
——————————————————————————–
7) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
8) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security? [objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
——————————————————————————–
9) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
——————————————————————————–
10) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
——————————————————————————–
11) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), with the advent and increase of command and control (C2) capabilities, networked-enabled leaders are cautioned against the lure to _____. [objective98]
micromanage
delegate authority
second-guess
provide guidance
——————————————————————————–
12) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created. [objective80]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
13) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion. [objective69]
partnership, coalition
alliance, partnership
coalition, alliance
alliance, coalition
——————————————————————————–
14) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
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Question 17: Health Care
NR 222 Unit 3 EXAM 1 Practice
Chapter 01: Nursing Today
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
Chapter 01: Nursing Today
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Which nurse most likely kept records on sanitation techniques and the effects on health?
The nurse prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcome. Which standard of nursing practice is the nurse following?
An experienced medical-surgical nurse chooses to work in obstetrics. Which level of proficiency is the nurse upon initial transition to the obstetrical floor?
A nurse assesses a patient’s fluid status and decides that the patient needs to drink more fluids. The nurse then encourages the patient to drink more fluids. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse prepares the budget and policies for an intensive care unit. Which role is the nurse implementing?
The nurse has been working in the clinical setting for several years as an advanced practice nurse. However, the nurse has a strong desire to pursue research and theory development. To fulfill this desire, which program should the nurse attend?
A nurse attends a workshop on current nursing issues provided by the American Nurses Association. Which type of education did the nurse receive?
A nurse identifies gaps between local and best practices. Which Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse has compassion fatigue. What is the nurse experiencing?
A patient is scheduled for surgery. When getting ready to obtain the informed consent, the patient tells the nurse, “I have no idea what is going to happen. I couldn’t ask any questions.” The nurse does not allow the patient to sign the permit and notifies the health care provider of the situation. Which role is the nurse displaying?
The patient requires routine gynecological services after giving birth to her son, and while seeing the nurse-midwife, the patient asks for a referral to a pediatrician for the newborn. Which action should the nurse-midwife take initially?
The nurse has a goal of becoming a certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA). Which activity is appropriate for a CRNA?
A nurse teaches a group of nursing students about nurse practice acts. Which information is most important to include in the teaching session about nurse practice acts?
A bill has been submitted to the State House of Representatives that is designed to reduce the cost of health care by increasing the patient-to-nurse ratio from a maximum of 2:1 in intensive care units to 3:1. What should the nurse realize?
A nurse is using a guide that provides principles of right and wrong to provide care to patients. Which guide is the nurse using?
A graduate of a baccalaureate degree program is ready to start working as an RN in the emergency department. Which action must the nurse take first?
While providing care to a patient, the nurse is responsible, both professionally and legally. Which concept does this describe?
A nurse is teaching the staff about Benner’s levels of proficiency. In which order should the nurse place the levels from beginning level to ending level?
Chapter 06: Health and Wellness
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A nurse is teaching about the goals ofHealthy People 2020. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A nurse is following the goals ofHealthy People 2020 to provide care. Which action should the nurse take?
A nurse is using the World Health Organization definition of health to provide care. Which area will the nurse focus on while providing care?
The nurse is preparing a smoking cessation class for family members of patients with lung cancer. The nurse believes that the class will convert many smokers to nonsmokers once they realize the benefits of not smoking. Which health care model is the nurse following?
A nurse is using Maslow’s hierarchy to prioritize care for an anxious patient that is not eating and will not see family members. Which area should the nurse address first?
The patient is reporting moderate incisional pain that was not relieved by the last dose of pain medication. The patient is not due for another dose of medication for another 2 1/2 hours. The nurse repositions the patient, asks what type of music the patient likes, and sets the television to the channel playing that type of music. Which health care model is the nurse using?
A nurse is assessing internal variables that are affecting the patient’s health status. Which area should the nurse assess?
The nurse is admitting a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. It is the fourth time the patient is being admitted in the last 6 months for high blood sugars. During the admission process, the nurse asks the patient about employment status and displays a nonjudgmental attitude. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
The nurse is working on a committee to evaluate the need for increasing the levels of fluoride in the drinking water of the community. Which concept is the nurse fostering?
The nurse is working in a clinic that is designed to provide health education and immunizations. Which type of preventive care is the nurse providing?
The patient is admitted to the emergency department of the local hospital from home with reports of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The patient is placed on oxygen, has labs and blood gases drawn, and is given an electrocardiogram and breathing treatments. Which level of preventive care is this patient receiving?
A patient is admitted to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke. The patient has right-sided paralysis and is unable to speak. The patient will be receiving physical therapy and speech therapy. Which level of preventive care is the patient receiving?
Upon completing a history, the nurse finds that a patient has risk factors for lung disease. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been trying to quit smoking. The patient has been smoke free for 2 weeks but had two cigarettes last night and at least two this morning. What should the nurse anticipate?
The nurse is working in a drug rehabilitation clinic and is in the process of admitting a patient for “detox.” What should the nurse do next?
A female patient has been overweight for most of her life. She has tried dieting in the past and has lost weight, only to regain it when she stopped dieting. The patient is visiting the weight loss clinic/health club because she has decided to do it. She states that she will join right after the holidays, in 3 months. Which stage is the patient displaying?
Upon completion of the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has quit drinking and has been alcohol free for the past 2 years. Which stagebestdescribes the nurse’s assessment finding?
The patient had a colostomy placed 1 week ago. When approached by the nurse, the patient and spouse refuse to talk about it and refuse to be taught about how to care for it. How will the nurse evaluate this couple’s stage of adjustment?
A patient has had emphysema (lung disease) for many years. When approached by the nurse, the patient states “I would be better off dead.” The patient supports the family, and now because of oxygen dependency the patient must quit work. The patient’s spouse will have to go to work. Which action should the nurse take?
A nurse is teaching about the transtheoretical model of change. In which order will the nurse place the progression of the stages from beginning to end?
Chapter 16: Nursing Assessment
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse takefirst?
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make?
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
A nurse is gathering information about a patient’s habits and lifestyle patterns. Which method of data collection will the nurse use that willbest obtain this information?
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse donext?
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
While the patient’s lower extremity, which is in a cast, is assessed, the patient tells the nurse about an inability to rest at night. The nurse disregards this information, thinking that no correlation has been noted between having a leg cast and developing restless sleep. Which action would have beenbest for the nurse to take?
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguinous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
Which scenariobest illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient?
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse takefirst?
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’sinitial action in response to these observations?
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Chapter 22: Ethics and Values
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Four patients in labor all request epidural analgesia to manage their pain at the same time. Which ethical principle is mostcompromised when only one nurse anesthetist is on call?
The patient reports to the nurse of being afraid to speak up regarding a desire to end care for fear of upsetting spouse and children. Which principle in the nursing code of ethics ensures that the nurse will promote the patient’s cause?
The patient’s son requests to view documentation in the medical record. What is the nurse’sbest response to this request?
When professionals work together to solve ethical dilemmas, nurses must examine their own values. What is the bestrationale for this step?
A nurse is experiencing an ethical dilemma with a patient. Which information indicates the nurse has a correct understanding of the primary cause of ethical dilemmas?
The nurse questions a health care provider’s decision to not tell the patient about a cancer diagnosis. Which ethical principle is the nurse trying to uphold for the patient?
The nurse finds it difficult to care for a patient whose advance directive states that no extraordinary resuscitation measures should be taken. Which step may help the nurse to find resolution in this assignment?
The nurse values autonomy above all other principles. Which patient assignment will the nurse findmost difficult to accept?
A nurse must make an ethical decision concerning vulnerable patient populations. Which philosophy of health care ethics would be particularly useful for this nurse?
A nurse agrees with regulations for mandatory immunizations of children. The nurse believes that immunizations prevent diseases as well as prevent spread of the disease to others. Which ethical framework is the nurse using?
The nurse has become aware of missing narcotics in the patient care area. Which ethical principle obligates the nurse to report the missing medications?
A young woman who is pregnant with a fetus exposed to multiple teratogens consents to have her fetus undergo serial PUBS (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling) to examine how exposure affects the fetus over time. Although these tests will not improve the fetus’s outcomes and will expose it to some risks, the information gathered may help infants in the future. Which ethical principle is atgreatest risk?
A nurse is discussing quality of life issues with another colleague. Which topic will the nurse acknowledge for increased attention paid to quality of life concerns?
Which action by the nurse indicates a safe and efficient use of social networks?
The nurse is caring for a dying patient. Which intervention is considered futile?
During a severe respiratory epidemic, the local health care organizations decide to give health care workers priority access to ventilators over other members of the community who also need that resource. Which philosophy would give the strongest support for this decision?
A nurse is teaching a patient and family about quality of life. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session about quality of life?
The nurse is caring for a patient supported with a ventilator who has been unresponsive since arrival via ambulance 8 days ago. The patient has not been identified, and no family members have been found. The nurse is concerned about the plan of care regarding maintenance or withdrawal of life support measures. Place the steps the nurse will use to resolve this ethical dilemma in the correct order.
09: Cultural Awareness
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Which population group should the nurse monitormost closely for liver cancer?
A nurse is caring for an immigrant with low income. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this patient?
A nurse is assessing the health care disparities among population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
A nurse is providing care to a patient from a different culture. Which action by the nurse indicates cultural competence?
The nurse learns about cultural issues involved in the patient’s health care belief system and enables patients and families to achieve meaningful and supportive care. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse is beginning to use patient-centered care and cultural competence to improve nursing care. Which step should the nurse takefirst?
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment using the ETHNIC mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the “H”?
The nurse is caring for a patient of Hispanic descent who speaks no English. The nurse is working with an interpreter. Which action should the nurse take?
Which action indicates the nurse is meeting a primary goal of cultural competent care for patients?
The nurse is caring for a Chinese patient using the Teach-Back technique. Which action by the nurse indicates successful implementation of this technique?
A nurse is using core measures to reduce health disparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause the mostimprovement in core measures?
A nurse is designing a form for lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) patients. Which design should the nurse use?
A nurse is assessing population groups for the risk of suicide requiring medical attention. Which group should the nurse monitormost closely?
A nurse is assessing a patient’s ethno history. Which question should the nurse ask?
A nurse is teaching patients about health care information. Which patient will the nurse assess closely for health literacy?
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focused quality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
A nurse is providing care to a culturally diverse population. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?
A nurse is assessing the patient’s meaning of illness. Which area of focus by the nurse ispriority?
MATCHING
A nurse is using Campinha-Bacote’s model of cultural competency to improve cultural care. Which actions describe the components the nurse is using?
Chapter 10: Caring for Families
Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A nurse is assessing the family unit to determine the family’s ability to adapt to the change of a
member having surgery. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
A nurse reviews the current trends affecting the family. Which trend will the nurse find?
A spouse brings the children in to visit their mother in the hospital. The nurse asks how the family is doing. The husband states, “None of her jobs are getting done, and I don’t do those jobs, so the house and the kids are falling apart.” How will the nurse interpret this finding?
A nurse cares for the family’s as well as the patient’s needs using available resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
A nurse is caring for a patient who needs constant care in the home setting and for whom most of the care is provided by the patient’s family. Which action should the nurse take to help relieve stress?
A nurse is working with a patient. When the nurse asks about family members, the patient states that it includes my spouse, children, and aunt and uncle. How will the nurse describe this type of family?
A nurse is assessing a child that lives in a car with family members who presents to the emergency department. Which area should the nurse assess closely?
The nurse is interviewing a patient who is being admitted to the hospital. The patient’s family went home before the nurse’s interview. The nurse asks the patient, “Who decides when to come to the hospital?” What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
A nurse is caring for a patient from a motor vehicle accident. Which action by the unlicensed assistive personnel will cause the nurse to intervene?
A nurse is using the family as context approach to provide care to a patient. What should the nurse do next?
The nurse is caring for a patient in hospice. The nurse notes that the patient is getting adequate care, but the spouse is not sleeping well. The nurse also assesses the need for better family nutrition and meals assistance. The nurse discusses these needs with the patient and family and develops a plan of care with them using community resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has no apparent family. When questioned about family and the definition of family, the patient states, “I have no family. They’re all gone.” When asked, “Who prepares your meals?” the patient states, “I do, or I go out.” Which approach should the nurse use for this patient?
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient at home who requires teaching for dressing changes. The spouse and adult child are also involved in changing the dressing. Which statement by the nurse willmost likely elicit a positive response from the patient and family?
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for an older-adult patient who will need tube feedings at home. The spouse is the only source of care and states “I will not be able to perform the feedings due to arthritis.” Which action should the nurse take?
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Question 18: Health Care
DB 1
Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice (graded, 25 points)
The American Nurses Association’s Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice (3rd ed.) discusses integrating the art and science of nursing. Describe how science and art are synthesized in the practice of nursing.
Question 19: Health Care
Nurse’s Touch: Wellness Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies primary prevention?
Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies secondary prevention?
Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies tertiary prevention?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is a common systemic side effect of receiving an influenza immunization?
When the nurse responds to the client’s report about his son contributing to the family’s support with the statement, “ It is not easy to handle that on your own,” she illustrates the therapeutic communication technique of:
TEST
A nurse has made a commitment to change his eating habits to optimize his health and wellness. He researches various dietary plans and narrows his choices to those that minimizes the effect of lifestyle barriers like eating quickly at work. Which stage of the Transtheorectical Model is he in?
A nurse is giving a series of workshops about health and wellness to a group of older adults at a community center. Which of the following statements from the attendees demonstrate that they understood what the nurse explained about the concept of Health? (select all that apply)
A nurse is caring for a client who has a long history of abuse of alcohol and opioid analgesics. When counseling this client about the adverse effects of substance abuse the nurse should explain that these patterns reduce the oxygenation of as tissues and organs because they cause….
A nurse is giving a presentation about health promotion and disease prevention to a group of young adults at a community college which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should she perform when repositioning the client to avoid injuring her own musculoskeletal system?
A nurse can communicate well, manage time effectively, weigh options and consequences, and learn from mistakes. The nurse is demonstrating Wellness in which of the following dimensions of Health?
A nurse is caring for a client in an ambulatory Clinic who attended a blood pressure screening event and the Stress Management lecture at a community Fair. His blood pressure was 150 /94 mm Hg at the event, so he saw provider at the clinic and begin therapy with a beta blocker. Soon after, the client had a mild myocardial infarction, after discharge from the hospital, enrolled in a program of cardiac Rehabilitation. Which of the following activities of this client is an example of primary prevention?
The World Health Organization’s (WHO) definition of health promotion focuses on the concept of
A nurse is counseling a client who says that she attends a book club in her neighborhood regularly. She says it troubles her that no one engages in the discussion with her. Applying Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to this client this client needs falls into which of the following levels?
A nurse is giving a presentation to a group of nursing students about distinguishing health promotion and disease prevention activities. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a specific disease prevention activity? (select all that apply)
Question 20: Health Care
NR 222 UNIT 1 NOTES
NR 222 UNIT 1 NOTES
Question 21: Health Care
1.You are preparing a presentation for your classmates regarding the clinical care coordination conference for a patient with terminal cancer. As part of the preparation you have your classmates read the Nursing Code of Ethics for Professional Registered Nurses. Your instructor asks the class why this document is important. Which of the following statements best describes this code?
Improves self–health care
Protects the patient’s confidentiality
Ensures identical care to all patients
Defines the principles of right and wrong to provide patient care
An 18-year-old woman is in the emergency department with fever and cough. The nurse obtains her vital signs, listens to her lung and heart sounds, determines her level of comfort, and collects blood and sputum samples for analysis. Which standard of practice is performed?
Diagnosis
Evaluation
Assessment
Implementation
A patient in the emergency department has developed wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse gives the ordered medicated nebulizer treatment now and in 4 hours. Which standard of practice is performed?
Planning
Evaluation
Assessment
Implementation
A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The family wants the patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and benefits of the surgery to the family and discusses the patient’s wishes with them. The nurse is acting as the patient’s:
Educator.
Advocate.
Caregiver.
Case manager.
The nurse spends time with the patient and family reviewing the dressing change procedure for the patient’s wound. The patient’s spouse demonstrates how to change the dressing. The nurse is acting in which professional role?
Educator
Advocate
Caregiver
Case manager
The examination for registered nurse (RN) licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States. This examination:
Guarantees safe nursing care for all patients.
Ensures standard nursing care for all patients.
Ensures that honest and ethical care is provided.
Provides a minimal standard of knowledge for an RN in practice.
Contemporary nursing requires that the nurse has knowledge and skills for a variety of professional roles and responsibilities. Which of the following are examples? (Select all that apply.)
Caregiver
Autonomy and accountability
Patient advocate
Health promotion
Lobbyist
Match the advanced practice nurse specialty with the statement about the role.
Clinical nurse specialist-b. Expert clinician in a specialized area of practice such as adult diabetes care
Nurse anesthetist-d. Provides care and services under the supervision of an anesthesiologist
Nurse practitioner-c. Provides comprehensive care, usually in a primary care setting, directly managing the medical care of patients who are healthy or have chronic conditions
Nurse-midwife-a. Provides independent care, including pregnancy and gynecological services
Health care reform will bring changes in the emphasis of care. Which of the following models is expected from health care reform?
Moving from an acute illness to a health promotion, illness prevention model
Moving from an illness prevention to a health promotion model
Moving from an acute illness to a disease management model
Moving from a chronic care to an illness prevention model
A nurse meets with the registered dietitian and physical therapist to develop a plan of care that focuses on improving nutrition and mobility for a patient. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Patient-centered care
Safety
Teamwork and collaboration
Informatics
A critical care nurse is using a computerized decision support system to correctly position her ventilated patients to reduce pneumonia caused by accumulated respiratory secretions. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Patient-centered care
Safety
Teamwork and collaboration
Informatics
The nurses on an acute care medical floor notice an increase in pressure ulcer formation in their patients. A nurse consultant decides to compare two types of treatment. The first is the procedure currently used to assess for pressure ulcer risk. The second uses a new assessment instrument to identify at-risk patients. Given this information, the nurse consultant exemplifies which career?
Clinical nurse specialist
Nurse administrator
Nurse educator
Nurse researcher
Nurses in an acute care hospital are attending a unit-based education program to learn how to use a new pressure-relieving device for patients at risk for pressure ulcers. This is which type of education?
Continuing education
Graduate education
In-service education
Professional Registered Nurse Education
Which of the following Internet resources can help consumers compare quality care measures? (Select all that apply.)
WebMD
Hospital Compare
Magnet Recognition Program
Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare
The American Hospital Association’s webpage.
The components of the nursing metaparadigm include:
Person, health, environment, and theory
Health, theory, concepts, and environment
Nurses, physicians, health, and patient needs
Person, health, environment, and nursing
Theory is essential to nursing practice because it: (Select all that apply.)
Contributes to nursing knowledge.
Predicts patient behaviors in situations.
Provides a means of assessing patient vital signs.
Guides nursing practice.
Formulates health care legislation.
Explains relationships between concepts.
A nurse ensures that each patient’s room is clean; well ventilated; and free from clutter, excessive noise, and extremes in temperature. Which theorist’s work is the nurse practicing in this example?
Henderson
Orem
King
Nightingale
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with the diagnosis of a stroke and right-sided weakness. The nurse assumes responsibility for bathing and feeding the patient until the patient is able to begin performing these activities. The nurse in this situation is applying the theory developed by:
Neuman.
Orem.
Roy.
Peplau.
Match the following types of theory with the appropriate description.
Middle-range theory-d. Addresses a specific phenomenon and reflects practice
Shared theory-c. Applies theory from other disciplines to nursing practice
Grand theory-a. Very abstract; attempts to describe nursing in a global context
Practice theory-b. Specific to a particular situation; brings theory to the bedside
Match the following descriptions to the appropriate grand theorist.
King-d. Based on the belief that nurses should work with patients to develop goals for care
Henderson-c. Based on 14 activities, the belief that the nurse should assist patients with meeting needs until they are able to do so independently
Orem-b. Based on the belief that people who participate in self-care activities are more likely to improve their health outcomes
Neuman-a. Based on the theory that focuses on wellness and prevention of disease
Match the following description to the appropriate middle-range theory.
Benner’s Skill Acquisition-b. The nurse progresses through five stages of expertise.
AACN’s Synergy Model-d. Matching nurse competencies to patient needs can improve patient outcomes
Mishel’s Uncertainty in Illness-c. The nurse helps the patient to process and find meaning related to his or her illness.
Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort- a. The nurse strives to relieve patients’ distress.
Which of the following statements related to theory-based nursing practice are correct? (Select all that apply.)
Nursing theory differentiates nursing from other disciplines.
Nursing theories are standardized and do not change over time.
Integrating theory into practice promotes coordinated care delivery.
Nursing knowledge is generated by theory.
The theory of nursing process is used in planning patient care.
Evidence-based practice results from theory-testing research.
A nurse is caring for a patient who recently lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse best assists the patient to cope with this situation by applying which of the following theories?
Roy
Levine
Watson
Johnson
Using Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, identify the priority for a patient who is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing.
Self-actualization
Air, water, and nutrition
Safety
Esteem and self-esteem needs
Which of the following categories of shared theories would be most appropriate for a patient who is grieving the loss of a spouse?
Biomedical
Leadership
Psychosocial
Developmental
While working in a rehabilitation facility, it is important to obtain nursing histories and develop a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. List in correct order the phases of Peplau’s theory as applied in this setting. The nurse:
3) Ensures that the patient has access to appropriate community resources for long-term care.
2)Collaborates with the patient to identify specific patient needs.
4)Collects essential information from the patient’s health record.
1)Works with the patient to develop a plan for resolving patient issues.
Nurses have developed theories in response to: (Select all that apply.)
Changes in health care.
Prior nursing theories.
Changes in nursing practice.
Research findings.
Government regulations.
Theories from other disciplines.
Physician opinions.
Which of the following types of theory influence the “evidence” in current “evidence-based practice (EBP)”?
Grand theory
Middle-range theory
Practice theory
Shared theory
A nurse is preparing to begin intravenous fluid therapy for a patient. Which category of theory would be most helpful to the nurse at this time?
Grand theory
Middle-range theory
Practice theory
Shared theory
A nurse is presenting a program to workers in a factory covering safety topics, including the wearing of hearing protectors when workers are in the factory. Which level of prevention is the nurse practicing?
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention
A patient had surgery for a total knee replacement a week ago and is currently participating in daily physical rehabilitation sessions at the surgeon’s office. In what level of prevention is the patient participating?
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention
Based on the transtheoretical model of change, what is the most appropriate response to a patient who states: “Me, stop smoking? I’ve been smoking since I was 16!”
“That’s fine. Some people who smoke live a long life.”
“OK. I want you to decrease the number of cigarettes you smoke by one each day, and I’ll see you in 1 month.”
“I understand. Can you think of the greatest reason why stopping smoking would be challenging for you?”
“I’d like you to attend a smoking cessation class this week and use nicotine replacement patches as directed.”
A patient comes to the local health clinic and states: “I’ve noticed how many people are out walking in my neighborhood. Is walking good for you?” What is the best response to help the patient through the stages of change for exercise?
“Walking is OK. I really think running is better.”
“Yes, walking is great exercise. Do you think you could go for a 5-minute walk next week?”
“Yes, I want you to begin walking. Walk for 30 minutes every day and start to eat more fruits and vegetables.”
77
“They probably aren’t walking fast enough or far enough. You need to spend at least 45 minutes if you are going to do any good.”
A male patient has been laid off from his construction job and has many unpaid bills. He is going through a divorce from his marriage of 15 years and has been seeing his pastor to help him through this difficult time. He does not have a primary health care provider because he has never really been sick and his parents never took him to a physician when he was a child. Which external variables influence the patient’s health practices? (Select all that apply.)
Difficulty paying his bills
Seeing his pastor as a means of support
Age of patient (46 years)
Stress from the divorce and the loss of a job
Family practice of not routinely seeing a health care provider
A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older-adult couple. While in the home the nurse weighs each individual and reviews the 3-day food diary with them. She also checks their blood pressure and encourages them to increase their fluids and activity levels to help with their voiced concern about constipation. The nurse is addressing which level of need according to Maslow?
Physiological
Safety and security
Love and belonging
Self-actualization
When taking care of patients, a nurse routinely asks if they take any vitamins or herbal medications, encourages family members to bring in music that the patient likes to help the patient relax, and frequently prays with her patients if that is important to them. The nurse is practicing which model?
Holistic
Health belief
Trans theoretical
Health promotion
Using the Trans theoretical Model of Change, order the steps that a patient goes through to make a lifestyle change related to physical activity.
2: The individual recognizes that he is out of shape when his daughter asks him to walk with her after school.
5: Eight months after beginning walking, the individual participates with his wife in a local 5K race.
1: The individual becomes angry when the physician tells him that he needs to increase his activity to lose 30 lbs.
4: The individual walks 2 to 3 miles, 5 nights a week, with his wife.
3: The individual visits the local running store to purchase walking shoes and obtain advice on a walking plan.
Which statement made by a nurse shows that the nurse is engaging in an activity to help cope with secondary traumatic stress and burnout?
“I don’t need time for lunch since I am not very hungry.”
“I am enjoying my quilting group that meets each week at my church.”
“I am going to drop my gym membership because I don’t have time to go.”
“I don’t know any of the other nurses who met today to discuss hospital-wide problems with nurse satisfaction.”
Which of the following are symptoms of secondary traumatic stress and burnout that commonly affect nurses? (Select all that apply.)
Regular participation in a book club
Lack of interest in exercise
Difficulty falling asleep
Lack of desire to go to work
Anxiety while working
After a class on Pender’s health promotion model, students make the following statements. Which statement does the faculty member need to clarify?
“The desired outcome of the model is health-promoting behavior.”
“Perceived self-efficacy is not related to the model.”
“The individual has unique characteristics and experiences that affect his or her actions.”
“Patients need to commit to a plan of action before they adopt a health-promoting behavior.”
A patient registered at the local fitness center and purchased a pair of exercise shoes. The patient is in what stage of behavioral change?
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
As part of a faith community nursing program in her church, a nurse is developing a health promotion program on breast self-examination for the women’s group. Which statement made by one of the participants is related to the individual’s perception of susceptibility to an illness?
“I have a door hanging tag in my bathroom to remind me to do my breast self-examination monthly.”
“Since my mother had breast cancer, I know that I am at increased risk for developing breast cancer.”
“Since I am only 25 years of age, the risk of breast cancer for me is very low.”
“I participate every year in our local walk/run to raise money for breast cancer research.”
The nurse assesses the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) in a female patient. Which factors are classified as genetic and physiological? (Select all that apply.)
Sedentary lifestyle
Mother died from CAD at age 48
History of hypertension
Eats diet high in sodium
Elevated cholesterol level
Which activity shows a nurse engaged in primary prevention?
A home health care nurse visits a patient’s home to change a wound dressing.
A nurse is assessing risk factors of a patient in the emergency department admitted with chest pain.
A school health nurse provides a program to the first-year students on healthy eating.
A nurse schedules a patient who had a myocardial infarction for cardiac rehabilitation sessions weekly.
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Question 22: English
Read the passage from “The Monkey’s Paw.” The Whites are being offered compensation for Herbert’s death. In what way does the stranger’s answer increase the tension of the rising action?
From “The Monkey’s Paw”
The [visitor] coughed, and rising, walked slowly to the window. “The firm wished me to convey their sincere sympathy with you in your great loss,” he said, without looking round. “I beg that you will understand I am only their servant and merely obeying orders.”
There was no reply; the old woman’s face was white, her eyes staring, and her breath inaudible; on the husband’s face was a look such as his friend the sergeant might have carried into his first action.
“I was to say that Maw and Meggins disclaim all responsibility,” continued the other. “They admit no liability at all, but in consideration of your son’s services, they wish to present you with a certain sum as compensation.”
Mr. White dropped his wife’s hand, and rising to his feet, gazed with a look of horror at his visitor. His dry lips shaped the words, “How much?”
“Two hundred pounds,” was the answer.
Unconscious of his wife’s shriek, the old man smiled faintly, put out his hands like a sightless man, and dropped, a senseless heap, to the floor.
The answer causes Mr. White to faint.
The answer satisfies the first wish, and there are still two wishes left.
The answer causes the wife to shriek.
The answer indicates that Herbert has doubts about the wish.
Question 23: Accounting
In April of the current year, Freeman Steel Company transferred Herb Porter from its factory in Nebraska to its plant in Michigan. The company’s SUTA tax rates based on its experience ratings are 3.2% in Nebraska and 3.8% in Michigan. Both states base the tax on the first $9,000 of each employee’s earnings. This year, Freeman Steel Company paid Herb Porter wages of $20,900; $2,800 were paid in Nebraska and the remainder in Michigan. Compute:
Question 24: Biology
Describe approaches you would use to identify appropriately-silenced fungal transformants
Question 25: Business
Research Report
Question
Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.
Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course
, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm
. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included. Note
: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.
The report should include but not limited by the following:
(1). Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company)
(2). Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the targetcity/region/country.
(3). Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factor
s in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
(4). Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issue
s in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(5). Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding ope
rations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(6). Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion
Details
VICTORIA UNIVERISTY BUSINESS SCHOOOL
BEO3432 STRATEGIC INTERNATIONAL TRADE OPERATIONS
SEMESTER 2: 2019 Sunway University, Kuala Lumpur
Assignment (30%)
This assignment is to be undertaken as group work of 3 – 5 students. Assignment should be printed on one-sided A4 paper, with the signed College of Business Student Assessment Declaration form as the first sheet of the paper and the originality report following it. Make sure that you keep a copy of your submitted assignment. The assignment accounts for 30 percent of the total assessment of this unit.
Submission: Students need to submit the assignment to Turnitin in the Assignment Dropbox on the unit VU Collaborate to obtain an originality report, and the hard copy in class of Week 10.
Research Plan due in Week 4: You are required to submit the research plan including a Gant Chart during the tutorial class of Week 4.
Develop a research plan (maximum of two pages) and divide the work equitably amongst the group. The research plan shall provide the followings:
(a) A concise and informative title reflecting the task undertaking, and a brief explanation of the aims/objectives of the project and important features/characteristics of the chosen firm/company.
(b) A Gant Chart listing and diagram of activities and estimated time in days to complete the group assignment. The key activities include but are not limited to: Firm analysis, Market analysis, Country analysis, Strategic core value and plan, and the tasks assigned to each group member.
Presentation: Present the assignment professionally. Refer to the Group Assignment Assessment criteria.
Word limit: Maximum of 4000 words. Upload the final research report onto Turnitin on VU Collaborate. Make sure you hand in a hard copy of the report to your tutor.
1
Research Report Question
Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.
Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included.
Note: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.
The report should include but not limited by the following:
(1). Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company).
(2). Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the target city/region/country.
(3). Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factors in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
(4). Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issues in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(5). Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(6). Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion.
2
Formatting requirement:
Use Times New Roman or Arial, size 12 and 1.15 or 1.5 spacing for text. Number the pages.
(a) Have a Cover Page including:
Subject code and title
Name of assignment
Tutorial group
Tutor name
Assignment group member names and student ID numbers Due date
(c) Most importantly, the document should be professionally presented. Staple the
assignment, please do not submit the assignment in plastic covers.
Skills development objective over the semester include but are not limited to:
Complex problem solving
Critical thinking
Communication interpersonal and intercultural
Confident and creative life-long learner
Group member contribution:
On a separate page in the assignment document (after Cover Page), nominate the contributions made by group members for the assignment. In no more than 20 words give reasons why you think the percentage (%) you have nominated is appropriate.
Note that:
The research report will be assessed based on the following criteria. • Coherence of argument
• Originality
• Presentation
Referencing
For further information, please refer to the rubric for assessment criteria
3
Assessment Rubric
The overall mark will depend on the content, presentation and originality of the report. If evidence of plagiarized work is found, the report will be marked as fail.
The following rubric provides a general reference on marking, please consult your lecturer/tutor to clarify the requirements of specific topic.
Content 50%
High Distinction 80 – 100%
Distinction 70 – 79%
Credit 60 – 69%
Pass 50 – 59%
Fail
0 – 49%
Demonstrate good understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with justifications of consistent explanations.
Demonstrate satisfactory understanding of the requirement of the task and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions, and attempts some justification with explanations.
Analysis
Demonstrate thorough understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with appropriate justifications, with clear and concise explanations
Demonstrate limited understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Can identify decision but no attempt at justifying decision.
Substantial work is required to meet the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Writing is overall of insufficient understanding.
20%
Information is mostly accurate and integrated with some analysis.
Presentation 20%
Information is partially accurate and integrated with minimal analysis.
Information is incorrect, with no effort of analysis.
Information is accurate and integrated with excellent analysis.
Information is accurate and integrated with good analysis.
Formatted and edited to very good standard, with minimal grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.
Formatted and edited to good standard, with some grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.
Formatted and edited to satisfactory standard, with grammatical and spelling errors. Some details are included: cover page, headings and page numbers.
Referencing 10%
Formatted and edited to excellent standard, with no grammatical and spelling errors. Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.
Submission contains differing formatting and font from different contributors.
No effort of editing is made, with consistent grammatical and spelling errors.
Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with minimal errors.
Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with some errors.
Total score
Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with no errors.
Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with many errors.
Incorrect references with substantial errors and with no evidence of consulting the recommended Harvard System.
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Question 26: English
Do you think these two girls Morgan and Anissa should be tried as adult 60 years prisons possibly or 10 years Juveniles? GIVE 3 REASONS and 5 PARAGRAPH
YOU HAVE TO READ THE ARTICLE DOWN BELOW IN THE LINK OR YOU CAN WATCH THE VIDEO THAT I ATTACHED.
What is the de Broglie wavelength (in meters) of a small car with a mass of 1150 kg travelling at a speed of 55.0 mi/h?
Question 28: Psychology
Qualitative vs. Quantitative Research
Use the table below to answer the following:
Define and distinguish between qualitative and quantitative research.
Provide examples of qualitative and quantitative research.
Imagine that you are a researcher interested in identifying the components of ‘giftedness’ in pre-teen children. What quantitative methods might you use to help you better understand the experience of giftedness? What qualitative methods might you use?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each approach?
Definition
Examples
Examples of methods to study ‘giftedness’
Advantages
Disadvantages
Quantitative
Research
Qualitative
Research
Question 29: Psychology
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Reactivity
When conducting observations, it is important that your data are accurate. One issue that often impacts observational studies is reactivity.
Reactivity occurs when individuals alter their behavior due to the awareness that they are being observed. Reactivity also refers to situations where individuals alter their behavior to conform to the expectations of the observer.
So, when conducting an observational study, what can you do to reduce reactivity? You have many, many options….
Question 30: Other
The DellaVecchia Garden Center purchases and sells Christmas trees during the holiday season. It purchases the trees for $10 each and sells them for $20 each. Any trees not sold by Christmas day are sold for $2 each to a company that makes wood chips. The garden center estimates that four levels of demand are possible: 100, 200, 500, and 1,000 trees.
Compute the payoffs for purchasing 100, 200, 500, or
1,000 trees for each of the four levels of demand.
Construct a payoff table, indicating the events and alternative courses of action.
Construct a decision tree.
Construct an opportunity loss table. Use the Optimistic (maximax) to choose the best choice.
Use the Pessimistic (maximin) to choose the best choice.
Use the Criterion of realism (Hurwicz) to choose the best choice. α = 0.6
Use the Equally likely (Laplace) to choose the best choice.
Use the Minimax regret to choose the best choice.
Use the expected monetary value to make a choice. ( Probability for the four level demand are :
100 = 0.30
200 = 0.35
500 = 0.20
1000 = 0.15
Question 1: Religious Studies
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
Question 2: Health Care
NURS 6660 Midterm Exam II -Walden University – Question and Answers – Latest(2019) – Already Graded A
NURS 6660 Midterm Exam II -Walden University – Question and Answers – Latest(2019) – Already Graded A
Question 3: Health Care
NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (2019): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (2019): Walden University (Already graded A)
Question 4: Psychology
After reading one of the provided articles, discuss the topic of stress from a Biblical perspective. What insights about stress can be gleaned from the article? What insights about stress can be gained from the Bible? Provide at least one specific example from the Bible of a traumatic event or stressful situation and how the stress was handled. Cite the journal article (one required), the Bible (verse and application required), along with any other sources used in APA format (optional additional sources). As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application. Cite one of the provided articles in APA format (this will count as your required outside source, as per assignment directions rubric).
Files attached
ORIGINAL PAPER
Reading the Bible, Stressful Life Events, and Hope:
Assessing an Overlooked Coping Resource
Neal Krause1
Kenneth I. Pargament2
_ Springer Science+Business Media, LLC, part of Springer Nature 2018
Abstract Many people rely on religion to deal with the stressors in their lives. The
purpose of this study is to examine a religious coping resource that has received relatively
little attention—reading the Bible. We evaluated three hypotheses: (1) reading the Bible
moderates the relationship between stress and hope; (2) people who read the Bible more
often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses; and (3)
individuals who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals will be more hopeful about the
future. Support was found for all three hypotheses in our analyses.
Keywords Bible _ Stressful events _ Hope
It seems that virtually every survey on religion contains a question on how often study
participants read the Bible or other sacred literature. However, these data have not been
exploited fully. Instead, questions on reading sacred literature are, more often than not,
relegated to the status of a control variable or they are combined with other religious
behaviors to form more comprehensive indices of private religious practices (Ciarrocchi
et al. 2008; Davis and Epkins 2009; Marquine et al. 2015). Handling Bible reading in this
manner makes it easy to overlook important functions that may be performed by this
particular type of religious behavior.
As Hood et al. (2009) maintain, religion performs a number of important functions. One
function involves helping people cope with adversity. The purpose of the current study is to
see whether reading the Bible or other sacred literature serves as a potentially important
& Neal Krause
nkrause@umich.edu
1 Department of Health Behavior and Health Education, School of Public Health, University of
Michigan, 1415 Washington Heights, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-2029, USA
2 Bowling Green State University, Bowling Green, OH, USA
123
J Relig Health
https://doi.org/10.1007/s10943-018-0610-6
coping resource. We have been able to identify only two quantitative studies that focus
specifically on turning to religious literature in the face of adversity. The first study was
conducted by Johnson et al. (2016). These investigators studied 101 women who were
diagnosed with PTSD. They report that women with PTSD were more likely to read the
Bible on a regular basis when they were exposed to a traumatic life event. The second
study was conducted by Tepper et al. (2001). These researchers studied 406 individuals
who were diagnosed with persistent mental illness. They found that 30% of their study
participants turned to reading scriptures in an effort to cope with symptoms of mental
illness. Since both of these studies were conducted with special populations, it is difficult to
determine whether the findings can be generalized to a wider population.
Further support for the notion that religious literature is a potentially important coping
resource is provided by a small cluster of qualitative studies. Based on a series of in-depth
interviews, Arcury et al. (2000) found that reading the Bible was a common response to the
challenges that are associated with disease self-management. Similarly, Gerdner et al.
(2007) found that one of the primary ways in which family members helped women who
were dealing with caregiving stressors involved reading Bible passages to them on a
regular basis. Another qualitative study by Hamilton et al. (2013) suggests that the Bible is
often used as a mental-health-promoting resource during stressful times. Further support
for the notion that people turn to sacred literature in order to cope with adversity is found in
the research program of Krause (2002). He conducted a series of qualitative studies in an
effort to develop closed-ended survey items on religiousness. One closed-ended item in his
resulting measure of spiritual support asked study participants to report how often, ‘‘…
someone in your congregation helps you find solutions to your problems in the Bible?’’
(Krause 2008, p. 38).
The findings from the studies that have been reviewed so far suggest that some people
turn to the Bible for help in dealing with stressors they encounter in their lives. However,
this research does not directly test whether people reap specific benefits from doing so. In
order to address this issue, researchers must assess whether reading the Bible moderates the
relationship between stress- and health-related outcomes. We are unaware of any studies
that empirically evaluate this statistical interaction with data from members of the general
population. The first goal of the current study is to address this gap in the literature.
Two questions must be addressed at this juncture in order to flesh out the theoretical
underpinnings of our study. First, it is important to reflect more deeply on what people may
actually get (or hope to receive) when they turn to sacred literature during difficult times.
As we will discuss below, addressing this issue provides a way of thinking about religious
coping that has not received sufficient attention in the literature. Second, it is important to
identify an outcome measure that is well suited for capturing the potential benefits of
turning to the Bible for help in overcoming adversity.
What Reading Religious Literature May Provide
Wuthnow’s (1994) widely cited work on support groups in American society provides a
useful source of information on what people hope to get when they turn to sacred literature
for assistance. This work is relevant because Wuthnow (1994) devotes considerable
attention to Bible study groups, which are formal groups in religious institutions that are
designed to help people learn about their faith by discussing scriptures and other religiously
oriented literature. Wuthnow (1994) reports that an important function of Bible
study groups is to help people deal with personal crises. This is accomplished by helping
J Relig Health
123
people deepen their faith and develop more realistic and mature ways of thinking about the
nature of God. A more mature view of God includes trusting in Him and believing that
what has happened is part of His plan for helping those who are in need. This function
corresponds closely to Pargament’s notion of a benevolent religious reappraisal coping
response (Pargament et al. 2000). As Pargament and his colleagues argue, benevolent
religious reappraisals do not deny the reality of the seriousness of an event (Pargament
et al. 2000). Instead, this type of coping response helps a person reframe the meaning of a
stressful situation by placing it in a larger more positive and hopeful religious context.
Based on these insights, the second goal of the current study is to see whether turning to
sacred literature is associated with greater use of benevolent religious coping responses.
Pursuing this second goal is important because it highlights an understudied dimension
of religious coping and represents a shift in thinking about reading the Bible. Instead of
being a form of instructional religious practice or discipline, reading the Bible in this
context becomes a way of coming to terms with one’s own life problems. Based on the
discussion that has been provided up to this point, we view reading religious literature as a
religious coping resource in its own right. Similarly, benevolent religious reappraisals are
also construed as a religious coping resource. By linking the two empirically, we aim to
show that one religious coping resource (i.e., reading the Bible) serves as a gateway for a
second religious coping resource (i.e., adopting benevolent religious reappraisals). The two
differ in that one (Bible reading) is a more distal factor, while the other (benevolent
appraisals) is a more proximal factor in the coping process. However, they are similar
because when they are taken together, they provide a richer conceptual view of the way in
which people may use their faith to deal with adversity: they rely on multiple religious
coping resources, not just one and they may activate these resources in a sequential
manner.
We were unable to find any studies in the literature that examine the association
between reading the Bible and benevolent religious coping responses. However, research
by Vishkin and his colleagues provides some support for examining this relationship
(Vishkin et al. 2006). These investigators report that individual who are more religious are
more likely to use general cognitive reappraisal coping responses. Our work attempts to
bring this relationship into sharper focus by examining one specific dimension of religion
that may be involved in this relationship (i.e., Bible reading) and coping responses that are
more explicitly religious in nature (i.e., benevolent religious reappraisals).
How the Benefits of Reading Religious Literature May be Manifest
Hope is the primary outcome variable in the analyses that are provided below. The reason
for choosing this outcome measures can be traced to two findings in the literature. First,
research reviewed by Folkman (2010) suggests that stress may erode a person’s sense of
hope. Second, the benevolent reappraisals coping strategy that was discussed above may
help replenish a threatened sense of hope. This coping response includes the belief that
even though one is faced with adversity, God has a plan. Moreover, this plan will
strengthen a focal person, thereby allowing them to ultimately hand the stressful situation
successfully. Implied in this perspective is the notion that although the precise nature of the
plan may not have been grasped fully, some people have faith and hope that the plan will
ultimately lead to the best outcome. There are both biblical as well as social psychological
reasons why hope makes a good outcome in the research on religion and stress.
J Relig Health
123
With respect to a biblical basis, the apostle Paul succinctly captured the role of hope in
the process of relying on religion to deal with adversity: ‘‘We also glorify in our sufferings
because we know that suffering produces perseverance, perseverance produces character,
and character hope.’’ (Romans 5:3–5, New International Version). It follows from this that
if a person turns to the Bible for solace and guidance during difficult times, they may
eventually become more hopeful about the future.
Snyder and his colleagues provide a clear social psychological framework for linking
involvement in religion with hope (Snyder et al. 2002). According to these investigators,
hope is viewed as a goal-directed cognitive process that includes both planning and the
motivation to reach goals. These researchers go on to point out that religion provides a
prepackaged configuration of goals, pathways for accomplishing these goals, and the
necessary cognitions for successfully pursuing the pathways. Perhaps this is one reason
why Capps (1996) argues that pastors are fundamentally providers of hope: ‘‘Pastors, I
suggest, are agents of hope by definition (or calling) and often that is all they are’’ (p. 325,
emphasis in the original).
Findings from a number of empirical studies are consistent with this logic. More
specifically, research by Krause and his colleagues (Krause 2014; Krause and Hayward
2012; Krause et al. 2015) as well as studies by Jankowski and Sandage (2011) indicates
that greater involvement in various aspects of religious life is associated with a greater
sense of hope.
Taken as a whole, the discussion that is provided above leads to the following study
hypotheses:
H1 The magnitude of the relationship between stress and hope will be lower for people
who read the Bible more frequently.
H2 People who read the Bible more frequently will be more likely to adopt a benevolent
religious reappraisal coping strategy.
H3 Individuals who adopt a benevolent religious reappraisal coping strategy will be more
hopeful about the future.
Methods
Sample
The data for this study come from a nationwide, face-to-face, random probability survey of
people aged 18 and older who live in the coterminous USA. The interviews, which were
completed in 2014, were conducted by the National Opinion Research Center (NORC).
The response rate for this study was 50%. A total of 3010 interviews were completed
successfully. The sample was stratified into the following age groups: age 18–40
(N = 1000), age 41–64 (N = 1002), and age 65 and older (N = 1008).
After using listwise deletion to deal with item nonresponse, data were available for
between 2873 and 2159 study participants. The reason for different sample sizes is the way
information on benevolent religious reappraisals was obtained. Study participants were
given a checklist of 12 life events they may have encountered in the past 18 months. The
respondents were asked to identify the one life event that was most stressful for them.
Following this, study participants were told to keep this event in mind as they answer the
questions on benevolent religious reappraisals. A total of 707 study participants were
J Relig Health
123
excluded from the current study because they did not encounter a major stressor in the
previous 18 months.
A series of preliminary analyses were performed in order to develop a demographic
profile of the participants in this study. These analyses suggest that the average age of the
participants in the current study was 46.4 years (SD 17.7 years), 43.8% are men, 44.7%
were married at the time of the interview, and the average level of educational attainment
was 13.4 years (SD 3.1 years). These descriptive data as well as the findings that are
presented below are based on data that have been weighted.
Measures
Table 1 contains the measures of the core constructs that are evaluated in this study. The
procedures that were used to code these indicators are given in the footnotes of this table.
Hope
Three indicators were taken from the work of Scheier and Carver (1985) to measure hope.
A high score denotes greater hope (M = 11.0; SD 2.1; range 3–15). The internal consistency
reliability estimate (i.e., Cronbach’s a) for the composite measure of hope is .707.1
Bible Reading
A single indicator that assesses how often study participants read the Bible when they are
alone was taken from the work of the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working
Group (1999). A high score on this item represents study participants who read the Bible
more often (M = 3.1; SD 2.4; range 1–8).
Stressful Life Events
Exposure to stressful life events was assessed with a 12-item checklist that was developed
by Moos et al. (1984). A simple count of the number of events that respondents had
encountered in the 18-month period prior to the survey was computed. The average number
of events was 2.7 (SD 2.1; range 0–12).
Benevolent Religious Reappraisals
This coping response measure was developed by Pargament and his colleagues (Pargament
et al. 2000). A high score stands for respondents who relied on this coping strategy more
1 Scheier and Carver (1985) claim that the items in their scale assess optimism, but we refer to them as
indicators of hope. Following the seminal work of Peterson and Seligman (2004), we believe the terms
‘‘hope’’ and ‘‘optimism’’ are virtually synonymous. Moreover, these investigators note, the correlation
between the two is ‘‘considerable’’ (Peterson and Seligman 2004, p. 570) and despite differences in the way
they are operationalized, the correlates of these constructs are ‘‘strikingly similar’’ (Peterson and Seligman
2004, p. 570). The reader might also wonder whether the items we use to assess hope capture a state-like or
trait-like phenomenon. Generally speaking, state-like phenomenon are less stable than trait-like phenomenon.
However, as we will show below, stressful life events tend to be negatively associated with hope,
suggesting that the construct we measure changes over time. Clearly, longitudinal data are needed to address
this issue.
J Relig Health
123
often (M = 7.5; SD 2.9; range 3–12). The reliability estimate for this brief composite is
.855.
Religion Control Variables
Two additional measures of religion were included in the analyses provided below to help
insure that the effects were due to bible reading per se and not some other dimension of
Table 1 Core study measures
Hopea
I always look at the bright side of things
I’m optimistic about my future
In uncertain times, I usually expect the best
Bible readingb
When you are at home, how often do you read the Bible?
Stressful life eventsc
Moved to a new residence
Death of a close friend
Separation or divorce
Trouble with family members
Trouble with friends or neighbors
Your own serious illness or injury
Serious illness or injury of a family member
Death of a spouse
Death of an immediate family member (other than spouse)
Unemployed for more than a month
Income decreased substantially (20% or more)
Assaulted or robbed
Benevolent religious reappraisalsd
Saw my situation as part of God’s plan
Tried to find a lesson from God in the event
Tried to see how God might be trying to strengthen me in this situation
Church attendancee
How often do you attend religious services?
Private prayerb
How often do you pray by yourself?
aThese items were scored in the following manner (coding in parentheses): strongly disagree (1), disagree
(2), uncertain (3), agree (4), strongly agree (5)
bThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a month (2), once a month (3), a
few times a month (4), once a week (5), a few times a week (6), once a day (7), several times a day (8)
cA simple count was taken of the number of events that were experienced
dThese items were scored in the following manner: not at all (1), a little bit (2), quite a lot (3), a great deal
(4)
eThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a year (2), about once or twice a
year (3), several times a year (4), about once a month (5), 2 to 3 times a month (6), nearly every week (7),
every week (8), several times a week (9)
J Relig Health
123
religion that is associated with it. These religion control variables assess the frequency of
church attendance and the frequency of private prayer. These items were taken from
research by the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working Group (1999). A high
score on these items reflects more frequent church attendance (M = 4.7; SD 2.8; range 1–9)
and more frequent private prayer (M = 5.9; SD 2.5; range 1–8), respectively.
Demographic Control Variables
The relationships among the measures in Table 1 were estimated after the effects of age,
sex, education, and marital status were controlled statistically. Age and education were
scored continuously in years, whereas sex (1 = men; 0 = women) and marital status
(1 = married; 0 = otherwise) were coded in a binary format.
Data Analysis Strategy
The first hypothesis that was developed for this study specifies that the relationship
between stressful life events and hope will be weaker for study participants who read the
Bible more often. This means we expect to find a statistical interaction effect between
stress and Bible reading on hope. Following the procedures that are recommended by
Aiken and West (1991), tests for this interaction were performed with ordinary least
squares multiple regression analyses. All of the independent variables were centered on
their means. Following this, a multiplicative term was created by multiplying the centered
vales of the stress by the centered values of Bible reading. Then, a test for the proposed
interaction effect was conducted in two steps. First, the additive relationships between the
independent variables and hope were estimated in Model 1. Second, the cross-product term
was entered into the model in the second step (Model 2).
If the regression coefficient associated with the multiplicative term is statistically significant,
then it is important to perform some additional calculations to see whether the
proposed interaction effect is in the hypothesized direction. These additional computations
are performed with a formula that is provided by Aiken and West (1991, see p. 12).
Support for the first hypothesis would be found if the relationship between stress and hope
becomes progressively weaker at successively higher levels of Bible reading. Although any
value of Bible reading can be used in these additional computations, we selected four
equally spaced scores that capture the full distribution of bible reading values: 2, 4, 6, 8. It
is important to show that there are a sufficient number of cases at each of the selected data
points because too few cases can result in statistical estimation problems with data
sparseness (see Cohen et al. 2003, for a discussion of data sparseness). The following
number of cases was observed at each of the selected bible reading scores: 2 (N = 423), 4
(N = 188), 6 (N = 296), and 8 (N = 106). As these data reveal, we did not encounter
problems with data sparseness at these selected values of Bible reading. Once estimates
have been derived at the selected data points, Aiken and West (1991) provide an additional
formula that reveals whether these coefficients are statistically significant.
The tests for Hypothesis 2 and Hypothesis 3 were more straightforward. OLS was used
in both cases. Hypothesis 2 was evaluated by regressing benevolent religious reappraisal
coping scores on the religion control variables, the demographic control variables, and the
frequency of Bible reading. The stress measure was not included in these analyses because,
as we discussed above, questions on benevolent religious reappraisals refer specifically to
the single most stressful event. Hypothesis 3 was assessed by regressing hope on the
J Relig Health
123
frequency of Bible reading, stressful life events, the interaction between reading the Bible
and stress, benevolent religious coping responses, and the control variables.
Results
Table 2 contains the results of the test of Hypothesis 1. Findings from the first step of the
data analysis procedures that were discussed above are provided by Model 1, whereas
Model 2 contains the results that were obtained after the multiplicative term was added to
the regression equation.
Two noteworthy results emerge from the estimates that were derived from Model 1.
First, the data suggest that greater exposure to stressful life events is associated with a
diminished sense of hope (b = – .134; p\.001). But in contrast, reading the Bible more
often does not appear to be associated with hope (b = .034; ns.).2
The estimates that were derived with Model 2 are of greater interest because they
contain the test for the proposed interaction between stress and Bible reading on hope.
These data indicate that a significant interaction between stress and Bible reading is present
in the data (b = .029; p\.001; unstandardized regression coefficients are discussed when
presenting the results of tests for interaction effects because standardized effects are
meaningless in this context).
2 Preliminary analyses suggest that the level of exposure to stressful life events is not significantly associated
with the frequency of Bible reading (r = – .024; ns.).
Table 2 Assessing the relationships
among bible reading, stress,
and hope (N = 2873)
aStandardized regression
coefficient
bMetric (unstandardized)
regression coefficient
*p\.05; **p\.01;
***p\.001
Model 1 Model 2
Independent variables
Age – .059**a – .062***
(- .007) (- .007)
Sex – .022 – .022
(- .093) (- .091)
Education – .044* – .044*
(- .029) (- .030)
Marital status .027 .028
(.112) (.117)
Church attendance .069** .071**
(.052) (.053)
Private prayer .105*** .108***
(.089) (.090)
Stressful events – .134*** – .132***
(- .136) (- .133)
Bible reading .034 .035
(.029) (.031)
(Bible Reading X Stressful Events) – –
(.029)***
Multiple R2 .053 .058
J Relig Health
123
Following the data analyses strategy that was presented earlier, additional computations
were performed at four equally spaced Bible reading scores to see whether the interaction
effect is in the hypothesized direction. The results from these additional calculations are
not shown in Table 2. A value of 2 represents people who read the Bible less than once a
month. The additional calculations reveal that greater exposure to stressful life events
among people at this level of Bible reading is associated with lower hope scores
(b = – .164; b = – .166; p\.001). A score of 4 stands for people who read the Bible a
few times a month. At this level of Bible reading, stress is still associated with lower hope
scores (b = – .106; b = – .108; p\.001). However, the standardized estimate is about
35.4% smaller than the estimate for study participants at the previous level (i.e., those who
read the Bible less than once a month). Study participants with a score of 6 say they read
the Bible a few times a week. At this level, stress is not significantly associated with hope
(b = – .049; b = – .050; ns.). The same is true for study participants who read the Bible
several times a day (i.e., those with a score of 8) (b = .008; b = .008; ns.). Looking across
the full range of scores, the data suggest that reading the Bible more often tends to fully
moderate (i.e., offset) the negative relationship between stress and hope. These data
therefore provide support for Hypothesis 1.
Hypothesis 2 was designed to examine one way in which the potentially beneficial effects
of reading the Bible might arise. This issue was addressed by estimating the relationship
between reading the Bible and relying on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses
when the most significant life event in the previous 18 months was encountered. As discussed
above, this relationship was evaluated by regressing benevolent reappraisal coping scores on
the frequency of Bible reading as well as age, sex, education, marital status, church attendance,
and prayer. These additional analyses (not shown here) indicate that people who read
the Bible more often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping
responses when the most stressful event was encountered (b = .130; b = .158; p\.001).
Hypothesis 3 was designed to bring the analyses full circle by assessing whether greater
use of benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses is associated with greater hope.
Recall that this hypothesis was evaluated by regressing hope on benevolent religious
reappraisals, the frequency of reading the Bible, stress, the interaction between reading the
Bible and stress, and the control variables. The findings (not shown here) suggest that
people who use benevolent reappraisals to deal with the greatest stressor tend to be more
hopeful (b = .215; b = .148; p\.001). Support is therefore found for Hypothesis 3. These
analyses further reveal that the interaction between reading the Bible and stress is still
statistically significant (b = .024; p\.01), but it is approximately 17.2% smaller than the
estimate that is provided when the measure of benevolent reappraisals is not in the model
(see Table 2) ((.029- .024/.029) = .172).
Discussion
Sacred texts are, arguably, the backbone of a faith tradition.3 They typically contain
information on the history of a faith tradition, but, more importantly, they also contain
precepts which presumably lead to a better life. Even though sacred texts are a vitally
3 Our study was conducted in the U.S. and as a result, the study participants were overwhelmingly
Christian. The statement that religious texts are the backbone of a faith tradition is appropriate for those with
a Judeo-Christian background. It should be emphasized, however, that religious texts may play a less central
role in other faith traditions, such as Buddhism.
J Relig Health
123
important part of a faith tradition, it is surprising to find that empirical research on them has
lagged behind research in other substantive areas (e.g., religious coping) in the religion and
health literature. The purpose of the current study was to redress this imbalance in the
literature by assessing whether reading sacred texts contributes to the quality of life by
providing access to potentially important coping resources. Toward this end, three
hypotheses were evaluated. The first specified that the relationship between stress and hope
would be weaker among people who read the Bible more often. It was proposed in the
second hypothesis that people who read the Bible more often will be more likely to adopt
benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses to deal with the single most troublesome
life event they encountered in the previous 18 months. According to the third hypothesis,
individuals who adopt benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses will be more
hopeful about the future. The data from the current study provide support for each of these
hypotheses.
There are three reasons why the findings from this study are noteworthy. First, to the
best of our knowledge, this is the first study that assesses the potential stress-buffering
function of reading sacred scriptures in the general population. Second, an effort was made
to move beyond this important issue by clearly identifying one way in which reading the
Bible may confer stress-related benefits: adopting benevolent religious reappraisal coping
responses. Third, we examined these issues with data from a large nationally representative
survey of adults.
Even though our research may have contributed to the literature, a substantial amount of
work remains to be done on reading sacred scriptures. Perhaps the greatest need has to do
with the measurement of this core construct. As in the current study, researchers often
assess reading sacred scriptures with a single indicator (e.g., Fetzer Institute/National
Institute on Aging Working Group 1999). Yet even a moments reflect reveals that reading
sacred scriptures is a complex phenomenon in its own right. Briefly reflecting on research
on prayer helps illustrate this point. Many researchers initially assessed prayer with a single
indicator. But as this literature began to evolve, it quickly became evident that there are
different types of prayer (Poloma and Gallup 1991) and different functions of prayer
(Spilka and Ladd 2013). Perhaps researchers can develop a counterpart to this literature in
their work on reading sacred scriptures. For example, it might be useful to devise a
topology of reasons for reading the Bible. Some people might read the Bible for help in
dealing with stress, but others might read sacred scriptures simply to deepen their faith,
while yet other individuals may read the Bible in order to feel closer to their chosen faith,
thereby deriving comfort in knowing they are part of an ongoing tradition. These (and
other) reasons for reading scriptures could be measured directly and then examined in
larger models to see which one(s) are associated with health-related outcomes.
Following closely on the point that was raised above, it would be helpful to identify the
specific Biblical passages that people turn to when they encounter stressful events. This in
turn may help flesh out our understanding about how Bible reading shapes religious coping
responses. Unfortunately, our study does not contain data on the specific Biblical passages
that people consult during difficult times. Gathering this type of information should be a
high priority in the future.
As the data in our study reveal, Bible reading, stress, and religious coping responses do
not explain all of the variance in the hope outcome measure. This suggests that hope is
likely to be influenced by other aspects of religious life, as well. Research by Krause and
his colleagues suggests that social relationships in the church may play an important role in
this respect. More specifically Krause and Hayward (2012) report that more frequent
informal support from pastors is associated with increases in hope over time. Similarly,
J Relig Health
123
research by Krause, Ellison, Shaw, Marcum and Boardman (2001) indicates that more
frequent informal support from fellow church members is associated with greater use of
religious coping responses.
It would also be important to gather more information on the context in which Bible
reading takes place. We assess Bible reading in private, but people also attend Bible study
groups. It would be helpful to see whether reading the Bible in groups conveys a similar or
even greater benefit than reading the Bible privately.
In order to advance research on reading the Bible, investigators should also address the
limitations in the work we have presented. At least two shortcomings are in need of
attention. First, the data for our study are cross-sectional. Consequently, the causal
ordering among the constructs in our models was based on theoretical considerations alone.
For example, we assumed that people who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals are
subsequently more likely to feel hopeful about the future. But one might just as easily
argue that people who are initially more hopeful are subsequently more likely to adopt this
type of coping response. Longitudinal data are needed to address this, as well as other
causal assumptions in our work. Second, only one specific coping response was examined
in our study. However, as Pargament et al. (2000) show, individuals may adopt a wide
range of coping responses when they are confronted by an unwanted stressor. Some of
these coping responses may be especially useful in research on reading sacred scriptures
(e.g., collaborative religious coping, seeking spiritual support). Clearly, examining the
relationship between reading the Bible and a full spectrum of coping responses will likely
yield much greater insight into the potential benefits of this core religious behavior.
In recent years, the theories and measures that are used in the study of religion have
become increasingly sophisticated. We applaud these efforts as long as more fundamental
aspects of religious life are not overlooked. If our study accomplishes anything, we hope it
calls attention to one of the most basic elements of involvement in virtually any faith
tradition—reading sacred scriptures.
Funding This study was funded by the John Templeton Foundation (Grant 40077).
Compliance with Ethnical Standards
Conflict of interest Neal Krause and Kenneth I. Pargament declare that they have no conflict of interest.
Ethical Approval All procedures performed in studies involving human participants were in accordance
with the ethical standards of the institutional and/or national research committees and with the 1964 Helsinki
Declaration and its later amendments or comparable ethical standards.
Informed Consent Informed consent was obtained from all individual participants included in the study.
References
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Arcury, T. A., Quandt, S. A., McDonald, J., & Bell, R. A. (2000). Faith and health self-management of rural
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Cohen, J., Cohen, P., West, S. G., & Aiken, L. S. (2003). Applied multiple regression/correlation analysis
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Gerdner, L. A., Tripp-Reimer, T., & Simpson, H. C. (2007). Hard lives. God’s help and struggling through:
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Hamilton, J. B., Moore, A. D., Johnson, K. A., & Koenig, H. G. (2013). Reading the Bible for guidance,
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New York: Guilford.
Jankowski, P. J., & Sandage, S. J. (2011). Meditative prayer, hope, adult attahcment, and forgiveness: A
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Question 5: Economics
Chapter 12 matching vocabulary
Aggregate demand
Real-balances effect
Foreign-purchases effect
Interest-rate effect
Aggregate supply
Productivity
Short-run aggregate supply curve
Menu costs
Long-run aggregate supply curve
Equilibrium price level
( ) The amount of total spending on domestic goods and services in an
economy.
( ) Where there is neither a shortage nor a surplus and no tendency for
the price to rise or fall.
( ) As the price level declines, the purchasing power of money increases.
( ) Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce and sell
where input prices are fully responsive to changes in the price level.
( ) A lower price level will make domestically produced goods less
expensive relative to foreign goods.
( ) The costs of changing prices, like the costs of changing prices at
Publix.
( ) A lower price level will reduce the demand for money and lower the
real interest rate, which will stimulate additional purchases.
( ) Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce where input
prices do not change in response to changes in the price level.
( ) The total quantity of output (i.e. real GDP) firms will produce and sell.
( ) The average output per worker during a specific time period.
Question 6: Economics
chapter 11 matching vocabulary
Money that enters the spending stream through an increase in business or government spending.
The difference between exports and imports in an economy.
Where spending equal output in an economy.
The level of consumer and business spending at each possible income or output level.
Insufficient total spending to achieve full-employment GDP
A tax where everyone pays the same amount.
Total spending exceeds level to achieve full-employment GDP
Money, like savings, that is no in the spending stream.
The business spending plan at each level of GDP
Spending choices of business independent of current real output.
Planned investment
Investment schedule
Aggregate expenditures schedule
Equilibrium GDP
Leakage
Injection
Net Exports
Lump-sum tax
Recessionary expenditure gap
Inflationary expenditure gap
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Question 7: Economics
Chapter 10 matching definitions
( ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
( ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
( ) Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
( ) Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
( ) Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
( ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
( ) Percent of disposable income that household save
( ) Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
( ) The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
( ) The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.
Consumption schedule
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)
Average propensity to consume (APC)
Wealth effect
Savings schedule
Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
Average propensity to save (APS)
Paradox of thrift
Multiplier
45 degree line
Question 8: Business
Resources: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11; Top Performers Case Study Grading Guide
Read the opening vignette in Ch. 11, “Hiring Top Performers at MarineMax” on page 304 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11.
Answer the following in 150 to 200 words:
What can MarineMax do to increase the likelihood that the top sales candidates it recruits will accept its job offers?
Question 9: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss the multiple hurdles approach. Do you think this is a viable method for choosing candidates? Or does an alternative approach work best for your current or previous organization?
Question 10: Business
BUSI 300 PowerPoint Instructions
For this assignment, you will create a professional looking PowerPoint presentation on a topic of professional communication. To help put this in perspective, the scenario is that your supervisor has assigned you the task of presenting a 45 to 60-minute training session on some aspect of professional communication. You need to research your topic and prepare an engaging PowerPoint that would be used to guide your presentation.
Topic Ideas
The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):
How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
How to Give an Effective Presentation;
Effective Communication Within Teams;
Overcoming Communication Barriers
It is recommended that you pick a topic of interest and then do some research to make sure you can find five credible sources – more about credible sources below. Once you are certain you can locate five credible sources, begin creating your PowerPoint presentation.
PowerPoint Requirements:
Title Slide
This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).
Content Slides
A minimum of 15content slides must be included.
All content slides must contain speaker notes.
o Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.
o Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.
o To add speaker notes, go to the Notes pane under the slide where you will see, “Click to add notes”. For more help, view the information at: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/add-speaker-notes-to-your-slides-26985155-35f5-45ba-812b-e1bd3c48928e
A minimum of fourrelevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.
o All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.
o Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.
III. Reference Slide
This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.
Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of thecomplete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources
A minimum of five credible sourcesmust be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:
o four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
o two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.
o the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).
You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment:
o No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)
o No general Internet searching is acceptable. Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.
Avoiding Plagiarism
Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
Provide citations for any:
statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).
Other Requirements and Reminders:
Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.
Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.
A running header or page #s are not required.
An abstract is not required.
PowerPoint Project Grading Rubric_BUSI 300
Based on 150-point maximum
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Content 70%
Advanced 90-100%
Proficient 70-89%
Developing 1-69%
Not present
Content
94.5 to 105 points
Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is accurate, and the presentation has a logical sequence of ideas. All slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.
Four relevant, professional images/graphics are included. All image/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.
Speaker notes are included on all content slides and expand upon and/or offer further clarification of points.
73.5 to 93.5 points
Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is mostly accurate, and the presentation has a good flow. Most slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.
Presentation contains only 1-3 images/graphics.
Some, but not all, images/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.
Speaker notes are missing on 1-5 content slides. Speaker notes help clarify some, but not all points.
1 to 72.5 points
Topic does not meet assignment requirements. Content is not completely accurate, and/or the presentation is unorganized and difficult to follow. Slides do not outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.
Graphics do not illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.
Speaker notes are missing on 6 or more content slides. Speaker notes do not clarify points on the slides.
0 points
Not present
Structure 30%
Advanced 90-100%
Proficient 70-89%
Developing 1-69%
Not present
Grammar, Spelling, and Sentence Structure
4.6 to 5 points
No spelling or grammar errors are present.
3.6 to 4.5 points
Presentation contains some spelling and/or grammar errors.
5 credible sources are used, and correct APA formatting has been applied throughout.
The title slide is included and contains all required items.
Transitions and animations are smooth and enhance the presentation very well.
A professional theme is used. All text is clearly visible with the appropriate amount of content per slide.
All required slides are present.
28 to 35.6 points
4 credible sources are used. The presentation contains some APA formatting errors.
The title slide is included, but is missing one required item.
Transitions and animations are adequately used.
A professional theme is used.
All text is visible and most slides contain the appropriate amount of content per slide.
Two required slides are missing.
1 to 27.6 points
1-3 credible sources are used. The presentation contains multiple APA formatting errors.
The title slide is included, but is missing 2+ required items.
Transitions and animations are not used and/or distract from the presentation.
A professional theme is missing.
Text is unclear, and there is either too much or not enough content per slide.
Three or more required slides are missing.
0 points
Not present
BUSI 300 PowerPoint Instructions
For this assignment, you will create a professional looking PowerPoint presentation on a topic of professional communication. To help put this in perspective, the scenario is that your supervisor has assigned you the task of presenting a 45 to 60-minute training session on some aspect of professional communication. You need to research your topic and prepare an engaging PowerPoint that would be used to guide your presentation.
Topic Ideas
The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):
How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
How to Give an Effective Presentation;
Effective Communication Within Teams;
Overcoming Communication Barriers
It is recommended that you pick a topic of interest and then do some research to make sure you can find five credible sources – more about credible sources below. Once you are certain you can locate five credible sources, begin creating your PowerPoint presentation.
PowerPoint Requirements:
Title Slide
This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).
This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).
Content Slides
A minimum of 15content slides must be included.
All content slides must contain speaker notes.
Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.
Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.
A minimum of four relevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.
All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.
Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.
III. Reference Slide
This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).
This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.
Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of the complete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources
A minimum of five credible sources must be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:
four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.
the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).
You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment:
No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)
No general Internet searching is acceptable. Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.
Avoiding Plagiarism
Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
Provide citations for any:
statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).
Other Requirements and Reminders:
Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.
Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.
A running header or page #s are not required.
An abstract is not required.
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Question 11: Mathematics
Calculate the percentage return on a 1-year Treasury bill with a face value of $10,000 if you pay $9,777.46 to purchase it and receive its full face value at maturity.
The percentage return is % Round to decimal place
Question 12: History
From the readings in you textbook, you have learned about Plato, Aristotle and other philosophers within the Greek culture. Some people say, “We should not study and learn about the secular philosophies taught by the Greeks because they are not Christian based.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give specific reasons why you have come to your conclusions.
TEXTBOOK chs. 7–8:
A Narrative of Western Culture First Edition Dennis E. Rawls, MALS
ISBN-13: 978-1-260-51106-2 ISBN-10: 1-260-51106-5
Module/Week 3
Review Study Guide
This module/week we are looking at the philosophy and humanist legacy that the Greeks added to Western Culture. Philosophy many times is a big word that people avoid using but it is literally the love of wisdom. It generally does take a position on what is the nature of reality. Men like the Sophists (a professional philosopher-teacher) would debate philosophy in the Greek marketplace called an agora. On occasion we are critical of the Greek philosophy but many of these men were brilliant and modern Christianity could learn some things from them. We should not be afraid to understand the world in which we live a little better. They were not afraid to have a systematic speculation of the universe from their vantage point. There are a number of men who are listed as philosophers in the Greek culture, so let’s get some of the key individuals in the correct time frame.
The correct order:
Pythagoras—Died 495 BC
Socrates—399 BC
Plato—348 BC
Aristotle—322 BC
Alexander the Great—323 BC (not really thought of as a philosopher, but was a student of Aristotle and was heroic figure in the late classical period of Greek history).
Let’s now try to cover a little of what each is known for.
Pythagoras was the early Greek philosopher who taught that “number” was the essence of all things. Not to be confused with Protagoras who is also credited with saying that “man is the measure of all things”. Socrates is next and it is interesting that there are no written works of him, and we only know what he taught because of what Plato wrote about him. Socrates was known for his method of teaching by asking questions. He is best recognized for inventing the teaching practice of pedagogy, wherein a teacher questions a student in a manner that draws out the correct response. He was not necessarily a student of Pythagoras but probably learned some things from him. It is interesting that Socrates’ favorite student, Plato, developed a philosophy diverse from that of his teacher. Socrates was later brought to trial by his enemies on capital charges of atheism and corruption of the young.
Let’s look at Plato, who was associated with a principle used in the art of debate called the dialectic. Reality for Plato consisted of (Ideas) of all basic things. Forms that exist beyond the grasp of the senses, or even the mind, which is not what Socrates or Aristotle would teach. Aristotle had a great influence in the field of logic, particularly with his invention of the syllogism as a tool for deductive reasoning. In logic, Plato was more inclined to use inductive reasoning, whereas Aristotle used deductive reasoning. The syllogism, a basic unit of logic (if A = B, and B = C, then A = C), was developed by Aristotle. Plato would write the Republic as well as the Allegory of the Cave.
Both Aristotle and Plato believed thoughts were superior to the senses and are considered to be the most influential philosophers in the history of Western Culture. However, whereas Plato believed the senses could fool a person, Aristotle stated that the senses were needed in order to properly determine reality. Aristotle would have some excellent views on logos, which when used in the philosophical sense takes on the meaning of the rational principles that govern and develop the universe as well as his greatest field of logic.
An example of this difference is the Allegory of the Cave, created by Plato (who would create the Academy of Athens). To him, the world was like a cave, and a person would only see shadows cast from the outside light, so the only reality would be thoughts. To the Aristotelian method, the obvious solution is to walk out of the cave and experience what is casting light and shadows directly, rather than relying solely on indirect or internal experiences.
Next, let’s look at some of the philosophical terms that were used and have been used to describe various beliefs and values.
Ideology is basically the doctrines, opinions, or way of thinking of an individual or group.
Hedonism develops within cultures that begin to focus on themselves and not others, because this belief says that pleasure is the principal god and should be the highest aim of the individual and society.
Naturalism in many cases leads to Hedonism and Humanism. Naturalism is the view that the universe requires no supernatural cause or government, that it is self-existent, self-explanatory, self-operating, and self-directing, and that it is purposeless, deterministic, and only accidently productive of humanity.
Syncretism is a view we have seem before and is the joining together of ideals, beliefs and values. Syncretism is basically a combination, reconciliation, or coalescence of varying, often mutually opposed beliefs, principles, or practices, esp. those of various religions, into a new conglomerate whole typically marked by internal inconsistencies.
We have previously studied how the Greeks were individualistic in their view of their society. This concept was unusual in the history and cultures of this and previous time periods. We may look down upon a prideful person and Scripture certainly does, but the Greeks considered pride a virtue. We had mentioned it earlier but the Greeks were good at illustrating their cultural perspective by their use of the Comedy and Tragedy (the first one was in 534 BC) plays. The typical Greek tragedy depicts how the hero becomes alienated from society, which is a tragedy.
Greek Theatre was not the only form of art for the Greeks. We have famous sculptures such as The Discus Thrower by Myron, The Kritios Boy done in 481 BC, and Poseidon, one of the finest original Greek bronzes (the Greeks favorite sculpture forms). Many of these art works depicted people not as they were but as they should be. Just a note here: there are not as many bronze sculptures as were actually produced because many were melted down for weapons. Many of the bronzes statues we have today have been recovered from the sea, where they were able to lay safely to be recovered by future generations. We cannot forget the art that the Greeks felt was the most important, which was Music.
Just because there were many views of reality with the Greek culture, this did not mean that the people did not believe in gods and build temples (without priests). Most expensive temples were built on the mainland of Greece, not on the islands such as Sicily; one of them being the Parthenon (built in Athens), which was a temple dedicated to the goddess Athena. The ancient Greeks saw the human form even in their temple styles. The Corinthian columns were associated with the Greek Classical time period and were used in the Greek temple architecture because of their elegance and refinement. The Corinthian columns can be seen in many of the buildings in downtown Washington D.C.
Not to say that the Greeks all got along with each other. Towns would fight towns and basically have an all-out war, and many of them were based on pride. As we mentioned earlier, the Peloponnesian War between Sparta and Athens was just such a war. We know much about this war because of the accurate historical accounts by Thucydides. Thucydides believed that history should provide an accurate record of past events. It would have very negative effects of both areas of Greece, but Athens would continue to provide the majority of cultural influence for Greece until the Romans arrived on the scene.
The Greeks thought education was very important and like many of the Classical schools in America today, thought music was important in this educational process. How could we describe the Greeks? In two words: Individualistic and competitive. Thus the Olympics?
Question 13: General Question
ACCT 212 Learn smart Assignment 11 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
A capital investment evaluation method that measures the expected time for the present value of the net cash flows to equal the initial cost of the investment is the:
A company is considering several investment opportunities. The investments have been evaluated using payback period and break-even time. Only one project will be chosen and time value of money is important. The company should choose the project which the:
The capital investment evaluation method compares the present value of the net cash flows to the initial amount invested is the:
A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The company has a hurdle rate of 10%. The break-even time is approximately:
When using accounting rate of return to evaluate capital investment decisions, choose the project with the (1) risk, (2) payback period, and (3) return for the (4) time period.
A company needs to choose between two investment opportunities. Project 1 has a cost of $500,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $450,000. Project 2 has a cost of $800,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $750,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, the company should choose:
A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The payback period is ____ years.
When comparing investment opportunities with approximately the same cost and risk level, choose the investment with the:
A company is considering a capital investment of $16,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flow for next five years at the following amounts: Year 1: $8,000; Year 2: $6,000; Year 3: $5,000; Year 4: $5,000. The payback period is __ years.
A company is considering two similar investment projects. One has an initial cost of $50,000 and the other an initial cost of $450,000. Which evaluation method would be most appropriate?
Assume straight-line depreciation and even cash flow. A company plans to purchase equipment for $25,000. The equipment will have $0 salvage value and increase after-tax income by $7,500 annually during it 5-year life. The accounting rate of return is ___%
Which of the following is the approximate internal rate of return for an investment that costs $45,880 and has net cash flow of $4,000 for 20 years?
Consider the following projects: Project A cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000; Project B: Cost = $45,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000 Project C: Cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $20,000; Project D: Cost = $40,000, NPV of cash flows = $5,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, rank the projects in order of preference with the best choice on top.
A company has evaluated several projects using net present value. All projects are similar in amount invested and risk. Rank the projects in the order they should be accepted.
A company is considering an investment opportunity with a cost of $5,000 that will provide future cash flows of $8,000. The flows for the investment for the next 4 years are: $1,000, $1,000, $2,000, and $4,000. Assume a required rate of return of 10%. The NPV is $ _____
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Question 14: General Question
ECON 213 How to use InQuizitive Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Points, Grades, and Levels
Drag the labels below to fill in the blanks.
(Hint: You saw most of this information on the introductory screen when you first started the activity. To view that screen again, click the gear icon in the top right-hand corner and select “Instructor Activity Introduction” from the drop-down menu.)
Drag word(s) below to fill in the blank(s) in the passage.
You score points in InQuizitive by answering .
You determine how many points you can gain or lose on each question using the Question slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users).
You must answer a number of questions to get a grade on the activity.
To get a perfect grade (100%) on the activity, you must reach a designated Score.
Confidence Levels
Find the Question Confidence slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users). Try sliding the ball to adjust your confidence level.
Using the keys below or your keyboard, type out the name of the lowest confidence level.
Confidence Levels
Go back to the Question Confidence slider. What’s the highestconfidence level?
Using the keys on the screen or your keyboard, enter it below.
Confidence Levels
As you’ve seen, you can adjust your confidence level on each question using the Question Confidence slider. What happens when you increase the confidence level for a question?
When you answer the question correctly on the first try, it the number of points you’ll earn.
When you answer incorrectly while attempting the question, it the number of points you’ll lose
Other InQuizitive Policies and Features
Which devices can you use to work on InQuizitive activities?
(Note that to complete this question you must drag every answer option into either the “Correct Answer(s)” area or the “Incorrect Answer(s)” area.)
Confidence Levels
If you guess incorrectly on a question, you immediately lose the points you “wagered” when setting your confidence level. If you answer the question correctly after that initial incorrect guess, however, you can earn back half of those points in most cases.
So, here’s a math question for you: Suppose you set your confidence level at “I think I know it,” which means that you’re initially risking 80 points. You guess wrong on the first attempt. How many “second-chance” points will you be able to earn back?
Other InQuizitive Policies and Features
Find Quizmo, the InQuizitive alien, in the upper left-hand corner of the screen. Quizmo is thinking of an African animal’s common name. Guess the animal.
(This is an impossible question that we’re slipping in here, to make sure you get at least one question wrong and see what happens when you guess incorrectly. Just keep typing until you fill in the answer. You will not encounter impossible questions like this in later InQuizitive activities in your course!)
If you answer the minimum number of questions for an activity before you reach the Target Score, your initial grade will be calculated this way:
If you’ve just reached the minimum number of questions and have scored 750 points, your initial grade is .
However, if you keep answering questions and eventually reach 1,500 points, your grade will improve to , no matter how many questions it takes you to get there.
Question 15: General Questions
ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 13 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Chapter 13: Oligopoly and Strategic Behavior
Apply the correct label to each network externality or externality-related effect.
What generally causes U.S. companies in oligopoly to have similar prices?
How is oligopoly different from monopolistic competition?
The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was successful enough in reducing the power of cartels and monopolies that no further legislation to curb monopoly power has ever been needed.
What must be demonstrated to prove that a company engaged in predatory pricing?
Joey and Sarah own competing cell phone companies. Using tit-for-tat strategy, describe what Joey should do if Sarah decides to change her advertising practices. Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Two cable companies serve a city. The companies are of comparable size and are charging the profit-maximizing price. Then Company A raises its prices.
According to the kinked demand curve theory, what will Company B do?
How could network externalities encourage monopolistic behavior? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Why might it be difficult for the firms in a duopoly to form a cartel? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Why would two rival airlines choose not to follow a tit-for-tat strategy to reduce or eliminate advertising?
The output in chairs per month for four firms is:
200 for firm A
300 for firm B
275 for firm C
320 for firm D
The total output of the chair industry is 2,000 chairs per month. If firms A, B, C, and D are the four largest firms in the industry, calculate the four-firm concentration ratio for the chair industry by finding out what percentage of the total output the four firms are responsible for. Round your answer to the nearest whole percent.
Three separate oligopolists in the same industry serve a city. Company A is the dominant firm in the industry and produces a large share of the total output in the industry. Companies B and C are rival firms, but they are much smaller than Company A. Company A sets its price at a level that maximizes its own profits.
According to the theory of price leadership, what will Companies B and C likely do?
When are prices higher? Order the following market scenarios from lowest price to highest price based on their descriptions.
Why might network externalities cause a new cable provider to be unsuccessful when it tries to enter the market?
Lukas owns a phone company in a city with three other phone companies. He wants to attract more customers and is considering lowering his prices to do so. According to the kinked demand curve theory, will this strategy work? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Sometimes duopolists try to cooperate with one another. Match the economic phenomenon to the description that most accurately describes it.
Maddie and Gavin own competing bakeries in a small town. Maddie lowers her bakery’s prices to a point at which Gavin cannot compete, and he must go out of business. Gavin believes Maddie deliberately lowered her bakery’s prices with the intent of driving his bakery out of business. Gavin wants to file suit against Maddie. Does Gavin have a case? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Match the strategy to the scenario it describes.
Match the company to the outcome of its antitrust suit.
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Question 16: General Questions
ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 12 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Chapter 12: Monopolistic Competition and Advertising
In the short run, low barriers to entry and exit allow new entrants into a monopolistically competitive market.
What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition?
Which shift in the demand curve is most likely to describe a company in a monopolistically competitive market that begins to spend more on advertising?
Which of the following are reasons a firm might choose to advertise?
For each industry, drag the label into the column of the table that describes what type of market it is.
What might be the consequences of government intervention in the bottled water industry?
Which graph likely represents a popular designer sunglasses company located in a busy, downtown shopping mall?
How does advertising affect industries in competitive markets? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
In monopolistically competitive markets, government regulation is always desirable because it improves efficiency.
What does a shift from point 1 to point 3 illustrate about the result of advertising in monopolistically competitive markets?
How does advertising affect consumers? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
In which market type(s) are individual firms likely to advertise regularly?
When are firms more efficient? Order the following firms from least efficient to most efficient.
How do the actions of the Federal Trade Commission influence advertising?
A pizza company that charges five dollars more for its pizzas than a competitor’s pizza will find it impossible to survive in a monopolistically competitive market.
Drag the industries to the graph that would best represent them.
Drag the following products to the graph that most likely illustrates their price and output.
Katy owns a monopolistically competitive firm that has many competitors that advertise. What can Katy realistically hope to achieve if she decides to advertise as well?
Match the description of the industry to the type of market in which it belongs.
What are some of the differences between a monopolistically competitive firm and a competitive firm?
Ananya is the owner of a toy store and is considering whether or not to purchase advertising for her company. The graph here illustrates the firm’s long-run average total cost curve in three different scenarios. Drag each situation to the appropriate point on the graph.
Order the industries based on increasing market power and ability to set prices, starting with the highest.
Advertising expenses occupy approximately what percentage of global economic activity?
Match each type of market to a possible incentive or disincentive for advertising in it.
Mrunal opened the first flower shop in her town. For a while, she was the only provider of flowers, until people noticed how profitable her business had been. Now several new flower shops have opened. What might happen to Mrunal’s business in the long run?
Identify each situation as either a competitive market or a monopolistically competitive market.
Fill in the blanks to describe the characteristics of monopolistic competition.
Question 17: Computer Science
There are 3 sections to this assignment- each section is a page long for total of 3 pages Please label each section APA Format for reference
Instruction
Section 1- needs to be 1 page What is change control and why does it need to be managed? Give two examples of the impact of mismanagement. Why does a network require constant monitoring to determine the percentage of its capacity being used? Explain the potential results of not monitoring capacity usage. Define bandwidth. Why does a company need standards regarding who can expand the network or add applications that require heavy bandwidth to operate? Complete the assignment in a 1- to 2-page Microsoft Word document. Cite all sources using the correct APA style. Save the document as. Section 2- needs to be 1 page Find An article advocating centralized management of the IT function and find an article on advocating user-dominated management of IT Discuss your findings in each article and present your analysis of which aspects of each method seem most beneficial to the companies mentioned overall. Section 3- needs to be 1 page Read a case a scholarly source such as Google Scholar dealing with a company’s IT strategy, the implementation of that strategy, and the way the strategy benefited the company as a whole. Analyze the case and describe how the company mentioned was able to develop a successful IT strategy. How did the company plan and implement the strategy? How is the company supported by the IT strategy? You should identify at least three scholarly and independent sources utilizing services such as (but not limited to) Google or Google Scholar over the Internet. The sources you identify should support the case you selected for the purpose of this assignment.
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Question 18: Business
Instruction
complete 3 assignments. Only have to show work or graphing if asked
T/F the longer the maturity, the lower the bond duration, which measures interest rate risk.
What is the value of a 5 year semi-annual pay 9% coupon bond if rates are 9%
1000
923
928
965
You are looking to value some common stock using various valuation models and are answering the following questions:
T/F A company with a high growth rate will cause most valuation models to yield a higher stock price.
T/F the higher the required return should cause an investor to pay more for a stock.
If a firm pays a dividend this year of $3, has a growth rate of 5%, a required return on equity of 10%, what is the price of the stock
60
63
75
79
T/F A firm has EPS of $2 and the industry PE multiple is 18, so I should pay $36 for the stock.
You need to analyze some projects for a company you work for. You meet with the CFO to discuss some options.
T/F If the IRR<WACC then project should be accepted
A truck costs 100k and is projected to bring in cash flows of 20k per year for the first 4 years with a cash flow of 10k in year 5 with a salvage value of 15k in that same year. If the WACC is 7.5% then you should
Reject as the NPV is a negative 21k
Reject as the NPV is a negative 16k
Accept as the NPV is a positive 11k
Neither accept or reject
You are going to receive monthly payments of 1,000 for the next 5 years. You need a lump sum however and you go to a firm that will pay you a lump sum but they need to earn 9%. How much will you receive
60k
11k
48k
75k
T/F The 3 main financial statements are the income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flow and the balance sheet list assets and liabilities of the firm.
The new firm wants to minimize fixed costs. What does this mean?
This will keep operating leverage down which in turn will lower business risk
This will lower financial risk which in turn lowers the risk of the firm.
Higher fixed costs will leverage up returns and lower business risk
Higher operating leverage is directly associated with higher financial risk.
T/F The goal of a firm is to maximize the value of its stock and that occurs at the point where the WACC is the lowest. Debt should have a lower cost of capital component versus equity as interest payments are tax deductible.
T/F Capital structure refers to the % of equity and the % of debt affirm has with the goal of minimizing that cost or finding the highest WACC.
T/F Essentially, the whole idea of valuing stocks and bonds and deciding whether or not to accept or reject capital investments (machines, a truck fleet, etc.) is to compute the present value of the cash flows.
T/F A firm should pay out a dividend if they can earn a better rate of return than the stockholder
What is the yield to maturity of a 6% semiannual coupon bond that matures in 8 years if he pays 930?
6%
58%
16%
Cannot be determined
An MRI machine has the following cash flows:
Cost: 1 million
Cash flows are 500k for 3 years
The WACC is 15%
The IRR on this MRI machine is:
0%
4%
6%
26%
T/F Based on the IRR decision criteria we should accept this project
. T/F the payback under the original MRI assumptions is 3 years
T/F You are taking a take home final exam.
You want to retire in 30 years and a financial planner tells you that you need 1.5 million then to live comfortably. If you have 50k to invest now and can earn 7%, how much would you have to invest annually to reach your goal?
11,850
19,908
31,250
Cannot be determined
What is the Present value (PV) of 10,000 to be received in 5 years if your required return is 6%
a.7,473
10,000
8,250
0
T/F The lower the interest rate the lower the FV
T/F The higher the required return the lower the PV
T/F Companies raise capital by issuing stocks and bonds, which is why the equation
assets = liabilities +equity holds true
T/F General obligation muni bonds are backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing state
T/F U.S. treasury securities have credit risk
T/F A corporate bond will have some degree of risk premium or credit spread over U.S Treasury bonds to compensate for risk.
The PV of a semi-annual 6% bond that matures in 5 years if market interest rates are now 5% is:
$1,000
$1,050.32
$1,43.76
Cannot be determined
The YTM of a bonds purchased at $950 with a semi-annual coupon of 7% and a $1,000 par that matures in 4 years is:
$1,000
b.6.25%
4.25%
8.5%
You are looking at some stocks to value using different valuation models and come across the following questions:
11.T/F the higher the growth rate and the lower the discount rate, the higher the price using the dividend discount model or PV of FCF model
A stock with next year’s dividend of $2 and a growth rate of 4% and a cost of equity of 9% has an intrinsic value of:
42
40
23
50
T/F If a firm has cash flows of 500 million and the growth rate of the cash flow is 5% with a required return of 10%, the value of operations is a little over 10 billion
14.T/F A stock that has a PE multiple of 15 and earnings of 2 per shares should trade at 7.5.
15.T/F A company with a high PE multiple may not be overvalued if they have a high growth rate.
T/F The goal of the firm is not to maximize its stock price.
17 . T/F The common stockholders are the owners of the firm and they elect the company board of directors who in turn appoint the officers of the firm
Question 1 (Chapter 14: EVM)
At a certain point in your project, you did a performance measurement and found the following results:
PV = $500,000
EV = $350,000
AC = $550,000
BAC = $1,200,000
Calculate the schedule variance (SV)
Calculate cost variance (CV)
Calculate schedule performance index (SPI)
Calculate cost performance index (CPI)
Calculate estimate at completion (EAC)
What do those numbers tell you? What do you think you should do?
Question 2
Given the following information for a one-year project, answer the following questions. Recall that PV is the planned value, EV is the earned value, AC is the actual cost, and BAC is the budget at completion.
PV = $23,000
EV = $20,000
AC = $25,000
BAC = $120,000
What is the cost variance, schedule variance, cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI) for the project?
How is the project doing? Is it ahead of schedule or behind schedule? Is it under budget or over budget?
III. Use the CPI to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) for this project. Is the project performing better or worse than planned?
Use the SPI to estimate how long it will take to finish this project.
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Question 19: Other
Crisis Counselling
Assignment #2: The Connection between Trauma and Crisis or Crisis Prevention
Format: essay (8-10 pages) Value: 20% Due: see outline
Students will prepare a research paper on their choice of two questions:
Either 1) what is the connection between trauma and crisis? Or 2) Crisis Prevention with a target population or issue.
Choice #1: What is the connection between trauma and crisis? Here students will use the Herman text from their Trauma theory and practice course as well as course material from this course, and put them in conversation with one another to answer this question. No external sources are required for this paper – just the Herman text and CMH 481 course materials.
Choice #2: Students are to use a combination of and minimum of four scholarly and grey sources to prepare a research paper focusing on crisis prevention with a particular population or issue of their choice, for example, crisis prevention regarding suicidal thoughts or behaviour, or crisis prevention on a community level.
Evaluation Rubric:
Criteria
Points/percentage of overall
Quality of understanding of course materials and themes related to question (choice 1) OR of the scholarly research sources (choice 2)
6
Direct integration of course materials & Herman text (choice 1) OR scholarly sources (choice 2)
6
Analysis/creativity in responding to questions/topic of assignment
4
Professional presentation requirements
4
Question 20: General
You will be assigned a forensic psychology case to analyze. In order to complete it successfully, you must follow the attach outline precisely. Keep in mind that your Forensic Case Study is written in an outline format, the narrative and reference sheet must adhere to APA style. Also, notice that you will need to include legal AND social science research articles in you paper. It is just as important to describe the behavioral science research behind the psychological issues in the case as it is to explain the legal aspects of it. CASE: Spruce v. Sargent failure to protect inmate liability
Writing the Forensic Case Study
Start with the case as the title of your report:
Case Citation Example: Myers v. United States, 272 U.S. 52, 135 (1926)
Followed by your name.
The body of the report should be written in outline structure: 1., 2., 3., etc. in which each number provides a specific set of information as detailed below. Most report outlines will not be more than 5 pages long, not counting the reference page.
Facts of the Case: Pinpoint the determinative facts of a case, ie., those that make a difference in the outcome. You goal here is to be able to briefly tell the story of the case without missing any pertinent information but also not including too many extraneous facts either. Above all, make sure you have clearly identified the main players. State the parties’ names and positions in the case (Plaintiff/Defendant or Appellee/Appellant, and victims or agencies involved).
Forensic Psychology or Scientific Issue Presented: Formulate the main legal issues and forensic psychology questions embedded in the case. Write them in the form of questions. For example, “What is the level of competence needed to stand trial when the defendant is mentally retarded?” Later you will need to explain how are these issues are argued in the case, so clearly stating the question(s) will make writing that section easier.
Review of Literature: What does the scientific research say about these issues? Like any other research paper, conduct a brief review of literature to see what professional journals say the issue at the heart of the legal question. What does behavioral science know about this issue? For example, when the legal question is the competence of a mentally retarded defendant, you would need to find three or four research articles describing the cognitive capacities or limitations of individuals with intellectual deficiencies. Are there a lot of differing opinions or conflicting research results? Is this an issue with little scientific information about it? If there is a clear consensus of professional opinion, what is it?
Court Decision: What was the judgment in this case? Who did the judge or jury decide was right? If the opinion says, “We hold…” that’s the majority opinion. Just state the decision in a sentence or two.
Rule of Law: What was the legal standard that comes out of this case? In some cases this will be clearer than others, but basically you want to identify the principle of law on which the judge or jury is basing the resolution of the case. This rule of law will be used in future cases to make judgments. For example, the Rule of Law in Miranda v. Arizona is that ‘evidence obtained by police in a custodial interrogation of a suspect is not admissible in court to prove guilt unless the suspect was given warnings about his constitutional rights. Those rights included….’
In other words, state why this case is important.
Reasoning: What were the judges’ reasons for deciding the case the way they did? How were the issues argued? There may be dissenting opinions as well, which is important to state why some judges disagreed. Did the majority opinion consider the scientific research or expert opinions in reaching their decision? If not, why did they disregard with the experts or best practice evidence? Remember, legal facts are different from scientific facts. What were the facts that persuaded the court to make their decision?
Reference Sheet: APA style
Depending on the case, your paper will be anywhere from 5-6 pages. Make sure you use APA format in the body of the paper as well as in the Reference pages. Please review the rubric for the best outcome.
Question 21: Computer Science
Instruction
Read the assignment. show all the calculations
ASSIGNMENT – 2
NOTE: Please Show all the calculations Deadline: OCTOBER, 21, 2019
1) [9 points] Find the eight bit 2’s complementary representation for the following
decimal numbers:
a) 121 b) -121 c) 54
2) [3 points] Is there a relationship between EBCDIC character representation of the decimal digits from 0 to 9 and their BCD representation? Explain.
3) [5 points] Consider a hypothetical computer system. A 12-bit memory space is used for a sign-and-magnitude representation of integers with BCD and the sign is stored in MSB. What is the range of signed integers in base 10 that can be represented? Explain.
4) [18 points] Consider the two following decimal numbers: 15,675 and -8,741
a) Convert these numbers to 9’s complement five-digit representation and show
all the steps
b) Find the sum of the two numbers in 9’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
c) Was there a carry or overflow condition in your calculation? Explain
d) Convert the initial two numbers to 10’s complement representation and show all the steps
e) Find the sum of the two numbers in 10’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
f) Compare the two procedures and explain the difference of addition in 9’s and 10’s complement. Which one is easier to implement?
5) [6 points] Provide the Packed Decimal representation of the following decimal numbers:
a) -76 b) 4389 c) -5005
6) [6 points] What number is represented in 9’s complement by:
a) 4987 (four-digit 9′ complement representation) b)
836 (three-digit 9′ complement representation)
7) [6 points] Perform the calculation 95.675 + 0.95675 using the decimal floating point representation SEEMMMMM, where S is the sign (0 for “plus”, 1 for “minus”), EE is the decimal exponent in excess-50 notation and MMMMM is the five-digit mantissa. Show all steps and explain the result.
8) [18 points] Convert the following binary numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754 format.
Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 11001.0101 b) -101.111101 c) -0.0101001
9) [21 points] Convert the following hexadecimal numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754
format. Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 251D b) -B26.9 c) -0.00A5
10) [7 points] Convert the following decimal number to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754
format. Express your answer in hexadecimal format. Do the conversions with 8 bits of precision in the
mantissa. -23.103
11) [21 points] The following numbers are in IEEE 754 single-precision floating- point format. What decimal numbers
do they represent?
a) C4C2E00016 b) 483C540016 c) BEF8000016
12) [3 points] Define or explain briefly: normalization of a floating point number.
13) [2 points] True or False: Double precision floating point format can store all real numbers in the range 2-126 to 2127.
14) [1 point] True or False: In one’s binary complement, negative numbers are represented by themselves.
15) [2 points] In the IEEE 754 format, the exponents 0 and 255 are used to represent special values.
16) [2 points] A number of magnitude too large to be stored in a computer is an example of what condition?
Question 22: Education
Final Essay Instructions
Congratulations on reaching the capstone assignment for EDUC 200. The goal of this essay is to combine the major learning objectives of this course into a single reflection document that is personalized for each student. By now you should be able to determine some of the rewards and challenges the education profession presents. Imagine that you are interviewing for a job. How would you professionally describe the rewards and challenges you may encounter? Use first person, “I”, as you write your essay to respond to the principal in the interview.
Note the following requirements:
You will write a 800 word essay in response to the given prompt
The essay must be written in current APA format and include a title page, main body, and reference page.
It must also include a minimum of 3 in-text citations from the textbook in current APA format. See APA Basics in the Instructions section for specific guidelines.
The main body must include an introductory paragraph, body paragraphs and a conclusion paragraph.
The introductory paragraph should have strong hook or attention grabbing statement to draw the reader into the paper. A position or thesis statement should name the chosen rewards and challenges.
The body paragraphs should describe the 3 potential rewards and 3 potential challenges with two or more details to support each reward or challenge.
The conclusion should summarize the paper and restate the position or thesis statement from the introduction.
The essay must be submitted through Blackboard. Please consult a copy of the assignment rubric in Blackboard for a detailed description of expectations and grading criteria.
Final Essay Question:
You have decided to apply for your first teaching position. The principal seated across from you asks this question: “What are 3 rewards and 3 challenges that you will face as a teacher?”
Question 23: General
philosophical/theoretical basis of the Abeka curriculum. i need one page that has to include three theorist such as JOHN DEWEY, vYGOTSKY, PIAGET OR HOWARD GARDENER
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History 1301 signature assignment
HISTORY Signature Writing Assignment
Step 1: View the Power Point Lesson for the “Overview for Primary Source Documents” provided by the Library of Congress which describes primary and secondary sources. This step is VITAL!
Step 2: After viewing the lesson, pick out a primary source that you find interesting. For the purpose of this course, students are required to pick out a letter, speech, or diary entry. Use one (1)
single artifact rather than a collection of artifacts. The primary source must be something that is covered in this course. For HIST 1301, this can be anything from Christopher Columbus to the Civil War/Reconstruction. For HIST 1302, this can be anything after the Civil War up to the last chapter that is covered in the book.
In addition, students must use a secondary source that backs up or provides information to clarify information in the primary source. An example of this would be if a student chooses a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to James Madison, a secondary source that gives information about who James Madison was and a little bit of background information about him would meet the requirements. One secondary source is required, but students can use more than one. Please see the information after the Power Point about Primary and Secondary sources to find out more information about finding a Primary Source. Primary sources can be found using the sources provided on the following page.
Step 3: After a primary source and secondary source(s) is chosen, students can begin to write the paper by answering the 10 questions below. The finished product should be a formal paper that is 3 pages MINIMUM (750 words) written in essay style, NOT in a numbered list (minimal work will get a minimal grade). Reviews are to be doubled-spaced in Microsoft Word format utilizing MLA format and must include in-page citations. Reviews should be composed in Times New Roman 12 point font.
Taking into consideration the information presented in the Overview of Primary Source Documents lesson: Address the following points in your review:
Who wrote the document? Until you know this you know little about the document. Sometimes you can figure this out from the document itself. Was the author a political or private individual? Was he educated or not?
Who was the intended audience/who was the letter or speech written to? This will tell you about the author’s use of language and the knowledge that he assumed on the part of the reader.
What is the story line? What is going on in the document?
Why was the document written? Everything is written for a reason. Is it just a random note, or a
scholarly thesis?
What type of document is this, or what is its purpose? A newspaper article is different than a diary.
Thus, one can expect to extract different kinds of information from different kinds of documents. A
private letter to a friend is very different from a political letter written to discuss governmental matters.
What are the basic assumptions made by the author? For example, did the author assume that the
reader could understand certain foreign or engineering terms?
Can you believe this document? Is it reliable? Is it likely? This should be more than a yes or no answer.
What makes it believable or not?
What can you learn about the society that produced this document? All documents reveal information
about the people who produced them. It is embedded in the language and assumptions of the
text. Your task is to learn how to “read,” or analyze, a document to extract information about a society. You might wish to analyze each document in terms of various aspects of a society (economic, political, religion, social structure, culture, etc.).
What is the importance of this document to history? Everything can be considered important even if it is not important for political or governmental purposes. Does it shed light on what life was like during the time period it was written? Does it demonstrate views of the world from a time long ago? Etc.
Finally, What does this document mean to you? If you answer nothing, you will lose a whole letter grade. You are the one picking out the sources, so pick something that you find interesting that means something to you. Tell me why it means something to you and why you picked it.
Step 4: Submit the assignment through Canvas. Do not send the assignment via email. Submit your Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be
Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be checked for plagiarism before grading.
Question 25: Law
International Justice System- Generally, as we have learned earlier in the semester, substantive law refers to how crime and punishment are defined, and that each of the four legal traditions do share some characteristics of substantive law. Similarly, each of the four legal traditions differ from each other with respect to substantive law. As such, 1) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions are similar in defining criminal responsibility, and 2) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions differ in defining criminal responsibility
Question 26: General
A paper on the Congress. (Theses Question) – If you were serving in Congress, would you tend to follow the instructed delegate model of representation or the trustee model? Why? What might be the likely outcome of your choice? has to be in apa format 5 pages double~ spaced, cover page, twelve font.
Question 27: Education
Create a lesson plan on the book :Whistle for Willie By Ezra Jack Keats. It’s a very short book maybe you can check it out from the library like I did. Its a childrens multicultural book, or maybe there is a way you can read it online. follow the format of the example I attached for you below
Instruction
AUTHOR STUDY LESSON PLANS AND FOCUS UNIT (Critical Assignment)As a reflective decision-maker, the student is capable of researching an author of children’s literature and make informed decisions concerning appropriate lessons and content connections involving the author’s work. Objectives: 1) research and collect information about a children’s literature author; 2) create activities for a balanced literacy classroom; and 3) link learning activities to the Common Core State Standards for a selected grade level.Corresponding FL-FAU READING Performance Indicator(s) for the Reading Endorsement: 1.A.5: Identify cognitive targets (e.g. 8locate/recall, integrate/interpret, critique/evaluate) and the role of cognitive development in the construction of meaning of literary and informational texts; 1.A.7: Understand the reading demands posed by domain specific texts; 1.A.8: Understand that effective comprehension processes rely on well developed language, strong inference making, background knowledge, comprehension monitoring and self-correcting
Instructional Objective(s)/Outcomes: Indicate what is to be learned.
Please include 1-2 “I Can” Statements and 1 Essential Question.
Standards/Objective:
Choose two Florida Language Arts Standards (LAFS) in one of the categories listed below. Use the following website: http://www.fldoe.org/pdf/lafs.pdf. These standards are based on the national Common Core State Standards: www.corestandards.org.
You may choose from the following categories:
Reading: Literature Reading: Informational Text
Reading: Foundational Skills Writing
Speaking and Listening Language
Instructional Procedures: Indicate how you intend to sequence the activities in the lesson from initiation to closure (based on the LAFS reading standards) and what prior knowledge students have to have in order to be successful. Estimate the time necessary to complete each major component of the lesson.
Please include the necessary components of a Balanced Literacy Block, within Sections A – C.
Initiating activities: Time = __________________
Core Activities: Time = _____________________
Closure Activities: Time = ____________________
Adaptations for ESOL and ESE:
Classroom management plan:
Materials and Equipment: List all books, materials, and equipment to be used by both the teacher and the learner.
Assessment/Evaluation: Identify the techniques used in determining to what extent the students have attained the instructional objectives. For your Author Study lesson plan, you will need to create a rubric. You may use the rubistar4teachers.com website. Attach the rubric to your lesson plan. Your assessment must match at least one of the reading standards you selected for your before, during and after language arts activities.
Follow-up Activities or Extensions: Plan three activities across the curriculum. You should include one activity for integrating literacy with the arts (visual arts, dance or movement, drama, or music) and one activity that includes writing. The third activity should be connected to reading in the content areas: social studies or geography, science, or math. These activities should be different from the ones used previously in the lesson.
A.
B.
C.
References
APA format
Summary of Feedback from Peers
Revisions to Lesson Based on Peer Suggestions
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Question 28: General
Co-op Letter of Intent Requirements The letter of intent is meant to demonstrate your suitability for the Co-operative Education Program. It is a very important factor in your admission decision. The strength of your letter is based on a number of factors including basic writing skills, spelling, grammar, format, and interest in Co-op. Maximum 1-page single spaced: Professional business letter format Your letter must confirm you understand the Co-op program Please discuss why you are interested in joining the Co-op program, and what you hope to gain from your involvement with the program Spelling and grammar reflect your attention to detail Poor written communication skills could result in your application not being considered
Question 29: Computer Science
Instruction
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words: 1) Explain the benefits a recursive algorithm can provide. and 2) Provide an example from a process in your organization or with which you are familiar. #Demonstrate how to apply recursion concepts as they relate to an organization’s data system.
Question 30: Finance
Assignment Questions Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks) a. Prepare a balance sheet b. Net working capital Q2 From the information given above, prepare (a) the income statement, and (b) the common-sized income statement. Q3. Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below: (5 Marks) a. Current Ratio b. Debt Ratio c. Fixed asset turnover d. Total asset turnover e. Operating profit margin
Assignment No. 1
Course: Principles of Finance
(FIN101)
Student name:
Academic Year:1440-1441 H
Student ID:
Semester: 1st
Student grade: / 30
CRN:
Level of the marks:
This Assignment must be submitted on Blackboard (WORD format only) via the allocated folder.
Email submission will not be accepted.
You are advised to make your work clear and well-presented; marks may be reduced for poor presentation. This includes filling your information on the cover page.
Assignment will be evaluated through BB Safe Assign tool.
Late submission will result in ZERO marks being awarded.
The work should be your own, copying from students or other resources will result in ZERO marks.
Use Times New Roman font 12 for all your answers.
Assignment Questions
Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks)
Prepare a balance sheet
Net working capital
Cash
100,000
Account receivables
72,000
Accounts payable
48,000
Short-term notes payable
35,000
Inventories
70,000
Gross fixed assets
1,750,000
Common stock
680,000
Other current assets
10,000
Accumulated depreciation
524,000
Long-term debt
350,000
Other assets
25,000
Retained earnings
?
Q2. (10 Marks)
Sales
$525,000
Cost of goods sold
$200,000
General and administrative expenses
$62,000
Depreciation expenses
8,000
Interest expense
12,000
Income taxes
97,200
From the information given above, prepare
(a) the income statement, and
(b) the common-sized income statement.
Q3. Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. (5 Marks)
Increase in inventories
22,000
Operating income
625,000
Dividends
55,000
Increase in accounts payables
92,500
Interest expense
118,000
Increase in common stock
22,000
Depreciation expense
48,000
Increase in accounts receivable
210,000
Increase in long-term debt
145,000
Increase in short-term notes payable
36,500
Increase in gross fixed assets
144,000
Increase in paid in capital
60,000
Income taxes
202,000
Beginning cash
700,000
Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below: (5 Marks)
Current Ratio
Debt Ratio
Fixed asset turnover
Total asset turnover
Operating profit margin
Balance Sheet:
Cash
30,000
Acct/Rec
72,500
Inventories
50,000
Current assets
152,500
Net fixed assets
240,000
Total assets
392,500
Accts/Pay
44,500
Accrued expenses
31,000
Short-term N/P
9,500
Current liabilities
85,000
Long-term debt
110,000
Owner’s equity
197,500
Total liabilities and owners equity
392,500
Income Statement:
Net sales
450,000
COGS
220,000
Gross profit
230,000
Operating expenses
128,000
Net operating income
102,000
Interest expense
18,500
EBT
83,500
Income taxes
33,000
Net income
50,500
Question 31: Business
Essay must be on Coca-Cola Company. Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced,the title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length.
Instruction
For this essay, you will conduct research on corporate strategies and the affect they have on the decision process. Use the same company you chose in Unit II. As you explore the decision process, consider how corporate strategies influence these decisions. In your essay, address the following questions: What is a functional strategy? What are stability strategies in business? What are the pros and cons of these strategies? What are competitive and cooperative strategies? What are the tradeoffs (pros and cons) between an internal and an external growth strategy? Which approach is best as an international strategy? Why? What about retrenchment? Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced, and in 12 pt. Times New Roman font. The title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length. To complete this assignment, a minimum of two reputable sources must be used, cited, and referenced. At least one reference must come from the CSU Online Library. Use APA style guidelines.
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Question 32: Psychology
Write a 500-750-word paper discussing process addictions. Include the following in your paper:
Instruction
A definition of process addiction A description of criteria similarities for substance use disorders and process addiction A description of the differences between process addictions and substance use disorders Include a minimum of two scholarly references in addition to the textbook in your paper. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.
Question 33: Business
Your task is to research a company that is using digital technologies to transform the workplace and critically examine how it has changed employment and occupations.
Instruction
You should provide enough evidence to answer the question: do you think this company has shown leadership in the way it has implemented technology driven change? Answering this question should include consideration of things like: an overview of the company and its transformation process; how this transformation process has changed employment in the company; any information that the company has made available about the rationale for its business model transformation using new technologies; and coverage in the media about the experience of the change process, such as by workers or interviews with company leaders. Word count: 3,000 words (+/- 10%) 8 References minimum (including 2 academic sources – consult the topic Readings) Harvard Weighting: 50% of final grade Graduate Qualities being assessed in this assignment: •GQ1: Are knowledgeable •GQ2: Can apply their knowledge •GQ3: Communicate effectively •GQ4: Can work independently •GQ6: Value ethical behaviour
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Question 1: General Question
NSG 6001 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6001 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
Question 2: General Question
BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 3 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the following is a value driver that Mont Blanc’s managers are NOT likely to focus on in pursuing the company’s strategy?
When a company like Bic releases a new product to its core consumer group, it must be sure to satisfy which aspect?
Companies that focus on a product’s functional demands drives are likely to pursue a(n) ______ strategy, while those that focus on customers’ social and emotional needs in addition to the product’s functional aspect use a(n) ______ strategy.
As discussed in the case, how many different models of the Mini are now available?
Which of the following was NOT a way that BMW was able to create the premium compact car niche?
Who is Mini’s top competitor?
What was Mini’s growth between 2011 and 2012?
The economic crisis sent the European market for full-featured automobiles ________.
What is the most likely reason that Renault’s strategy might fail to result in a sustainable competitive advantage?
Renault’s low-priced, no-frills cars can be seen as a form of ________.
Which of Michael Porter’s generic strategies did Renault primarily pursue after the economic crisis?
The traditional approach to strategic control is sequential. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the sequence?
For businesses facing complex and turbulent business environments, which of the following is true?
Contemporary approaches to strategic control rely primarily on
Informational control systems are concerned with which of the following questions?
As firms simultaneously downsize and face the need for increased coordination across organizational boundaries, a control system based primarily on ______________ is dysfunctional.
The primary participants in corporate governance do not include the
In order to minimize the temptation for managers to act in their own self-interest, governance mechanisms exist for implementation consideration. Which of the following is not a primary means for monitoring managerial behavior?
Sales quotas, operating budgets, and production schedules are examples of traditional controls.
Once a strong and healthy organizational culture has been established, it becomes self-sustaining.
Question 3: General Question
BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 2 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Complete Chapter 3 Summary Review Questions: 1, 6, & 7 found on page 97.
SWOT analysis is a technique to analyze the internal and external environments of a firm. What are its advantages and disadvantages?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of conducting a financial ratio analysis of a firm?
Summarize the concept of the balanced scorecard. What are its main advantages?
Complete Chapter 3 Application Questions & Exercises: #2 found on page 98. Use Exhibit 3.8 found on page 91 to complete the 19 financial ratios for Campbell Soup (Case #15 – p. C91-C101). Use the financial information located on C98-C100 to calculate each ratio.
Complete Chapter 4 Experiential Exercise found on page 132. *Pfizer Table
Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.
Question 4: General Question
BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 1 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
How is “strategic management” defined in the text, and what are its four key attributes? See pp. 6-8 in your textbook.
Briefly discuss the three key activities in the strategic management process. Why is it important for managers to recognize the interdependent nature of these activities? See pp. 9-13 in your textbook.
Why must managers be aware of a firm’s external environment?
Discuss and describe the six elements of the external environment.
Describe how the five forces can be used to determine the average expected profitability in an industry.
Complete Application Question & Exercise: 4 on textbook page 66.
Go to the Internet and look up www.kroger.com. What are some of the five forces driving industry competition that are affecting the profitability of this firm?
Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.
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Question 5: Physics
3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate
(a) the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b) the required coil mmf.
(c) the coil current
(d) the coil flux
(e) the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage
Question 6: Physics
Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
What is grounded theory?
The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful
Question 7: Sociology
What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?
Question 8: Sociology
How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system
Question 9: Architecture
INF3703 ASSIGNMENT (2)2019 SEM 1-PROJECT
INF3703 ASSIGNMENT 2 Semester 1 Updated 2019
Question 10: English
Week Four Discussion Board Thread Instructions
$12 Summaries
With each word being worth 10 cents, write four $12 summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:
Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
How to Ask Key Questions
Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2: Narrative
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature
This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit. For an example of this type of thread, please see the provided example in the Course Content folder.
Week Five Discussion Board Response Post Instructions
Once you have completed the necessary textbook reading in Everyday Bible Study, select two threads you wish to reply to and address your classmates’ thoughts and ideas. The goal of these two posts is to build on the material provided by your classmates. Thus, responses that simply affirm the thread material are not sufficient. The content of each reply must reflect an excellent knowledge of the textbook reading and interact with both the thread and relevant chapter material. You must support your thoughts and ideas by implementing at least one significant quote from Everyday Bible Study. Each response post should be at least 200 words in length.
Question 11: Business
Wk 5 :Discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Think about your current or previous organization. What are some of the retention strategies that worked? What did not work so well?
Question 12: Business
Case study week 5
Resources: Strategic Staffing, Appendix Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study and Strategic Staffing, Ch. 12; Downsizing Strategy Grading Guide
Read the Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study on page 383 in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.
Develop a 350-word downsizing strategy to reduce the number of sales associates by 15%.
BUSI 400 Learnsmart Chapter 12 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the following questions would help assess the effectiveness of a corporation’s venturing initiatives?
Which of the following are some guidelines for successfully competing in dynamic markets with high technology uncertainty?
Which of the following statements regarding the application of real options analysis to strategic decision making are true?
Which of the following are the two stages new venture concepts must pass in order to get off the ground?
Which of the following statements about managers being able to develop innovative products and services are correct?
Which of the following affect whether a typical company will pursue entrepreneurial projects?
Which of the following statements regarding the building capabilities versus collaborating challenges to innovation are true?
Which of the following statements regarding the internal versus external staffing challenges to innovation are correct?
Which of the following refers to a firm-specific view of innovation that defines how a firm can create new knowledge and learn from an innovation initiative even if the project fails?
Biases, blind spots, and other human frailties that lead to poor managerial decisions fall under the concept of ___.
In companies with many innovative ideas, deciding which ideas to cultivate and which to cast aside is known as .
Which of the following are examples of staffing practices for innovation that are counterproductive?
Which of the following are functions or services that business incubators provide start-up companies?
Which of the following statements regarding the incremental versus preemptive launch challenges to innovation are correct?
____ are groups of individuals or a division within a corporation that identifies, evaluates, and cultivates venture opportunities.
Corporate entrepreneurship in which a dedication to the principles and policies of entrepreneurship is spread throughout the organization is known as the ___ to corporate entrepreneurship.
A sustaining innovation is a type of disruptive innovation.
Which of the following regarding the challenges to innovation of experience versus initiative are correct?
Disruptive innovations appeal to less demanding customers who want more convenient and less expensive solutions.
Which of the following is the approach to corporate venturing in which corporate entrepreneurship activities are isolated from a firm’s existing operations and worked on by independent work units?
Which of the following refers to a willingness to introduce novelty through experimentation and creative processes aimed at developing new products and services as well as new processes?
Which of the following statements about the seeds versus weeds challenge to innovation are correct?
Companies are often reluctant to invest time and other resources into activities with an unknown future.
Which of the following refers to the strategy-making practices that businesses use in identifying and launching new ventures consisting of autonomy, innovativeness, proactiveness, competitive aggressiveness, and risk taking?
Which of the following refers to a willingness to act independently in order to carry forward an entrepreneurial vision or opportunity?
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Question 16: General Question
BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 1 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
How is “strategic management” defined in the text, and what are its four key attributes? See pp. 6-8 in your textbook.
Briefly discuss the three key activities in the strategic management process. Why is it important for managers to recognize the interdependent nature of these activities? See pp. 9-13 in your textbook.
Why must managers be aware of a firm’s external environment?
Discuss and describe the six elements of the external environment.
Describe how the five forces can be used to determine the average expected profitability in an industry.
Complete Application Question & Exercise: 4 on textbook page 66.
Go to the Internet and look up www.kroger.com. What are some of the five forces driving industry competition that are affecting the profitability of this firm?
Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.
Question 17: General Question
BUSI 400 Learnsmart Chapter 9 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the following actions that can have a positive influence on the dynamics of the boards of directors?
Rule-based controls are most appropriate for organizations that have which of the following?
Which of the following statements are true regarding the role that good corporate governance plays on the decision to invest in companies?
Which of the following statements regarding controls in a bureaucratic organization are correct?
Principal-principal conflicts are conflicts between controlling shareholders and __ shareholders.
Which of the following has a fiduciary duty to ensure that the company is run consistently with the long-term interests of the business owners or shareholders and to act as an intermediary between the shareholders and management?
Which of the following are ways that a board of directors an incentivize managers to make decisions that are in the company’s shareholders’ interest?
Which of the following are reasons for emphasizing both culture and rewards in a system of behavior controls?
When controlling shareholders conduct activities that enrich the controlling shareholders at the expense of the minority shareholders, they are engaging in ______.
The risk of being acquired by a hostile raider is often referred to as the __ and deters opportunistic behavior by management.
A set of firms that, though legally independent, are bound together by informal and formal ties and are accustomed to taking coordinated action are known as __.
The board of directors functions as a “go between” for the .
Which of the following are steps that organizations can take to evolve the organization from boundaries to rewards and culture?
Research of boards of directors shows that simple restrictions, such as a requirement that a majority of the board members be outside directors, is enough to make the operations of the board effective.
The control process that continuously updates and challenges assumptions that underlie the organization’s strategy is __ control.
Unity-of-command advocates believe that a CEO can act more efficiently and effectively when holding the positions both of CEO and chairman of the board.
Actions by large shareholders to protect their interests when they feel they are not receiving value maximization is called __.
Which of the following are appropriate conditions for using the traditional approach to strategic control?
Agency theory is concerned with resolving which of the following problems that can occur in agency relationships?
Managers consider both external and internal factors to determine how to achieve appropriate ______________ control over the individuals who work for the organization.
The leadership structure where the CEO acts as both the chief executive officer and the chair of the board of directors is called CEO .
A mechanism created to allow for different parties to contribute capital, expertise, and labor for the benefit of each party is called a(n) __.
The set of unwritten standards of acceptable behavior in an organizational is called organizational __.
The relationship between various participants, including shareholders and management, in determining the direction and performance of corporations is called __.
Question 18: Religious Studies
Unit 1 – 5.0 Assignment – Begin with the End in Mind.
“Would you tell me please which way I ought to walk from here?”
“That depends a good deal on where you want to get to,” said the Cat.
“I don’t much care where-“ said Alice.
“Then it doesn’t matter which way to walk,” said the Cat.
From Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland
When you think about plans for your future, do you ever feel like Alice? Alice wants to get somewhere, but she doesn’t know where she wants to go. As you can imagine, it is very difficult to give her directions. Without a plan or directions, where will Alice end up?
If you think about it, most things in life begin with a plan. We use blueprints when we build a house; we use a recipe for baking a cake; even getting your driver’s license requires a sequential step-by-step plan before it can be acquired. So if a house, a cake and your driver’s license deserve a plan, what about your life? Do you have a detailed plan that will help ensure that you get to your destination?
Follow the directions below very carefully.
A student sample is provided (return to main page).
Assignment
Requirements:
2-4 pages double-spaced, Single sided
Times New Roman font – 12 pt
Normal Margins
Strong English skills
Use the following guide in writing your paper:
Part 1:
Start your report with a detailed picture of what you would like your life to look like in eight years.
What job will you have?
Do you hope to be married?
What is your financial status?
What other details do you see?
Part 2:
Everything needs a plan! You have written what you want your life to look like in eight years; now, how are you going to get that?
Those that fail to plan
Plan to fail!
Starting with today, look at the next eight years in small steps (maybe 6-12 months). Very specifically and with great detail, outline what you need to get done and how you are going to accomplish this to make it to your final destination (in 8 years).
Part 3:
Take a second look.
With any life plan, you want it to be flexible and continually rewritten to adjust to the ever changing journey your life will take. What if, you decided to throw your plan totally out the window and live for the moment?
At this point in your essay, write about some realistic possibilities that may interfere with your plan. For example, if you make some choices such as becoming sexually active, letting your marks slip, fighting with your parents and moving out. What possible consequences could there be to these choices? How would this affect your plan?
The goal for this section is to take a realistic look at what your life may look like if you divert from your plan.
Part 4:
So where is this unique child of God headed?
Now that you have created this detailed plan and looked at possible outcomes, how do you feel? What things can you put in place to keep you focused on the final destination that you pictured?
Once you have completed your assignments, PASTE your assignment from Word. (click on the W in the middle row).
Here is a student sample for the “Begin with the End in Mind” assignment. Although, they did not receive 100%, they did receive a very good mark.
My Future Plan
In eight years from now I’m going to be living on a small farm or ranch near Swift Current or Saskatoon. I’ll be working as an elementary teacher, or maybe as a child and youth worker, and my husband will be working as a rancher or farmer. I hope my husband and I will be celebrating our third or fourth anniversary, and that we will have two children already. If we live on a ranch, then I want a wide variety of animals including horses, cattle, dogs, cats, chickens, goats, and rabbits. We won’t be rich, but we’ll be able to save enough money every year to afford trips to Disneyland and other places. I also hope we can save enough money to hire someone to watch our farm while we are away on trips.
To get to where I want to be in eight years I am going to take it one step at a time starting with finishing grade twelve. My next step will be to decide which career I would like to pursue. I am currently trying to decide between education and a child and youth worker. To help me decide on which career I would like, I want to shadow a teacher and child and youth worker to see what an average day is like. I believe it would help me to decide on which career I would prefer. Even if I have not decided on a career by the end of the year I will still apply to the University of Saskatchewan or SIAST in Saskatoon, and take general studies for the first year. Taking general studies the first year will give me more time to decide on a career and to decide if it is the career I want. The University of Saskatchewan is my first choice because a lot of my friends are there, it is a great school, and it has a lot of athletic programs. SIAST in Saskatoon is my second choice because I know it has the program I am looking for, and I am unsure if the U of S also has that program. The U of S has many scholarships available, which would be very useful since school is expensive and I do not have the money to put myself through four years of University. This is all part of my plan to reach where I want to be in eight years.
Many things can happen during your life that will throw off your entire plan for the future. I could decide after graduation that I don’t want to attend university immediately and decide to travel instead. That would throw off my plan to be done school and have a career in at least six years. It would throw off my plan because I would put off my schooling, and it could make it difficult for me to get back into the routine of school. I might suddenly change my mind about what career I want, or I might start University and decide I don’t like the career I’m going for. This would change how many years I spend in school and it could change where I end up living. I might not meet a man that I love within the next eight years, which would throw off my plan of being married. That would also change where I’d be living. If I let my grades slip it could affect the University or College I get into and my career. It is difficult to make a plan and stick to it because of all these things, and these are only a few of the many things that could happen that would throw off my plan.
I feel scared, overwhelmed, excited, and a whole lot of other things. Yes I have a plan, which will make things easier, but there are so many things that could happen that could change it all. I am scared because I don’t actually know what will happen, the future is unpredictable. I know where I want to be, but the challenge is actually getting there regardless of any obstacles in my way. I’m overwhelmed because there is so much that could go wrong and there is so much that I have to do to get where I want to be. I’m also overwhelmed because deciding what I want to do for the rest of my life is a huge decision. Eight years is a long time, even if it doesn’t feel like it, and I will probably change quite a bit in that time. I’m excited because it is intriguing to find out what will happen in the future. Will I get married? Where will I be living? Although I have a plan I don’t actually know where I’ll end up, or where I’ll be living. I have an idea of where I want to be, but it is not guaranteed anything could happen.
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Question 19: Geography
Question
Global Geography (Envi419)
RESEARCH ESSAY QUESTION
Push and pull factors in Syrian migration.
Syria has been embroiled in a civil war since 2011. Since the beginning of that war, “more than two million” refugees have fled their homes and many migrants have left the country (Yardley and Pianigiani 2013; Semple 2014). While many of the people migrate to neighboring countries such as Turkey and Lebanon, others make their way to Europe or the United States, both legally and illegally (Stevis 2014). The war and migration have even had some negative impacts on education in Syria (UNICEF 2013). Please note that the sources I’ve provided are from the early stages of the crisis and that there are many current sources that you will find as you do your research.
Provide details about the migration of people from Syria since the beginning of its civil war in 2011, including a discussion of the push and pull factors in migration. You should also include a discussion of the destinations of Syrian refugees. These destinations include both neighboring countries of Syria as well as more distant destinations in Europe and the United States.
To answer this question thoroughly, you may want to consider the following questions. Why are people leaving Syria? How many people have left the country and what are their destinations? What percentage of Syrians have left their homes? What are the characteristics of those who are migrating to various countries? What are they doing in their new locations? What effects are being felt both in Syria and in the destinations of these migrants?
Sources and Strategies
Choose a variety of sources. First, use the library and/or the internet databases to learn more about this
subject. Because this is a current event, please look for up-to-date articles in reputable popular media (for example, New York Times, Wall Street Journal, Time, Newsweek, BBC, etc.). As well, look for expert analysis and historical background by scholars, participants and journalists. Be sure that your search for expert analysis and opinions includes voices from across the political spectrum, and if possible, from outside the United States as well as
inside. I’ve given you a start with four sources, shown below. Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source. Nor is any other encyclopedia.
Formatting Requirements
Length: The body of your research essay should be 1200-1500 words (use “Word Count” to make sure you meet minimum length of 1200 words). Use Times New Roman font (12 point), with 1 inch margins all
around. Begin your response at the top of the page. Do NOT use a title page. Please include your name in the “header.” No other identifying information is needed. Please number your pages. Please send a digital copy as an e- mail attachment through the “Messages” application in Blackboard. SAVE A COPY FOR YOURSELF.
Tips on Essay Writing
Tips on writing an essay and “21 Writing Tips” are included in the “Research Essay” area on Blackboard. In addition, there is also information on the evaluation criteria.
Works Cited – this is just a start, and some of these sources are dated. Please be sure to identify new and more recent sources as well.
Semple, Kirk. 2014. “Fleeing the Bombs in Aleppo, Syria, and Ending Up In New Jersey,” New York Times, January 3, 2014; online at http://www.nytimes.com/2014/01/04/nyregion/fleeing-syria-and-ending-up-in- new-jersey.html? action=click&module=Search®ion=searchResults&mabReward=relbias%3Ar&url=http%3A%2F%2Fq uery.nytimes.com%2Fsearch%2Fsitesearch%2F%3Faction%3Dclick%26region%3DMasthead%26pgtype %3DHomepage%26module%3DSearchSubmit%26contentCollection%3DHomepage%26t%3Dqry341%23 %2FSyria%2520migration&_r=0
Stevis, Matina. 2014. “Number of Migrants Trying to Reach Europe Illegally Rose Sharply in 2013,” Wall Street Journal; online at http://online.wsj.com/news/articles/ SB10001424052702304908304579561341054849918?KEYWORDS=Syria+migration&mg=reno64-wsj
Yardley, Jim. 2013. “Out of Syria, Into a European Maze,” New York Times, November 29, 2013; online at http:// www.nytimes.com/2013/11/30/world/middleeast/out-of-syria-into-a-european-maze.html? action=click&module=Search®ion=searchResults&mabReward=relbias%3Ar&url=http%3A%2F%2Fq uery.nytimes.com%2Fsearch%2Fsitesearch%2F%3Faction%3Dclick%26region%3DMasthead%26pgtype %3DHomepage%26module%3DSearchSubmit%26contentCollection%3DHomepage%26t%3Dqry341%23 %2FSyria%2520migration
UNHCR. 2019. “Syria Emerigency.” United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNCR). Accessed August 17, 2019; online at: https://www.unhcr.org/en-us/syria-emergency.html
UNICEF. 2013. “Syria Crisis: Education Interrupted,” UNICEF, December 2013;online at http://www.unicef.org/ media/files/Education_Interrupted_Dec_2013.pdf
Here are some links to additional information on the Syrian refugee crisis: http://syrianrefugees.eu/
http://data.unhcr.org/syrianrefugees/regional.php http://www.unhcr.org/emergency/5051e8cd6-56ab78229.html http://www.bbc.com/news/world-middle-east-35577736 https://www.facebook.com/TheIndependentOnline/videos/10153387826906636/?fref=nf http://www.nytimes.com/2016/01/24/magazine/why-is-it-so-difficult-for-syrian-refugees-
You can also google Syria and many articles from reputable sources should pop up. Please remember that the sources must be reputable. Wikipedia is not reliable enough for this assignment.
You may use these sources, but you are not required to do so. In any case, be sure that you find enough high- quality sources to be able to answer the question clearly, thoroughly, and with sufficient detail. If you choose to use these sources, they’ll give you a pretty good start. There are plenty of good sources on this
subject and they’re easy to find! If you need additional help finding sources, talk to a librarian.
Question 20: Other
Instruction
Instructions Prepare a coaching/consulting profile to apply in the business environment. Then, conduct research to develop a coach consultant process that is specific to your skills. The process must be detailed and include a plan for you to communicate your findings with management as well as collaborate on an action plan. Be sure to include a figure/flowchart to visualize this process. Support your profile with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your profile should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
Question 21: English
Watch A Raisin in the Sun and write a 1000 word summary.
Question 22: English
Narration Essay Topic: Teenage single mother mla format
Question 23: Computer Science
Two Smallest (10 points). Write a program TwoSmallest.java that takes a set of double command-line arguments and prints the smallest and second-smallest number, in that order. It is possible for the smallest and second-smallest numbers to be the same (if the sequence contains duplicate numbers).
Question 24: Computer Science
predict result by implementing linear regression on CIFAR-10 dataset and calculate accuracy for each classifier?
Bishop’s University
CS 596 – Research Topics On Computer Science Assignment 1: Machine Learning Basics
The goal of this assignment is to help you understand the fundamentals of a few classic methods and become familiar with scientific computing tools in python and Pytorch. You will also get experience in hyper parameter tuning and using proper train/test/validation data splits. For that purpose, you will implement some linear classifiers and you will validate them on the well-known CIFAR-10 image classification dataset. The classifiers you will implement are the following:
K-nearest neighbor,
Support Vector Machine,
Linear regression,
Logistic regression.
Recommendations
Because this assignment represents initiation to Python programming for the most of students, you can rely, reuse and integrate in the assignment one or more the following implementations:
Tutorial To Implement k-Nearest Neighbors in Python From Scratch
K-NN classification – PyTorch API
Linear SVM with PyTorch
PyTorch: Linear and Logistic Regression Models
·Logistic Regression on MNIST with PyTorch
Linear Regression using PyTorch
The starting code is provided. The top-level notebook (CS596Assignment-1.ipynb) will guide you through all the steps. Setup instructions are below. The format of this assignment is inspired by the Stanford CS231n assignments, and we have borrowed some of their data loading and instructions in our assignment ipython notebook.
1
If your local machine does not support GPU programming, you are encouraged to use Google Colaboratory to do this assignment; since it provides free access to a Tesla K80 (for running short jobs).
Here are two interesting links about Google Colaboratory with the instructions to install Pytorch:
By this environment, you will be able to do GPU programming and to run your programs through the cloud computing provided by Google.
Environment Setup (Local)
If you will be completing the assignment on a local machine then you will need a Python environment set up with the appropriate packages.
Once you have downloaded the zip file, navigate to the cifar10 directory in MP1 and execute the get_dataset script provided:
We suggest that you use Anaconda to manage python package dependencies. This guide provides useful information on how to use Conda.
Data Setup (Local)
cd MP1/cifar/
./get_datasets.sh
Data Setup (For Colaboratory)
If you are using Google Colaboratory for this assignment you will need do some additional setup steps.
Download the assignment zip file and follow the steps above to download CIFAR-10 to your local machine. Next, you should make a folder in your Google Drive to hold all of
2
your assignment files and upload the entire assignment folder (including the cifar10 dataset you downloaded) into this Google drive file.
You will now need to open the assignment 1 ipython notebook file from your Google Drive folder in Colaboratory and run a few setup commands. You can find a detailed tutorial on these steps here (no need to worry about setting up GPU for now).
IPython
The assignment is given to you in theCS596Assignment-1.ipynb file.As mentioned, if you are using Colaboratory, you can open the ipython notebook directly in Colaboratory. If you are using a local machine, ensure that ipython is installed. You may then navigate the assignment directory in terminal and start a local ipython server using the jupyter notebook command.
Submission
You will have to submit all the programmed solutions, the CSV files associated to the four linear classifiers that contain the prediction results. Please, provide a pdf report following the format of the provided word template that highlights the team members, the contribution of each one of them, and the obtained accuracy for each classifier. The function that computes this accuracy is already provided in the starting code.
Good luckJ
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Question 25: Philosophy
University of Phoenix Material
Research Proposal
Develop an original research study proposal and describe it in detail in a 10-12 page (APA style) paper. Include at least 10 scholarly references in your proposal. Use the following outline as a guide when writing your paper. Be sure to include detailed information on all of the topics listed below and use headings to organize your thoughts.
Statement of the problem: Introduce the reader to the problem to be studied. Provide sufficient background information such that the reader has a grasp of the situation and its importance.
Review of the literature: Provide the reader with a review of most relevant literature, beginning with general information, and narrowing the focus to the specific issues under consideration in the study.
Purpose of the study: Identify why the study that you are proposing is needed.
Hypotheses or research questions: List them as simple statements. Make sure they are measurable.
Definition of terms: Operationally define terms the average reader may not know, or that have a specific meaning in your study.
Assumptions: Identify issues you assume to be true in order for your study to be valid.
Research methods and procedures
Population: Describe the population sample to be studied
Procedure: Discuss how the study will be carried out.
Instruments: Describe the specific measurements (instruments) to be used to test each hypothesis (research question).
Data Analysis: Describe the procedures you intend to use to analyze the data produced from your instruments, and how that would answer the hypotheses (research questions).
Discussion: Since you are only proposing (not conducting) a research study, you will not have results; however, you can discuss potential outcomes. Review your hypothesis and discuss how this study will address it. For example, if the results allow you to reject the null hypothesis, what are the implications? What would happen if you fail to reject the null hypothesis? Discuss the implications of your proposed study, the limitations of your study, and future research ideas and directions.
Since you are only proposing (not conducting) a research study, you will not have results; however, you can discuss potential outcomes. Review your hypothesis and discuss how this study will address it. For example, if the results allow you to reject the null hypothesis, what are the implications? What would happen if you fail to reject the null hypothesis? Discuss the implications of your proposed study, the limitations of your study, and future research ideas and directions.
Implications: Provide a brief summary of your proposal and a powerful statement as to how your study would advance the field.
References: Include at least 10 scholarly sources in your Reference section. Be sure to use APA style throughout your paper.
Details
Question 26: Business
Define in specific detail the industry segment for Jamba Juice and describe in detail 4 of the environmental forces (from the course) currently acting on their industry as a whole – with examples.
Question 27: Business
Distinguish Between Centralization And Decentralization?
Question 28: Chemistry
Using the Molecular Orbital Theory, discuss the delocalized system in NO3 - . Hence, determine the bond order for N-O bond.
Question 29: Economics
Suppose the home country exports clothing, which is produced by labour and capital, and imports food, which is produced locally by labour and land. That is, assume the specific-factor production structure of Chapter 4. Let some of the capital used in the clothing sector be provided by foreign investment. If the home country protects its food industry with a tariff, trace through the following scenarios:
What is the effect on factor prices, production, consumption, and trade volumes if no more foreign capital enters or leaves the country? ( outline gains on trade for domestic and foreign)
What is the further impact on factor prices, production, consumption, and trade if returns to capital in the clothing sector adjust to a given world rate of return via changes in the quantity of capital (FDI) foreigners wish to place in the protectionist country? (arbitrage opportunity if domestic rate of return> abroad capital inflows and vice versa)
What is the effect on net home welfare in each case?
Question 30: Health Care
Distribution Strategy Assignment
In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:
Write a 1 page recommendation for the distribution (“place”) strategy necessary to successfully market your health care product or service. Comment on where, when and how customers prefer to access your product or service, and how that influenced your distribution channel strategy. If you wish, you may include a simple diagram of the distribution channel.
Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to distribution strategy. For example, describe the level of intensity of distribution, the types of relationships within your distribution channel, and the correct titles (retailer, wholesaler, agent/broker, etc.) of the various intermediaries in the channel.
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Question 31: Health Care
Pricing Strategy Assignment
In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:
Write a 1 page recommendation for the pricing strategy necessary to successfully market your health care product or service. Be sure to include an estimate of the costs associated with the product or service, and the profits that are expected with the recommended pricing.
You will need to make some “educated estimates” to complete this assignment; please follow a format like this to demonstrate that your recommended pricing will result in profits:
New Product
Per Unit
20,000 units
(1st year sales forecast)
Suggested retail price
$100.00
$2,000,000
Cost to retailer **
$50.00
$1,000,000
Retailer margin
$50.00
$1,000,000
Cost of Goods Sold
Components/raw materials
$10.00
$200,000
Labor
$10.00
$200,000
Overhead
$5.00
$100,000
Marketing costs
$7.00
$140,000
Manufacturer profit
$18.00
$360,000
** “Cost to retailer” is the same as Manufacturer’s sales revenue
New Service
Per Day
200 days per year
(1st year sales forecast)
Service Charges**
$250.00
$500,000
Cost of Goods Sold
Labor
$100.00
$200,000
Materials
$20.00
$40,000
Overhead
$30.00
$60,000
Marketing costs
$10.00
$20,000
Service provider profit
$90.00
$180,000
** Service Charge is the expected sales revenue from the new service
As a starting point to estimating costs, visit Bplans and search for a sample plan in a similar line of business to the one you are proposing. Look for the “Pro Forma Profit and Loss” chart within the Financial Plan section of the business plan, and make note of the expected costs in relation to forecasted sales. You can also do an Internet search for “income statement – (insert your product or service here)” and review the samples that you find.
Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to pricing strategy. For example, it would be appropriate to identify whether you have chosen a penetration, skimming, or followership price strategy, and why you believe that strategy is appropriate.
Question 32: Psychology
Discussion question: 175 words
The ethics of designing a study
There are often ethical issues that dictate the use or non-use of one method or another.
Can you give a specific example of when it might not be ethical to use a particular design/method?
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Question 1: General Question
Walden University NURS6630 Final Exam 2019, Walden University NURS6630 Midterm Exam 2019: Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology (Already graded A)
NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM ANSWERS SOUTH UNIVERSITY
Question 7: Biology
NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University
Question 8: Biology
NSG3029 Final Exam FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University
Question 9: Biology
NSG3012 Midterm Test South University PRINCIPLES OF ASSESSMENT
Question 10: Biology
NSG3012 Final Exam South University PRINCIPLES OF ASSESSMENT
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Question 11: Business
Use a position that you would like to obtain (CEO) to create job duties and at least three KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics).
Answer the following questions in 350 words for each KSAO:
Is the KSAO necessary prior to hiring, or can it be trained?
What is the importance of each characteristic relative to the others?
What is the approximate time the employee will spend on each duty?
Question 12: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Considering the internal labor market at your organization ( Marshalls), what competency or skill gap needs to be closed? What’s the approach to doing so?
Question 13: Business
How tightly do you fit into a particular market segment? Do you think you can be neatly classified? If you think your purchasing habits make you an enigma to marketers, you may need to think again.
Instructions: Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.
Purpose: This exercise quickly shows students the limitations of using only demographics to describe their customers, and really clarifies the process of segmentation and positioning for them.
Activities
Visit the following website located in this folder named: Segments
Click on the link above and then type in your zip code. The database will generate many cluster descriptions based on your ZIP code. Depending on the functionality of the Web site at the time you access the database, you may need to reenter your ZIP code multiple times if you want to read all the cluster descriptions.
Now review the demographic and psychographic data for the segments. Please provide insights on their life stage, lifestyle, and others things that they like such as automobiles, music, health, books, magazines, beauty products, and income. Then think about which products in that category would appeal to each of the clusters generated by your ZIP code search. Please name 3 to 4 of the groups identified and provide feedback on similarities between the groups. For example, a car that appeals to a cluster titled “Young Bohemians” may not be the car of choice for the cluster “Pools and Patios.” If your search generated only one cluster type, you may wish to enter other ZIP codes for your area of town or for your region.
Write a short statement that describes what you have learned about the most common segments for your zip code.
The text,not including inserted quotes, must be between 350 and 450 words long (include a word count). Papers of less than 350 words will not be graded.
Identify and explain an economic concept found in the article. If the article is about inflation, then you need to show that you understand what inflation actually is.
Use the article just to illustrate the concept.
Keep it simple and stick to economics you know and understand.
Basically you need to be able to analyze the information, not retell it. The more your paper presents a summary of the article, the lower your grade will go.
Adding a graph to your article for further illustration is often very helpful
There are 2 commentaries due this semester (see above for the exact dates).
.You need to provide a copy of the article or a link to it.
You need to cite each source in correct bibliographic form
If you use the internet to obtain a source, you must find out the date the article was originally published and put it into the correct form listed above, then include the URL afterwards (the address of the page).
You need to choose timely news
You may NOT use reference sources, encyclopedic entries, bank reports, etc.
The article you choose must be within a month or so of the date you write it.
Some of the best choices of articles come from sections of the newspaper other than the business pages—as long as they illustrate principles you have learned in this course.
45-50 points for meeting the above criteria
30- 44 points for retelling the article with little economic discussion
-5 points for not providing copy of the article or workable link to the article.
-5 points for over 450 words
papers of less than 350 words will be returned ungraded.
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Question 15: Psychology
After completing the assigned readings, discuss the concept of “abnormality” from a Biblical perspective. What is considered “normal” and “abnormal” types of cognitions and behaviors? What does the Bible say about abnormal or deviant behavior? How does the Bible’s directives differ from what is currently considered “normal” or “abnormal” in your culture or environment? How can the Bible’s teachings inform a person’s concept of abnormality? Integrate into your discussion the 4 D’s – Dysfunction, Distress, Deviance, and Dangerousness. Cite all sources in APA format. As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.
Cite all sources use in the post in APA format, and list any utilized sources in APA format at the end of your post.
Question 16: Health Care
NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam / NURS6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University
Question 17: Health Care
NURS 807Chapter 6 – The Skin, Hair, and Nails graded A
NURS 807Chapter 6 – The Skin, Hair, and Nails graded A
Question 18: Health Care
NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University Graded A
NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University Graded A
Question 19: Religious Studies
Hello World Religions Class,
Below is a video entitled, “Is God Great?” between famous atheist intellectual Christopher Hitchens, and Professor John Lennox of Oxford University. I would like for you to watch this debate and identify at least two (2) major points/arguments from each perspective and describe them clearly in 2-3 sentences each. Lastly, I would like for you to identify the debater with whom you agree & disagree with and write at least one (1) paragraph describing why you agreed/disagreed with that particular debater. Your paper should be organized this way…
Debater 1
1st Major Point: 2-3 sentences
2nd Major Point: 2-3 sentences
Debater 2
1st Major Point: 2-3 sentences
2nd Major Point: 2-3 sentences
Agree (One Paragraph describing why; at least 3 sentences)
Disagree (One Paragraph describing why; at least 3 sentences)
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Question 20: Biology
NSG 6001 Midterm Test NSG6001 ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE South University
Question 21: Biology
NSG 6001 Final Exam NSG6001 ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE South University
Question 22: Biology
NSG 3039 Week 5 Quiz Verified Answers – NSG3039 Information Management and Technology South University
Question 23: Biology
NSG 3007 Final Exam Foundations of Professional Nursing South University
Question 24: General Question
ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 11 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the following statements is not an advantage of bond financing?
A company issues $100,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds dated January 1. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If bonds are sold at par value, the issuer records the sale with a debit to in the amount of $ .
A company issues $75,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on each June 30 and December 31. If the issuer accepts $69,000 for the bonds, the issuer will record the sale with a debit to which of the following accounts?
When the contract rate of the bonds is higher than the market rate, the bond sells at a higher price than par value. The amount by which the bond price exceeds par value is the ___ on bonds.
A company issues $50,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds dated January 1 and pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. The bonds are sold for $48,000. Using the straight-line amortization method, the company will amortize the discount by $__ on each semiannual interest payment.
The legal document that describes the rights and obligations of both the bondholders and the issuers is called the bond _____.
A company issues $60,000 of 6%, 5-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If the issuer accepts $62,000 for the bonds, the premium on bonds payable will __ total interest expense recognized over the life of the bond by $____.
A company issues $90,000 of 5%, 5-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If the issuer accepts $95,000 for the bond, the issuer will record the sale with a to on bonds payable in the amount of $5,000.
Total bond interest is the sum of the interest payments plus the bond discount.
Which of the following are true of amortizing a premium bond using the effective interest amortizing method:
The bond carrying value can be determined by which of the following formulas?
A company issues $500,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds dated January 1, 2017 that mature on December 31, 2026. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If bonds are sold at par value, the issuer records the sale with which of the following entries?
A company borrows $60,000 by signing a $60,000, 8%, 6-year note that requires equal payments of $12,979 at the end of each year. The first payment will record interest expense of $4,800 and will reduce principal by $ ___.
The bond amortization method allocates an equal portion of the total bond interest expense to each interest period.
Bond market values are expressed as a percentage of their par (face) value. For example, a company’s bonds might be reading at 103, meaning that they can be bought or sold for ___ of their par value.
When the market rate is 8%, a company issues $50,000 of 9%, 10-year bonds dated January 1, 2017, that mature on December 31, 2026, and pay interest semiannually for a selling price of $60,000. When the bonds mature, the issuer records its payment of principal with a to Bonds Payable in the amount of .
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Question 25: General Question
ACCT 211 Learnsmart Assignment 12 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the following transaction would be reported under cash flows from operating activities? Select all that apply.
Which of the following items are classified as noncash investing and financing activities?
A gain from the sale of a building would be ___ to (from) net income when computing cash flow from operations, using the indirect method.
_____ activities include those transactions and events that affect long-term liabilities and equity, such as obtaining cash from issuing debt and distributing cash to owners.
Which of the following items would be reported under financing activities on the statement of cash flows?
Lakeview Inc.’s statement of cash flows reports financing activities with payments that exceed receipts. This means that Lakeview had a net cash _______ from financing activities.
Which of the following would be included in the operating section when preparing the statement of cash flows using the indirect method?
The _____ method separately lists each major item of operating cash receipts and each major item of operating cash payments. The cash payments are subtracted from cash receipts to determine the net cash provided (used) by operating activities.
In a statement of cash flows, cash received from the sale of a building would be classified under “cash flows from __________ activities.”
The _____ method of reporting the statement of cash flows reports net income and then adjusts it for items necessary to obtain net cash provided or used by operating activities.
Which of the following items would be added to net income when reporting cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?
The statement of cash flows explains the difference between beginning and ending balances of cash and cash equivalents. A cash equivalent must satisfy which of the following criteria?
Which of the following items would be correct adjustments to net income to arrive at cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?
An increase in wages payable would be to (from) net income, when computing cash flows from operations, using the indirect method.
A(n) activity includes those transactions and events that determine net income, including the purchase of merchandise, the sale of goods and services to customers, and expenditures to operate the business.
Information on the statement of cash flows helps us answer all of the following questions except:
Cash flows from financing activities identifies cash receipts and payments related to which of the following types of accounts?
At the beginning of 2018, Rex Co. showed a debit balance in the cash account of $20,500. Total debits to this account during the year were $45,000, and total credits during the year were $35,000. The net ______ in cash for 2018 equals $_____________.
There are five important steps to preparing a statement of cash flows. Rank the steps in order from first to last.
Collecting money for notes receivable would be reported on the statement of cash flows as a(n) ___________ activity.
Which of the following transactions would not be classified as an operating activity on the statement of cash flows?
Which of the following items would be adjusted to net income when computing cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?
Question 26: General Question
ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 9 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Perez Co. sells automotive supplies and warranties them for a three-month period. Perez sold $10,000 of supplies during the month and anticipates that warranty repairs for these sales will total $250. The adjusting entry that Perez will make to record the warranty expense will include which of the following?
Mary’s Magazine Sales sells popular magazine subscriptions. During January, Mary collected $1,200 from various customers to provide magazines over the next 12 months. At the end of February, Mary would make an adjusting entry to record one month of magazines subscriptions earned. This transaction would include which of the following entries?
On June 1, Grey Co. borrows $15,000 cash from the National Bank by signing a 120-day, 10% interest-bearing note. Grey will record interest during the year totaling . Using a 360 day year, round your final answer to the nearest whole dollar.
A company sells 12-month subscriptions to popular magazines. During the month of May, the company sells $10,000 in magazines, which will start in June. The journal entry to record the sales not yet earned will include a credit to which account?
Star Co. reported $10,000 of net income during the month of January. Star estimates that it owes income taxes of $2,000 for the month. The month-end adjusting entry to record this estimate would require which of the following entries?
On June 1, Sawyer Co. borrowed $5,000 by extending their past-due account payable with a 45-day, 12% interest-bearing note. On July 16, the due date, Sawyer pays the amount due in full. Sawyer would record this payment with a __________ to Interest Expense in the amount of __________.
On December 1, Campbell Co. borrowed $10,000 cash from Second Bank by signing a 90-day, 6% interest-bearing note. On December 31, Campbell accrued interest expense of $50. Campbell does not use reversing entries. On March 1, the due date of the note, Campbell will record the payment with debit entries to which of the following accounts?
Tire Co. collected $2,000 in sales tax during the month of October. The entry that shows the remittance of this sales tax to the state government in November would include a credit to the account.
During December 2017, Marci Lane opens a computer sales store selling new computers and offering a six-month warranty on all new sales. During December, Lane makes three sales totaling $4,000. Lane estimates warranty repairs will total 15% of sales. In January 2018, a customer submits a warranty claim requiring $300 of work. Lane will record a debit to Estimated Warranty Liability in the amount in January 2018 for the warranty work.
During the second quarter of the year, Francisco Co. accrued $8,000 of income taxes. On July 15, Francisco will send in the second quarterly payment. To record this payment, Francisco will enter which of the following entries?
Victor’s Vacuum Sales Co. sells high quality vacuums and provides a one-year warranty on all new sales. Based on history, Victor anticipates that 3% of vacuums will be returned at a cost of $30 per vacuum. During the month, Victor sold 100 vacuums for a total of $35,000. At the end of the month, Victor will record in Warranty Expense.
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Question 27: General Question
ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 5 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
ABC Co. uses a perpetual inventory system and uses the LIFO cost flow assumption. Calculate the dollar value of its cost of goods sold for the sale made on Jan. 10.
Many companies choose to use LIFO inventory costing during periods of rising purchase costs because reported cost of goods sold will be . This means that income taxes paid will be than if the company used FIFO or weighted average inventory costing.
Assumes that Q-Mart uses a periodic LIFO inventory system. During the period, it sold 14 units. Calculate the dollar value of its cost of goods sold for the period.
Estimates of inventory are not usually required when a company uses a inventory system because they would presumably have updated inventory data.
The LIFO cost flow assumption assumes that the cost of items purchased are the costs that will be transferred first to cost of goods sold on the .
Assume that Wally World uses a perpetual LIFO inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory.
Q-mart failed to include inventory that was kept in a separate warehouse in its end-of-the-period inventory count. Explain how this error will affect this year’s balance sheet.
Assume that sparks uses a periodic FIFO inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 9 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory.
Sparky’s incorrectly included inventory that was on consignment in its ending inventory count. Consequently, the ending inventory was overstated on the balance sheet. Explain how this error effect this year’s income statement.
Q-mart failed to include inventory that was kept in a separate warehouse in its 12/31 end-of-the-period inventory count. Consequently, the ending inventory on 12/31 was understated on the balance sheet. Explain how this error will affect the current year’s income statement. (Check all that apply.)
Assume that Maycces uses a periodic weighted average inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory assuming the following information.
Assume that Maycces uses a perpetual weighted average inventory system. Its ending inventory consist of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory assuming the following information.
Assume that J-Mart uses a perpetual weighted average inventory system. During the period, it had two sales. Calculate the average cost per unit on hand as of June 8 when it made its first sale.
Review the steps below that apply LCM to individual items of inventory. Place them in the correct order of occurrence.
Show your understanding of the ownership of goods in transit by completing the following statement. If goods are shipped FOB shipping point, then the is responsible for paying freight charges and the will not include the merchandise In their Inventory.
Chocolate Inc. uses a perpetual inventory system and uses the FIFO cost flow assumption. Calculate the cost of goods sold for the sale made on Mar. 20.
Recount the methods used to assign costs to inventory and cost of goods sold under both a perpetual and a periodic system
The FIFO cost flow assumption assumes that the cost of items purchased are the cost that will be transferred first to cost of goods sold on the .
Question 28: General Question
ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 2 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample. Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Choose the account(s) below, that would have a normal credit balance.
Prepaid accounts are (assets/liabilities) that represent prepayments of future expenses and are increased with a (debit/credit).
Which of the following statements is correct regarding expenses.
Match the items on the left with their definition on the right.
Recall the required information in a financial statement heading. Rearrange the following line items as they would appear in a heading.
The T-account for Accounts payable had 4 transactions entered in into it. It was increased by $300 and by $100 and decreased by $50 and by $150, respectively. Its balance at the end of the period would be a (debit/credit) balance of $ .
Given the descriptions below, which is (are) true regarding notes receivable? (Check all that apply.)
Which statement best describes a T-account?
Smith Company purchased $8,000 of supplies on credit. Show how to record this transaction to the T-account by selecting the correct answer below.
Which of the following accounts has a normal debit balance?
R&R Programming pays a $900 supply bill that it had received earlier in the month. Illustrate how to record the transaction to the T-accounts by completing the following sentence. Accounts payable would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account, and Cash would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account.
Which of the following is required information when entering a transaction into a journal?
To enter transactions on the right side of a T-account means you will (debit/credit) the account and will cause a(n) (decrease/increase) in a liability account.
Gunner Corporation received $300 cash from a client that had been billed earlier in the month. Show how to record this transaction into T-accounts by selecting the correct answer below.
When preparing a trial balance, there are certain steps that need to be followed. Place the following steps in the correct order.
Brown Company paid $40 in cash dividends. Show how to record the transaction to the T-accounts by completing the following sentence. Dividends would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account, and Cash would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account.
Which of the following statements is (are) true about accounts receivables? (Check all that apply.)
The stockholder of a business received a $1000 dividend. How would this affect the total equity of the business?
Gunner Company purchased a piece of equipment costing $6,000. She paid $1,000 immediately and put the rest on account. Show how to record this transaction to the T-accounts by selecting the correct answer below.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the definition of a liability?
Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the sides of a T-account?
Match the item on the left with the correct definition on the right
On Jan. 2, Callie Taylor received a $700 payment from a customer previously billed for services performed. The journal entry to record this transaction would include a ________ (debit/credit) to the______________ account and a ___________ (debit/credit) to the Accounts Receivable account.
Question 29: Biology
NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM ANSWERS SOUTH UNIVERSITY
Question 30: Biology
NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM TEST ANSWERS SOUTH UNIVERSITY
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Question 1: Finance
Return on Investment – Education Funding Develop a three- to five-page analysis (excluding the title and reference pages) on the projected return on investment for your college education and projected future employment. This analysis will consist of two parts.
Instruction
Part 1: Describe how and why you made the decision to pursue an MBA. In the description, include calculations of expenses and opportunity costs related to that decision. Part 2: Analyze your desired occupation. Determine how much compensation (return) you expect to earn and how long will it take to pay back the return on this investment. Use the financial formulas, Net Present Value (NPV), Internal Rate of Return (IRR), and Payback. If you do not have any educational costs due to employee reimbursements, you should estimate the cost of your education for your calculations. My employer pays for my education, but the cost is around $2115 The analysis should be comprehensive and reference specific examples from a minimum of two scholarly sources. The paper must be formatted according to APA.
Question 2: Other
I need a letter of recommendation from my supervisor point view for a graduate program.
Instruction
I’m applying for a master program, I currently work in the human services industry. In the letter I would like for the writer to write about my great communication skills, great customer service skills with clients who receive services for my our company and my professionalism. I need this letter to be professional and to really sell my skills. Also, I’ve bee with the company over a year
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Question 3: Sociology
There are many types of agencies that utilize social workers. With the advancement of technology, it is now standard practice for these agencies to have public-facing websites. This assignment will help you to learn more about the agencies in your community. Visit 3 websites that are owned and operated by either local, regional, or national social welfare agencies. Answer the following prompts based on your review of each agency’s website. ***see worksheet attached
Social Welfare Agency Website Reviews
Visit 3 websites that are owned and operated by either local, regional, or national social welfare agencies. Answer the following prompts based on your review of each agency’s website.
Agency #1
Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding
(private, public, combination)
Profit Status
(for profit, nonprofit)
In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.
Agency #2
Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding
(private, public, combination)
Profit Status
(for profit, nonprofit)
In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.
Agency #3
Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding
(private, public, combination)
Profit Status
(for profit, nonprofit)
In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.
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Question 4: Law
This is a business law assignment and all of the information is included below. If you can just tell me what to write or put I can create the PowerPoint.
Business and the law Presentation Scenarios
“Open for Business”
Cersei and her brother Jamie inherited a family ranch consisting of 2,000 acres in New Mexico from the recent passing of their father. The ranch was operated mostly by Jamie and Jamie and their late father resided on the New Mexico Ranch. Cersei also owns a ranch in far west Texas, consisting of approximately 2,000 acres, but she resides in Midland. She has big profits from her grazing and hunting operations on the Texas property. The New Mexico property is also likely to be profitable in a few years’ time but is and has been operating at a loss for the last several years. Cersei and Jamie want to form some sort of entity to own and operate the ranches. What should they form? Cersei also has a ranch manager, Jon Snow, for her ranch on site since she doesn’t live there. Should they include him as an owner? Employ him? Keep him on as an independent contractor?
Choose an entity form, and if dictated by the type of entity chosen, “form” the entity by choosing a name, a state of formation, drafting a certificate of formation or incorporation, and the governing document of the entity, such as bylaws, a partnership agreement or a company agreement. If you have chosen an entity with limited liability protection for the owners, you may also likely need a written memorandum of organizational meeting, or to hold such a meeting and prepare notes from the meeting.
If you have elected to make the ranch hand an owner, explain why and show the electronic negotiations with him regarding his duties and all the parties regarding their ownership interest. If you have elected not to make the ranch hand an owner, negotiate a contract covering his duties and compensation, either as a contracted employee or an independent contractor.
The final assignment to be turned in will be a PowerPoint Presentation for review by me and your classmates.
The best presentations (and those to receive the highest grades) should at a minimum consist of the following:
one or more slides dedicated to the type of entity chosen and why, your entity’s name, your entity’s business purpose, a hierarchy of ownership, management and control appropriate to the selected type of organization, and include some of the formation documents
one or more slides dedicated to the negotiations between the parties, excerpts from the negotiated written agreement consummating the transaction
one video presentation embedded (i.e., not a link) into the presentation. This required video should be produced by you, not a clip you pulled from the internet. You may be creative in this video and use others in the video. You may include other video and/or audio clips from any source, but check file size limitations.
You should aim for your PowerPoint presentation to take 5-10 minutes to view, although the length of your presentation will not directly impact your grade.
Presentation – Step by Step Instructions
Step by Step Instructions
The theme of your project is Open for Business. Here is an example of the finished project from a prior year: “Open for Business.ppt”.
Step 1: Each student will select a business scenario. There are four separate business scenarios set forth below. Please choose one scenario and you will complete the project based on that scenario. You must inform me/your coach of the scenario selected via email no later than the end of Module 3. If you fail to properly or timely choose a scenario, I will assign you one. Choose early because I reserve the right to pull a scenario off the table if a lot of students choose the same scenario so that we have a variety to watch at the end. (If you wish to complete this project in a group setting with no more than 3 students, you must notify me/your coach no later than the end of Week 3).
Step 2: In this project, the student will decide (i) what type of business organization to form (and why), (ii) form and name the new entity, assign management duties as appropriate, (iii) discuss and, considering the various roles, negotiate a proposed transaction, and (iv) prepare a simple legal document as indicated in each scenario.
Step 3: The final assignment to be turned in must be uploaded to the general class discussion board in the assigned folder and must be in “View” or “Presentation” Mode before uploading, meaning the file opens to a slide show automatically. It can run automatically on timers or be a click through. Be sure to include: Copies of you formation documents, if applicable; Excerpts of the negotiations; an embedded video; and, a copy of the final negotiated agreement, which should contain all the elements of a contract.
***
Note – Video: Your presentation must contain an embedded video produced by you. The video must be embedded and not just a link. You do not video yourself presenting your PowerPoint that you made; rather, produce a video that aids some portion of your project. You can use other actors. The goal is to make sure you can prepare a professional looking presentation in PowerPoint. The video can be anything – presenting the business model, a scene of getting financing, the negotiations between parties, a summary, or an advertisement for the business. It is less WHAT the video is about, so long as there is a video (that is appropriate, is somehow related to this project, and is an original creation) and it is EMBEDDED – in other words, I don’t want to be redirected to YouTube. Embed the video so it runs on a click or automatically within the presentation. Be creative, but professional (I have 60+ of these to grade).
Also, a note on original creation – one year a group spliced together an ad from multiple tv ads to create their video, and that’s fine too, but you have to have complied it. Don’t go steal someone’s video and just upload it.
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Question 6: English
Instruction
This assignment focuses on your ability to: create effective thesis statements; synthesize research, text support, and personal analyses into a cohesive essay; defend an argument; properly citie researched material in APA format. The purpose of completing this assignment is: as a student, career professional, and individual, learning how to defend your side of an argument with data, experience, and valid information is of paramount importance. As a student at Post, use this assignment to master the objectives listed above, particularly APA citation and reference page formatting. You need to know APA and argumentation techniques! Prompt (what will you be writing about): • Which conflict does Wilson use most to drive (bring forth, move forward) all the other elements of the story? Choose ONE that you feel is more apparent and easier to defend than the others. o Troy vs Society o Troy vs Himself o Troy vs Family o Troy vs Death Instructions (how to get it done): • You have completed research on August Wilson, his life, and his plays. • You have completed reading/viewing Fences by August Wilson. • You have read the resources on Conflict in this unit. • Choose the conflict area that you think will have the strongest text support. • Create a thesis statement that clearly states your stance on why this conflict is the driving force of the play and how you’re going to prove it (see “Helpful Hints” section below). • Research needed sources so that you have at least 3 outside sources that are valid and reliable. • Be sure also to include text examples from the Fences, the play. • Defend your thesis in an introduction, at least three supporting sections, and a conclusion. • Check in with your instructor with any and all questions. Requirements: • Length and format: 3-4 pages. • You should have at least three outside sources plus text examples from the play. • The title page and reference page are also required, but they should not be factored into the 3-4 page length of the essay. • It should also be double spaced, written in Times New Roman, in 12 point font and with 1 inch margins. The essay should conform to APA formatting and citation style. • Use the third-person, objective voice, avoiding personal pronouns such as “I,” “you,” “we,” etc. • Use APA format for in-text citations and references when using outside sources and textual evidence. • Please be cautious about plagiarism. Make sure to use in-text citations for direct quotes, paraphrases, and new information. Helpful Notes: • Thesis: o Your thesis is the response to the prompt question plus the supporting areas that you will be using to defend your argument. Be sure to have a thesis that clearly states which conflict you feel is the most important and drives the other conflicts. o Your thesis could begin with, “In the play, Fences, August Wilson uses the conflict of to drive the other conflicts and elements of the story as evidenced by…. • Sources and evidence: o Be sure to use things that you have learned about Wilson’s life and his writings. For example, if you are analyzing Troy and his father’s conflict, you could bring in information that you researched about Wilson’s relationship with his own father. o Include direct quotations from the play. To cite a direct quote from a play, the format is: § “quotation” (Wilson,1985, act #, scene #, line #). OR § As Wilson (1985) writes, “quote” (act#, scene #, line#). o Use at least three outside sources. Two of them could be from your previous research essay. Be sure to include all of these in your reference page. Source: Fences by August Wilson (pages 1270-1331)
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Question 7: Business
Instruction
Working individually, students should complete the “Critical Thinking” questions at the end of the three assigned chapters ( 7 & 12). These assignments are designed to incorporate the three unifying concepts of this course. These are 1) a “Human Capital” point of views. vs. a traditional Personnel Management point of view; 2) decision making that is driven by Metrics and Analytics vs. emotional appeals; and 3) PARTNERSHIPS between Line Leaders and HR Specialists vs. separate disjointed functional responsibilities held by each. Each paper should be a minimum of 3 – 4 pages and comprehensively incorporate ALL of the questions in the assignment, as well as the associated readings included.
CHAPTER 7
Critical Thinking
1.
What is a protected class, and what laws exist that safeguard the rights of each protected class?
2.
Explain the process under which an EEOC complaint is processed. To what extent is it more advantageous for an employee to file an EEOC complaint at the local or federal level?
3.
How can an employer lawfully respond to an allegation of employment discrimination?
4.
Why does illegal discrimination persist nearly 40 years after the passage of Title VII?
5.
What constitutes sexual harassment? What rights and responsibilities does an alleged recipient of sexual harassment have?
6.
To what extent do cultural norms influence how other societies and cultures deal with the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace?
7.
What are the pros and cons of mediation for an employer? What factors might influence whether an employer agrees to the mediation of an employee charge? What can be done to make mediation more attractive to employers?
Why is affirmative action such a controversial issue? Is society better served with or without affirmative action? In small groups, take a position either in favor of or against affirmative action and then debate the issue within your group.
Explain the different components of organizational justice and the outcomes of perceived organizational justice and injustice.
CHAPTER 12
Critical Thinking
1.
With unionization on the downturn, why should an organization be concerned about labor relations?
2.
What benefits are received and what costs are incurred when workers unionize?
3.
Describe the process by which workers unionize.
4.
What are the possible outcomes of failure to reach consensus on a collective-bargaining agreement?
5.
Contrast the style of labor unions in the United States to that found in other countries.
6.
Does union diversification make unions stronger or weaker? How would you feel as an auto worker to see the United Auto Workers representing employees outside the auto industry?
7.
What rights and responsibilities do employers and employees have regarding the use of social media communications under the National Labor Relations Act?
Assess the status of employer and union recruiter behaviors in union-organizing campaigns. How much access should union organizers have to employees? What new behaviors are likely from employers and union organizers in response to the actions of the other party?
How can social media impact the rights of employees under the National Labor Relations Act? Can or should any restrictions be placed by employers on workplace discussions that take place through social media?
Question 8: English
In this essay, you will use media to argue for the single greatest way that writing / written communication plays a role in a profession you’ve chosen. To do this, you will need to identify a profession and select a form of media (photograph, movie, music video, YouTube clip, etc.) that represents your profession’s connection to writing. For instance, let’s say I want to focus my essay on being a real estate agent. My argument might be that modern-day real estate agents have to write listing descriptions and ads on a regular basis. To support my argument, I find a YouTube clip that demonstrates for professional real estate agents how to write ads that sell properties quickly. You may also pick a form of media that does not accurately represent your profession’s connection to written communication. For example, let’s say you want to be a lawyer. How does the film or book To Kill a Mockingbird inaccurately depict the kinds of writing lawyers do? Be sure the media you select offers a real
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Question 9: Health Care
Participate in the Culture and Health Literacy Modules on the University of Minnesota site https://cpheo1.sph.umn.edu/healthlit/index.asp and write a description of what you learned, what you think is important and why you think it is important. This should be at least 3 pages long.
Question 10: Biology
Please fill out the following worksheet in typed format only.
Students will research evidence based information to teach classmates about a diet, health belief, agricultural practice, food, ingredient, etc. Please be as creative and interactive as desired.
Food journals and diet logs are common in nutrition to review what a person is actually eating. Understanding daily intake is the first step to helping improve diet, discover nutrient deficiencies or excessive nutrients like salt, sugar, and fat. This activity will provide you with first hand experience. For instructions, follow the link below:(Links to an external site.)
Printed analysis from Nutrition Calc or Super Tracker (30 points)
Completed packet with answered questions (40 points)
Course Outcomes Covered:
Explain the foundational concepts and theories of nutrition.
Identify the basic structures and food sources of micro and macronutrient
Analyze the various factors that influence food habits
Apply knowledge of nutrition to real-life examples
Assess the nutritional status, including measuring the dietary intake of an individual, meal pattern and structure, eating style and behavior.
Please submit your references for review. The presentation must contain at least 3-5 references cited in APA formatting. References must be a research study from a peer reviewed journal no more than 5 years old. Consider the Quality of Evidence Pyramid (look for meta analyses and systematic reviews). All other references must be from reliable sources. For more detail on reliable sources, please review Lectures 1-2.
This assignment requires you develop a periodised annual training plan for a sport of your choice. You will need to divide the training year into appropriate phases and then produce a detailed microcycle from each phase. Within the microcycle, the precise content of each session for that week must be included (e.g. conditioning, strength training etc.). The overall plan must include the methods you will use to prescribe training load, monitor training and competition load and assess fatigue status. In addition, you will need to provide the details of the testing protocols you would implement and how you would go about assessing change in capacity. Each component of your assignment needs to be supported by a sound theoretical basis combined with the practicalities of the sporting environment.
The format of this assignment is a MS Excel (or other approved software) document for the annual plan and training program, as well as a MS Word document for the justification section. Your justification should be no longer than 3000 words (± 10%). This task is worth 60% of the total marks for this subject and will be graded out of 100.
Specific Requirements & Marking Criteria
Choose your sport (no marks allocated)
It is recommended that you select a sport that relies on a variety of physical capacities (e.g., Intermittent team-sport) as opposed to a sport relying on an isolated capacity or skill (e.g., Powerlifting, Archery).
Design an annual plan for your sport (15 marks)
You will be provided with a MS Excel template, or may be able to use other software packages (e.g., Visual Coaching Pro) if approved by your LIC. You will need to:
Divide the year into appropriate training and competition phases
Divide the phases into relevant Macrocycles and Mesocycles
Include specific:
Competition dates & their relative level of importance
Testing dates
Other important events/activities (e.g., holidays)
Prescribe the overall training load and periodisation approach (20 marks)
You are required to periodise the training program for the entire 12-months, clearly defining the periodisation approach you have taken and justifying it with evidence from the literature. You should also clearly:
Include all the components important to performance in your chosen sport (e.g. speed, strength, aerobic endurance, skills, etc)
Justify why these are important
Present the goal volume, intensity and skill proportions of training for every week of the full calendar year (using the annual plan).
Provide a complete training program for three separate microcycles of your training program (50 marks)
This key component of the assignment requires you to clearly detail three differentmicrocycles from your annual program. These microcycles (generally 7-10 days) should come from three different training phases (e.g. General preparation, Specific preparation, Competition etc.). If you have only defined 2 phases, you must still include 3 microcycles. You must:
Provide a complete plan for every aspect of training that will occur during that microcycle (e.g., conditioning, strength training, etc.).
There must be enough detail to allow another coach to take your plan and implement precisely what you had intended.
If there is a skill component you do not need to describe specific drills but must include a description of volume and intensity.
Provide a clear rationale as to your training approach (can be in the justification document).
Identify the testing protocols you will implement as part of your program (15 marks)
The tests that you will use during your 12-month program must be clearly defined and referenced. You will need to detail:
Which tests will be conducted and at what times in your annual plan
Provide a justification for your choices. This could entail a single line of text as well as a reference for common tests. However, if the choice is not “common”, further justification may be required.
Provide expected “norms” for each capacity you assess with appropriate references and further explanation if required.
Additional Requirements
Provide a reference list of work you have cited in the project at the end of your justification document.
Submission must be via Turnitin. Follow the instructions provided by your LIC carefully to do this.
If you would like to use another software package for your programming, please seek approval from the LIC prior to beginning the assignment.
Summary Marking Criteria from above:
Activity
Marks
Choose your sport
0
Design an annual plan for your sport: You will be provided with a MS Excel template, or may be able to use other software packages
15
Prescribe the overall training load and periodisation approach
20
Provide a complete training program for three separate microcycles of your training program
50
Identify the testing protocols you will implement as part of your program
15
Total Marks
100
Grade: Mark out of 100. 60% of total grade.
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Question 12: History
Students will write a paper, 6-8 pages long, based on the Joyner Charles “down the Riverside: A South Carolina Slave Community” and Kaye Anthony “Joining Places: Slave Neighborhoods in the Old South” books. Students will compare and contrast the historians approaches to understanding how African American slaves defined their communities. They will touch on the various topics that each author considers important, judging why each author emphasizes certain things at the expense of others.
Question 13: Engineering
3.14 A highway reconstruction project is being undertaken to reduce crash rates. The reconstruction involves a major realignment of the highway such that a 60-mi/h design speed is attained. At one point on the highway, a 720-ft equal-tangent crest vertical curve exists. Measurements show that at 3 40 stations from the PVC, the vertical curve offset is 3.5 ft. Assess the adequacy of this existing curve in light of the reconstruction design speed of 60 mi/h and, if the existing curve is inadequate, compute a satisfactory curve length.
Question 14: English
We have to do a proposal plan before we write the research
Proposal Planning
Eng 3880: Intro to Technical Communication
Goals:
Develop the quantitative components of your proposal.
Submit:
Canvas
Quantify the problem you intend your document to solve in THREE ways:
Problem
Method of Measuring
End Goal Result
A.
B.
C.
SMART goal development:
S
What document are you proposing to develop?
M
What goal # do you want to see?
A
Is it attainable?
(no need to type anything here)
R
What are the final results?
(this might overlap with the M component and you might not need to type anything here)
T
When do you want to see the results by, AND when will your document be completed?
Write your SMART goal in sentence form:
Computer Science
Web Programming
This is done using HTML/CSS/JS/PHP
Create a PHP page with a simple web form
Include at least
Two text fields (<input type=”text”>)
One drop down (<select>)
One radio button group with at least two radio buttons (<input type=”radio”> //same name attribute will cause them to group together)
A submit button (<input type=”submit”>)
Set up PHP code to validate that all fields had values entered
Create styled error messages if fields were not completed
Output the values entered on the page using PHP
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Question 16: General Question
Consider the following newborn: Philip is a 6 pound, 7 ounce boy whose pulse is 108. His hands and feet are blue. His grasp is weak. He has been crying loudly. He made a weird face when his reflexes were tested but he did not sneeze or cough. What would Philip’s overall Apgar score be?
Question 17: Computer Science
Concepts of programming languages 11th Edition
Build a table identifying all of the major language developments, together with when they occurred, in what language they first appeared, and the identities of the developers.
Question 18: Health Care
Products & Service Assignment
In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan.
Write a 2-3 page description of the product/service to be sold or delivered by your firm. This could be a completely new-to-the-world concept, or an improvement on an existing concept.
· Please discuss the basic attributes in appropriate detail, and then expand to describe the experiential and emotional aspects of the product or service. Be sure to address the role of branding in fulfilling customer expectations for your product or service.
· Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to products and services. For example, it would be appropriate to discuss whether your product is a convenience, shopping, or specialty go
Question 19: Computer Science
Java
Delta College
CSP26A – Java Programming
In-class Lab 05
Question 1.
Modify your Question 1 in Lab 04 such that you will write all valid input values to an output file called outdata.txt
Hence, if user enter the following integers:
Enter a number : 100
Enter a number : 1
Enter a number : 4
Enter a number : 3
Enter a number : 5
Enter a number : 18
Enter a number : 25
Enter a number : -3
The content of your output file outdata.txt file should be what shown below and you can use Notepad to view this file:
100 1
4
3
5 18 25
What to Submit?
A pdf file that has screenshot of three different outputs for your program.
Also, a zipped files of your .java files ONLY. You may leave the .class files and zipped it together with the .java files.
Question 2
Write a Java program to prompt user to enter the file name of file that has the output in Question 1 (outdata.txt)
You might also have to enter the path to the file as the file can be saved
anywhere in your computer.
After open the outdata.txt file, read all values from the file until all values
read.
When finished reading the file, display the average of all data read to 2 decimal
places.
What to Submit?
A pdf file that has screenshot of three different outputs for your program.
Also, a zipped files of your .java files ONLY. You may leave the .class files and zipped it together with the .java files.
Question 20: English
Read the passage from “The Monkey’s Paw.” The Whites are being offered compensation for Herbert’s death. In what way does the stranger’s answer increase the tension of the rising action?
From “The Monkey’s Paw”
The [visitor] coughed, and rising, walked slowly to the window. “The firm wished me to convey their sincere sympathy with you in your great loss,” he said, without looking round. “I beg that you will understand I am only their servant and merely obeying orders.”
There was no reply; the old woman’s face was white, her eyes staring, and her breath inaudible; on the husband’s face was a look such as his friend the sergeant might have carried into his first action.
“I was to say that Maw and Meggins disclaim all responsibility,” continued the other. “They admit no liability at all, but in consideration of your son’s services, they wish to present you with a certain sum as compensation.”
Mr. White dropped his wife’s hand, and rising to his feet, gazed with a look of horror at his visitor. His dry lips shaped the words, “How much?”
“Two hundred pounds,” was the answer.
Unconscious of his wife’s shriek, the old man smiled faintly, put out his hands like a sightless man, and dropped, a senseless heap, to the floor.
The answer causes Mr. White to faint.
The answer satisfies the first wish, and there are still two wishes left.
The answer causes the wife to shriek.
The answer indicates that Herbert has doubts about the wish.
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Question 21: Accounting
In April of the current year, Freeman Steel Company transferred Herb Porter from its factory in Nebraska to its plant in Michigan. The company’s SUTA tax rates based on its experience ratings are 3.2% in Nebraska and 3.8% in Michigan. Both states base the tax on the first $9,000 of each employee’s earnings. This year, Freeman Steel Company paid Herb Porter wages of $20,900; $2,800 were paid in Nebraska and the remainder in Michigan. Compute:
Question 22: General Questions
ECON 213 How to use Inquisitive Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Points, Grades, and Levels
Drag the labels below to fill in the blanks.
(Hint: You saw most of this information on the introductory screen when you first started the activity. To view that screen again, click the gear icon in the top right-hand corner and select “Instructor Activity Introduction” from the drop-down menu.)
Drag word(s) below to fill in the blank(s) in the passage.
You score points in InQuizitive by answering.
You determine how many points you can gain or lose on each question using the Question slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users).
You must answer a number of questions to get a grade on the activity.
To get a perfect grade (100%) on the activity, you must reach a designated Score.
Confidence Levels
Find the Question Confidence slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users). Try sliding the ball to adjust your confidence level.
Using the keys below or your keyboard, type out the name of the lowest confidence level.
Confidence Levels
Go back to the Question Confidence slider. What’s the highestconfidence level?
Using the keys on the screen or your keyboard, enter it below.
Confidence Levels
As you’ve seen, you can adjust your confidence level on each question using the Question Confidence slider. What happens when you increase the confidence level for a question?
When you answer the question correctly on the first try, it the number of points you’ll earn.
When you answer incorrectly while attempting the question, it the number of points you’ll lose
Other InQuizitive Policies and Features
Which devices can you use to work on InQuizitive activities?
(Note that to complete this question you must drag every answer option into either the “Correct Answer(s)” area or the “Incorrect Answer(s)” area.)
Confidence Levels
If you guess incorrectly on a question, you immediately lose the points you “wagered” when setting your confidence level. If you answer the question correctly after that initial incorrect guess, however, you can earn back half of those points in most cases.
So, here’s a math question for you: Suppose you set your confidence level at “I think I know it,” which means that you’re initially risking 80 points. You guess wrong on the first attempt. How many “second-chance” points will you be able to earn back?
Other InQuizitive Policies and Features
Find Quizmo, the InQuizitive alien, in the upper left-hand corner of the screen. Quizmo is thinking of an African animal’s common name. Guess the animal.
(This is an impossible question that we’re slipping in here, to make sure you get at least one question wrong and see what happens when you guess incorrectly. Just keep typing until you fill in the answer. You will not encounter impossible questions like this in later InQuizitive activities in your course!)
If you answer the minimum number of questions for an activity before you reach the Target Score, your initial grade will be calculated this way:
If you’ve just reached the minimum number of questions and have scored 750 points, your initial grade is .
However, if you keep answering questions and eventually reach 1,500 points, your grade will improve to , no matter how many questions it takes you to get there.
Question 23: General Question.
ECON 213 Problem Set ch. 13 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
01Question
The following table reports the four-firm concentration ratio for five different industries:
Refer to the table above. In which industry do the four largest firms have the most market power?
Refer to the table above. In which industry do the four largest firms have the least market power?
02Question
Consider a cartel, the Organization of the Rice Exporting Companies (OREC), which is a group of rice-exporting countries. Although OREC has eight members, let’s keep it simple and assume there are only two: China and Vietnam. The figure below shows the payoff matrix for the game.
Each country must choose how much rice to produce, either low output or high output. Note that this payoff matrix is not symmetric. At any outcome, China makes more money than Vietnam because China is the dominant member of OREC.
If the countries colluded,
China’s dominant strategy is to produce a
Vietnam’s dominant strategy is to produce a
The Nash equilibrium for these two countries is
Suppose that the countries try to cooperate over a longer time. Although this strategy allows the countries to develop strategies like tit-for-tat, which may sustain collusion, cartel members may still try to cheat. Which of the two countries is more likely to cheat on a cartel agreement?
03Question
Rachel and Joey are two students who are dating. Before they left for class this morning, they decided to meet for dinner in the evening. After their last class, they go home and get ready for their date. Unfortunately, although they both remember the time—7:00 p.m.—neither of them can remember where they agreed to meet: Clementine or Beyond. Also, there is no way for them to contact each other before 7:00 p.m. Where should they go? Let’s assume that Joey prefers Clementine to Beyond, but Rachel prefers Beyond to Clementine. Joey loves Rachel, however, so he would rather be with her at Beyond than by himself at Clementine. Rachel loves Joey, so she would rather be with him at Clementine than by herself at Beyond. The figure below is the payoff matrix, where the payoffs are measured in utils (happy points).
What is Joey’s dominant strategy?
What is Rachel’s dominant strategy?
What is the Nash equilibrium?
04Question
Indicate whether each group or association benefits from network externalities.
Network externalities are important because
05Question
The following table shows your neighorhood’s demand for drinking water. Assume that only two firms (Waterland and Aquataste) produce and sell water in this market. Each firm offers the same quality, no fixed costs are incurred in the production of water, and each firm’s marginal cost is constant and equal to $0 because both companies can pump as much water as needed without cost. Because marginal cost is constant and equal to $0, total revenue is equal to total profit.
Assume Waterland and Aquataste make a nonbinding, informal agreement that each will produce 250 gallons of water, charge $1.50 per gallon, and evenly split the profit of $750.
If Aquataste sticks to the agreement, Waterland has an incentive to renege on the agreement by producing 350 gallons because Waterland’s profits would then increase from $375 to (Provide your answer to two decimal places.)
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Question 24: General Question.
ECON 213 Problem Set ch. 10 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
1Question
If you’re like most college students, you are always worried about having enough money. Suppose that you decide to become an Uber driver and offer rides to students on weekends. For a fee, you will drive them to parties and pick them up at the end of the night. The table below depicts the demand schedule for rides. To keep things simple, assume that you are the only person providing this service; that is, you’re a monopolist. Let’s see how much money you can make.
Although you have no fixed costs, you do incur a marginal cost of $15 per ride. How much do you charge per ride to maximize profits?
How much profit do you earn?
02Question
Below are eight descriptions of firms operating under various market conditions. For each item, determine whether the market is a monopoly or a market with perfect competition.
03Question
Suppose that the owner of a smartphone monopoly hires you to determine whether his firm has made the profit-maximizing number of smartphones. He provides you with the following production and sales information for the first six months of 2016.
In which months should the firm have produced fewer smartphones?
In which months should the firm have produced more smartphones?
In which months was the firm maximizing profits?
04Question
A monopolist has the following fixed and variable costs:
Complete the table. The profit-maximizing monopolist produces a quantity of
05Question
The figure below depicts an unlabeled market diagram that includes both the monopoly and perfectly competitive solutions. Label the diagram with the items to the right of the diagram. Make sure you scroll down to see all the items that need labeling.
06Question
Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.
(a) Which area represents consumer surplus under perfect competition?
(b) Which area represents producer surplus under perfect competition?
(a) Which area represents consumer surplus under monopoly?
(b) Which area represents producer surplus under monopoly?
Which area represents the deadweight loss associated with a monopoly?
07Question
Suppose that after graduating from college with an economics degree, you get a job with your state’s public utilities commission. Your job is to determine the regulated price for an electric utility (a natural monopoly). The figure below shows the current situation in the market.
If the electric utility was unregulated, it would earn
If you set a regulated price to achieve economic efficiency, the electric utility would earn
If the electric utility is forced to charge a price that leads to economic losses, it would go out of business, and consumers would have no electricity. To avoid this, the government has several possible solutions at its disposal. Which of the following is NOT a possible solution?
08Question
The local community bus service, which is a monopoly, charges $2.00 for a one-way fare. The city council is thinking of raising the fare to $2.50 but expects it to generate less than 25% more revenue. The council has asked for your advice as a student of economics. The council predicts that raising the price by 25% will raise revenues by less than 25%. Which of the following is true?
Therefore, the council has
Question 25: History
Learning activity 1 instructions
Background to the assignment: Who “owns” the past? Who has the right to define what the past means for us today? This assignment asks you to reflect on these questions. In the course of this assignment, you will discover that ancient history can sometimes be very contemporary, reminding us that the past is always present with us. Many of the conflicts in our world today have ancient roots, which is one of the reasons studying the past is important.
Description of the assignment: Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.
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Question 26: Business
Week 4 Quiz
Excess inventory well beyond what is needed for the year may:
tie up cash and cause cash flow problems
reduce cash flow problems
allow the organization to be more responsive to future financial needs
enable the customer to have a better selection of product
allow a company to increase their cash reserves
_______________ helps managers plan, operate and control a company’s activities.
Management accounting
Financial accounting
Business accounting
Customer surveys
The federal government
The contribution margin is calculated by this formula:
total revenue + variable costs
total revenue + fixed costs
total revenue – fixed costs
total revenue – variable costs
fixed cost + variable costs
The accounting system generates information about the:
awareness level
distribution system
level of accessibility
customer preferences
operations of a business.
Examples of period costs, also referred to as fixed costs, are:
depreciation expenses, SG&A and current liabilities
depreciation expenses, R & D expenses, and labor expenses
depreciation expenses, R&D expenses, and variable costs
depreciation expenses, R & D expenses, and administrative expenses
short term expenses, SG&A, and R&D expenses
The difference between contribution margin and gross margin is:
gross marketing excludes depreciation expenses
gross margin includes depreciation expenses
contribution includes depreciation expenses
contribution margin includes variable costs
contribution margin and gross margin are identical
Variable costs are the:
costs of making products the company produces
costs of making products the company sells
costs of making the product the company sells on account
revenues from making the product the company produces
revenue from the products a company sells
______________ is used by individuals external to the organization to understand its performance.
Question 27: Business
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
SEJPME Pre Test and Post Test (Study Guide) / SEJPME Final Exam (Study Guide)
SEJPME I POST TEST
1) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? [objective81]
speed and dispersion
provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone
amphibious assault
——————————————————————————–
2) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named? [objective88]
Skipper
Aladdin
Sinbad
Smoky
——————————————————————————–
3) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____. [objective92]
none of the answers are correct
the Army Reserve
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
the Army National Guard
——————————————————————————–
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
——————————————————————————–
5) Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.) [objective79]
rifle cartridges loading
drill formations
proper care of equipment
bayonet usage
——————————————————————————–
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
to organize forces
——————————————————————————–
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
——————————————————————————–
8) Derived from the integration of Service cultures and competencies and requires teamwork amongst all Services and Military Departments to accomplish objectives in the best interest of national security unfettered by parochialism. _____ best describes this concept. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed: N]
Integration
Interdependence
Diversity
Jointness
——————————————————————————–
9) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? [objective90]
after all of the planning is completed
early in the planning process
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
late in the planning process
——————————————————————————–
10) One of the three approaches within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program includes preventative strategies which include addressing and eliminating the stigma and other factors that prevent Service members (and their families) from seeking help early and focus on achieving increased performance. [objective105]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
11) Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies? [objective85]
commanders
chief petty officers
admirals
——————————————————————————–
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
——————————————————————————–
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
coordination
consensus
——————————————————————————–
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
——————————————————————————–
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
17) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present. [objective86] [Remediation Accessed :N]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
18) While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview. [objective75] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
19) Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and _____. [objective103]
limiting the number of times they take vacations
remaining single
maintaining dental health and hygiene
being able to engage in critical thinking
——————————————————————————–
20) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. [objective95]
Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
——————————————————————————–
21) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [objective60]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
——————————————————————————–
22) Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification. [objective100]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
23) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.) [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
establish favorable security conditions
secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action
strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships
secure the United States from direct attack
——————————————————————————–
24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative. [objective101]
seek out professional assistance
acknowledge our own prejudice
know all of the facts
critically think about
——————————————————————————–
25) _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. [objective59]
Irregular
Asymmetric
Joint
Traditional
——————————————————————————–
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
——————————————————————————–
27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective83]
Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service
Bureau of Navigation
Steamboat Inspection Service
Transportation Security Administration
Life Saving Service
——————————————————————————–
28) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.) [objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
signals intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
——————————————————————————–
30) Joint _____ is the component of joint force development that entails collecting observations, analyzing them, and taking the necessary steps to turn them into changes in behavior that improve the mission ready capabilities of the joint force. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]
lessons learned
concepts
education
doctrine
——————————————————————————–
31) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl? [objective87]
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
——————————————————————————–
32) The major challenge in working toward unity of effort often comes from _____. [objective62]
disjunctions in the three levels of interagency coordination
the news media reporting on governmental and military actions
a lack of sufficient resources applied to the problem
bipartisan politics and infighting in Congress
——————————————————————————–
33) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
——————————————————————————–
34) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required.
subordinate unified command
combatant command
joint task force
Service component command
——————————————————————————–
35) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
36) What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.) [objective73] [Remediation Accessed :N]
shaping the international environment
responding to crises
preparing now for an uncertain future
secure the United States from direct attack
——————————————————————————–
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), “. . .requires leaders at every echelon to be _____.” [objective98] [Remediation Accessed :N]
impartial
adaptable
decisive
strict adherents to doctrine
——————————————————————————–
38) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
——————————————————————————–
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
——————————————————————————–
40) After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____. [objective93]
combating weapons of mass destruction
cyberspace operations
support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza
global operations against terrorist networks
——————————————————————————–
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
——————————————————————————–
42) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
——————————————————————————–
43) The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.) [objective80] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the Far East
the Black Sea
the Mediterranean Sea
northern Europe
——————————————————————————–
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
——————————————————————————–
45) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
——————————————————————————–
46) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the combatant commanders. [objective56]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. [objective104]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
48) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) [objective82]
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
——————————————————————————–
49) To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)
culture and economics
non-governmental agencies
internally displaced personnel (IDPs)
——————————————————————————–
50) The principle of joint operations designed to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary use of force is _____. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
proportionality
perseverance
restraint
legitimacy
——————————————————————————–
ADDITIONAL POST TEST QUESTIONS
1) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
2) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____. [objective96]
deter aggressors from attacking the U.S.
support and defend U.S. allies and partners
defend the homeland
fight and win the Nation’s wars
——————————————————————————–
3) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective77]
maritime security
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
——————————————————————————–
4) During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____. [objective70]
develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws
enforce local rules of engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE
properly control, maintain, protect and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, international law, and policy
target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war
——————————————————————————–
5) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer. [objective86]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
6) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01? [objective75]
conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land-based aviation
all of the answers are correct
organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations
provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases
——————————————————————————–
7) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74]
True
False
——————————————————————————–
8) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security? [objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
——————————————————————————–
9) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
——————————————————————————–
10) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
——————————————————————————–
11) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), with the advent and increase of command and control (C2) capabilities, networked-enabled leaders are cautioned against the lure to _____. [objective98]
micromanage
delegate authority
second-guess
provide guidance
——————————————————————————–
12) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created. [objective80]
False
True
——————————————————————————–
13) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion. [objective69]
partnership, coalition
alliance, partnership
coalition, alliance
alliance, coalition
——————————————————————————–
14) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
——————————————————————————–
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Question 28: Psychology
Read the Research Paper Instructions and Research Paper Rubric. Decide which specific DSM disorder you plan to research for the Research Paper assignment. Go to the LU Online Library and begin researching for your paper, locating one journal article to share with the class. Share your chosen topic with the class and your reasoning behind your interest in the selected topic. Within your post, provide a 150 word summary of one journal article that you are interested in using for your research paper. Provide the journal (full text) as an attachment. Include at least one direct quote from the journal article (not more than 25 words). (Note that the entire post should be 200-250 words. For this assignment, the direct quote is included in the required word count). All citations should be in APA format. As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.
Research a specific mental disorder within the realm of Abnormal Psychology. The topic must be one which is discussed in the course textbook and described in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The length of the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages, and must not exceed 10 pages of summarized research findings in current APA format. All sources used must be scholarly journals. In addition to this, include a current APA-style title page, abstract, and references; these do not count toward the minimum number of pages required. The paper must be organized with sub-headings reflecting the required sections (I–IX).
The research paper will address the following aspects, organized in this order:
* Title Page: APA-style
* Abstract: APA-style
Introduction: Introduce and describe the topic. Discuss the DSM classification for the disorder, including a discussion of the specific criteria as described in the DSM (1/2 page).
Historical: Describe the disorder in a historical context (how the view of disorder has changed over time, how cause/treatment options have changed, etc). (1 page).
III. Cause of the Illness: Current research as to the cause of the illness (1 page).
Treatment: Various treatment approaches for this disorder, including the benefits of the treatment (1 page).
Prevention: Research as to the prevention of the illness (1 page).
Cross Cultural: Cross-cultural issues pertaining to the topic (1 page).
VII. Biblical Worldview: Discuss the topic from a Christian worldview perspective, including disorder’s cause, treatment, and prevention. Utilize the Bible and a journal source written from a biblical/theological perspective on the topic (1 page).
VIII. Conclusion: Include a closing summary of the research, including ideas for future research on the topic (1/2 page).
References: APA-style. See also References Grading Rubric and instructions.
* Organize the paper according to directions. Include current APA-style Level 1 sub-titles. Do not use Roman numerals.
* The use of 3rd person point of view is expected for this type of scholarly research assignment.
* Correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation is expected in writing at this level.
* Include not more than ½ page of directly quoted material. Directly quoted material in excess of ½ page would not count towards length/content requirements of the paper.
* Current APA formatting is required.
* Course textbook is not permitted as a source.
* All sources must be journal articles dated within the past 10 years.
Research Paper Grading Rubric
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Content 70%
140 points
Advanced 90-100% (A)
Proficient 70-89% (B-C)
Developing 1-69% (< D)
Not present
Content (20 points each)
126 to 140 points
The paper exceeds content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
98 to 125 points
The paper meets content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
1 to 97 points
The paper meets some of the content requirements:
Introduction/Conclusion
Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.
Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Treatment: Detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.
Biblical Worldview
Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.
0 points
Not present.
Structure 30%
60 points
Advanced 90-100% (A)
Proficient 70-89% (B-C)
Developing 1-69% (< D)
Not present
Organizational Elements
9 to 10 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
7 to 8 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
1 to 6 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles
0 points
Not present.
General APA
18 to 20 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
14 to 17 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
1 to 13 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.
0 points
Not present.
Title page, abstract, reference page formatting
27 to 30 points
The paper exceeds structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
21 to 26 points
The paper meets structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
1 to 20 points
The paper meets most of the structure requirements:
Title page is in proper APA format.
Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.
References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.
0 points
Not present.
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Question 29: Economics
Matching Vocabulary
Money that enters the spending stream through an increase in business or government spending.
The difference between exports and imports in an economy.
Where spending equal output in an economy.
The level of consumer and business spending at each possible income or output level.
Insufficient total spending to achieve full-employment GDP
A tax where everyone pays the same amount.
Total spending exceeds level to achieve full-employment GDP
Money, like savings, that is no in the spending stream.
The business spending plan at each level of GDP
Spending choices of business independent of current real output.
Planned investment
Investment schedule
Aggregate expenditures schedule
Equilibrium GDP
Leakage
Injection
Net Exports
Lump-sum tax
Recessionary expenditure gap
Inflationary expenditure gap
Question 30: Sociology
‘If you consent to it, then the state should not intervene.’ Critically discuss with reference to female circumcision
Question 31: Mathematics
Calculate the percentage return on a 1-year Treasury bill with a face value of $10,000 if you pay $9,777.46 to purchase it and receive its full face value at maturity.
The percentage return is % Round to decimal place
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A farmer has 1000 acre of land on which he can grow corn, wheat and
soya beans. Each acre of corn cost Rs. 100 for preparation, requires 7
man days of work and yields a profit of Rs. 30. An acre of wheat cost Rs.
120 for preparation, requires 10 man days of work and yields a profit of
Rs. 40. An acre of soya beans cost Rs. 70 to prepare, requires 8 man days
of work and yields a profit of Rs, 200. If the farmer has Rs. 1, 00,000 for
preparation and count on 8000man days of work, how many acres
should be allocated to each crop to maximize profit. (Use Simplex
Method)
Discuss the profitability of different alternatives
Question 2: Chemistry
Calculate the density of a proton, given that the mass of a proton is 1.0073 amu and the diameter of a proton is 1.72×10−15 m.
Question 3: Chemistry
An atom has a diameter of 2.50 Å and the nucleus of that atom has a diameter of 4.50×10−5 Å. Determine the fraction of the volume of the atom that is taken up by the nucleus. Assume the atom and the nucleus are a sphere.
Question 1: General Question
NURS 6501 Week 10 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A)
The purpose of this activity is to reflect on and identify your potential risk factors for diseases and identify strategies that promote healthy lifestyles. While many of these health risks are the same for women, the focus of this course is men’s health. Therefore, women taking this course should ask a male to complete the assessment.
Write a 3–5 page paper addressing the areas identified in the grading rubric below for this activity.
Grading Criteria
Points Allocated
Points Earned
Describe your total HRA score and the total score for each category (e.g., physical activity, nutrition, general health).
10
Discuss results.
● What do you think the overall score means for you? Did it surprise you?
● Which category score was the highest and which one was the lowest? Did that surprise you?
20
Describe 3 positive behaviors you identified. How can they be enhanced? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
Describe 3 behaviors you identified that could use improvement. How can they be improved? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
APA, Grammar, and Organization:
● Uses correct spelling, grammar, and sentence structure.
● Correct use of APA style.
10
Total
/100
Discussion Forum 5: Health Risk Assessment Findings
Complete your Sample Health Risk Assessment Written Assignment and discuss your findings in Discussion Forum 5.
Based on what you have learned, do you think this assessment includes the most important variables/risk factors of health? If not, which variables / risk factors are not included?
Do you see any benefit to using a tool like this? Why or why not?
Did you identify any strategies to reduce health risk that you had not considered before?
Module 10: Critical Thinking Critical Thinking Assignment (105 points) Draft a response plan as a part of the World Health Organization’s strategic planning proposal for natural disasters or disease outbreak specific to the Eastern Mediterranean Region to protect pilgrims during the Hajj. Research a disease or natural disaster in which the WHO seeks to advise the KSA on how to react. Also, as you draft your response plan, consider the policy requirements that are in place for Health Conditions for Travelers to Saudi Arabia for the Pilgrimage to Mecca (Hajj). Draft a 5-6 page policy, not including the cover and reference pages, using the readings, research, and your knowledge of healthcare consumerism influencing marketing. Your paper should analyze the following substantive requirements: Describe what natural disaster or disease you are planning to mitigate through the response plan. Examine the global and regional organizations that could aid in this situation. Assess the humanitarian challenges that should be considered. Provide specific information regarding the implementation of this policy. Recommend how to monitor to continually monitor the implementation to ensure its success. Your report should meet the following structural requirements: Be five to six pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages. Be formatted according to Saudi Electronic University and APA writing guidelines. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but four must be external. Utilize headings to organize the content in your work.
Is the design clearly identified and described in the research report? What is the design?
Is the design appropriate to test the study hypothesis(es) or answer the research question(s)? Why/ why not?
Did the study use an experimental or nonexperimental design? Was the most appropriate type of experimental design used? Explain your reasoning. (Houser pp. 41-43).
What means were used to control for threats to internal validity? External validity? (Houser p. 243).
Was assignment of subjects to the experimental and control group clearly described? If so, how? (Houser chapter 7).
Does the research design allow the researcher to draw a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables? Describe.
Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
What means were used to control for extraneous variables, such as subject characteristics? Please explain.
Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
APA citation for the article:
Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points
Instructions
This is an assignment for TWO SEPARATE Critiques using TWO SEPARATE studies
Paper must be typed and citation in APA format.
Type the answer directly below the question.
Only utilize the articles that were approved by Dr. Ramjohn
Cover page follows APA format.
One paper is completed for the qualitative study
One paper is completed for the qualitative study
Each paper is to be turned in as a hard copy bound in the following format from front to back: cover page, critique of the paper, reference page and article attached.
If you fail to turn a paper in on time 10 points will be deducted automatically.
Part 1: Common Holy Days in Jewish Religious Traditions
Complete the table below with information about Jewish holy days. Identify at least seven Jewish religious holy days and place each holy day in the correct season (time of year). Provide a brief explanation of each holy day you identified.
Note: An example has been provided. You may add additional rows or move the text fields to different locations within the table as needed.
Fall
(September – November)
Winter
(December – February)
Spring
(March – May)
Summer
(June – August)
Enter text.
Example:
Hanukkah
Hanukkah is an 8 day-long Festival of Lights. It is a celebration of the victory of the Maccabees over the armies of Syria, as well as the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem.
Enter text.
Enter text.
Enter text.
Enter text.
Enter text.
Enter text.
Part 2: Major Sects of Judaism
Select three major sects of Judaism to compare and contrast. Identify them in the table below.
Sect of Judaism
Enter text.
Sect of Judaism
Enter text.
Sect of Judaism
Enter text.
In the table below, list at least two similarities and two differences among the sects of Judaism you selected.
Similarities
Differences
Enter text.
Enter text.
Part 3: Summary
Write a 525- to 700-word summary that includes the following:
A description of the life and importance of one key person in Jewish history
An explanation of one key event in the history of Judaism that is connected to that person
A description of any rituals, symbols, or sacred texts in Judaism associated with this event or person
Brief explanation of Jewish ethics
Summary
Enter text.
Include references formatted according to APA guidelines. You may find helpful resources for formatting citations in the Center for Writing Excellence in the University Library.
References
Enter text.
Question 5: Other
Explain merit pay. Address what level of risk is associated with the employees. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 2. Discuss how performance appraisals should be conducted. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 3. Evaluate how performance appraisals are used in pay-for-performance plans. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 4. Explain whether or not pay-for-performance affects employee behavior. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words.
Question 6: Law
Liberty University – CJUS 330 Ch.15-Study Questions / CJUS 330 chapter 15 Study Questions/ CJUS 330 Questions
How much deference (or conversely, scrutiny) an appellate court will afford to the decisions of a judge, jury, or administrative agency in an appeal is referred to as the ____________.
Which court is responsible for hearing cases for which there are automatic reviews?
trial court
intermediate court of appeals
state court of last resort
federal circuit court
If a defendant loses an appeal, what is the first step to take in order to file a subsequent appeal?
File a notice of appeal.
File a petition for a writ of certiorari.
File a writ of habeas corpus.
File a motion for appeal.
Which of the following statements is true?
Criminal appeals always involve questions of fact decided by a judge or jury.
In contrast to the highly deferential appellate review of factual issues, questions of law are reviewed without deference on appeal.
Appellate courts are willing to second-guess findings of fact made in lower courts.
Many appeals are “routine,” which means they have the likelihood of succeeding.
____________ errors are defects that seriously affect substantial rights.
Substantial
Reversible
Plain
Grievous
If a defendant convicted in a U.S. circuit court files for an appeal, which type of court has jurisdiction?
U.S. Supreme Court
intermediate courts of appeals
state courts of last resort
U.S. circuit courts
Which of the following are opinions written “by the court” without attribution to a specific judicial author?
dissenting opinion
concurring opinion
plurality opinion
per curium opinion
During trial, attorneys must make timely objections to the judge’s rulings on points of law or the objections will be deemed waived. This is known as which of the following?
mandatory objection rule
contemporaneous objection rule
appellate objection rule
interlocutory objection rule
The ____________ consists of the materials that advance to the appellate court.
A defendant who makes a guilty plea on a felony charge, therefore accepting the sentence recommended by the prosecutor, subsequently requests an appeal. The appeal is based upon the failure of the court to inquire as to whether the plea was voluntary. In this example, the error is subject to which type of test?
classic trial errors rule
reversible error rule
plain error rule
harmless error rule
Losing parties at trial have the discretion to file an appeal except in what type of cases?
felony cases
civil cases
misdemeanor cases
capital punishment cases
How does the role of the appellate court differ from the trial court?
It retries cases sent from the lower court.
It focuses on the evidence and how it was obtained.
It focuses on how decisions were made in the trial court.
It reexamines the facts presented during the trial.
The leading causes of ____________ include mistaken identifications, improper forensic evidence, false confessions, unreliable informants, tunnel vision and misconduct by justice professionals, and inadequate defense representation.
appeals
wrongful convictions
hung juries
postconviction reviews
Why do criminal appeals rarely succeed?
The appellate court reversal often produces only minor victories for many criminal defendants.
If the appellate court reverses and remands the case to the lower court for a new trial, many defendants will be convicted a second time.
The appellate standards of review often find that no reversible error was committed during the trial court proceedings.
The appellate courts are reluctant to overturn decisions by the lower courts because of time and cost constraints.
Which court is seen as more conservative with rulings that cut back on abortion rights, condoned mandatory drug testing, and permitted capital punishment for juveniles and developmentally impaired persons who were convicted of murder?
the Warren Court
the Burger Court
the Rehnquist Court
the Roberts Court
What was the purpose of the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996?
It restricted the time periods and the number of habeas corpus petitions prisoners file.
It restricted courts from hearing habeas corpus petitions from convicted terrorists.
It restricted courts from pursuing all terrorism cases as death penalty cases.
It increased penalties for those convicted of domestic terrorism
What does it mean when a case is reversed and remanded?
The case is overturned and sent back to the lower court for further hearing.
The case is overturned and terminated.
The case is returned to the lower court for a retrial.
The case is affirmed and returned to the lower court for further hearing.
What are the two primary functions of appeal?
judicial oversight and checks on prosecution
error correction and policy formation
error correction and process oversight
crime control philosophy enforcement and compliance
Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which postconviction differs from appeals?
They may be filed only by those actually in custody.
They may raise only constitutional defects, not technical ones.
They may be somewhat broader than appeals.
Many state court systems limit postconviction remedies.
The U.S. Supreme Court and most state high courts of last resort have largely ____________.
discretionary appellate jurisdiction
mandatory appellate jurisdiction
limited appellate jurisdiction
constitutional appellate jurisdiction
Which of the following has led to an increase in the broader range of criminal cases being appealed?
How do state courts of last resort and the U.S. Supreme Court help set justice policy?
By utilizing the political associations that come with the appointment of the judges.
By exercising caution as to how they word their opinions.
Through their exercise of their discretionary appellate jurisdiction.
Through their exercise of their experience in handling difficult questions of law.
Which of the following terms refers to the movement in the state supreme courts to reinvigorate state constitutions as sources of individual rights over and above the rights granted by the U.S. Constitution?
new judicial federalism
rights-generous doctrine
state constitutional reformation
restorative representation
Postconviction reviews are termed collateral attacks because they are attempts to ____________.
avoid the effects of a prior court decision by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
overturn prior court decision by bringing in new evidence
affirm prior court decisions by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
change the way the process was handled in the lower court
A defendant has been acquitted by a jury of charges filed against him by the state. The prosecution subsequently discovers incriminating evidence that was not presented during the trial. The prosecutor decides to recharge the individual with the crime. However, the court denies the motion for a new trial. Under what rules is the judge basing the denial?
Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy
Fifth and Fourteenth Amendment violation of due process
Fourth Amendment protection against admissibility of illegally obtained evidence
Eighth Amendment protection against cruel and unusual punishment
Question 7: General Question
NSG 5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG 5002 Quiz 4 (2019): South University (Already graded A)
Question 8: General Question
NSG 5003 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: South University
Question 9: General Question
Liberty BIOL 101 Quiz 4 Latest Version
Question 10: General Question
Liberty University CSTU 101 Quiz 4 Latest
Question 11: Business
Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.
Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:
Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
Options for the needs analysis
Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
Your recommendations for training and recruitment
Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.
Question 12: Other
Lab Report: Elasticity
Answer the questions below. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.
Total score: ____ of 27 points
(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)
Write the goal of the lab or the question you tried to answer.
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)
Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)
State your hypothesis.
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)
Use the data from your experiment to complete this data table.
TCype of Rubber Band
Original Length
(cm)
Mass
(g)
Length with Mass (cm)
Stretch Length
(cm)
thin
medium
Graph your data: Plot mass against stretch length for each rubber band. Use a different symbol for each rubber band. Make a key so that you are able to tell the plots apart. Answer: (Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points) Did your data agree with your hypothesis? Explain. Answer: Type your answer here. (Score for Question 7: ___ of 3 points) Draw a trend line that characterizes the data for the thick rubber band. Then, use your graph to predict the thick rubber band’s stretch length if it had a 400 g mass attached to answer: Answer: Type your answer here.
thick
Question 13: Other
Total score: ____ of 24 points
(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)
B.Write the goal of the labs on levers and pulleys or the question you tried to answer.
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)
C.Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)
D.State your hypothesis.
Answer:
Type your answer here.
(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)
E.Use the data from the lab on levers to complete the data tables.
Answer:
Resistance
Force, as added mass to resistance side (g) converted to (N)
Arm length (m)
Work
300 g = 2.94 N
0.70
300 g = 2.94 N
0.75
300 g = 2.94 N
0.80
300 g = 2.94 N
0.85
Effort
A Force (N) applied to balance the lever with no mass on effort side
B Pulling force applied to the spring scale (n) when mass is added to effort side
Total force B-A
Arm length (m)
Work
0.87
0.50
1.53
0.45
2.18
0.40
3.30
0.35
(Score for Question 5: ___ of 6 points)
F.Use the data from the lab on pulleys to complete this data table.
Answer:
Pulley System
Distance String Pulled (cm)
Effort:
Force (N)
Effort:
Work
Distance Mass Lifted (cm)
Resistance:
Force (N)
Resistance:
Work
single fixed-position pulley
single moving pulley
one fixed-position pulley with one moving pulley
(Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points)
G.Compare your data with your hypothesis. Explain how the data supports or does not support your hypothesis. If your data does not support your hypothesis, use the data you collected to answer the original question.
Using Microsoft Excel, demonstrate your understanding of the Time Value of Money concepts discussed
in the text by answering the following questions. Upload your answer to canvas.
You graduate from IU and get a job with an annual salary of $50,000.
a. (1 point) Your boss calls you into the office and says she is happy with your performance and is going to give you a $1,000 raise. What percentage raise is this for you?
b. (1 points) If the Inflation Rate is 2.0%, what is the actual amount of your raise?
(3 points) At your graduation, your parents give you a $2,000 graduation gift in cash. You decide to invest this money in an Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU) Term Certificate and the current Annual Rate is 2.80%. If you leave this money alone for 5 years and it compounds monthly, how much money do you have in this savings account after 5 years?
(3 points) You decide after graduation to start saving for your retirement. Even though it might be tough at first, you decide to invest $200 a month for 40 years. If you your investment earns 10% APR and the interest is compounded monthly, how much will you have earned?
After graduation you decide to buy your first car. You decide you want to get a Kia because it has a 10 year/100,000 mile warranty. You buy a 2019 Kia Sorrento EX for $35,000 and finance the vehicle through Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU). Today’s new car loans are 4.29% APR.
a. (2 points) If you finance this car for 66 months, what is your monthly payment?
b. (4 points) Create an amortization table showing monthly payment, monthly interest and monthly principle paid. After the first year (12 months), how much interest have you paid?
In order to diversify your investing strategy, after graduation you decide to also
invest annually in Tesla, Inc. You decide to invest your $300 annual bonus every January 1st in Tesla stock. It is possible to purchase parts of a share…i.e. 2.5 shares…
Date Amount Price per share # share purchased
2015 $300 $24 how many?
2016 $300 $21 how many?
2017 $ 300 $31 how many?
2018 $ 300 $33 how many?
(2 point) how many shares of stock did you buy each year
(2 point) If you sell all of your stock today and the share price is $28, how much money did you receive for the sale of that stock?
(2 points) How much money do you Gain or Lose?
You decide you want to experiment a little with investing in bonds. Your grandma gives you $1,000 at graduation and you want to put it away in a safe place. You find a government bond to buy. The bond will mature in 5 years and pays a coupon once a year.
a. (2 points) If the Annual Coupon Rate is 5%, what is your coupon payment?
b. (3 points) If you assume that the annual discount rate is 4% compounded annually, how much is the bond worth today?
Question 15: Business
Informational Interview Report
My interview job is market research analytics specialist. Below is the information needed for the report.
Deliverables (combine these into one document) 1. A 2-3 page, single-spaced report about your interview, written in memo format 2. An APA-style reference list 3. A list of interview questions. Here is the link you can pick 10-12 questions.(https://s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/blackboard.learn.xythos.prod/5a30bcf95ea52/4120098?response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27200%2520Great%2520Informational%2520Interview%2520Questions%2520to%2520Choose%2520From.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20191104T005520Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIL7WQYDOOHAZJGWQ%2F20191104%2Fus-east-1%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=428f5253c04c93abd8cd60a47a283cf038a5f662868fb46e764fccdc70bc89ab)
Learning Goals • Learn to identify appropriate sources of career information • Gain experience contacting and persuading a professional to meet with you • Expand your knowledge of your profession and industry • Practice active listening in an interview setting • Learn how to synthesize and organize relevant information • Become familiar with the professional memo format
Assignment Summary An informational interview is a meeting with a working professional who can give you an inside view of an occupation, organization, and/or industry that is of interest to you. You will identify an appropriate interviewee; research their industry; schedule an interview; build a list of appropriate questions; conduct an in-person interview and take notes; send a thank you note; and write a reflective report about what you learned and how it applies to your professional future.
Assignment Details The first 2-3 pages of your assignment, formatted as a memo to your professor and typed single-spaced, should include: (1) Your Professional Goals and the Purpose of the Interview (1 paragraph): Briefly describe your career interests and 2-3 career goals and then explain why this interviewee is relevant to those goals. (2) Biography of Interviewee (1-2 paragraphs): Sum up the interviewee’s professional biography, including his/her professional background, current title and responsibilities, organization, and a summary of the interviewee’s career journey, from beginning to date. (3) Industry Overview (2-3 paragraphs, based on research): Provide an overview of the industry including market size, types of careers in the industry, nature of work in the field, types of writing and communication skills required, and other skills needed. Incorporate information from both the interview and additional research you have done. Use 3-5 sources of information for this section and provide in-text citations using APA formatting. (You will also provide a list of references at the end of the paper.) A good place to start is the GMU Library BUS 303 InfoGuide: http://infoguides.gmu.edu/BUS303 (4) Interview Summary (1-2 paragraphs): Provide a summary of your interview, focusing on the most valuable information that your interviewee provided. Do not include a complete transcript of your interviewee’s responses and do not use an “I asked…and she answered…” format. Instead, paraphrase the responses in a narrative format. (5) Reflection (2-3 paragraphs): This is the most important part of your memo. Synthesize 2-3 meaningful highlights or “take-aways” from the interview and reflect on their implications for your career. (6) Interview Questions: A list of 10-12 questions you thoughtfully prepared prior to the interview,
in the order that you intended to ask them. (It’s okay if you don’t end up asking them exactly as
you planned—but it’s important to have a list.) You need to write the questions yourself; do not
plagiarize a list of questions from the internet. Think about what you would really like to know
from this person. One question you should definitely ask is, “What are employers in your industry
looking for in new college graduates?” (7) Reference List: A list of 3-5 sources you used for your industry overview. Be sure to use APA formatting.
As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.
While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.
SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.
Instructions:
Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!
Questions
Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?
Question 17: English
What is counterargument in the opinion essay? In other words, if someone disagreed with the author, what would they say, what would be their position?
Your claim for this one MUST be in your words. Then find the evidence that supports it; be mindful that there is specific counterargument in the essay.
Your explanation should include an accurate summary of the author’s argument in order to understand the counterargument.
Question 18: Biology
The minimum length for this assignment is 1,200 words. Be sure to check your Turn tin report. Darwin was not the first to consider evolution as a process but he did come up with the first effective explanation for how it happens. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection. Explain how this theory was a major advance over prior ideas as to how organisms changed over time. Give evidence in support of evolution and describe the driving forces for evolutionary change.
ENGL 2328 –Writing Assignment At this point in the semester, we have looked at even more authors and a much larger smattering of their work. The textbooks have touched upon a number of varied points of interest from different schools of philosophical thought. The books and our discussions have addressed the major paradigm shifts in American Literature (and history) from the Civil War to the middle of the 20th Century. The authors’ points of view have come into play aswe have muddled our way through this often confusing span of decades. More importantly, your points of view have begun to permeate the discussion, giving it a much more relevant and modern scope. (Alice, while in Wonderland,might say, “moderner and moderner.”) Once again, topic selection is up to you. However, this time, the scope of the project is going to be a bit more pointed than before. As with the first project, everything we have approached thus far this semester is fair game, as is anything we will be reading next week (please use something different than you did for the first paper). What I would like to see this time is a critical comparative analysis in which you look at more than one work and more than one author and comparatively analyze them. This is the long paper –about seven to eight pages long –the one that requires at least four sources cited within it, in MLA format of course which means that you must include a works cited page. The works cited page is not one of the seven to eight pages of your paper. Make sure you use credible sources like those found through the library databases. Do not cite Wikipedia, SparkNotes, Cliff Notes, 123HelpMe.com, cheattheprof.com, Gradesaver.com, MegaEssays.com, or any other source that subverts the research process—substantial grade reductions will occur if you use sources such as those listed above
Question 20: Computer Science
Write a loop that continually asks the user what pets the user has, until the user enters “rock”, in which case the loop ends. It should acknowledge the user in the following format. For the first pet, it should say “You have a dog with a total of 1 pet(s)” if they enter dog, and so on.
Two products A and B are made involving two chemical operations for each. Each unit of product A requires 2 hours on Operation 1 and 3 hours on Operation 2. Each unit of product B requires 3 hours on Operation 1 and 4 hours on Operation 2. Available time for Operation 1 is 16 hours and for Operation 2 is 24 hours. The production of product B also results in a by-product C at no extra cost. Though some of this by-product can be sold at a profit, the remainder has to be destroyed. Product A sells for $8 profit per unit, while product B sells for $20 profit per unit. By product C can be sold at a unit profit of $6 per unit, but if it cannot be sold, the cost of disposal is $5 per unit. The company gets 2 units of C for each unit of B produced. Determine the optimal production quantity of A and B, keeping C in mind so as to make the largest profit.
Question 22: Health Care
Imagine that you are working in a healthcare facility and you want to apply FOCUS PDCA Process
How you can apply this technique? In addition, what is the main result when you used FOCUS PDCA?
Research the role of the Nurse Practitioner. Select and describe an Advanced Nurse Practitioner role. For example, Family Nurse Practitioner or Gerontological Nurse Practitioner Find one research articles and one expert opinion article about this role and summarize the articles. Examples of state innovations include Maryland’s hospital rate setting, Vermont’s single payer system, and Massachusetts’ health reforms Analyze the effects of the advanced practice nurse role in terms of healthcare and patient outcomes.
Instruction
Submission Instructions: The paper is to be clear and concise and students will lose points for improper grammar, punctuation and misspelling. The paper is to be no shorter than 4 pages; nor longer than 5 pages in length, excluding the title, abstract and references page. Incorporate a minimum of 5 current (published within last five years) scholarly journal articles or primary legal sources (statutes, court opinions) within your work. Journal articles and books should be referenced according to current APA style.
Question 24: Business
Evaluate financial ratios in a minimum 1,050 words which includes the following:
Explain the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of any publicly traded company. Then locate and compare these with the ratios provided for that firm by Yahoo Finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar.
. Display your calculations in a chart with the formulas and that compares the ones you calculated with the ones you located from Yahoo finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar. They will more than likely not be the exact same amounts because of the difference in dates of the calculations you did and the published dates.
Question 25: Finance
Instruction
The topic for the paper is (The Capital Asset Pricing Model). Paper must be 12 pages in length including a cover sheet and reference page. The paper must follow APA citation style.
You are considering a covenant for the new loan agreement that would require SME Bank to maintain a 100% or higher provision coverage of the Portfolio at Risk in arrears one day or more (“PAR1+”). This means that the entire stock of provisions (general and specific) would have to exceed the PAR1+ balance outstanding at any time. Would SME Bank comply with this covenant as of October 2016 either in terms of the provisions actually held or considering what the bank should have held when correctly applying the prudential rules? Would you consider this a reasonable covenant, or would you argue for a different definition or level of coverage as per your experience? 2. Calculate the three transition matrixes for the Jul-Aug 2016, Aug-Sep 2016 and Sep- Oct 2016 transitions. Use the enhanced transition matrix method including principal paydown as described in Unit 4 and in file U4_Ex5_TransitionMatrix.xlsx. Carry out the transition matrix to 331-360+ days in 30 day arrears increments. Any arrear balances above 360 days should be summarized into the 331-360+ category. Find the average transition matrix across the three monthly transitions. Please use KES equivalent balance amounts for all transition matrix calculations. Give a short business Interpretation of the average transition behavior at SME Bank. Compare your findings with some of the transition matrix examples discussed in the Unit 4.1 text. What might explain the transition patterns seen here? 3. Bonus Question (20%): Take the average monthly transition through the matrix exponential calculation up to 12 months. In the matrix exponential find the conditional probabilities of balances reaching 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months depending on their initial levels of arrears. Calculate IAS 39 compliant empirical provisions for the entire portfolio as of October 2016, using the transition matrix exponential results, with a default definition of having reached 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months. Also take into account the empirical LGD levels at this institution that have been separately estimated as: LGD=60% for KES loans and LGD=45% for USD loans. SME Bank is known in the market for its effective legal collections and requiring relatively strong collateral from SME borrowers, particularly for USD loans.
Question 27: Health Care
Instruction
Topic: Ascending and descending venography PowerPoint Presentation (25 slides) including images.
Precise, no plagiarism, references required (word cited APA format)
Ashford MGT 330 Week 4 Assignment Team Management Activity and Reflection
Question 4: General Question
NURS 4100 Week 4 Quiz / NURS4100 Week 4 Quiz (2019): Quality and Safety through Evidence Based Practice- Walden University (Already graded A)
Question 5: General Question
WRTG 101 APA quiz 100 percent.docx
Question 6: General Question
Address the following in your role as marketing manager:
Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach (one slide for each step) in detail including its goal, and create an example aligned to the scenario above to illustrate how that stage would be implemented toward the problem’s solution.
Define the two types of research data this process gathers and their pros and cons. Share examples of each type that would be useful in solving the scenario.
Compare and contrast the Five-Step Process with two alternative methods for conducting marketing research. What are the pros and cons of each?
Define what it means to differentiate a service and provide an example to illustrate how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use the strategy to help increase target market interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the organization.
Question 7: General Question
NURS-6531N-8, Adv. Practice Care of Adults.2019 Summer
Question 8: General Question
NR 509 Week 6 Quiz Answers 2019:Chamberlain College Of Nursing
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
What is the purpose of a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)? Is it always necessary? Remember, a needs analysis determines the need for training intervention.
Question 10: Business
Assignment Content
Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.
Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:
Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
Options for the needs analysis
Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
Your recommendations for training and recruitment
Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.
Risk is a combination of: The probability that an event will occur, and the probability that a terrorist will be able to successfully plan an attack?A. TRUE
B. FALSE 2. When conducting a building assessment which of the following should be a member of the multi-functional team? A. engineer/ architect
B. Security
C. Emergency Manager
D. subject matter experts
E. All of the above 3. The initial step of a risk assessment is to: A. Collect site data from interactive GIS maps.
B. Interview staff to determine if there are alternates assigned to key functions.
C. Define and understand a building’s core functions and processes, and identify building infrastructure.
D. Evaluate the security master plan. 4. Mitigation measures can be conducted by which of the following means? A. Regulatory measures
B. Rehabilitation of facilities
C. Protective and control structures
D. all of the above 5. When designating or designing a Continuity of Operations (COOP) facility,which hazards should be considered? A. Man-made
B. Natural
C. terrorist
D. All of the above 6. The concept of Design basis Threat (DBT) is essential to building protection because? A. DBT establishes the threat tactics that architects and engineers use in designing mitigations for a new structure or renovation.
B. DBT provides the mitigations necessary to ensure that standoff is kept to a minimum.
C. DBT provides a means to identify and characterize all threat groups operating in the local area that could impact the buildings occupancy.
D. DBT establishes the minimum criteria necessary for the proper selection of window thickness and fragment retention films. 7. Assembling a GIS Portfolio can help in performing a Vulnerability Assessment on a continuity facility? A. TRUE
B. FALSE 8. The best way to lower peak incident pressure and the reflective wave is? A. reflective wave does not matter
B. peak incident pressure does not cause damage
C. increase distance of detonation
D. Decrease distance of detonation 9. Resilience is the ability of an organization or asset to _________________ its critical functionality in a short period of time after the impact of an adverse event. A. Back-up data for
B. gracefully shut-down computer functions of
C. Contract or transfer the responsibility of
D. Maintain or recover quickly 10. Continuity programs are a required and critical component of Government and critical infrastructure operations, and during emergencies and disasters, ensure that the Government at all levels can continue to operate and provide essential functions and services. A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Which biological agents are contagiousA. Small pox
B. Ricin
C. Salmonella
D. Anthrax 12. Which item is an example of a threat and/or hazard that could potentially impact a building or site? A. Bombing
B. Armed Attack
C. Kidnapping
D. All of the above 13. CBR detectors can not be successfully integrated into the buildings security operations center and building automation systems. A. TRUE
B. FALSE 14. The consequences are defined as the degree of ________________ that is caused by the loss of an asset. A. customer dissatisfaction
B. debilitating impact
C. productivity interruption
D. economic disruption 15. The four main categories of consequences are? A. Loss of life, loss of communications, loss of revenue, loss of client base
B. Human impacts, economic impacts, public confidence impacts, and impacts on government ability
C. Impacts of government ability, damage to company name, distribution of product lines, loss of life
D. Human impacts, economic impacts, Public confidence and Re-election impacts 16. Lacerations occur the furthest distance from an explosive event as a result of? A. blast loading effects of the 2/3’s conflaguration.
B. Projectile debris from progressive collapse
C. high- velocity glass fragments.
D. Sub-standard structural components. 17. Personal protective equipment is only effective against specific agents if: A. The PPE is worn correctly when needed
B. The purchased equipment is one size fits all
C. The HVAC system is turned off and the building is sealed
D. The PPE is stored in warm dry office space 18. When estimating the direct consequences of an attack you should consider, the target, the effect of the weapon, physical and environmental conditions and ________________ ? A. potential losses
B. cascading effects
C. how many people work in the building
D. estimated damage 19. The most commonly selected terrorist targets, worldwide, are? A. Commercial facilities
B. Law enforcement facilities
C. Government facilities
D. Military bases 20. What preparations are needed in order to safely shelter in place? A. Supplies to seal the room, HEPA filter, food and water, windows and a well practiced plan
B. Supplies to seal room, HVAC shutoff, carbon dioxide absorbers, food and water, communications, and a well practiced plan
C. Permanently sealed room, direct phone line, 1 gallon of water per person per day, good ventilation
D. Lan ports for laptops, printer paper, office supplies, food and water, Duct tape and plastic, plants
Question 12: Chemistry
Calculate the mass of KHP which will result in an endpoint of 25 mL when titrated against 0.093 M NaOH
Contemplate whether prices should reflect the value the customers are willing to pay or whether they should be based upon the cost of the product or service to the company. Bring in a product or service example to support and provide clarity on your position.
Unit VI Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.
Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.
Option 1: Southwest Airlines (pp. 490–491)
What is the product and service model of Southwest? Who is their primary target market, and how is Southwest positioned with this group?
What is the pricing strategy of Southwest compared to other airlines? Is this a differentiating factor?
What risks does Southwest Airlines face both from a macro and micro environmental standpoint?
Can Southwest continue to thrive as a low-cost airline when tough economic times hit or as other airlines mimic its business model?
Option 2: Amazon.com (pp. 522–523)
With respect to the distribution, why has Amazon succeeded when so many other companies have failed?
From a theoretical standpoint, what is Amazon’s pricing model? Why is this so effective? How does this compare to their competitors?
Discuss how Amazon has used differentiation and positioning as two key components in maintaining a competitive advantage.
Thinking about the changes in the macro and micro environment, what is next for Amazon? Where else can it grow?
Option 3: Best Buy (pp. 554–555)
What were the keys to Best Buy’s success? How have they differentiated themselves?
What pricing model has Best Buy adopted?
What are the challenges it faces in today’s retail environment from both a micro and macro environmental standpoint?
How else can Best Buy compete against retail competitors like Walmart and Costco as well as online competitors like Amazon.com?
In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.
Question 14: English
Night by Elie Wiesel
n his encounter with the dentist, Elie looses one of his gold teeth. Why does Elie relent and finally give up the tooth?
Question 15: Accounting
A business manager estimates that when p dollars are charged for every unit of a product, the sales will be x=380−20p units. At this level of production, the average cost is modeled by A(x)=5+x50
(a.) Find the total revenue and total cost functions, and express the profit as a function of x. (b.) What price should the manufacturer charge to maximize profit? What is the maximum profit?
Question 16: Statistics
A sample of 10 mothers wants to know if they sleep less than the population in terms of the number of hours they sleep. Their average number of hours they sleep is 6.8. We know that the average hours of sleep in the population is 8 with a standard deviation of 3.
Conduct a z test to see if the sample of mothers differs from the population.
(Be sure to complete all four steps of a hypothesis test.) α=.05
Find the probability of getting a total of twelve when five balanced dice are rolled. Show all work.
Question 18: Chemistry
dissolving calcium iodate in water is exothermic or endothermic?
Question 19: Economics
Suppose you are using risk-benefit analysis to evaluate a policy aimed at limiting the use of a pesticide applied to grain crops. Describe the risks and benefits that would have to be estimated to conduct this analysis properly.”
Question 20: Business
Term Project
you will choose an organization (a public or privatefirm, a non-profit or an educational institution EXCEPT OZYEGIN), visit the organization at least TWO times andcollect data on information systems by interviewing the managers and employees of IS/IT departments. Data collection should capture the information system architecture of the organization, the information systems used and their usage, the value add of information systems, IT function and its governance, future IS projects. Furthermore,
you are expected to make observations, identify IS-related problems and offer your solutions. The organization can be of any industry; however, I don’t suggest the IT industry, it might be confusing or overwhelming for you. The firm should be of appropriate size that it has its own IT function; therefore, micro / entrepreneurial firms do not fit. The firm should NOT be too big, in bigger firms you won’t be able to interview the CIO / IT manager. If the firm has multiple businesses, make sure that you choose one and concentrate on it.
Step 1: Identify your organization, prepare a report about it, explain the business, why is it an interesting context, whom you plan to contact etc. We will evaluate the appropriateness of your choice together, you may not proceed in the project without my approval. You may change the firm later; however, you need to re-prepare the report and re-submit.
Requirements
Your report should be min 400 words. Shorter essays will NOT be accepted.
Your report should be submitted as a Word document (.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
The file name should contain the last names of all team members and the assignment number e.g. Yilmaz_Yucel_Guzel_Sezgin_ProjectReport1.docx. Please make sure that you insert the names and Student ID of ALL team members.
E-mail or hard copy submissions are NOT accepted.
Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade.
Failure to submit the report will result in 5 points deduction from your project grade.
Question 21: Psychology
Can you give me 2 different short responses for this discussion question below? No more than 175 words.
You have learned so much in this class about research methodology in psychology and other behavioral sciences!
What is the most interesting, useful or surprising thing you learned this term?
Question 22: English
Essay- 38 murders who saw murder and didn’t call the police…
A 20N block is being pushed across a horizontal table by an 18N force. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is 0.4, find the acceleration of the block.
A 0.5m/s2
B 1m/s2
C 5m/s2
D 7.5m/s2
Question 24: History
Please type, double-space your answers to the following questions. These answers must be in MLA format.
List and describe early Pacific Northwest history from Native Americans in the pre-contact era to the end of the Progressive Era (about 1920). Include information about early Native American history and culture, early white exploration of the area, fur trade and early immigration into area, the Oregon Trail, Railroad expansion into the area and its multiple effects and the struggle for labor rights.
You need to consider major historical events, important people studied, factors related to culture, economics, and the impact on the environment.
These topics will be discussed in class on Monday. Bring any questions you may have to our class.
Question 25: Computer Science
When creating an algorithm, there are many different ways to accomplish the same task. Describe what you might look for in selecting the correct algorithm for your place of business.
Question 26: Law
School Shooters School shootings have unfortunately become a common occurrence in today’s society. Students of all ages are affected, from those in elementary school to those at the college level. Suppose that a school shooting had occurred in your community and that the shooter was still at-large. Identify and list important criteria that could be used to create a criminal profile. Then, locate a minimum of two (2) articles that discuss real-life school shooting suspects. Test and analyze your criteria. What other factors could you add to your profile? Discuss your results. Your paper should be no more than two (2) pages and should include an APA citation for the article analyzed
What’s Fair? This week, you will read “The Case for Procedural Justice: Fairness as a Crime Prevention Tool.” This article discusses strategies that law enforcement officers can use to implement the procedural justice theory in their community. Using that information, design a brochure that could be used to train new officers. Consider the type of information police would need to know about this view as well as effective strategies. It may be helpful to provide scripted examples of conversations that officers would have with citizens. Your brochure should be no more than two (2) pages and should utilize APA format.
Question 28: General Question
Research 5 companies/organizations’ websites on how they recruit individuals into their companies/organizations. Rate them from highest to lowest and explain why you rated them that way, emphasizing their strengths and weaknesses. Requirements: 500 minimum/ 750 maximum with Biblical integration woven into the entire document.
Question 29: Health Care
Prompt: Write a paper about the benefits of being a first mover, the response of a second mover, and the response/characteristics of a late mover. Include a discussion of customer loyalty and earning above average returns. Also discuss the effect of competitor response to returns earned. Requirements: 500 words minimum; APA format: a minimum of three peer reviewed references Book used: Hitt, H. A., Hoskisson, R. E., & Ireland, R. D. (2017). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: competitiveness and globalization (12th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage. ISBN: 9781305502147
Question 30: English
write three paragraphs about an article called “BEGINNING YOUR JOURNEY” so basically write what you liked in it!
In this assignment you will be rewriting and critiquing the proposal provided HERE (Please see attachment). There are at least six improvements to be made in the document. Your job is to identify the six improvements and then, using track changes, rewrite or fix the error. Also, using the comments tool, give a brief explanation to why it is wrong and why you fixed it the way you did. Note: If your word processing program does not have track changes, you will need to insert comments in brackets using red font at the improvement location.
In your document, you should:
Identify at least six proposal weaknesses using track changes.
Include a critique paragraph of at least 150 words at the end of the document.
Discuss improvements for each of the weaknesses in your critique.
Ensure both the comments and critique are concise and error-free
A Proposal
To:
From:
Date:
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Problem and Solution
Mason Office Center is a lovely Georgian building containing four offices. However, the interior is not attractive or inviting for clients/customers and employees. The off-white walls throughout the complex seem dull and boring, adjectives the tenants do not want associated with their businesses. In addition, the air in the building is musty and unpleasant at times.
Green Thumb Planting can provide and maintain a beautiful plantscape in the building that will attract visitors and employees as well as purify the air and introduce more oxygen. Research shows that people respond positively to interiors with at least two plants per room. These changes can be made in an unobtrusive, cost-effective manner.
Objectives of Proposed Plan
Installing plantings in Mason Office Center will give visitors and employees a more appealing and cleaner environment, producing positive feelings and greater productivity.
Background
I have been in the interior plant maintenance business for 32 years and have owned and operated Green Thumb Planting for the last seven years. All associates with Green Thumb Planting take pride in their work, and Green Thumb is happy to provide references.
Methods
Within two weeks of your signing a contract, our design team will interview you and produce a plan showing installation, including the number and types of plants, color and design of containers, and placement. The team will adjust the plan according to your preference.
Furthermore, Green Thumb is concerned about the environment and thus uses only organic methods. No harmful chemicals are used in its plantscapes.
Based on Green Thumb’s design formula, the building could use 31 large and 14 medium-sized low-light plants. Green Thumb’s service agreement provides plants and pots, weekly maintenance, and monthly replacement of weak plants.
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Scheduling
When a plan is agreed upon, Green Thumb will schedule installation within one week. Installation can be accomplished during the evening hours to avoid interrupting your tenants’ business activities. All soil and materials will be brought into the building in specially designed trolleys to prevent spillage and damage to floors. I anticipate being able to complete the job in two nights. Once the plantscape is installed, Green Thumb Planting staff will visit Mason Office Center once a week to maintain the plants.
Capabilities and Qualifications of Personnel
I have a BS degree in landscape design and 32 years of experience in the business. In addition, all personnel have undergone thorough background and criminal checks and are bonded. Your satisfaction with Green Thumb’s plantings and employees are guaranteed.
Budget
The installation cost is $923.40, and the monthly maintenance fee is $75.00 per month. You will incur no other charges to have an inviting, attractive, clean green environment in Mason Office Building.
Installation costs include the following:
31 large 6 braided ficus trees at $25 each $150.00
6 chamaedorea palms at $20 120.00
10 herb topiaries at $20 200.00
9 Chinese evergreens at $25 225.00
14 medium
5 moth orchids at $15 $ 75.00
9 angel ivy at $15 135.00
SUBTOTAL $905.00
Tax 8% 72.40
TOTAL $977.40
Conclusion
For an effortless, inexpensive, attractive, clean environment at Mason Office Center, accept Green Thumb’s proposal. Please send a memorandum of acceptance to Green Thumb Planting, 101 Sienna Way, Ayden, NC 28513-7101.
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Signature Assignment: Public Stewardship Paper
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper outlining the critical need for public stewardship in budgeting.
Detail the needs and methods for training public officials and staff members for ethical public budget preparation and maintenance strategies.
Include the following:
Detail the need and importance of public stewardship in budgeting
Ethical requirements for leaders to consider for proper public stewardship
Consequences of unethical or poor public stewardship
Consider utilizing a recent current events article for reference to a recent incident of unethical public stewardship of budgetary monies.
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the University Library.
Question 8: Business
Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Do not use a National Brand
Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.
Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry
Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods
Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus
Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the clientÕs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.
Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.
NSG6430 Midterm Exam / NSG 6430 Week 5 Midterm Exam (2019): South University (Already graded A)
Question 13: Health Care
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
Question 14: Philosophy
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)
Question 15: Law
Instruction
Write a reflection of what you have learned about boundaries and dual relationships in counseling. 1 1/2 pages (no APA format))
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Business Ethics Identify an ethical public policy that is currently present in society. Write an argument in support of the policy or against the policy using at least one of the three public policy models – market economy, social democracy, or neo-mercantile. Indicate which would be your option and why. What are the possible consequences of your decision?
Instruction
You must use the textbook as a reference as well as a minimum of one other reference. Be sure to include a reference page and internal citations. Check the course outline for formatting instructions. Your paper should be 1 ½ to 2 pages in length, double spaced, with Times New Roman 12 pt font and 1” margins. Your heading should be single spaced in the top right corner of your paper and consist of your name, assignment number (Assignment #1), and BMGT 4390. Be sure that you include a reference page and internal citation formatted in either APA or MLA format.
Question 17: Health Care
Topic: Health Care Systems Prompt: Define outpatient care. What are several key changes that have been instrumental in shifting the balance between inpatient and outpatient services? How do outpatient services support the continuity of care in the delivery of health services? Why is it important for hospital administrators to regard outpatient care as a key component of their overall business strategy?
Instruction
1. Ensure that you meet the minimum word count which is 800 word count. 2. Include two references in addition to the text book and a Biblical reference. 3. Add Biblical integration section to Essay , which includes the verse and how it it applies. 4. Use spell check 5. Always submit assignments in essay format, double spaced using APA. 6. List questions then the answers. 7. The posts must contain original information. I hope this helps!!
Graduate School Scholarly Book Review (Criminal Justice)
Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read and review one of the following books: 1.) Pacifying the Homeland: Intelligence Fusion and Mass Supervision; or 2.) Solitary: The Inside Story of Supermax Isolation and How We Can Abolish It. University of California Press. ISBN: 9780520292239. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of the criminal justice system. Students who do a particularly good job with this assignment will be encouraged to submit their work to a scholarly journal. Scholarly publications are often very helpful in gaining admittance to Ph.D. programs. Doing this assignment might also provide you with an opportunity down the road to demonstrate to your supervisors at work that you have an ability to synthesize information into an interesting, evocative report. Also, scholarly book reviews enhance one’s visibility as a burgeoning scholar, and make a contribution to the field of criminal justice, and provide invaluable opportunities for personal growth. The instructor will provide everyone with an example of a scholarly book at the beginning of the course. Several Lamar University graduate students have published book review essays they have written in my courses in academic journals. All scholarly book reviews will be submitted either by the student or the instructor to Safe for originality in order to ensure that there is not any forms of plagiarism, either deliberate or accidental. It must be evident that all papers are original works. If a Safe report reveals any evidence of plagiarism, the paper will not be graded and will be assigned a “zero.” Students should visit with the instructor before the assignment is due if they have any questions about this. Also, if a student fails to cite at least five peer-reviewed journal articles and include these in the references at the end of the book review, it will incur an automatic penalty of twenty points. Please, note the instructor will not, under any circumstances, receive late book reviews, regardless of the reason. in mind, this is an assignment that students are encouraged to work on throughout the semester Please follow the writing rubric in Appendix 1 to understand how you are required to write the paper.
Question 19: Business
Portfolio 2 Questions
PART 1 : Questions from your text book (eBook chapters 3, 4 & 5)
Chapter 3, 4 & 5: ( Answer using lecture slides and eBook)
Q1: Identify a major ethical dilemma in each of the last five decades.
Q2: Identify a key development in business ethics in each of the last five decades.
Reflection tip: Which decade did you connect with the most and why? How does the ethical dilemma of that decade impact you in the present?
PART 2 : Lecture Pods/Videos
Q1: View the video lecture pods (Purpose of Professional Bodies) and make a note of the main points you learned about professional bodies. After viewing the first lecture pod, visit the site of a Professional Body you might be interested in joining as a graduate, and find the answers to the following questions:
How do I become a member?
What must I do to maintain membership?
Do they have a code of conduct and what is required?
Do they have a code of ethics?
Hint: This question is important in helping you prepare for certain parts of Assessment 1 (Executive summary)
Q2:
Access APES 110 Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants and make sure you understand the five fundamental principles. For each of the five principles, think of a scenario which may potentially create threats to compliance with the principle.
Reflection tip: Which objectivity out of the five is the most important to you (even if you are not in the accounting profession, these objectivities are important in other disciplines too)
Q3: View Supplementary videos – Please summarise one to two key points on the following
Are there penalties for breaching the codes? three videos:
SABC Digital News | Accounting and Auditing professional bodies to help fight corruption
Association for Project Management | Professional Bodies, what role do they play in building and maintaining world class competence?
Niobe Elliott | Professional Bodies ICT
Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?
Q4: Videos from CNN and ABC News on Ethics –
How to buy ethical chocolate video
Should chocolate makers like Cadbury and Nestle be held accountable for the actions of their suppliers? Is it their responsibility to ensure that their suppliers produce cocoa without using child labour of child slave labour?
If you were Nestle’s CEO, what would you do? Buy the more expensive FairTrade cocoa, or continue to but the less expensive, less ethical cocoa?
Fire Kills Over 100 Factory Workers in Bangladesh video
How can companies like Tommy Hilfiger and Wal-Mart emphasize to their employees the importance of choosing suppliers that behave ethically? Discuss how an organisation’s culture can help dictate employee behaviour.
Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?
PART 3 : Reading 2: 2017 Graduate Outcome Survey National Report, Jan 2017
Please refer to Table 3 (Undergraduate Employment Outcomes by study area), 2016 and 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Please refer to Table 8 (Undergraduate Employment by Occupation and study area), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 2.6 Skills formation and utilisation – comment on Table 9 (Importance of Qualification for undergraduates’ Current Employment), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 28 (Undergraduate median full-time salaries by study area), 2016 and 2017 and provide comments on salary related to your profession.
Reflection tip: What are your thoughts about your chosen profession after reading this article and exploring the statistics? How is this information going to impact you in the workforce?
PART 4 : Vietnam Economic News (8-14 Sep)
Please read Vietnam Economic News from the above dates and provide a summary (any one article and one paragraph) on any article that relates to your profession, career/employment or ethical issues. Vietnam Economic News is available from web site http://ven.vn/
Reflection tip: What is the VEN reading about and how does the information presented impact your thinking? How does your article relate to this week’s topic? what are the positive aspects and how would you apply that in the future? and/or what are the negative aspects and how would you avoid them?
Portfolio Reflection Guidelines:
Provide a 100 to 150 words of reflection on your learning from the homework questions. You may reflect on the question(s) you particularly engaged with and your work experiences. Please use the following as guidelines.
Reflection GUIDELINES must be used Possible questions you could use to meet these guidelines
Evaluate Significance What is the relative value of the overall learning experience from the resources and portfolio questions for this week?
Reconstruct the experience What are the most salient points of what you experienced when learning from the resources for this week?
Analysis: Why did it happen that way? What interpretations, explanations help you to make sense of the learning experience?
Distil: What lessons can be learnt? What positive aspects from learning resources are worth using in the future?
Apply: Prepare for future situations What will you change as a result of learning experience from this week? What preparation do you need now to respond to situations in the future?
(Cottrell 2015: 236-237).
Instruction
ow that you understand the concept of a competitor analysis, you must now be able to communicate your organization’s strategy to all employees. The CEO for your organization has announced that the organization must put more of a focus on consumer-driven health care, and an urgent care clinic division will be added as an answer to the recent uptick in retail health clinics in your area. For this assignment, develop a 4-6-page action plan, not including title page and reference page, that will facilitate communication of the strategy. Your action plan should include, but is not limited to, the following: Goals or objectives that detail how the new urgent care clinic division will contribute to the set strategy (e.g., tie this in with the organizational statements you constructed) What will be required to meet the goals and objectives Who is responsible for each goal and objective What resources will be required to achieve goals and objectives How results will be measured and evaluated At least 1 page of your report should be dedicated to explaining the process for communicating the plan across the organization.
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Question 21: General
Assessment @ a glance
Task Use the Data Science Road Map, your Excel & Descriptive Statistics skills to analyse two data sets to solve a problem
Learning outcomes Present and describe information effectively
Suggest ways to improve decision making processes
Value 15%
Submission Learnline Submit Here
Week 7 (see Learnline for details)
Volume & Documentation Two documents are required:
An Excel workbook showing data analysis and a data dashboard
A 2- 4-page report in Word summarising outcomes and decisions (see required template in task details)
Group or Individual Individual
Criteria See separate document
Overview
This assignment will enable you to practice your data analytics skills learned to date. You need to implement the Data Science Road Map and respond to the scenario on page 2.
SCENARIO
You are Aya Baxter and you are working as a data analyst in a tertiary institution. Your manager has been asked by a Senior staff member responsible for student engagement to analyse a data set of an ‘at risk’ first year university class (often with a high failure rate) to understand the demographics and the potential for all students to successfully complete the unit. The institution is looking to implement some student support strategies but first need to understand the student cohort in some detail.
To: Aya Baxter
From: Monica Dave
Subject: Student Engagement project
Dear Aya,
The Pro Vice Chancellor (PVC) Student Engagement is gathering data regarding some of the problematic subjects we teach in first year across the institution. She is particularly interested in a data set from a first year Statistics unit which has had some very high fail rates in the past.
Could you please review the data sets extracted from the student system and the Learning Management system and provide some advice including a brief report to help with planning intervention strategies to ensure that students can be successful.
You will need to include a range of descriptive statistics and data visualisations (in the form of a data dashboard) so that the PVC and colleagues will be able to quickly understand the situation when in their next meeting which is scheduled for Week 8 of this semester.
It would be great if you could get this work to me no later than Friday, Week7
I look forward to your response
Monica Dave
Preparation
In order to prepare a reply to the email, you will need to examine and analyse the datasets thoroughly. There are two separate excel files that will need to be reviewed.
Remember the process to use and the importance of the first step: Identifying the problem. The data will be messy, you need to clean the data and decide what will be best for your analysis. After cleaning the data, you will need to do some explorations about what its telling you. Consider the variables against which data is being recorded and the various relationships between variables that may be of help. A consideration of the ethical aspects of this request should also be included.
Demonstrate your use of a pivot table to manipulate the data as part of your analysis. Use the pivot table to create an Interactive data dashboard that includes at least 3 charts from which decision making is possible.
Presentation
The structure for the report is as follows:
Title page
Problem: outline the problem you are trying to solve based on the scenario outlined below and the data sets you receive.
Data Wrangling: outline the steps you took to clean the data initially and the processes you used to understand what was in the data set you received. Include screen captures etc to show the process used.
Features extracted: based on your problem, what features did you choose to work with and why?
Ethical considerations: use the factors from the Business Ethics Canvas to write about the ethical aspects you considered
Modelling & Analysis: what visualisation and statistical processes did you employ to find answers to the problem you identified. Why did you choose these?
Present Results: this should include a data dashboard created in EXCEL and contain both visual, numerical and textual data. Data in your report should refer to data in the spreadsheet
References (where appropriate)
Criteria
Data Analysis Skills (Use of the Data Science Road Map process to structure the analysis; discuss the ethics😉
Demonstration of Statistical Thinking skills (ability to use the language, concepts and processes of statistics to address the problem presented)
Demonstration of EXCEL SKILLS (pivot tables, data dashboards, functions)
Communication skills – ability to write a coherent report
Innovation/Originality – for going above and beyond!
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Instruction
Read, summarize and give your opinion on the attached paper.
A Research Agenda Acknowledging the Persistence of Passwords∗
Cormac Herley
Microsoft Research, Redmond, USA
Abstract
Despite countless attempts and near-universal desire to replace them, passwords are more widely used and firmly entrenched than ever. Our exploration of this leads us to argue that no silver bullet will meet all requirements, and not only will passwords be with us for some time, but in many instances they are the solution which best fits the scenario of use. Among broad authentication re- search directions to follow, we first suggest better means to concretely identify actual requirements (surprisingly overlooked to date) and weight their relative importance in target scenarios; this will support approaches aiming to identify best-fit mechanisms in light of requirements. Second, for scenarios where indeed passwords appear to be the best-fit solution, we suggest designing better means to support passwords themselves. We highlight the need for more systematic research, and how the pre- mature conclusion that passwords are dead has lead to the neglect of important research questions.
1 Introduction
“Well, in our country,” said Alice, still panting a little, “you’d generally get to somewhere else if you run very fast for a long time, as we’ve been doing.” “A slow sort of country!” said the Queen. “Now, here, you see, it takes all the running you can do, to keep in the same place. If you want to get somewhere else, you must run at least twice as fast as that!”
– Lewis Carroll, Through the Looking-Glass
One view of password research is that little progress has been made in the past 20 years. Despite countless attempts to dislodge them, passwords are more widely
∗Version: August 25, 2011. Copyright IEEE. Author’s version for personal use. Not to be offered for sale or otherwise re-printed, re- published or re-used without permission. A version of this paper will appear in IEEE Security&Privacy Magazine in early 2012.
Paul C. van Oorschot
Carleton University, Ottawa, Canada
used and firmly entrenched than ever. The list of new technologies, research efforts and industry initiatives that have tried to supplant them is impressive in effort, and disappointing in outcome. We consider the possible rea- sons in an attempt to learn from this failure. We find that despite almost universal agreement on the desirability of finding something to replace passwords, much confusion has resulted from a failure to specify both the actual re- quirements needed of a replacement, and a relative rank- ing of such requirements. If a solution which satisfies all needs cannot be found, then “best fit” approaches should be explored. The premature conclusion that passwords are dead has generated some perverse effects. We argue that it is time to admit that passwords will be with us for some time, and moreover, that in many instances they are the best-fit among currently known solutions.
We suggest two broad research directions. First, we suggest research that identifies scenarios where pass- words are indeed the best fit and encourages means to better support them; this could have tremendous positive impact given the scale of password deployment. Second, we suggest research systematically prioritizing compet- ing requirements (as rarely can all requirements be met), and using this in comparing alternatives.
We assert the need to better understand the loss situ- ation (what the actual losses related to password com- promises are, and what attack vectors they result from); our current data poor state means perception drives de- cisions more than evidence. Password research has been far from systematic. For example, we still ask many of the same questions asked 15 or 20 years ago and the liter- ature is void of agreement on many issues for which con- sensus should be possible. We attribute this to a lack of a well-organized research agenda, and a lack of systemat- ically documented knowledge. Our goal is to promote a research agenda that both better supports passwords, and allows progress forward.
2 The Resilience of Passwords
Neither users nor security experts would mourn the pass- ing of passwords. For users the main issue is usability. Major complaints are triggered by mandatory password changes (e.g., every 90 days) and complex policies. Frus- tration increases greatly with the number of password that a user must manage. For example, larger portfolios of passwords increase forgetting and login errors.
The security shortcomings of passwords are many and well-known. They are static in the short term and thus replayable upon capture. Early attacks focussed on their vulnerability to guessing and brute-forcing. More recently phishing and keystroke logging have allowed password harvesting on an industrial scale [8]. There are also economic problems. Agent-supported password resets are expensive. The alternative, self-service au- tomated password resets, often rely on much weaker secondary authentication systems, such as “secret ques- tions” [9] (e.g., facilitating compromise of Sarah Palin’s email account).
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Nonetheless, passwords have shown incredible per- sistence. More than seven years after Bill Gates de- clared (2004) “the password is dead”, not only have we failed to get rid of them, but they continue to multi- ply as an almost universal means of Internet authenti- cation, protecting hundreds of millions of accounts on some large sites. Two decades of stories on how urgent and imperative it is to replace them has had little impact: stronger alternatives and two-factor schemes are rele- gated to the fringes. Sites that offer a choice of authen- tication mechanisms (e.g., Paypal, Blizzard World-of- Warcraft) find negligible user uptake of password alter- natives. End-user authentication technologies involving biometrics and tokens (see O’Gorman [11]), client-side public-key-infrastructure (see Housley and Polk [7]), and graphical variations of passwords (see Biddle et al. [1]), have largely failed to gain mainstream deployment. New proposals “to replace passwords” are offered with reg- ularity but expectations of success are so low that they are sometimes labeled as Yet Another Authentication Scheme (YAAS). Progress on federated identity systems has been glacial. A crowded and active offering space in 2004 is noticeably quieter in 2011. There is little ev- idence of user adoption of OpenID [12]. After a 1.0 re- lease by the Eclipse Higgins Project in February 2008 there have been no major updates. Sxip Identity stopped supporting its Sxipper product in April 2011, and Mi- crosoft announced in early 2011 that there would be no future versions of its federated client Cardspace.
There are many reasons for these failures. Approaches that require client hardware (e.g., fingerprints, smart- cards) face an obvious chicken-and-egg barrier. Phys- ical tokens are expensive and few users aspire to carry
the dozens that would be required to replace all of their passwords. Single-signon schemes offer a single point of failure. Password managers often have poor support for roaming and inadequately studied usability [3]. The extra security of proposed alternatives to passwords may not always justify the cost. Organizations may prefer the devil-they-know in the form of current levels of fraud to an unknown devil of support costs for more com- plex technologies. Revocation is more complicated for stronger authentication. Self-service password resets that many rely upon are no longer simple if hardware tokens are involved. Usability is an issue for many stronger schemes (e.g., longer login times). The enthusiasm that users show for getting rid of passwords has not trans- lated into support for alternatives. Non-technical issues are possibly to blame. Mis-aligned incentives can cause desirable solutions to fail. Overall, the reasons for these failures are as many and diverse as the failures them- selves.
Not only have proposed alternatives failed, but we have learnt little from the failures. Is federated identity a bad approach, or have the timing and incentives just been wrong? Do the many failed single-signon initia- tives teach that the whole idea is wrong, or merely that execution has been flawed? Might password managers see wider adoption if roaming were better supported? In spite of considerable research, execution and deployment effort, very little has been ruled in or out; those who seek to replace passwords in 2012 ask many of the same ques- tions asked in 1995. Single sign-on was an active topic of debate in the early 1990’s and remains so today. No progress results from continuing to revisit the same ques- tions without decision. There have been improvements, secure cookies, HTTPonly (which prevents cookie steal- ing) and tracking the history IP addresses, for example. However these have largely been behind-the-scenes and have not affected the user experience. While many things have changed beyond recognition, passwords have ad- vanced little since the days when a 500 MByte disk cost $600, thousands lined up overnight to buy copies of Win- dows 95, and the 1.5 MegaPixel Kodak DCS 420 digital camera retailed for $14,000.
Passwords, though unloved, deserve some words of praise. They have brought us this far: they are the means by which two billion Internet users access email, bank- ing, social networking and other services. They are es- sentially free from the service provider viewpoint, and are readily understood by users. They allow instanta- neous account setup. Revocation is as simple as chang- ing the password. Those who forget their passwords can be emailed either reset links or the passwords themselves (this practice, though insecure, is common for low-value sites). All of this is automated and instantaneous. They allow access to one’s accounts from anywhere in the
2
world assuming nothing more than a simple browser. So- phisticated users can protect themselves from many of the threats. Deploying a functioning password system is relatively simple (although deployment errors are com- mon [2]). Arguably, the Internet could not have grown to its current size and influence without them. Some non- profit sites, such as Wikipedia and Craigslist, have tens of millions of users. Facebook grew from nothing to just shy of one million users before taking any funding. Ev- ery startup wishes to emulate that growth story, and in many cases the only acceptable marginal cost per user is $0. While growing from one to a million users, authen- tication often must be free; in growing from one to 500 million users there is seldom a good time to mandate a new (more costly) user authentication system. Passwords have an impressive record of accomplishment.
3 Confusion Reigns: Goals, Costs, Benefits
Among security experts there is near-unanimous agree- ment on the desirability of “replacing passwords.” Yet, this meta-goal is accepted without an understanding of what exactly is required of a replacement, and what will improve once they have been replaced. There is consid- erable confusion as to the costs and benefits of replacing passwords. This makes it essentially impossible to effec- tively evaluate and compare proposals.
Poor security is obviously the main concern of secu- rity experts. However, since even strong authentication technologies are vulnerable to certain attacks (e.g., ses- sion hijacking involving client-end malware), more de- tail on exactly what is required of a replacement is es- sential. The U.S. government’s 2011 NSTIC initiative— “National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace” [10]—summarizes things concisely: “passwords are in- convenient and insecure.” This would suggest that the implicit goal is: “more security, more usability (at rea- sonable cost).” While there is little to disagree with here, this does not point to a way forward. There must be min- imum security and usability goals to be met; incremen- tal improvement in either is probably not worth the cost of disruption. A solution that answers all security con- cerns, provides unequivocally greater usability and dis- rupts nothing seems unattainable: it is likely impossible to find a silver bullet achieving all goals simultaneously. That many attempts have sought this suggests an over- constrained problem. In the absence of a silver bullet the messy work of trade-offs cannot be escaped.
3.1 Confusion on properties needed
What properties do we actually need? Which weak- nesses are unacceptable in a replacement and which can we live with? What are the usability requirements, given
that active web-users must authenticate to dozens of sites? Previous attempts to replace passwords demon- strate confusion as to which threats to address.
As one example, the problem of malware-infected clients has been with us for some time and contin- ues. Yet, many recent proposals, including OpenID and Cardspace and most password managers offer no protec- tion against malware-infected clients. There is confu- sion about whether, in a particular deployment environ- ment, the guessing attacks of concern are online or off- line. Relatively weak passwords may suffice if relevant attacks must be online, allowing other mitigation; much greater strength is required if off-line attacks apply.
Passwords have been with us since the earliest days of computing. The rules, policies and “best practices” that govern their use have grown over time. The policy requirements of many organizations are enforced sim- ply for compliance with security audits or industry best practices. The reasons for some requirements are poorly understood, or long forgotten; in some cases the threats underlying a policy item are no longer applicable, or it is unclear whether the policy accomplishes the design goal. Password expiration, as discussed in Section 5, is an example where there is a high usability cost, yet the best evidence suggests the security objective is not being achieved [15].
The resources currently protected by passwords are as diverse as the Internet itself, ranging from bank and brokerage accounts with significant assets to throwaway email accounts. Clearly, not all accounts in all environ- ments have the same security needs. The objectives of different password-requesting web-sites vary immensely, and are not always centered on security. Passwords might be required to limit liability (if personal informa- tion is compromised), for legal reasons (some laws apply if a door is closed but not if open), to get an email address as username for contact information, or to convey or in- crease the feeling of value in a site. Not all users have the same needs—for celebrities, politicians and people in the public eye, even email and Twitter accounts may re- quire better protection than others need for banking. Not all passwords are equal. The consequences of compro- mise are at least as diverse as what they protect. Health records, employee accounts and banking are at one end of the spectrum; compromise here can be extremely se- rious. Merchant and retailer accounts come next; there might be an opportunity for mischief or vandalism but the damage is likely more limited. Email and social net- working sites present the opportunity for inconvenience and reputation loss. Passwords that allow access to site content, airport WiFi networks etc., rank lowest, protect- ing the site more than the user.
There is confusion as to whether we seek one solu- tion or many. We assert that it is naive to expect that a
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single approach will supplant passwords in every nook and cranny into which they have forced themselves; sev- eral or many technologies are necessary, which itself has advantages over a single solution. We noted earlier the problem is over-constrained in goals. The general confu- sion suggests a problem also insufficiently specified.
3.2 Inability to quantify harm
The insecurity of passwords certainly causes harm. Yet, how much harm exactly is caused by password compro- mises is a subject of speculation. Most organizations reveal nothing of their losses unless compelled. While there is no shortage of estimates, most lack a description of methodology, and many are produced by or for se- curity vendors whose prime motivation is not necessarily accuracy. In the last two years, estimates of “cyber-crime losses” ranged over three orders of magnitude, from $560 million (P. Peterson, Cisco) to $1 trillion (E. Amoroso, AT&T); the inconsistency inspires little confidence in any of these numbers. How bad are things actually— how much harm does the average user suffer? Accurately predicting the benefit of replacing passwords requires ac- curately quantifying harm.
Harm is sometimes suffered by the user, sometimes by the site. Historically, a compromised user account might pose a serious threat to the network itself. Today, a compromised Hotmail account is inconvenient for the user, and might be used to send spam, but poses little threat of direct loss to the site or other users (although indirect damage from compromised accounts may re- sult from their use to spread malware or “stuck in Lon- don” scams). Worst- and average-case harm can differ in severity by orders of magnitude. Gaining possession of an email password might in some circumstances allow an attacker to access a bank account. However the average case is far less serious. Some harms are reversible and some not. Consumers are generally made whole for di- rect costs upon loss of money [5]. Loss of privacy from leaked health records cannot be repaired. Confusing the picture further, indirect harm can be many times greater than direct. Money is the most obvious loss, but time, frustration and reputation are also at stake. As with many forms of crime, online thieves may cause damage out of proportion to the money they make.
Password compromise does not always lead to harm. In fact, we have little idea how often one leads to the other [6]. Survey after survey finds that users ignore most security precautions, yet it seems implausible that two billion people would use the Internet if a majority suffered serious harm each year. The leak of 32 million RockYou user credentials [13] has not been linked to any visible surge in fraud (albeit, proving such direct links convincingly can be difficult). The reasons for this ap-
parent lack of visible harm are poorly understood. Evacuating funds from high value accounts is non- trivial. There is evidence that many more accounts are compromised every year than can be evacuated and that money mules, not passwords, are the bottle-neck re- source in the cyber-crime pipeline [5]. Privilege esca- lation (from low to high value accounts) may be harder than it appears. Stealing passwords and monetizing stolen passwords are distinct events. It is quite possi- ble that current systems are failing at preventing the first event, but succeeding at preventing the second. When are passwords not the last line of defence, but simply one hurdle in a complex fraud prevention apparatus? Aca- demic researchers typically have no data on this. Back- end fraud detection at banks may catch more attempted fraud than researchers imagine. The research literature, largely assuming that passwords are the last line of de- fense, generally lacks discussion of back-end protec- tion. What fraction of password compromises lead to attempted fraud, and what fraction of attempted fraud
succeeds, are simply matters of speculation.
Finally, since riddance is not an end in itself, what im- proves if we get rid of passwords? The goal, presum- ably, is to reduce actual and potential harm (or improve usability without reducing security). Inability to quan- tify harm precludes quantifying the expected improve- ment from alternatives. It is common to cite impressively large fraud estimates when making the case against pass- words. However, establishing how much reduction we might expect of a replacement is rarely attempted. For example the NSTIC document [10] asserts that ID theft cost $37 billion in 2010, but is silent on how much, if any, of this can be laid at the door of passwords. This matters, as displacing passwords will be costly, and no replace- ment will be free of vulnerabilities itself. It would be disappointing to incur all the cost only to find fraud lev- els unchanged (e.g., if session-hijacking were to replace keystroke logging). It would be counter-productive to mandate strong authentication for all email accounts, if passwords are not a major source of loss. Again, without
quantification of the harms we proceed blindly.
3.3 Confusion on cost of ousting passwords
If replacing passwords were an easy proposition, it is likely that one of the many attempts would have suc- ceeded by now. That progress has eluded us suggests that the costs will be large. There will also be benefits, of course. Do the benefits exceed the costs? Answering this is complicated by the number of stake-holders and their diversity of interests. No one actor owns the whole problem. Users, web service providers, browser vendors, software companies, government agencies and law en- forcement all have some involvement or stake. The ben-
4
efit of any proposal may exceed the cost for one party, but not for others. No one party can impose a solution, but several may veto solutions; e.g., users resist innovations where usability is poor.
Organizational difficulties and the alignment of incen- tives plays a large role. OpenID provides a lesson in in- centives: while many sites offer to be identifying parties, few accept the risk of disintermediation of becoming re- lying parties [12]. Economics may play as large a role as technology in deciding outcomes. The sunk costs that many organizations have in passwords pose a large bar- rier to change. Not only is there no first-mover advan- tage, in moving to any new authentication system, there is often real advantage in being last. Given the cost, con- fusion, training and customer support calls that introduc- ing a novel system brings it can be better to let others go first and learn from their experience. The risk of user defection may be unacceptable for web service providers competing vigorously for traffic. Underestimating these factors can lead us to believe that proposals have far bet- ter cost/benefit tradeoff than is actually the case. The many failed attempts to replace passwords offer a cau- tionary lesson: asserting that promised (un-quantified) reduction in harm outweighs the business risks has been tried many times. It has a long history of failure, and this will probably continue.
While the research community is unable to quantify harm, individual companies presumably have estimates of their losses from ongoing threats. Their actions cur- rently reveal a preference for password-related losses as opposed to the uncertainty of alternatives. To assume that they’re wrong is to assume that the research community understands the business trade-offs better than businesses themselves do.
Finally, in segments where the costs of replacement are greater than the benefits, improving usability may be the main driving force, with passwords persisting until a more usable alternative is found. Segments where ben- efits of replacement can be shown to clearly dominate costs are good candidates for more complex solutions— however, the “clear showing” is not so easy.
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4 Seeking Best-Fit over Silver Bullets
Repeated and sustained effort has failed to uncover a sil- ver bullet replacement for passwords. It is time to ad- mit that this is unlikely to change. No single alternative technology is likely to possess the combination of secu- rity, usability and economic features that meets all goals in all situations. There is simply too much diversity in current uses of passwords and consequences when things go wrong, and too many conflicting requirements, threat models, and competing stakeholder interests [2].
Abandoning hope for a silver bullet, we should turn
our efforts towards finding best-fit solutions—by the messy work of weighting security, usability and eco- nomic requirements, considering the differences in ac- count compromise severity, and weighting threats by rel- ative likelihoods. Challenges in this requirements-driven prioritization problem include defining criteria for com- paring proposed solutions, and assigning weights for dif- ferent elements.
While conventional security wisdom oversimplifies the story to a trade-off between security and usability, the situation is far more complex than a one-dimensional space where more of one implies less of the other. In- deed if they were inversely related, any attempt to in- crease both would be hopeless: only by reneging on the promise of better usability could security be increased. Neither is a one-dimensional quantity. For example, in- creasing the complexity of a password improves secu- rity against brute-force attacks, but does nothing against a host of others. Thus, security requirements must be bal- anced against both usability and other potentially greater security requirements. Shoulder-surfing is certainly a threat, but is entirely incapable of compromising creden- tials on the industrial scale that keystroke logging can. While session hijacking is a realistic concern, authenti- cating every Facebook update and tweet with one-time codes seems overkill relative to the threat.
As a tool for ranking properties it is hard to escape the need to quantify the relative likelihoods of various threats. As a thought experiment consider a pie-chart counting all the accounts compromised in a year, di- vided into slices by compromise vectors (e.g., keystroke logging, phishing, brute-forcing, shoulder-surfing, ses- sion hijacking, …). While the range of attacks is large and growing, we have no demonstrated ability to quan- tify their relative likelihoods. We don’t know the slice sizes—not even approximately.
Are more accounts likely to be compromised by brute- force guessing than by shoulder-surfing? Do more ac- counts succumb to keystroke logging than phishing? How often does cross-account password re-use lead to attack escalation? Sadly with very few exceptions, the relative success of each attack vector is unknown. Many have strong opinions on the importance of various at- tacks, but few have any data. This precludes comparing the effectiveness of would-be replacements (relative to requirements). If guessing attacks are insignificant rel- ative to other threats, then accepting poor usability in return for highly complex passwords is a bad bargain. If shoulder-surfing causes marginal harm, then solutions addressing it alone, while neglecting other attacks, are of limited value. Since not all requirements can be met any given proposal will meet some and not others. Thus, in the absence of the “pie slice data” that would allow us to rank requirements, comparing alternatives to passwords
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reduces to speculation.
Identifying the threat vectors is easy work, compared
to the important task: determining their relative likeli- hoods and impact. This prioritization is important, un- less all security requirements can be met (at acceptable cost). Clearly some threats are also less scalable than others. While threat likelihoods will evolve, weighting attack importance per current prevalence is more useful than equal (or arbitrary) weighting of all attacks.
We assert that passwords themselves are the best-fit for many (but not the highest level) authentication needs. They are free (if we don’t consider usability) and read- ily understood by users. They allow account access from anywhere in the world assuming only a simple browser. Revocation is as simple as changing passwords. Those who forget passwords can be mailed reset links or the actual passwords; though far from ideal, this is common practice for low-value sites, for which all steps can be automated and instantaneous, including account set-up. Thus passwords accomplish many things that their nu- merous rivals cannot. Indeed it might be said of pass- words that they are the worst possible authentication sys- tem, except for all the other systems.
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5 A research agenda supporting passwords
Building on the above discussion, we seek to promote a research agenda better supporting passwords. We also highlight research questions—some long overdue and neglected—that we believe deserve attention.
5.1 Ending belief ‘Passwords are dead’
The spectacularly incorrect assumption “passwords are dead” has been harmful, discouraging research on how to improve the lot of close to two billion people who use them. Every effort should be made to correct this. While vast attention, effort and research has been spent on would-be replacements, there has been relatively lit- tle on studying plain old text passwords themselves: how they are (re)used, how often they fail or are confused be- tween accounts, and how to improve things. We are sur- prisingly ignorant on even very basic questions.
During this time usability has degraded: everyone has more passwords, and policies have tended to tighten rather than loosen over time. While this might arguably be acceptable if passwords were on the verge of extinc- tion (in which case an increasing usability burden might even help coax users to consider alternatives), we must now acknowledge that they are not. Indeed, we be- lieve that passwords will be with us in great numbers for the foreseeable future (including as a visible front- end strengthened by complementary measures). Without better user-facing support, passwords represent a grow- ing burden of user effort that is better spent elsewhere.
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The above reiterates the need for data on “pie slice sizes” on which to base advice to users, and more gener- ally, to expend greater research effort on understanding problems related to text password themselves.
5.2 Understanding strength, online, offline
Enormous emphasis is put on coaxing users to choose strong passwords [14]. Yet there is no consensus on what strength various situations demand. This raises numer- ous questions, which we suggest the security community has neglected to seriously consider for far too long.
First, how should strength be measured? Info- theoretic entropy and the NIST criteria are poor mea- sures [13] when users choose common passwords, e.g., ‘Pa$$w0rd’ isn’t particularly strong. Strength is better measured relevant to a large population of passwords, as popularity is a main determinant of risk.
Second, what strength is required to resist online at- tacks (assuming rate-limitation in place)? The answer is non-trivial; it may depend on the scale of the target pop- ulation, as many guessing attacks are easier to conceal in the traffic of a large site. Next, how should a desired level
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6
of strength be achieved? For example, different ways of achieving the same strength can have radically dif- ferent usability properties. The question of minimizing the usability impact of a strength requirement has seen surprisingly little work. Related, but slightly different, how should a desired level of strength be imposed? The policies that constrain password length and composition appear especially hated by users. Are there better means to the same end?
Third, in what scenarios are lockout or rate-limiting policies unacceptable? An argument against these poli- cies is that they admit denial of service attacks. Yet for many sites, living with this threat is preferable to impos- ing greater strength requirements [2].
Fourth, when acceptable, how can lockout or rate lim- iting best be accomplished? By locking accounts after three failed logins, ten, or more? Is an exponentially in- creasing delay between attempts better than a fixed limit?
Fifth, when are off-line attacks a threat? While depen- dent on implementation, access to salted hashed pass- words requires attacker effort; long gone are the days when password hash files were by default world read- able. A disgruntled ex-sysadmin who steals hashed pass- words is the often-conjectured foe in this attack; yet, if un-trusted individuals have had unfettered unaudited ac- cess to the authentication server, a site’s problems go well beyond password strength.
Sixth, are there ways to protect against off-line at- tacks besides password strength? Mandating password changes once hashes leak might be better than strong policies at Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!.
5.3 Better policies and support tools
Password aging polices. Password expiration policies (e.g., mandating passwords be changed every 90–180 days), are a frequently mentioned usability disaster. They raise the cognitive burden on users, increase login errors, and lock legitimate users out of older machines and archived files. The justification of such policies ap- plies only in a small set of scenarios: they reduce the time that an attacker has to access an account (if unde- tected), and the time to brute-force the password in the case of off-line attacks. However, a study by Zhang et al. [15] found that an attacker who knew the old password
could quickly guess the new one 41% of the time with an off-line or 17% of the time with an online attack. Thus, despite their usability burden, expiration policies don’t appear to deliver the intended security benefit. We sug- gest (as do an increasing number of security experts) that expiration policies be eliminated on the grounds that best evidence implies cost greatly exceeds benefit, in all-but contrived circumstances.
Realistic password guidance. Managing a large col- lection of passwords is a problem that most users face, but on which the research literature offers few insights or guidance. The historical injunction to never write pass- words down is now frequently challenged by experts as unrealistic and poor advice (obviously, it is important where the written record is stored). Users are also ad- vised to make them strong, never re-use, change them often, and never use them on un-trusted machines. This advice is, of course, almost universally ignored. The fact that even the most conscientious users find it impossi- ble to comply is often taken as evidence that “passwords are dead” and is used to support the arguments to replace them. We suggest, instead, that it is evidence of a failure by the research community to grapple with the real-world constraints of the Internet-using population. Rather than advice that is bound to be ignored, users need realistic guidance to cope with the dozens of passwords they must now manage. While passwords may not seem “hot” re- search, the scale of deployment is such that any improve- ment in their usability would be hard to equal for impact.
Password managers. Password managers (whether browser-based, client application, or in the cloud) offer to relieve much of the cognitive burden of multiple pass- words. Thus, they are potentially of great interest for scenarios where passwords are the best-fit answer. We assert that the properties of offerings in this space are largely understudied, and that development and analysis of serious password manager tools, and recognition of their potential benefits, offer great opportunities in us- ability and security research. Among important chal- lenges here are security itself (recall that most password managers have no malware resistance), and addressing roaming users (i.e., users using machines other than their primary devices).
5.4 Prioritizing competing requirements
If all requirements cannot be met, then some must be omitted in favor of others. The challenge is how to do so systematically rather than on an ad hoc basis. If we have no ranking of requirements then all features have equal weight—such as, e.g., protecting against shoulder- surfing and keystroke-logging. This seems wrong, as scalability implies the latter can deliver far greater harm. We have proposed that requirements be ranked in pro-
7
portion to the compromises that they currently address. While this approach is imperfect—the numbers can change as attackers adapt to defenses and evolve their techniques—using a ranking based on observed harm is preferable to choosing which threats to address in an arbitrary way. There are two parts to this ranking. First, threats that currently cause significant harm must be ranked high—by definition, they have a demonstrated ability to scale. For example, if malware-infected clients result in significant credential-stealing, then any solution not addressing this threat may not meaningfully reduce fraud. Second, threats that cause little observed harm re- quire careful analysis. Some may remain dormant while more effective attacks exist; others may not scale suffi- ciently to harm large populations. Distinguishing these cases is important. Thus, to rank requirements, we need a much better understanding of which attacks are caus- ing how much of the damage, or at least their relative levels. Populating the pie-chart of Section 4 with threat likelihoods is of first-order importance.
Agreement on a standardized, superset threat model for reference would greatly facilitate comparing solu- tions. This would spring naturally from the ranked list of attacks, with the highest-ranked ones forming a checklist. Rating proposals against this standard check- list would directly improve research. For example, this would immediately reveal the deficiencies of solu- tions that address phishing but not keylogging or brute- forcing, or that address shoulder-surfing alone. Given the diversity of threat vectors, the limited appeal of such single-feature solutions will become obvious if we have consensus on a ranking of threats.
We need better understanding of the harms suffered by users when things go wrongtwo major conclusions.
First, we assert that passwords are themselves the best- fit for many of the scenarios in which they are currently used. No other single technology matches their combi- nation of cost, immediacy and convenience that many scenarios require; they are likely to persist for some time. The research avenue this motivates is exploring how to better support Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
References
[1] R.Biddle,S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot.GraphicalPasswords: Learning from the First Twelve Years. ACM Computing Surveys vol.44 no.4 (to appear).
[2] J. Bonneau and S. Preibusch. The password thicket: Technical and market failures in human authentication on the web. WEIS 2010, Cambridge, MA, USA.
[3] S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot,andR.Biddle.Ausabilitystudy and critique of two password managers. In 15th USENIX Security Symposium, pages 1–16, 2006.
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[4] D. Floreˆncio and C. Herley. A Large-Scale Study of Web Pass- word Habits. WWW 2007, Banff, Canada.
[5] D.Floreˆncio,C.Herley.PhishingandMoneyMules.IEEEWork- shop on Information Forensics and Security (WIFS 2010).
[6] C. Herley. So Long, And No Thanks for the Externalities: The Rational Rejection of Security Advice by Users. NSPW 2009, Oxford.
[7] R.Housley,T.Polk.PlanningforPKI.Wiley,2001.
[8] M. Jakobsson, S. Myers. Phishing and countermeasures: un- derstanding the increasing problem of electronic identity theft. Wiley-Interscience, 2006.
[9] M.JustandD.Aspinall.Personalchoiceandchallengequestions: a security and usability assessment. In Proceedings of the 5th Symposium on Usable Privacy and Security, pages 1–11. ACM, 2009.
[10] NIST. National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace. Why We Need It. http://www.nist.gov/nstic/ NSTIC-Why-We-Need-It.pdf. 2011.
[11] L.O’Gorman.Comparingpasswords,tokens,andbiometricsfor user authentication. Proc. IEEE 91(12):2019-2040, Dec. 2003.
[12] S.-T.Sun,Y.Boshmaf,K.Hawkey,K.Beznosov.Abillionkeys, but few locks: the crisis of web single sign-on. NSPW 2010.
[13] M. Weir, S. Aggarwal, M. Collins, H. Stern. Testing Metrics for Password Creation Policies by Attacking Large Sets of Revealed Passwords. ACM CCS 2010.
[14] J.Yan,A.Blackwell,R.Anderson,A.Grant.Passwordmemora- bility and security: empirical results. IEEE Security and Privacy 2(5):25-31, 2004.
[15] Y. Zhang, F. Monrose, M.K. Reiter. The Security of Modern Password Expiration: An Algorithmic Framework and Empirical Analysis. ACM CCS 2010.
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News commentary article
The text, not including inserted quotes, must be between 350 and 450 words long (include a word count). Papers of less than 350 words will not be graded.
Identify and explain an economic concept found in the article. If the article is about inflation, then you need to show that you understand what inflation actually is.
Use the article just to illustrate the concept.
Keep it simple and stick to economics you know and understand.
Basically you need to be able to analyze the information, not retell it.The more your paper presents a summary of the article, the lower your grade will go.
Adding a graph to your article for further illustration is often very helpful
There are 2 commentaries due this semester (see above for the exact dates).
.You need to provide a copy of the article or a link to it.
You need to cite each source in correct bibliographic form
If you use the internet to obtain a source, you must find out the date the article was originally published and put it into the correct form listed above, then include the URL afterwards (the address of the page).
You need to choose timely news
You may NOT use reference sources, encyclopedic entries, bank reports, etc.
The article you choose must be within a month or so of the date you write it.
Some of the best choices of articles come from sections of the newspaper other than the business pages—as long as they illustrate principles you have learned in this course.
45-50 points for meeting the above criteria
30- 44 points for retelling the article with little economic discussion
-5 points for not providing copy of the article or workable link to the article.
-5 points for over 450 words
papers of less than 350 words will be returned ungraded.
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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
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G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A
G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A
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NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
Question 6: General Question
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
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NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
Question 8: General Question
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
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MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
ASSESSMENT 2 – Essay
Written Assessment: You are required to write a formal academic essay. The essay will require an introduction, body, conclusion and reference list. All in-text citations must have a corresponding entry in the reference list. You are required to use APA (6’h ed.) for formatting your essay, citing evidence in your essay and constructing your reference list.
Due date: 17/9/2019 By 5pm AEST
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 1,500 +/- 10%
Purpose: The aim of this essay is to enable students to demonstrate an understanding of and ability to apply the Transtheoretical Model of Change (Stages of Change Model) within an evidence-based framework. In addition to this, students will identify components of Motivational Interviewing which could be utilised to assist with enabling a patient to change their health behaviours.
Learning outcomes assessed: This assessment task assesses L01, L02, L03, LO4
How to submit: Students will submit their assessment to LEO via Turnitin. You should submit your final draft to Turnitin well in advance of the due date (ideally, several days before) to ensure that you get your Turnitin originality report and have time to work on any issues identified by Turnitin.
Return of assignment: The assignment will be returned via Turnitin on LEO with a grade and feedback summary.
Task
Harry is a 58-year-old male who has been admitted to the surgical ward on which you are working for a hip replacement. You have been allocated to care for him for the next 4 days. He weighs 165kg and is due to have a hip replacement tomorrow. He states -I’ve been overweight for years and that’s just how I am. I love food and I am a chef, so I am around food all day long. My doctor says my weight is impacting on my health-.
Using the Transtheoretical Model of Change and Motivational Interviewing techniques, describe how you could support Harry through the Stages of Change cycle to maintenance.
Utilize evidenced based literature to support your discussion. For the purposes of this paper, while seminal work (early literature) may be referenced, current literature is a requirement.
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Choose a patient-care situation in which the RN should intervene and advocate for the patient. An example of such a situation might be when a patient has not been given complete informed consent.
Include the following in your paper:
Describe the clinical situation concisely and descriptively. It can be an actual situation or a hypothetical one.
Apply the Bioethical Decision Making Model to the specific clinical ethical situation that you choose. Address each section of the model in your paper.
Conclude with a discussion of nursing advocacy in the clinical setting and the nurse’s role as a patient advocate.
Your paper should be 4-5 pages.
You must reference and cite 1-2 scholarly sources other than your text. Include a title page and a reference page to cite your text and adhere to APA formatting.
Review the rubric for further information on how your assignment will be graded.
Due: Sunday, 11:59 p.m. (Pacific time)
Attached it is the Bioethical Decision Making Model
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From the list below, choose a subject you would like to research. This will be the topic of your thread:
· Long-term customer loyalty and relationships
· Global marketing
· The importance of marketing research
· Defending the practice of social media marketing
Threads:
· Title your thread according to your topic. Have a title page, and attach a Microsoft Word document with your thread, in addition to the normal discussion board.
· In at least 600 words, discuss your topic by addressing the following items:
o Explain the concept of the marketing management topic selected for your paper (Your textbook is a good source for this item).
o Examine at least 1 practical application/example for your topic.
o Formulate a question about your topic that your classmates will respond to.
o Have a separate heading for each of these 3 sections.
Replies:
· You must respond to at least 2 of your classmates’ threads with a reply of at least 250 words. Your replies must do the following:
· Answer the question posed in the thread.
· Respond to the practical example in the thread by sharing a practical example that differs from the one in the thread.
· Reference at least 1 scholarly source for each reply.
Note about Responses: Seek to understand your classmates’ threads (including the marketing management theory, the facts presented in their posts, their points of view, and their real-world examples). Aim to communicate your own understanding of relevant facts, your values, and your perspective of the topic.
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Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.
Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.
Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words
Question 16: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Describe the performance management process in your current organization( Tjx Companies Inc). What’s good about it? bad? How can it be improved?
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Matching
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.
Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry
Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods
Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus
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Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client Õs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.
Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.
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Write up to 500 words per essay. One of the consequences of the “flattening of the world” is that many U.S. manufacturing jobs have
moved to lower-wage countries like China. Yet according to Davidson (“Making it in America”), many of the automotive parts made by
Standard Motor Products are unlikely to move to China any time soon. Why? To what extent is the pattern of international production
described by Davidson consistent with Vernon’s Product-Life Cycle theory?
Question 20: Education
HIUS 420 PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
For the duration of this course, you will submit 2 PowerPoint presentations. You will be evaluated on the following points:
· Content of presentation.
· Organization of presentation.
· Appearance of presentation.
See the PowerPoint Presentation Grading Rubric for a full description of each point.
For this assignment, you will choose a topic from the PowerPoint Presentations Topics document. If you choose a topic that is not listed in the document, you must seek approval from the instructor. You will then develop a PowerPoint presentation with 10–12 slides. You must not exceed the assigned amount of slides. It is important for you to be concise and clear on the slides, and present relevant and organized information in the notes.
Each of the PowerPoint Presentations has 2 components:
A. Select a topic from the PowerPoint Submission Topics document, and develop your PowerPoint Submission.
a. You may use materials from the class, scholarly resources, and Internet sources; however, you must be careful to ensure that the source material is providing correct information.
b. Unless an image is copyrighted, you may use images from the Internet.
c. Use an attractive and effective background in your PowerPoint presentation.
d. The last slide of the presentation must be a bibliography. This will include all resources utilized. You must apply current Turabian formatting.
e. Do not include links to videos (e.g. YouTube), or to other websites.
B. Submit presentation notes that further develop each slide.
a. 250–300 words for each slide’s notes.
b. This submission may be in an extended outline format.
c. You must include your notes in the “Notes” section of each PowerPoint slide.
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Savannah University NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A
Savannah University NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A
Question 22: Health Care
MN502 Unit 7 / MN 502 Unit 7 / MN502 Unit7
Sustainability Focused Business Model of Practice
MN 502- Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Question 23: Health Care
MN502 Unit 3 / MN 502 Unit 3 / MN502 Unit3 | A+ work
MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Stewart Leadership…
Question 24: Health Care
MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Running head: PERSONAL PHILOSOPHY OF ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE
Personal Philosophy of the APN
MN502 Unit 3
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MN502-4: Develop a philosophy that supports advanced nursing practice reflecting the values, beliefs, and cultural competencies relative to nursing practice, science, and theory.
Now that you have spent the last 8 weeks discussing theory development and exploring models and philosophies that guide advance practice nursing, it is time for you to put it all together. In this Assignment, you will create a presentation using any form of presentation software (e.g., PowerPoint®, Prezi™, Movenote™, Powtoons™, Slidedog™, and so on). Your presentation should bring together the theory that best fits your concept of advance practice nursing, the model that you will use to translate this into practice, and your final philosophy of advance practice nursing related to your role after graduation.
Please remember that your presentation should contain slides that have bullet points. The bullets should number no more than four to six per slide. The bullet point is not written as a complete sentence. It contains key words. You, as the presenter will explain in depth what each bullet point means in the audio portion of the presentation. Slides may contain graphics, but should be uncluttered. Background and font colors should be of sufficient contrast to make reading them easy on the eyes. Attention to colors should be paid so that a person who is colorblind can easily read the presentation.
Assignment Details
The presentation should consist of a series of slides that include:
Title Slide: A title slide that identifies the title of the presentation and name of the student.
Introduction Slide: An introduction slide that includes brief information about you and your program track. The slide should also explain to the audience the purpose of the presentation.
Model Slides: The third and fourth slides will address your chosen model. The bullet points should consist of the specific characteristics of the model. You will need at least one citation that identifies where the model came from. Your audio will expound upon the model and what the characteristics mean. The fourth slide should include why you chose the model and how you will apply it in practice.
Theory Slides: The next three slides will focus on your chosen theory. The first slide should present your theory and why you chose it. The next slide would present the key concepts of the theory and how it has been used to date in past research no older than 5 years ago. The third slide will discuss how you will use this theory in practice as an advance practice nurse upon graduation.
Philosophy Slide: The next area will consist of one slide that presents your philosophy of advance practice nursing in the post-graduate role you will assume. The philosophy statement will consist of one to three sentences that distill the essence of what you believe advance practice nursing is and your conception of nursing as a profession. It is written in the first person and present tense. It is a personal statement of your beliefs about the profession of nursing. This should present guiding statements for your future practice in the advanced practice role. An example of a philosophy statement might read this way:Advanced practice nursing takes the art and science of nursing to a level of “other” and “self” interacting together to reach a state of optimal wellness guided with compassion and love for the culture of the “other.”
Graphical Slide: The next-to-last slide will be a graphical representation of how the model, theory, and your philosophy fit together.
Conclusion Slide: The last slide will be a conclusion that brings together everything you have presented. It is not a summary that just reiterates what you presented. It is a judgment about what you presented and bring the audience home, ending the presentation on a positive note about the future.
You will need supporting citations for your theory and model slides, and possibly for your philosophy, as appropriate. You will include the citations where appropriate and your very last slide will be a reference slide.
The total slide count should not exceed 15 slides. This does not include the reference slide(s) or the title slide.
Organization, documentation, references formatting guidelines must follow APA 6th edition: To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Home.
Total points: 300
Assignment Requirements
Before finalizing your work, you should:
be sure to read the Assignment description carefully(as displayed above);
consult the Grading Rubric(under the Course Home) to make sure you have included everything necessary; and
utilize spelling and grammar check to minimize errors.
Your writing Assignment should:
follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.);
be well ordered,logical,and unified, as well as original and insightful;
display superior content, organization, style, and mechanics; and
use APA 6th Edition format.
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PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)
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Question 27: Business
Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.
Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.
Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
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ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
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FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
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Magazine article summary: Select 1 article dealing with any sociological concept or issue. Summarize the main points of the article using your own words as well as including what interested you about the article and/ or what you learned. Additionally, you will need to identify the sociological concepts that are involved in the article you select, as well as give your thoughts on the implication these concepts are having, or will have on our society. The article may be selected only from: Newsweek, Time, National Geographic, or US News and World Report. This summary should be 2–3 pages long and must have a copy of the article attached to the summary or send the link. Sending the link does not count as proper APA documentation. MAKE sure to send the complete APA citation. Save the attachment as a Word or pdf file ONLY.
This inquiry assignment should be typed using black ink, 10 to 12 New Times Roman font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Additionally, papers are expected to be free of major grammatical errors as well as spelling errors.
Question 2: Sociology
1. Based on your reading, do you think it is ethical for sociologists to mislead research subjects or to NOT identify themselves as sociologists to their research participants?
2. What if identifying themselves would put sociologists in danger? What if it would put someone else in danger?
3. What if identifying themselves would destroy their ability to study a certain setting or group? Would this change your initial response? Why or why not?
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Question 3: Other
Assume that you are the project manager for an upcoming new information systems project designed to replace your organization’s old inventory management system. The server and database will also be upgraded. Name one risk of project derailment or failure that you might anticipate? How might you mitigate this risk? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used.
Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VII
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
3. Evaluate the process of developing an information system for an organization.
3.1 Assess the core activities and methodologies involved in building information systems.
3.2 Explain how organizations can align information systems development projects with business
strategies and goals.
3.3 Analyze the role of project management in developing information systems.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 13: Building Information Systems Chapter 14: Managing Projects
Unit Lesson
Developing Information Systems
Why do we develop new systems? The answer to this question is pretty evident if you think about it. No organization will remain the same for too long if it wants to be effective, efficient, and competitive. The concept of organizational change goes hand in hand with implementing new systems—regardless of whether you purchase new systems or develop them in-house. There is a whole discipline of quality management based on organizational change, process improvement, and business process redesign that supports the use of technology to improve business processes. For many organizations, the concept of business process redesign is never-ending due to the continual need for evaluating current processes, designing new processes, implementing new processes, and seeking to optimize processes (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
Let’s look at an office environment as an example. An office environment is not generally set up to be process efficient like an assembly line in an automobile assembly plant. However, people in office environments often get new information systems. Why is that? There are always ways of being more efficient in every type of workplace. There are always new ways to automate manual tasks—even just being able to access data faster is a plus. Most systems development comes from a desire to solve a problem. For example, how can we gather some specific data, manipulate it somehow, and output it into information that makes sense to us or that we can use to make good business decisions?
What is involved in the process of developing a new information system? There are some core activities involved in systems development. These activities or steps in the process might actually be common sense to some of us. Different theorists can break the systems development process into different steps, but for the purposes of this course, we will say that there are six basic activities.
Systems analysis – How do you know how to solve the problem unless you do some analysis first? What is the exact problem? What are the causes? What are the requirements? What are some potential solutions? Are these solutions feasible? Based on many factors including time, cost, benefits, and impacts, management will choose a solution.
Systems design – How do you get written user requirements into technical requirements? What are the system specifications? What is the functionality? What should the user involvement be? The systems design document should lay out the entire solution so that the developers can create the new system.
Programming – This is where a lot of the work happens because the developer has to take the technical document and create an operational system. In many cases, organizations will purchase
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
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UNIT VII STUDY GUIDE
Managing Information Systems Development
software packages from a vendor. If the tasks are standard or customUizNabITlex, tShTeUnDpuYrcGhUaIsDinEg a
system may be a good option.
Testing – There are different forms of testing. The developer will test as they go, making sure there is
functionality in the system. Then, the developer or a quality assurance (QA) representative will perform unit testing on the applications or modules one at a time. The next step would be to test the whole system to make sure everything works in unison. There will also likely be some regression testing, which means the tester will make sure no other systems are harmed by what this new system is doing. The final step is to test with the user to make sure the system is functional.
Conversion – This involves the process of going live with the new system. There are many ways of doing this. Two popular ways involve a phased approach or direct cutover. Many times, organizations can even run systems in parallel until they are ready to turn off the old system.
Production and maintenance – This step involves a review process over a period of time to make sure that there are no bugs that need to be addressed.
So, how does one manage all of this? Just like any process, there are ways to manage the software development process to make sure that the rules are followed and that the process is as efficient as possible. Depending on the size of the project, managers may need some tools to help document and manage the process. First, it is important to note that there are different methodologies for developing systems. Structured methodologies are top-down, step-by-step methodologies that use data entities whereby progress flows from one logical step to the next. Object-oriented development methodologies are more iterative and incremental. They use objects that are data accompanied with information/instructions concerning that data.
To manage the software development process, most development shops use a software systems development life cycle (SDLC) program. The original SDLC was called the waterfall method and was characterized by having formal stages where one stage had to be completed before the next one began. That sounds a bit rigid, does it not? It works well for smaller, less complex software projects, but it does not work well for larger, more complex projects. Since the development of the waterfall SDLC, there have been many other approaches that have been developed. For example, prototyping is a popular method where parts of the system are created and presented to the user for use and approval. If the user does not approve, then adjustments can be made and presented again. This method can be used in conjunction with the waterfall method and adds an iterative element. More recently, several methods have been developed that are more versatile and iterative in nature. One of the more popular methods is called agile development, which focuses on the quick delivery of small subprojects, each treated as a full project. Agile is used in many software development shops.
Just as technology has adapted over time to answer the needs of organizations, so have the methods and processes been used to support technology advancement and information systems development.
How does project management fit into this? You might ask yourself if you have an SDLC, why do you need project management? Broadly speaking, a project is a set of activities that work together to achieve some business objective. That business objective might be to build a new warehouse or it might be to build a new system. Either way, the project has to be managed. Nowadays, most complex systems go outside the boundaries of just software development. There may be hardware, network, server, database, and security considerations. You may even have prominent involvement from the business side of the organization. For the actual software development portion of the project, you can use an SDLC methodology to manage that process and project management to manage the overall project.
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There are some higher-level considerations for organizations and project management as well.
How can you align your systems projects with business goals? The organization’s business strategy drives the selection of projects. Many organizations will have a steering committee or similar facsimile to drive this selection process.
How can organizations link their information systems projects to their business plan? An information systems plan will help make the link between specific technology and corporate goals. The plan will list the corporate goals and specify how the information technology will support the achievement of those goals through current systems and new development and acquisitions.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
How can you assess a business value to the information systems that you areUdNeIvTelxopSiTngU?DTYhGeUvIaDluEe of a system is based on whether it provides enough returns to justify its cost. However, remember that there are
always tangible and intangible benefits when discussing value.
All of these are important considerations in the process of developing information systems for organizations.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following articles explore the factors of information system development project success which is relevant information to the subject in this unit. Our unit’s chapters cover both systems development and project management.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Haron, H., Gui, A., & Lenny, M. (2014). Factors influencing information technology project success: A case of university information system development division of Bina Nusantara University. International Journal Of Organizational Innovation, 755-765.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
For this activity, you will create a 5-10 minute video presentation.
Imagine that you are the owner of your own software development company. You have been asked by the local school board to provide a video tutorial for career day at the local high school. Your video will explain the steps involved in the information systems development process.
To create a viewable video, you will need a device with video capabilities and an account set up with www.youtube.com.
Once you have set up your Youtube account, you will need to create your video. You can create your video using any laptop w/webcam, smartphone, or tablet with video capabilities. Once you have created your video, you will upload it to Youtube via the device’s own capabilities or the Youtube website.
As you view your newly uploaded video on Youtube via your computer, there will be a Share button directly underneath the viewing panel. When you click on the Share button, a new set of options will display including Facebook and Twitter links. Beneath those links is the web URL for your video. Copy and paste that link into a Word document with a brief summary description of your video.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
Title
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Unit 7 Essay due 9/16/19 by 12 noon
Introduction:
The learning outcome for this unit involves the process of developing an information system (IS) for an organization. There are many factors involved in this process, including core activities and the methodologies for managing the process. Project management plays a part as well. Additionally, IS development does not happen in a silo; there is also the business side to consider as part of the process. All of these considerations are brought together and addressed in this assignment.
Assignment Instructions:
For this assignment, you will need to access the CSU Online Library to research two articles concerning information systems development and project management. Drawing on these two articles, your textbook, and other sources, write an essay that addresses the following:
Provide a well-formulated thesis statement in your introduction paragraph.
Explain how a business user could be involved in the core activities of building an information system.
Analyze how software development methodologies (such as agile development) can work in tandem with project management for the benefit of both information systems development projects and organizations.
Evaluate how project managers and/or IT managers can ensure that information system development projects are in alignment with business strategies and goals.
Summarize your findings in a five-page paper using proper APA formatting.
Your response must be at least five pages in length, not including the title and references pages, and in APA format. You are required to use the two outside articles. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA citations.
Question 4: Business
This paper is a personal paper (use I, my, he, she). You must write in first person not third person. Has to be 15 full pages! Write about Ethical issues as it relates to workplace code of conduct
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Using a mass balance, obtain an analytic expression that can be used for determining the time required to consume a finite fuel
Question 6: Health Care
Evidence-Based Project
Is there a difference between “common practice” and “best practice”?
When you first went to work for your current organization, experienced colleagues may have shared with you details about processes and procedures. Perhaps you even attended an orientation session to brief you on these matters. As a “rookie,” you likely kept the nature of your questions to those with answers that would best help you perform your new role.
Over time and with experience, perhaps you recognized aspects of these processes and procedures that you wanted to question further. This is the realm of clinical inquiry.
Clinical inquiry is the practice of asking questions about clinical practice. To continuously improve patient care, all nurses should consistently use clinical inquiry to question why they are doing something the way they are doing it. Do they know why it is done this way, or is it just because we have always done it this way? Is it a common practice or a best practice?
In this Assignment, you will identify clinical areas of interest and inquiry and practice searching for research in support of maintaining or changing these practices. You will also analyze this research to compare research methodologies employed.
To Prepare:
Review the Resources and identify a clinical issue of interest that can form the basis of a clinical inquiry.
Based on the clinical issue of interest and using keywords related to the clinical issue of interest, search at least four different databases in the Walden Library to identify at least four relevant peer-reviewed articles related to your clinical issue of interest.
Review the results of your peer-reviewed research and reflect on the process of using an unfiltered database to search for peer-reviewed research.
Reflect on the types of research methodologies contained in the four relevant peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry
Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:
Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Provide APA citations of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies
After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following:
The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format.
A brief (1-paragraph) statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.
A brief (1- to 2-paragraph) description of the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following: · Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest. · Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest. · Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected. · Provide APA citations of the four-peer reviewed articles you selected.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 36 (36%) – 40 (40%) The presentation clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and thoroughly describes in detail how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and clearly identifies in detail four or more research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of four or more peer-reviewed articles selected. Good 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation accurately identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of at least four peer-reviewed articles selected. Fair 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Poor 0 (0%) – 27 (27%) The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies less than four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles or is missing. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Feedback: Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following: · The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. · A brief statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest. · A brief description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. · A brief description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 45 (45%) – 50 (50%) The response accurately and clearly provides a full citation of each article in APA format. The responses accurately and thoroughly explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including a detailed explanation of the ethics of research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the aims of the research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the research methodology used, and clearly identify the type of methodology used with specific and relevant examples. The responses accurately and clearly describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including a detailed explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provide a complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources related to the selection of articles and two or three course-specific resources. Good 40 (40%) – 44 (44%) The response accurately provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses accurately explain the selection of these peer-reviewed articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including an accurate explanation of ethics. The responses accurately describe the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. The responses accurately describe the research methodology used and type of methodology used with some examples. The responses accurately describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including an explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles selected. The responses provide an accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource related to the selection of the peer-reviewed articles. The response integrates at least one outside resource and two or three course-specific resources. Fair 35 (35%) – 39 (39%) The response inaccurately or vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses inaccurately or vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including the explanation of the ethics. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the aims of the research of each article. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the research methodology used and the type of methodology used, with only some examples. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provided vaguely or inaccurately synthesize outside resources related to the selection of the articles. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the responses provided. Poor 0 (0%) – 34 (34%) The response inaccurately and vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format or is missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue, including the explanation of ethics of research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the aims of the research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the research methodology used, the type of methodology used with no examples present, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the strengths of each of the methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of the methodology, or they are missing. The responses provide a vague and inaccurate synthesis of outside resources related to the selection of the articles and fail to integrate any resources to support the responses provided, or is missing. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided, which delineates all required criteria.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided, which delineates all required criteria. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated but are brief and not descriptive. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity less than 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion is provided. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (one or two) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (three or four) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Required Readings
Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.
Chapter 2, “Asking Compelling Clinical Questions” (pp. 33–54)
Chapter 21, “Generating Evidence Through Quantitative and Qualitative Research” (pp. 607–653)
Grant, M. J., & Booth, A. (2009). A typology of reviews: An analysis of 14 review types and associated methodologies. Health Information and Libraries Journal, 26, 91–108. doi:10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x. Retrieved from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoare, Z., & Hoe, J. (2013). Understanding quantitative research: Part 2. Nursing Standard, 27(18), 48–55. doi:10.7748/ns2013.01.27.18.48.c9488. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/publication/239615585_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_2
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoe, J., & Hoare, Z. (2012). Understanding quantitative research: Part 1. Nursing Standard, 27(15), 52–57. doi:10.7748/ns2012.12.27.15.52.c9485. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Juanita_Hoe/publication/235369193_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_1/links/…
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Walden University Library. (n.d.-a). Databases A-Z: Find the best library databases for your research. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/az.php
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Walden University Library. (n.d.-b). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Boolean terms. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/boolean
Walden University Library. (n.d.-c). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Introduction to keyword searching. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/searching-basics
Centers for Research Quality. (2015a, August 13). Overview of qualitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/IsAUNs-IoSQ
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Centers for Research Quality. (2015b, August 13). Overview of quantitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/cwU8as9ZNlA
Laureate Education (Producer). (2018). Review of research: Anatomy of a research study[Mutlimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Schulich Library McGill. (2017, June 6). Types of reviews [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/5Rv9z7Mp4kg
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Assignment 1: Advanced Health Service Planning (92295) Spring 2019 Part 1: Understanding Models of Care (500-750 words)
1. Develop an understanding of ‘models of care’ by responding to the following short answer questions using reliable evidence to support your responses:
o What are models of care?
o Why are models of care important in health service planning?
o How specific are models of care in the health sector in terms of population groups,
settings, a health problem, workforce, type of care? Identify and describe an example of a published model of care for each of these domains and briefly explain the model used in each and their benefits for the health system and patients.
Part 2: Comparative Analysis of Models of Care (1750-2000 words)
Student allocation (see class list for your assessment number)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Older People
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Obstetrics (Expectant Mothers)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Rural Dwellers
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Children
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Homeless People
Context
The large Health District covers a region of over 1 million people with two age groups predominating i.e. under 25 years and over 55 years. The region has a complex mix of outer regional, low density suburban development areas and highly urbanised areas spread across thirteen Local Government Areas. The population includes people from over 100 different culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds and a greater than average number of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples.
The health services currently provided across the District include population health programs and services; ambulatory, primary health care and community services; hospital inpatient and outpatient services, and allied, imaging and pathology services, among others. Facilities include six public hospitals and a range of outpatient and community health services, as well as over 50 private general medical practices. Other facilities located in the region include a growing number of private allied and surgical health care facilities and two Primary Health Networks. There is a high and growing number of private residential aged care facilities.
Identify the most appropriate model of care for the population you are assigned that currently does or could best support the following aspects:
Clinical co-management (medical, allied health, nursing, etc.)
Health care integration (across multiple facilities of the local health system)
Public healthcare cost reduction
Patient, family/caregiver needs and support
Timely care
Through a comparative analysis, provide reasoned arguments supported by reliable evidence and/or real-world examples for selecting the models i.e. identify the rationale behind your decision by comparing your selected model with other models of care available for your population. Contextualise information in your response in relation to the health district context given above. NB: Students must analyse primary papers, not review papers, as review papers do not provide the detail needed to adequately compare models).
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A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.
Question 9: Business
you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.
Question 10: Statistics
A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
Question 11: Finance
Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?
Question 12: Health Care
Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline.
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Instruction
The student will complete a theological essay that will address the relationship of human sinfulness to an aspect of the doctrine of salvation. Students will examine one of the biblical images of salvation (adoption, conversion, regeneration, redemption, reconciliation, justification, election, sanctification, or glorification) and define and describe the doctrine with its biblical, historical and theological contours as well as discuss how this image of salvation relates to and addresses the problem of sin. Finally, the student will apply the implications of this doctrine to the Christian life and for the student’s chosen vocation. The essay will be 750-1000 words and the formatting should be compatible with your current degree program.
Question 14: Mathematics
MATHEMATICAL METHODS FOR ENGINEERS 1 (MATH 1063) CALCULUS 1 (MATH 1054
Problem Solving Exercise 1
PleaseconsulttheCourseOutlinefordetailsofhowtosubmityoursolutions,andpenal- ties for late submission.
Note: You need to submit your solutions via the online submission tool on the web site. If you have not done this before, try it out well in advance of the due date so that you have time to address any problems. Consult the University’s ITHelpDesk if you have problems with submission.
Put your name on every page of your submission. You may type your submission, or write it by hand.
If you photograph your solutions to make a digital file, and the image is difficult to read (poor focus, poor lighting), your mark will suffer a penalty. The marker may not be able to award many marks at all, if they cannot see what you have done. It is your responsibility to ensure that your work is legible, so look critically at what you are handing in before submitting it.
Your solutons should be complete, in that they should explain how you obtained the final answer or answers. A reader of your work should be able to understand the entire process of what you have done.
For example: Find lim x2 − 1. x→1 x−1
The correct answer is 2, but that by itself is not very helpful and would score low marks. It could have been a lucky guess!
A more worthy solution would be:
lim x2 − 1 = lim (x − 1)(x + 1) (factorise numerator)
x→1 x−1 x→1 x−1
= lim(x+1) (maycancelx−1̸=0sincex̸=1)
x→1 = 2.
Give your solutions plenty of space and keep them tidy. Don’t squeeze things in at the bottom of a page – start a new page. You want to make life easy for the reader of your work.
If you receive help in solving a question, you need to disclose this information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you received help, and who gave you the help. This is important in order to avoid plagiarism charges. Likewise, if you offered help to someone, you need to disclose that information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you offered help, and who benefited from your help. On the first page of your submission you also need to reference any sources you used other than our textbook, the tutorial exercises, and the lecture recordings for our course. This includes online sources.
1
1. From first principles, find the derivative of the function f (x) = 4×3 − x2 − 5. That is,
find
lim f(x + h) − f(x). h→0 h
2. Using the rules of differentiation (that is, not from first principles) find the derivatives of each of the following functions. If you use the product rule, quotient rule or chain rule, be sure to indicate where you have done that. Do not simplify your answers.
(a) f(x)=tanx2 +2x.
(b) f(x)=(x2 +1)(x3 −1).
(c) g(x) = x3 − 1. x2 + 1
sinx (d) h(x)= 1+cosx.
[10 marks]
3. Find the domain and range for each of the functions f, g, and h below, justifying your answers. Use radians for trigonometric functions.
(a) f(x) = 1 , (b) g(x) = cos x, (c) h(x) = f(g(x)). 1−x2
[4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16 marks]
4. (a)
[3 + 2 + 4 = 9 marks]
Verify that the line y = −2x − 1 goes through the point (1, −3) and that it is a tangent to the graph of y = x2. [Hint: There should be precisely one point common to the line and the parabola, so precisely one solution to −2x − 1 = x2.]
(b) There is another line through point (1, −3) that is a tangent to y = x2. Find its equation, and the coordinates of the point where it touches the parabola.
[4 + 5 = 9 marks]
2
A civil engineering student wants to understand how water flows out of a reservoir through a drain hole at its bottom. She decides to use calculus to build a model of the water flow. If V (t) represents the volume of water inside the reservoir at time t, she thinks it is reasonable to say that the more water there is in the reservoir, the faster the
water will flow out. The quantity dV represents the rate at which the volume of water dt
in the reservoir changes. At time t = 0 the reservoir contains V (0) = 500 litres of water. After some thought, the student settles on the model
dV =−kV(t), dt
where k > 0 is a fixed (but unknown) constant.
(a) Why did she put a negative sign in her equation? Justify.
(b) After doing some theoretical work, she concludes that V (t) = 500e−kt is the solution to the model. Verify that she is correct.
(c) How could the value of k be determined?
(d) Criticise the model: In your opinion, does this model accurately reflect how water
flows out of a reservoir? Justify.
[2 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 11 marks]
A popular brand of chocolate (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toblerone) is sold in the form of a long bar with a triangular cross-section. You are asked to design a box for this chocolate bar. The cross-section of the box is to be an equilateral triangle. The surface area of the box is to be 500 cm2. The volume is to be as large as possible.
Model this problem, but don’t carry out the calculations needed to solve it. You may need to use some simple geometry.
Your answer should include
(a) a labelled sketch of the box,
(b) statements defining appropriate variables (with units),
(c) a formula for a function that would have to be maximised or minimised, and (d) equations that encode any relationships between your variables.
[3 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 12 marks]
[Total 67 marks]
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Discuss the following using a maximum of 20 pages and a minimum of 10 good quality references (there is no maximum reference count). The paper should be laid out and properly cited in APA format. You will submit a brief comparison of how Canada and Iran differ or are similar in any aspect relevant to the business environment as covered in this class. In this paper, you will: Define, explain the macro environment and how it differs and same. Only looking between Canada and Iran, select one industry in Iran or Canada that has been negatively impacted by any political agreements. Explain the negative or positive impact of this agreement on that industry. If you were a manager in the industry that you identified having been negatively affected by a political agreement, using concepts from the course, what would you recommend to your senior managers as a possible plan to change the negative impact to either a neutral or positive impacts?
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Instruction
Three pages. As a school leader, how would you plan for professional development for your campus? What steps would be involved? Would you use regularly scheduled staff meetings as part of your program? What is your analysis of the value and use of online school district and campus staff development?
Short Paper Rubric
Low Medium High Comments
Elements of Writing Many grammar or mechanical errors detract from the writing.
Minimum grammar or mechanical errors.
No grammar or mechanical errors.
APA Style Does not follow APA style, e.g. no cover page, reference page, or citations not appropriate Minimum APA errors No APA errors
Sources No source cited Uses only the textbook as a source Uses at least one source in addition to the textbook
Application of theory or law
(graphic organizer) Does not apply the theory/law to a practical situation Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a simple way Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a detailed manner
Response Response minimally addresses the topic but is not clear and logical. Response addresses the topic but lacks coherence and flow. Response addresses the topic, has an introduction and closure, and transitions easily between paragraphs.
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Short Paper 4 : Campus Curricular Programs How would you use sound, research-based practice in the development, implementation, and evaluation of campus curricular, co-curricular, and extracurricular programs? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.
Question 18: Education
Instruction
Short paper #1: Data-driven Decision Making How would you implement procedures for gathering, analyzing, and using data from a variety of sources for informed campus decision making? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.
Question 19: Law
Instruction
Select a topic of your choice related to the management of criminal justice professionals and write a 5 page research paper.
Question 20: Other
Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Question 21: Computer Science
Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.
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Part 1: Initial Plan budget. (Using math for decision-making)
You are a manager with budget authority for a new IT project that is being developed for your department. The project is being developed internally by the company IT staff. You are developing a budget for the project. In this scenario, you will be in integrating information systems and information technology to progress an organization toward their organizational objectives. Consider the information given to determine how much capital you will need to raise to complete this project successfully. Your goal is determine the budget needed to complete the project within the stated timeline and maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract. Note that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project. In this case, you have wisely decided to add a 10% strategic reserve to the development phase of the project.
Here are some calculations related to this project. Answer the following 10 questions. You can use Microsoft Excel to do this work; however you must show your answers and detailed calculations.
Part 2: Writing Assignment to explain the tradeoffs during the life of development phase of the project. You will not perform any mathematical calculations for this section of the Assignment. Conduct research to ensure that you understand this concept of the project management triangle. Do not perform any calculations for this portion.
Given:
· IT Project Timeline: 1 January 2016– – 31 March 2017
· 3 weeks of holiday time is planned off during this timeline
· Do not forget the concept of a leap year
· Assume vacation weeks are not paid for the purpose of this problem, as vacation pay is paid and allocated by a separate corporate budget funding source different from the IT Project funding source
· If total weeks are computed as a non-whole number of weeks, round to the nearest week
· Carry out items to the thousands place for fractions (for example 1/3 = 0.333) prior to continuing calculations, then round up or down as needed to whole numbers for final dollar values
· 40 hour work week is the standard contracted work week
· No overtime is allowed to keep costs down
· 10 managers
· 100 union employees
· Manager salary is $100 per hour
· Union salary is $35 per hour
· Systems planning cost is $50K
· System development cost is $1.5M
· System fielding cost is $250K
· System Maintenance (5 year contract, amortized, payments begin at project start) = $5.0M
· Strategic reserve, when (if) applied to the timeline, should also be applied to the maintenance costs during the timeframe of the timeline. However maintenance costs beyond the timeline have been negotiated as a firm fixed priced contract and no longer require the use of strategic reserve in addition to the negotiated price
Answer the following questions: (Show your work):
1. How many work weeks are in the project timeline, where work will actually occur?
2. How much money does the team cost per hour?
3. How much money does the team cost per week?
4. How much money does the team cost for the duration of the IT Project?
5. Remembering that maintenance is amortized, and that payments begin during the first month of the project, and that all other system costs are assigned to the project; what is the total systems cost through the timeline completion on 31 March 2017?
6. What is the total project cost through completion on 31 March 2017?
7. After project completion on 31 March 2017, what will be the remainder cost for maintenance that will still need to be budgeted and managed?
8. Forecasting a budget with no strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
9. With the addition of a ten % strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
10. Considering that you decide to budget using the strategic reserve, and you need to budget for the entire maintenance cost, what is the total amount of capital you will need to raise to complete the project successful during the timeline, and then maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract, noting that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project?
Written Portion – Discussion of the project management triangle
An example situation:
The project manager has come to you with the following:
1. Some of your employees who will be using the system have suggested changes which will end up improving the system but will take longer to develop and implement. She feels that they would be beneficial changes.
2. Two of her developers and one of her managers have left to work for another company. The company has a hiring freeze so she is unable to replace them. This will most likely add time to the project but it will also result in small savings in terms of labor cost.
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You are also the aware of the following information:
1. When the budget was approved there was a strategic reserve to allow for contingencies.
2. You have some additional discretionary funds which you were hoping to be able to use them for bonuses for you employees at the end of the year.
3. You have a lot of faith in the project and believe that it will eventually improve the productivity of your employees. He also realize that it will take time after the project is fully implemented for this productivity to be realized and that there is a likelihood that it will actually decrease for a couple of months while people are learning the new system.
4. You know that you have a number of people in your department that are nearing retirement and are not in favor of having to learn a new system.
To meet the requirements of this Assignment, write an APA style paper in which you take the role of manager to discuss the pros and cons of making any changes to the plan regarding the initial goals of performance, cost, and schedule. For the paper do not do any calculations. The facts presented are examples of the types of situations that you might encounter. You do not have to address these situations.
Limit your discussion to the tradeoffs among these three areas. How do performance, cost, and schedule interact? Discuss the concept of the project triangle, also called the triple constraint, or iron triangle.
Ensure you turn in your unit Project as a single Microsoft Word document, in APA format, with a cover page and reference page citing at least two online references on the unit concept topics and the eBook as a reference. Your work should compose 2–3 pages of content (double spaced, 12 point Times New Roman font).
This Assignment addresses the following outcomes:
MT300-1: Describe the role managers play in integrating information systems and information technology (IS/IT) within an organization.
MT300-2: Solve business problems using information systems.
GEL- 2.3: Solve real-world problems using mathematical skills
Your paper must be double-spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, and follow APA 6th edition format. You are required to include at least two references using the appropriate APA format. A title page and a reference page are required.
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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Question 24: Economics
Match the words with definitions
The quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded
Direct relationship between price and quantity produced
Increase in price of one will cause increased demand for the other
Inverse relationship between price and quantity purchased
Products usually used together
Hot dogs, Spam, or Raman noodles
This is intended to keep landlords from charging unreasonably high rents
Consumers buy more when incomes increase.
The quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied
prices are not allowed to fall below a certain level
Complementary good
Shortage
Price Ceiling
Normal Good
Law of Supply
Inferior Good
Law of Demand
Surplus
Substitute good
Price Floor
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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.
Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry
Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods
Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus
Question 26: Health Care
NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%
NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%
NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)
NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)
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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.
Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.
Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car
Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.
Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”
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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
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Assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3. Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4. Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5. Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
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Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below. In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style. Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1. Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2. Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3. Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study. Would you have included more and/or different variables? Explain your answer.
4. Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study. What would you have done differently in this case? Explain your answer.
5. Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6. Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.
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BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
Question 4: General Questions
HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 8 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 McClure stated that the founders did not approve of slavery, but accepted the compromises in the Constitution because
Question 2 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 3 McClure clearly states that slavery was the source of the war.
Question 4 According to McClure, the basis of state sovereignty was established in
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what did Northerners tend to name battles after?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the Northern reaction to the Federal Draft Conscription?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what happened to Jefferson Davis after the fall of the Confederacy?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, it was the deeper issue of power between the State and the Nation that created the conflict that led to war.
Question 2 McClure stated that the Civil War was the result of
Question 3 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 4 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was the President of the Confederate States?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was one reason the Emancipation Proclamation was issued?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was the last capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 2 According to McClure, Jefferson believed in the supreme power of
Question 3 McClure stated that it was necessary for the Constitution to be a series of compromises.
Question 4 According to McClure and Jefferson, which of the following was NOT a danger of centralized government:
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which state did the upper Southern states look to as a model?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Sherman’s March to the Sea located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what did the Civil War do for Northern businesses?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who were some of the last soldiers to put down their arms at the end of the Civil War?
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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 7 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 3 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who was responsible for the caning of Senator Sumner?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 2 Why did the Mexican government think they could win a war against the United States?
Question 3 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where did John Brown’s raid take place?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the key issue preventing Northern and Southern states from ever truly reaching compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 6 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who is the founder of the Church of Jesus Christ Latter Day Saints?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what are “ardent spirits”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?
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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 5 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the name of one of the ships that Jefferson sent to fight the Barbary Pirates?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was the longest serving Supreme Court Justice as well as a cousin of Thomas Jefferson?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who was the President during the Missouri Compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these was a nickname Andrew Jackson earned during his Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the practice of bringing goods to the Caribbean, “paper unloading” them, paying customs duties, and sending them to Europe?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who served as Thomas Jefferson’s First Lady?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s “peaceable coercion”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what professions did Jackson occupy before being elected to the Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, where was the USS Philadelphia captured and grounded?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, when was Jefferson’s embargo lifted?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why did the United States remain neutral in South American matters until 1822?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these authors did NOT rise to popularity during this time period?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was the new party on the rise in Jacksonian America?
HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 4 Liberty University Complete Answers
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Which of the following is NOT one of the qualifications for becoming President of the United States?
What does Amendment Four prevent?
Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Which is most likely NOT a reason that the Federalist position ultimately prevailed?
The first sentence of the Constitution states: “We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.” The words “insure domestic Tranquility” may have been a reference to
On June 21, 1788, which state’s vote gave Federalists the nine states needed to ratify the Constitution?
Many Anti-Federalists were concerned that the Constitution did not
Question 1 How many witnesses are necessary in order to convict someone of treason?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 4 What does Amendment Four prevent?
Question 5 The Ninth Amendment makes clear that the rights brought out in the Bill of Rights are the only rights citizens of the United States have.
Question 6 According to the video, our American system of government was formed by what decision?
Question 7 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following caused issues between American merchant shipping and the British?
Question 1 Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 To which branch of government does the Constitution grant sole power of taxation?
Question 4 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 5 Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Question 6 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who requested that Madison draft a new constitution to replace the Articles of Confederation?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following groups sympathized with the French although they disagreed with the excesses of the Revolution?
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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 3 Liberty University Complete Answers
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Question 1 Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2 The Declaration of Independence claimed that the king had abdicated his right to governing the colonies because he
Question 3 According to the video presentation, most Americans understood
Question 4 According to the video presentation, Thomas Paine felt that who or what should rule in America?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the primary form of communication in the 18th century?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, where did the second Virginia Convention meet?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 1
Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2
In every case of the violation of English rights listed in the Declaration of Independence, the colonists had
Question 3
According to the video presentation, what was the most quoted source in literature of the Era of the American Revolution?
Question 4
According to the video presentation, how did Chief Justice Earl Warren describe the relationship between Christianity and the United States?
Question 5
According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6
According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, what did the establishment of the Committees of Correspondence pave the way for?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 1
Many of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence involved
Question 2
One of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence was that he fundamentally altered longstanding ___________________.
Question 3
According to the video presentation, people at the time of the Revolution saw a connection to
Question 4
According to the video presentation, who is a Founding Father who the British thought was the key instigator of the American Revolution?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, which colony started the intercolonial movement of the Committees of Correspondence?
Question 8
According to the video presentation, what was the policy passed after the Boston Tea Party to make Bostonians repay the East India Trading Company for the tea that was destroyed?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, why did the British want to move the war further south?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did the Revolutionary War end?
HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 2 Liberty University Complete Answers
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Question 1 Colonial assemblies were needed to deal with such responsibilities as
Question 2 The attempts of the British to seize Fort Duquesne were part of a larger ambition to gain control of
Question 3 The Proclamation of 1763 restricted English colonists to territory
Question 4 What aspect of the New England economy grew most dramatically in the eighteenth century?
Question 5 Which of the following events happened last?
Question 6 The Great Awakening was a movement that reflected a renew interest in
Question 7 The term Anglicization refers to
Question 8 Who were the Old Lights?
Question 9 Which region of colonial America was the most ethnically diverse?
Question 10 In what way did the slave codes of the mainland British colonies ensure the continuity of the institution
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 3 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how did the fashionable world set itself apart?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, once a luxury good became common, what happened?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was Samuel Davies?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, in which region of the American colonies did Baptists become predominant?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what would the College of New Jersey later come to be called?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, when did the TransAtlantic slave trade begin?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 3 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how was wealth defined prior to the 17 th century?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, where was conspicuous consumption most conspicuous?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the name of the first independent Baptist church?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was the first independent Baptist church located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, which college was founded in 1693 as an Anglican school?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, the concept of race based slavery began when?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?
HIUS 221 Mindtap Activities 1 Liberty University Complete Answers
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Module 1: The Atlantic World, Exploration and Early Settlement
1.1 Picturing History
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” and the information in bubbles on the map reveal the estimated native population in North America to be million. This number between 1492 and 1800 by 2000.
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” reveals that the estimated native population steadily decreased from approximately 4.4 million in 1492 to well below 1 million in. Following this decline, the native population until about 1900. After 1900, the native population 2000. During this same period, the estimated nonnative population increased by some 200 million
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the pie chart titled “World population estimates for 1500 (in millions)” reveals that the Americas contained some million people in 1500. Based on the figure corresponding to the information in bubbles on the map, 5.85 million people resided in, which is much less than the population in Mexico and slightly larger than the population in North America at this time. As seen on the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000,” the estimated decreased dramatically between 1492 and 1800 but rebounded slightly during the twentieth century.
1.2 A Growing World
When discussing European efforts to expand trade networks between the mid-fifteenth and late sixteenth centuries, historians refer to this period as what?
The Age of Exploration
The Opening of the Silk Road
The Mapping of the Atlantic World
The network of land routes between Europe and Asia was known as what?
The Road to Constantinople
The Mediterranean Thoroughfare
The Silk Road
Select the correct response from the dropdown menu.
In mid-fifteenth- through late-sixteenth-century Europe, men and women performed labor roles specific to their
1.3 Native American and West African Societies before Contact
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Peaked between 300 and 900 AD
Empire consisted of dozens of states
Arrived in the Valley of Mexico around 1200 AD
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Was in decline by the time European explorers arrived
Exercised vast power in Mesoamerica for about three hundred years before European explorers arrived
Developed wealth by conquering neighboring peoples
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Developed a society based on military strength
Established a civilization in the Valley of Mexico
Developed an economy based partly on trade
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HIUS 222 Content Quiz 8 Liberty University Complete Answers
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How did President Reagan influence defense spending?
2 out of 2 points
President George W. Bush received a mandate from the 2000 presidential election.
2 out of 2 points
What happened to President Clinton because of the Lewinsky affair and his testimony about it?
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning Bill Clinton is true?
2 out of 2 points
Where did the United States fight wars between 2001 and 2013?
How did Dr. Falwell and his work with Moral Majority influence how Americans think about religion and government involvement?
2 out of 2 points
Why did Dr. Falwell found Moral Majority?
2 out of 2 points
Who was Jerry Falwell, Sr.?
2 out of 2 points
How did the Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev signal his desire to change past policies in 1988?
2 out of 2 points
Which area did Jimmy Carter stress in his foreign policies?
2 out of 2 points
What Iraqi decision led to the Gulf War of 1991?
2 out of 2 points
What did Iranians who took American hostages demand in return for their release?
2 out of 2 points
Where were challenges to communist rule the least successful in the late 1980s?
2 out of 2 points
How did Jimmy Carter appeal to voters in 1976?
What was the “war on terror” a response to?
2 out of 2 points
Where was the term “terrorism” first used?
2 out of 2 points
Why did the House vote to impeach President Clinton in 1998?
What is true about the Human Genome Project?
2 out of 2 points
Which nation makes up the third crux in what President George W. Bush described as the “axis of evil” with Iraq and Iran?
2 out of 2 points
What was unique about the 1996 election?
What issue undermined the popularity of George H. W. Bush more than any other? Why?
Question 1 President Carter decided against attempting a military rescue to free the hostages in Iran.
Question 3 Troubling aspects of the Watergate scandal included all of the following EXCEPT for
Question 4 How did Republicans portray liberals to working class voters in the 1980s?
Question 6 The “safe sex” message gained currency in the wake of
Question 7 In the election of 1972, Richard Nixon easily defeated the antiwar candidate
Question 9 In a speech later called the “malaise speech,” President Carter expressed his feeling that
Question 10 President George H. W. Bush’s call for U.S. military involvement in the Persian Gulf came when
Question 11 Which of the following individuals was NOT part of George W. Bush’s administration?
Question 13 Violence ensued when an allwhite jury acquitted the officers in the beating of Rodney King.
Question 15 President Bush muted his response to the fall of the Berlin Wall because
Question 16 President Obama was the first president to consider a comprehensive plan to provide all Americans with health care.
Question 17 In the late 1990s, how did President Clinton choose to fight alQaeda and prevent potential terrorist attacks?
Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America From Reconstruction Through the 1920’s
Question 14: History
Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points
You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidentsfrom the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.
Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:
Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.
This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a narrative and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit two (2) sections for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Note: For additional information on how to submit more than one file for an assignment, follow the instructions in the document “How to Submit Multiple Files for an Assignment”, located here.
Imagine that you have just been hired by a new company as the director of the HR department. You have been tasked to hire a new secretary for the department and to develop an employee compensation and benefits package that will be used for that position upon hire. Develop a PowerPoint presentation to present this information to your Vice President. Go to the Bureau of Labor Statistics’ (BLS) Website, located at www.bls.gov, for information regarding organizations and pay in your geographical area.
Section 1: NarrativeWrite a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
1. Choose the type of organization for which you are designing the package.
2. Develop an employee compensation and benefits package for this new position. Support your ideas for the compensation/benefits package.
3. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Section 1 of your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Question 16: Biology
In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.
Question 17: Biology
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.
Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Question 20: Urban Planning and Policy
Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?
Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Question 22: Business
About Your Signature Assignment
This signature assignment is designed to align with specific program student learning outcome(s) in your program. Program Student Learning Outcomes are broad statements that describe what students should know and be able to do upon completion of their degree. The signature assignments might be graded with an automated rubric that allows the University to collect data that can be aggregated across a location or college/school and used for program improvements.
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics
Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, say you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial
Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.
Provide a 1,600-word detailed, statistical report including the following:
Explain the context of the case
Provide a research foundation for the topic
Present graphs
Explain outliers
Prepare calculations
Conduct hypotheses tests
Discuss inferences you have made from the results
This assignment is broken down into four parts:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis (3-4 paragraphs)
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.
State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?
Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?
Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?
Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics (3-4 paragraphs)
Examine the given data.
Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).
Identify any outliers in the data.
Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.
Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.
Part 3 – Inferential Statistics (2-3 paragraphs)
Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.
Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.
Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations (1-2 paragraphs)
Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.
Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.
Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car
Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.
Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”
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Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Review the article, “Personal Electronic Devices in the Workplace” Balancing Interests in a BYOD World.” Discuss the reasons why companies should or should not consider a BYOD program. Consider issues of security and privacy in your discussion.
Question 25: Business
Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?
3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?
Question 26: Business
The most popular way for international expansion is for a local firm to acquire foreign companies. One of the most benefits for international expansion is global distribution capability that helps expanding the market share.
There are different implications of running a company that is within or outside of the European Union. If you were the head of a firm based in the United States, please answer the following questions, providing the rationale behind your answers:
Would you seek to acquire a company within the European Union or outside of it? Why?
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the choice you made.
Describe the advantages and disadvantages inherent in the option you did not choose.
Explain why an MNC may invest funds in a financial market outside its own country.
Explain why some financial institutions prefer to provide credit in financial markets outside their own country.
APA format. Reference page needed, not inclued in page count. All information needs to be cited
Chapter 2 Vocabulary Name:
Fill in the parentheses with the letter of the term being described.
g. Economic system
n. Command System
l. Market
j. Product markets
o. Invisible hand
f. Market System
k. Resource Markets
h. Households
i. Circular flow
m. Laissez-faire capitalism
1. ( m ) Individual decision making with little or no government interference.
2. ( ) Self-interest helps people provide goods that are in demand by society (they will sell.)
3. ( ) Economic decisions are made by central planners, as the Communists did.
4. ( ) Place in the circular flow where resources are provided.
5. ( f ) Economic decisions are made by individual buyers and sellers
6. ( ) Where buyers and sellers come together to exchange goods or services.
7. ( ) Markets where businesses provide output for household consumption, like a Winn Dixie
8. ( ) Markets where households provide their resources for businesses to use in production, like an employment office or realtor.
9. ( ) Shows the flow of resources from households to businesses through resource markets and the flow of money from households to businesses through output markets.
10. ( ) How a society is organized to make the 4 basic production decisions.
Assignment 4 Current and Future Economic Issues Impacting Health Care Sector
Use the Internet or Strayer online databases to research five (5) of what you believe to be the most important and pressing economic issues that confront the United States healthcare industry today and will continue to do so into the next decade.
Provide a review of these issues in a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
Provide a detailed description of the issues that you have researched.
Analyze the most significant economic effects of the researched issues on healthcare industry. Provide at least two (2) examples of these issues to support your response.
Suggest specific strategies that relevant entities / stakeholders may use to address the selected issues from an economic perspective. Justify your response.
Determine the strategic manner in which the United States can apply best economic best practices from other countries in addressing these issues.
Assess the likelihood of government and or private sector effectively addressing the issues.
Use at least ten (10) current references. Five (5) of these references must be from current peer-reviewed sources to support and substantiate your comments and perspectives.
Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
The development of using slaves for labor
Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.
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Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models
Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources
Question 33: Health Care
NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+
NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+
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Signature Week 6 QNT561 final Signature Assignment
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics
Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, imagine you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial
Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.
Provide a 1,600-word detailed, four part, statistical report with the following sections:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.
State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?
Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?
Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?
Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics
Examine the given data.
Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).
Identify any outliers in the data.
Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.
Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.
Part 3 – Inferential Statistics
Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.
Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.
Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations
Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
South University NSG 5003 Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
a.
Down syndrome
c.
Retinoblastoma
b.
Wilms tumor
d.
Neuroblastoma
ANS:
Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common genetic defect linked to the development of acute leukemia. Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic and myelogenous leukemia and a higher risk for developing acute megakaryocytic leukemia. No current research supports a link between the other stated congenital malformations and acute leukemia.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 444
2. When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed?
a.
During infancy
c.
After diagnosis of a chronic illness
b.
At peak times of physical growth
d.
After an acute illness
ANS:
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. No current research supports the other options.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 443
3. Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
a.
Breast cancer
c.
Vaginal cancer
b.
Leukemia
d.
Lymphoma
ANS:
DES has been identified as a transplacental chemical carcinogen; a small percentage of the daughters of women who took DES during pregnancy developed adenocarcinomas of the vagina. No current research supports a link between the drug and other cancers.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445
4. Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
a.
40%
c.
60%
b.
50%
d.
80%
ANS:
Currently, more than 80% of children diagnosed with cancer are cured.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445
5. Most childhood cancers arise from the:
a.
Epithelium
c.
Embryologic ectodermal layer
b.
Mesodermal germ layer
d.
Viscera
ANS:
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. The other options are not common sites from which cancers originate.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 443
6. Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
a.
Wilms tumor
c.
Osteosarcoma
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
ANS:
Wilms tumors are linked with other genetically linked childhood cancers. It is the only form among the available options that is associated with congenital malformation syndromes.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 443 | Table 14-1
7. Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Varicella zoster virus
b.
Influenza
d.
Epstein-Barr virus
ANS:
The strongest association between viruses and the development of cancer in children has been the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. No current research supports a link between the remaining options and childhood cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445
8. A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing:
a.
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c.
Epstein-Barr
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Leukemia
ANS:
Children with AIDS have an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma. Leukemia is linked to retinoblastoma. Epstein-Barr has been linked to the development of some cancers, whereas no known link has been found between AIDS and the development of leukemia.
9. Which intervention has the greatest affect on a child’s mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
a.
Age at the time of diagnosis
b.
Participation in clinical trials
c.
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d.
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
ANS:
Mortality rates have significantly declined in the past 40 years largely as a result of advances in treatment and participation in clinical trials. Although important, the other options are not believed to have an affect on the decline of the mortality rate of childhood cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445
10. Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
a.
They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
b.
They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
c.
They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
d.
They are at increased risk for developing adult cancers.
ANS:
Although the need exists for long-term studies, research has shown a correlation between radiation-induced malignancies from radiotherapy (as in cancer treatment) or radiation exposure from diagnostic imaging; both have shown to increase the risk of developing cancer during adulthood. The other options are not necessarily true regarding the outcomes of radiation therapy for childhood cancers.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445
11. How should the nurse reply when a parent questions why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
a.
Physicians are cautious about ordering CT scan on children younger than 10 years
of age.
b.
CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young
children.
c.
The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth
the expense.
d.
Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain
cancer.
ANS:
Findings from a recent study of 176,587 children suggest that those who have two or three CT scans of the head before the age of 22 years are three times more likely to develop brain cancer as those in the general population, and the risk of developing leukemia is three times as great in those who received five to ten CT scans. The other options do not represent the logic behind not ordering a CT scan in relationship to minor head trauma.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445 | What’s New box
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
12. Childhood exposure to which risk factors increases the susceptibility for developing cancers? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Low birth weight
b.
Chemotherapy
c.
Ionizing radiation
d.
Cigarette smoke
e.
Hodgkin disease
ANS: , C, E
Childhood exposure to ionizing radiation, drugs, or existing cancer-causing viruses has been associated with the risk of developing cancer. Although unhealthy, no current research identifies cigarette smoke or low birth weight as risk factors for childhood cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 445 | Table 14-3
13. Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers?
(Select all that apply.)
a.
Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
b.
Childhood cancers are far less likely to be associated with genetic mutations.
c.
Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
d.
Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
e.
Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
ANS: , B
Overall, cancers in children are very different than adult cancers and are associated with far fewer genetic mutations. Research does not support the other options.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 442 | Page 444 | What’s New box
14. Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that ultimately produces which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Connective tissue
b.
Digestive system
c.
Muscles
d.
Kidneys
e.
Blood
ANS: , C, D, E
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which gives rise to connective tissue, bone cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Cancers of the digestive tract do not originate in the mesodermal germ layer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 443
15. Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
b.
Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
c.
Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
d.
Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
e.
Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
ANS: , B, C
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. In general, they are extremely fast growing, with 80% having distant spread (metastases) at diagnosis.
The other options are not true regarding childhood cancers.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 443
16. The nurse is preparing a discussion on cancer and its occurrence among college-aged students. Which cancers will the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Colorectal
b.
Testicular
c.
Thyroid
d.
Breast
e.
Lung
ANS: , B, C, D
The most common cancers among the adolescent and young adult population (15 to 39 years of age) are Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, germ-cell tumors (particularly testicular), central nervous system tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, thyroid cancer, melanoma, sarcomas, and breast, cervical, liver, thyroid and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer generally develops after chronic inhalation of nicotine-containing products.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 442
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
a.
Ascending
c.
Somatic
b.
Descending
d.
Efferent
ANS:
Peripheral nerve pathways can be afferent (ascending) pathways that carry sensory impulses toward the CNS. The remaining options do not carry sensory information to the CNS.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 448
2. Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
a.
Large nonmyelinated
c.
Small nonmyelinated
b.
Large myelinated
d.
Small myelinated
ANS:
If the myelin layer is tightly wrapped many times around the axon and is forming the nodes of Ranvier, then conduction velocity increases and the neuron is referred to as myelinated. The increased diameter of the myelinated axons allows for the transmission of impulses at a faster rate. The other options do not affect nervous impulse transmission rates.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 448-450
3. Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
a.
Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
b.
Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
c.
Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
d.
Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system
4. The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:
a.
Somatic nervous system
c.
Sympathetic postganglion
b.
Parasympathetic preganglion
d.
Parasympathetic postganglion
ANS:
Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine (adrenaline). The remaining options do not reflect the correct site of norepinephrine secretion.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 473-474
5. Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
a.
Form a myelin sheath
c.
Transport nutrients
b.
Remove cellular debris
d.
Line the ventricles
ANS:
The function of oligodendroglia (oligodendrocytes) is to deposit myelin within the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendroglia are the CNS counterpart of Schwann cells. The remaining options are not reflective of the common function of these structures.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 449-450
6. During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
a.
The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
b.
The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
c.
The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action
potential.
d.
The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.
ANS:
The binding of the neurotransmitter at the receptor site changes the permeability of the postsynaptic neuron and, consequently, its membrane potential. The remaining options do not accurately describe the occurrence.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 452-453
7. What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential for maintaining wakefulness?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Reticular activating system
d.
Pons
ANS:
The reticular activating system is essential for maintaining wakefulness. The remaining options are not essential to this function.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 454
8. Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Cerebellum
c.
Prefrontal lobe
b.
Limbic system
d.
Occipital lobe
ANS:
The prefrontal area is responsible for goal-oriented behavior (i.e., ability to concentrate), short-term or recall memory, and the elaboration of thought and inhibition on the limbic (emotional) areas of the CNS. The remaining options are not involved in these functions.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 456
9. The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:
a.
Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
c.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
b.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
d.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
ANS:
Broca speech area is the only region responsible for the motor aspects of speech.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 457
10. Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Medulla oblongata
d.
Basal ganglia
ANS:
Parkinson and Huntington diseases are conditions associated with defects of the basal ganglia. No current research supports the role of any of the other options in these diseases.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 457
11. Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Subthalamus
b.
Epithalamus
d.
Hypothalamus
ANS:
Hypothalamic function falls into two major areas: (1) maintenance of a constant internal environment, and (2) implementation of behavioral patterns. The remaining options do not address these functions.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 459
12. The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
a.
Inferior
c.
Mid
b.
Superior
d.
Posterior
ANS:
The superior colliculi are involved with voluntary and involuntary visual motor movements (e.g., the ability of the eyes to track moving objects in the visual field). Tracking moving objects is not the primary function of the remaining options.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 459
13. What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
a.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
c.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
b.
Parietal and frontal lobes
d.
Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata
ANS:
Extensive connections with the limbic system and prefrontal cortex mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states. The remaining options are not involved in these expressions.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 457
14. Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a.
Pons
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Midbrain
d.
Medulla oblongata
ANS:
The medulla oblongata makes up the myelencephalon and is the lowest portion of the brainstem. Reflex activities, such as heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting, are controlled only in this area.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 460
15. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves V through VIII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the pons.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 459-460
16. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves IX through XII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the medulla oblongata.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 460
17. Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?
a.
Cerebrum
c.
Diencephalon
b.
Cerebellum
d.
Brainstem
ANS:
The cerebellum is responsible for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture. This role is not assumed by any of the remaining options.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 459
18. Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?
a.
Upper motor neurons directly influence muscles.
b.
They modify spinal reflex arcs.
c.
Upper motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d.
They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
ANS:
Upper motor neurons (i.e., corticospinal tract) are the classification of motor pathways completely contained within the CNS. Their primary roles include directing, influencing, and modifying reflex arcs, lower-level control centers, and motor and some sensory neurons
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
Question 3: General Question
Write a 350- to 700-word paper in which you investigate the interrelationship between the
entertainment media and culture. Answer the following questions:
⦁ In what ways have various forms of entertainment media shaped American culture and its values?
⦁ Are the social influences of entertainment media mostly positive or negative? Explain.
Provide specific examples.
Conclude your paper with thoughts on whether the entertainment media are a reflection of or a catalyst for societal behaviors and attitudes.
OR
Write a 350- to 700-word pitch to either a movie or television producer. Your pitch will explain your idea for a new TV or movie program that is based on current market trends. You will need to research what the popular genres are in either movies or television and write your pitch with the intention of selling a story that falls in line with what is currently profitable.
Include an analysis discussing how current popular entertainment trends do or do not reflect American cultural values and their influence on social behavior as well.
Each essay response is required to be a minimum of 250 words. Because these essays are open-book, take the time to provide ample information, detail, and personal analysis in each essay response. While there is a minimum word requirement for each essay, there is not a maximum word limit. Feel free to elaborate as needed with relevant information to meet your own personal level of satisfaction.
1. Describe the sliding filament theory, the size principle of motor unit recruitment, and the all or none theory? When training a bodybuilder, why is an understanding of these three principles necessary and how can they be applied when designing training programs for bodybuilders?
2. The author of the textbook describes six core lifts as being necessary to include when designing a training program for a bodybuilder (squat, overhead press, chin-ups, bench press, deadlift, and bar dips). Why does the author feel that these lifts should form the foundation of a bodybuilder’s program? What advantages do these lifts offer? Do you agree with the author’s assessment that these lifts should form the foundation of a training program for bodybuilders? Why or why not?
3. Describe the factors that contribute to muscle hypertrophy. When designing a training program to optimize muscle hypertrophy, what steps can you take to make sure that each factor is accounted for?
4. What style of periodization do you feel would be best for optimizing a bodybuilder’s physique? Defend your answer.
5. Briefly describe the variables that contribute to a bodybuilder’s ability to recover from training. What steps should be taken by a trainer to ensure that optimal recovery is achieved?
Question 6: Biology
You are working with an amateur bodybuilder who is 12 months out from a bodybuilding competition. Design a year-long periodized training program for the athlete with the objective of optimizing the client’s physique at the time of the competition. The training program should include the following:
A list of assessments to be performed at the onset of the training program
A warm-up and cool down for each training day
A detailed year-long periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. The program should include a Foundational Training phase, a Hypertrophy phase, and a Cutting phase.
An explanation as to why you made your recommendations for each phase of training.
Nutrition and supplement recommendations to support the bodybuilder during each phase of training.
Question 7: Biology
Create a video or script demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training. The video or script should be completed within the following guidelines:
1. Introduce yourself by name, school, or association that you work for, etc.
2. Identify the athlete and sport you are coaching and the athlete’s position in the training cycle.
3. Introduce the layout of the training program and then begin training. (NOTE: Training should be specific for the athlete’s needs.)
4. Walkthrough training techniques with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
5. Include both a warm-up and cool-down routine with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
OPTION 2: Training Script
If you are unable to create a video demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training, you will need to write a script for the video you would produce if you had the resources. Requirements for the script:
1. The script should be 1500+ words typed and submitted in a Word (.DOC) or PDF format. For ease of review, please used Size 12 font in Black.
2. The format should be easily readable. The reviewer should be able to read your script and get a mental image of what is trying to be relayed. See sample play scripts or movie scripts for sample formats.
3. Since you will not have visual examples, the script will need to convey your vision. Be detailed but concise.
Question 8: Biology
Design year-long training programs for one of the athletes below. Design off-season, pre-season, early season, and competitive season workouts. Include weight training, plyometrics, endurance, and flexibility training.
Choose one of the following:
A. High school football player (specify position)
B. College basketball player (specify position)
C. Minor league baseball player (specify position)
Provide details for the type of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on. A coach or athlete should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you for clarity of further explanation. Provide a rationale for your recommendations. For each season of each 1-year training program, you will include a ONE WEEK ‘example’ of what you would focus on with your client in that given season. For example, in a given week, you will show a proper strength training program for Monday, Wednesday, Friday and will show Plyometrics, agility, and speed on Tuesday/Thursday and you will provide the full exercise program for that given period of time.
⦁ Off-Season: 1-week’ sample’ program
⦁ Pre Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Early Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Competitive Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Post Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
You will also provide a rationale/explanation regarding your client’s goals for each season and how the programming and training protocol you provided will most appropriately and effectively assist the client in achieving their goals for the following season.
You will provide all of the necessary aspects of your clients’ programming including:
⦁ Initial goals and assessments
⦁ Proper warm-up and cool down for each training day.
⦁ Season appropriate training: exercise prescription, sets, reps and intensity
⦁ Re-assess your client’s progress and update their goals at the beginning of each season in his or her one-year program
Question 9: Biology
Write a 250-word essay response to the following question.
Describe the stretch-shortening cycle and how it relates to exercise.
Analyze two athletes performing a power clean and a power snatch. Do a detailed technical analysis of each lift. List the critical elements of each lift and note any technique deviations.
Pick an athlete and conduct a series of tests appropriate for their sport. What tests did you conduct and what were the results? What do the results tell you about your athlete? What goals will be set for the next testing period?
Give an example of a sports athlete that utilizes each of the three major energy pathways. How long does the body utilize each pathway as its main energy source?
5 Short Answer Questions: 1. Discuss the three E’s of nutrition. Explain how PDIs fit into the three E’s of nutrition. 2. Describe the significance of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins on health and performance? What are the general recommendations for each macronutrient intake? How do body type, health status, and performance goals influence these recommendations? 3. Explain the difference between micronutrients and macronutrients. What role do micronutrients play in maintaining and optimizing health and performance? What are the common micronutrient deficiencies seen in athletes? 4. Describe the path of food through the digestive system and explain each organ's role in the digestive process. What are some factors that influence digestion? 5. Perform a body composition assessment on a subject using one of the methods outlined in Unit 14. Discuss the methodology you used, including possible deviations that could have occurred during testing. Then identify the somatotype of your subject and provide a macronutrient split recommendation for your subject based on his/her somatotype. Explain why you feel that the macronutrient split you provided is appropriate for your client.
Question 11: Biology
For this case study, you ideally will need to recruit a healthy adult competitive athlete. This person can be a recreational sports athlete, college athlete, or other type of active athlete. Alternatively, you can even use yourself. Note that this is just an academic exercise, so the person you are working with does not need to follow the program.
Go through Steps 1 to 8 from Unit 17, provided below, and develop nutritional guidelines for your subject, dependent on the season that he/she is in. Then provide a discussion as to why you made your recommendations.
Show all calculations that may apply, using the methods in the course textbook related to the Steps. Make note of the person’s age, gender, sport, and athletic season.
Step 1: Determine body composition.
Step 2: Determine daily caloric expenditure range for training days and non-training days and for competition days.
Step 3: Determine the bioenergetics the sport primarily demands for peak athletic performance; Athlete- Type; Anaerobic – Immediate Energy System; Anaerobic Glycolytic; Anaerobic Glycolytic – Oxidative Glycolytic; and Oxidative. Some examples of sports are included below.
Step 4: Determine daily protein intake estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember from your lessons that protein requirements can differ among different Athlete-Types and among individual athletes. This gives a scientific reason for making protein intake a priority for sports nutrition programs, in addition to other factors.
Step 5: Determine daily carbohydrate estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember to plan for carbohydrate beverage intake before, during, and after practice and for sports events as appropriate. Modulate carbohydrate type and amount with meals and snacks to meet specific nutrition goals.
Step 6: Determine fat (essential fatty acids) intake estimate and plan, and select foods and cooking methods to achieve it. Keeping fat intake under 30 percent of total daily calories will be an ongoing skill to master. For certain sports, maintaining low fat intake during the season—between 15 and 20 percent of total daily calories—can be challenging and requires extra effort to make sure athletes are ingesting adequate amounts of the essential fatty acids: linoleic and alpha-pnolenic acids. Add healthy sources of essential fatty acids in addition to EPA and DHA as required for health.
Step 7: Maintain proper fluid intake estimate to meet daily requirements, as determined by the amount of physical activity, environmental factors, and specific athletic training, performance, and health needs.
Step 8: Determine the needs for using special sports nutrition and dietary supplement products.
Question 12: Biology
NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 13: Biology
Nurs 6512 Final Latest Version Walden University
Question 14: Biology
Nurs 6512 Midterm Latest Version Walden University
Question 15: Business
One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions
Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 16: Business
Imagine that you have been appointed as the Chief Compliance Officer for “NIKE”
Create a four to six (4-6) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you:
⦁ Summarize your chosen company’s Supplier Code of Conduct information
⦁ In your own words, explain how each aspect of your Supplier Code of Conduct is committed to ethical business practices and society social responsibility.
⦁ Discuss your company’s stance on each of the following areas:
a. Empowering Workers
b. Labor and Human Rights
c. Health and Safety
d. The Environment
e. Accountability
⦁ Identify the key ways that your company’s Code of Conduct has changed in recent years (i.e. have there been any improvements made).
⦁ Examine the manner in which your company’s Supplier Code of Conduct helps the organization operate as a socially responsible organization.
⦁ Provide detailed speaker notes of what you would say if you were delivering the presentation.
Question 17: Business
QSO 500 Milestone One Guidelines and Rubric
Overview: In this final project, you will create a research report based on the application of action research processes for developing problem solving strategies. In designing the report, you will follow the best practices for ethical research. You will utilize the research process to inform decisions in your professional life and as a framework for approaching research projects in other courses in your program. The final product will be a comprehensive research report using the five-step research process (identify the problem; understand the theoretical framework of the problem; design the research study; collect, explain, and analyze the data; report the results; and make conclusions and recommendations).
For Milestone One, submit a draft of your business problem and literature review. Using the problem you identified in your Module One journal and the feedback you received, describe the research problem including the context in which it exists. Using the problem statement, describe the stakeholders and research objective. Based on the research objective, develop a research question that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study. Consider the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study.
After describing your business problem and research question, prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Prompt: Refer to the given case study Maruti Suzuki India: Defending Market Leadership in the A-Segment and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report. Prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be from professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Specifically the following critical elements must be addressed:
Business Problem: Refer to the given case study and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report.
A. Describe the research problem, including the context in which it exists. In other words, what caused or precipitated this problem? What has already been done to address it?
B. Describe the key stakeholders (or potential stakeholders) of your business problem. In other words, who are the people who have the most to gain or lose from a decision?
C. Explain the research objective. How would it benefit the stakeholder to know the results?
D. Develop a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study.
E. Discuss the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study. Consider the following: How will data be collected and protected? How will human subjects be used, treated, and protected?
Literature Review:
A. Explain the theories that best ground your organizational problem. Support your explanation with specific examples. These theories might be management, behavioral, social, and/or business related.
B. Discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature and the potential impact these may have on your research.
C. Summarize at least one other research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study.
D. From the literature, analyze at least one other organization that has faced similar problems, explaining what they have done to address the problem.
Rubric
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone must be submitted as a 5- to 6-page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least seven sources cited in APA format.
Critical Elements
Proficient (100%)
Needs Improvement (75%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Business Problem: Research Problem
Describes the research problem, including the context in which it exists
Describes the research problem, but description is cursory or does not include the context in which the problem exists
Does not describe the research problem
9
Business Problem: Stakeholders
Describes all key stakeholders of the business problem
Describes the stakeholders of the business problem, but description is cursory or neglects to address all key stakeholders
Does not describe the stakeholders of the business problem
9
Business Problem: Research Objective
Explains the research objective, including how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Explains the research objective, but explanation is cursory or does not show how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Does not explain the research objective
9
Business Problem: Research Question
Develops a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study
Develops a research question based on the research objective, but it does not clearly or concisely articulate in one sentence the purpose of the study
Does not develop a research question based on the research objective
Business Problem: Ethical Issues
Discusses all key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
Discusses real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study, but discussion is cursory, contains issues of clarity, or neglects to address key ethical issues
Does not discuss real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
12
Literature Review: Theories
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem with support from specific examples
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem, but explanation is cursory or not supported with specific examples
Does not explain the theories that best ground the organizational problem
12
Literature Review: Bias and Limitations
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, including the potential impact on research
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, but discussion contains issues of clarity or does not address the potential impact on research
Does not discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature
12
Literature Review: Other Research Study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study, but summary is cursory or contains inaccuracies
Does not summarize another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated
12
Literature Review: Other Organization
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, including an explanation of what was done to address the problem
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, but analysis is cursory or does not explain what was done to address the problem
Does not analyze another organization that has faced similar problems
12
Articulation of Response
Submission has no major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization
Submission has major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that negatively impact readability and articulation of main ideas
Submission has critical errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that prevent understanding of ideas
4
Total
100%
Question 18: Business
You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. Norman is the mid-level manager responsible for the southern regional office. The following events have recently occurred in Norman’s office:
⦁ Ken, an estate planner in Norman’s office, recently adopted a baby with his wife. He applied for 12-week family leave, but was denied by Norman because his wife did not physically give birth. The corporate human resource department (where you work) was not given notice of this decision.
⦁ June, part of the full-time housekeeping staff, has been asking other employees if they would like to join a union. There are currently no unions within the organization.
⦁ Maria is concerned about ladders that are placed around the office for remodeling. Norman said not to worry, and that there are no official policies for safety in an office setting.
Prepare a 15- to 20-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes responding to Norman from a Human Resource standpoint. The video or presentation should address the following topics:
⦁ An overview of the FMLA and its key provisions relating to Ken.
⦁ Recommended resolution for Ken’s situation (both for Ken as an employee and as a company handling these requests moving forward).
⦁ An overview of key labor laws to briefly educate Norman on employee rights in unionizing.
⦁ A brief discussion of OSHA and possible application to Norman’s office setting.
Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ Discuss an element of the FSLA, and give an example of how it is enforced. Include who is and who is not exempt from this element’s regulation.
Question 20: Business
Calculations: Calculate the client’s target heart rate using the Karvonen formula.
Training Program: Design
a full 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
⦁ A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
⦁ Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs
⦁ Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
⦁ A fully detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
⦁ Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
⦁ Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client’s history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.
Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Peter Parker
Age: 28
Gender: Male
Resting Heart Rate: 80 bpm
Height: 6’4″
Weight: 252 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 29%
Background and Goals: Peter is a 28-year-old civil servant with a 9-to-5 desk job. He is 6’4″ tall and weighs 252 lb. He played football and basketball in high school and some intramural sports in college, but has not worked out or been very active since. His diet is sporadic and consists of mostly processed and prepackaged foods that are quick and easy to prepare. Peter’s goals are to lose weight, tone his body, and lead a healthier lifestyle. Based on Peter’s current lifestyle and existing exercise and nutrition habits, design a 12-week progressive training program to help him best achieve his goals.
Question 21: Economics
One of the first lessons you will learn in Economics is that in order to do something, or buy something, it often means you cannot do or have something else. Life is full of choices and tradeoffs: “You cannot have your cake and eat it too,” or ” There is no such thing as a free lunch.” What is this course costing you? What is your opportunity cost to take this course? As an introductory assignment, answer each of these in the Discussions.
1) Write about what you could be doing instead of taking this course. It could be something else right at this minute. It could be going on vacation (or buying gas) with the tuition and book money, or it could be another class that conflicted with this, and
(2) Describe a choice you have had to make recently that involved make a choice between 2 alternatives not involving this course, and which way you decided to go. This could be going out to dine or buying gas, buying food rather than new clothes, or even a career change.
Question 22: Education
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 92%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
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The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
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contains 50 Questions
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
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Walden University – NURS 6501Completed Week 7 Quiz Graded A
Question 24: Health Care
Walden University – NURS 6501NURS 6501 wk. 6 quiz Graded A
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Walden University
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NURS 6501 Week 5 quiz
Question 26: Health Care
NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 4 Quiz Graded A
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Walden University > NURS 6630 Final Exam (2019) Score A
Question 31: Health Care
NSG 6020 Week 7 Quiz ANSWERS Latest SOUTH UNIVERSITY HEALTH ASSESSMENT NSG6020.docx
Question 32: Health Care
How has nursing practice evolved over time? Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession. 200-300 words, 2 citations
Question 33: Health Care
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)
Question 34; Health Care
South University NSG 5003 Final exam 2019 (Already Graded A)
South University NSG5003 Final
Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:
Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:
a)
Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b)
The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c)
Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d)
The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)
What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:
a)
Infection
b)
Ultraviolet damage
c)
Pain
d)
Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)
When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:
a)
Age at the time of diagnosis
b)
Participation in clinical trials
c)
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d)
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)
Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:
a)
Pons
b)
Midbrain
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)
The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:
a)
Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury
b)
Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
c)
Head injury that likely occurred during the injury
d)
Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:
a)
Craniosacral dysreflexia
b)
Parasympathetic dysreflexia
c)
Autonomic hyperreflexia
d)
Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:
a)
. In larger veins
b)
Near capillary sphincters
c)
At branches of arteries
d)
On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:
a)
A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b)
Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
c)
The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus
d)
A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)
a)
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
b)
An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
c)
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d)
Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:
a)
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b)
Diminished levels of TRH
c)
High levels of TSH
d)
Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:
a)
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b)
. Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi
c)
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d)
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:
a)
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
b)
The need for lispro instead of regular insulin
c)
An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas
d)
The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas
Question 38 (5 points)
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:
a)
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b)
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)
Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
d)
T cells
Question 39 (5 points)
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:
a)
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b)
The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
c)
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d)
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
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Question 1: Business
Strategy Club Assignment
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions 1. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and review videos related to Chapter 2. Summarize ten key points. 2. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and click on Student Resources and then click on Mission Statement Article and prepare your proposed mission statements for this course according to that article, which simply expands on the material presented in Chapter 2 about the statements being customer-focused. 3. Identify the nine components required for an effective mission statement. Find the new ASU mission and assess the extent to which it complies to these criteria. 4. If an organization does not have a vision or mission state, describe a good process for developing them.
Question 2: Business
Instruction
This assignment is an opportunity for you to reflect on how you negotiated the interest payment in the class financial simulation we carried out, and on the general outcomes in the market. In your 1-2 page write-up, make sure to answer the following questions: 1. For one Full Information session, describe your negotiation strategy by referring to your role (borrower, with high or low quality project, or lender), the interest payment you agreed to, and your final profit. 2. Describe your negotiation strategy in one Limited Information session, by referring to the same items as in question 1 above. 3. What do you think are some problems arising in trading with Limited Information as based on your experience in the financial market simulation? Explain. 4. How do you think the limited information trading impacted the agreed interest rate? Did it impact high and low quality borrowers in the same way? How about lenders? Overall, who benefited and who was hurt by the lack of information? Explain. For your reference, here is the Excel sheet containing the transactions from the class simulation:
Question 3: Education
Instruction
PART 1: Students are to submit a matrix that compares the three disability laws in relation to the specified components (a – h). The matrix provides side-by-side comparisons of each law. A template of the matrix is provided. Also the rubric is attached. Please be sure to review the rubric. A. Type of Law B. Eligibility criteria C. Evaluation procedures/guidelines D. Services provided to support students and parents E. Population(s) served (age groups covered) F. Due Process procedures – Parental Rights G. Funding source(s) to support special services provided H. Administrative Office or Agency that monitors and enforces the law PART 2: Video reflections (3 videos) Click on each link below to watch a short video about individuals with InD, LD, and ADHD. Write a brief summary of each video, which highlights significant shifts in the manner in which individuals with specific disabilities are treated or perceived by others. What were your overall impressions; were they positive or negative? Did the content of the video cause you to change your perceptions of individuals with specific disabilities? Why or why not? 1. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0gTtwMGHPes 2. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CYHzJGTA6KM 3. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fWCocjh5aK0&feature=youtu.be Your reflections/reactions to the videos assigned should be edited for minor grammatical errors and adhere to the general writing style and formatting guidelines of the APA Manual (6th ed.).
COMPONENTS:
Provide a description of each component below.
IDEA 2004 Section 504 ADA
Type of Law
(2 points)
Broad Eligibility Criteria
(2 points)
Evaluation Procedures/Guidelines
(2 points)
Types of Services Provided
(2 points)
Population Served: Age Group(s) Covered
(2 point)
Due Process Procedures
(2 points)
Special Funds Provided to Implement the Law
(1 point)
Administrative Office or Agency that Monitors/Enforces the Law (2 points)
Total Points: _______ (max. 15 points)
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Question 4: Education
Instruction
PART 1: Answer the following questions in a paragraph each (4-5 sentences required for each question) 1. Why is parent participation so critical to the IEP process? Why have legislators mandated parent and family participation? 2.To what extend do cultures influence educational practices, and to what extend do educational practices influence cultures? 3. Identify common barriers to effective communication between parents and educators. Describe at least three “best practice” strategies teachers could use to promote effective and frequent communication with parents of children with disabilities. Describe three additional “best practices” that promote active parental engagement and meaningful partnerships. PART 2: The literature is replete with documentation that active parent involvement is highly correlated with positive student outcomes. Extensive research has been dedicated to better understanding the underlying issues as to why some parents actively participate in their child’s school activities while others do not, despite the sometimes numerous attempts made by teachers and the school administration to get parents involved. The required article reading presents the findings of a research study that explored parents’ perceptions of the schools’ efforts to get them engaged in their child’s education. Instructions: Read and submit your critique of the following journal article: Rodriguez, R. J., Blatz, E. T. & Elbaum, B. (2014). Parents’ views of schools’ involvement efforts. Exceptional Children, 8(1), 79-95. doi: 10.1177/0014402914532232 Your critique should include a brief summary of the content that highlights the main points expressed in the article. Include in your critique your perspectives and reactions to what the authors said or recommended, making sure you support or justify your viewpoints with examples or references to other articles and resources. Submission Instructions: Article critiques must be carefully edited and formatted according to APA (6th ed.). Critiques should range between 2 – 3 typed pages, not including the reference page.
Question 5: English
DOCUMENTED ESSAY: Literature Research Paper on Alice Walker’s Novel The Color Purple
As part of your coursework for Gender Roles in Literature / ENG 226, you will be writing a documented research essay, on a literary topic of your choice, which analyzes Alice Walker’s seminal novel The Color Purple. The purpose of this paper is for you to demonstrate your ability to research and analyze a specific topic about the novel, develop an interpretive argument, and synthesize your findings into a unified, coherent, and analytical documented essay.
TOPIC: You may develop any literary topic you wish about the novel, except for biographical studies of Alice Walker. Your documented research essay must focus on the author’s writing, not her life. For example, some possible topics you might consider for your research paper:
➢ Ebonics and the African-American Vernacular in The Color Purple
➢ The Sexual Awakening of Celie
➢ The Role of Sofia in Celie’s Life – and in the Lives of Other Characters –in The Color Purple ➢ The Power of the Feminine as Exhibited in The Color Purple
➢ Celie’s Letters to God and the African-American Slave Narratives (such as Frederick Douglass’ Narrative of the Life of . . . an American Slave and Solomon Northup’s Twelve Years a Slave)
➢ Gender Roles and Their Impact in The Color Purple
SOURCES: You should use your research as a vehicle to drive your own thoughts, deliberations, and arguments as you write your essay. As well as your own thoughts, analyses, interpretations, and conclusions on your chosen topic, your paper must have:
➢ One primary source (the literature text itself). You must include direct quotes and paraphrased cited quotations from The Color Purple in your paper.
➢ At least THREE (3) secondary Scholarly Academic sources (writings about the literary text) of two pages or longer:
o At least one secondary source of information/analysis/critical study must be from a peer-reviewed article from an academic scholarly database. Good scholarly databases to start your research are the following (accessible via RCC Library Website):
▪ EBSCO Humanities Source
▪ GALE Artemis Literary Sources
▪ Literature Criticism Online
▪ JSTOR
o At least one of the secondary sources of information/analysis/critical study should be from a BOOK in print, either an e-book or paper & ink (NOTE: a paper & ink physical book earns you extra-credit points!)
Please Note: You should avoid using Internet sites ending with <.net> or <.com>. These sites are usually commercial, not scholarly, and therefore too superficial for college-level work. Use them to gather initial, general information to START your search. They should NEVER be your sole source of information.
FORMAT: Your paper must be / must have:
➢ At least 1500 words / about five pages of text in length (word count does not include the Works Cited page)
➢ Written utilizing correct MLA-8 citation and formatting rules
➢ Double-spaced, typed, using 12-point font size, Times New Roman or comparable font ➢ Quotes taken from the Original Literature (the Primary Source)
➢ At least two (2) short direct quotations
➢ One long (block) direct quotation
➢ At least two (2) paraphrased quotations
➢ All Support Materials, to be submitted with the documented essay
➢ Submitted into Blackboard no later than the due dates for draft & final essay
Question 6: Mathematics
MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods for solving quadratic equations.
The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods forsolving quadratic equations.
Use the Discussions Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 1, 2, and 3
Step 1: Choose a method, covered in Section 1.5 of the textbook, (factoring,square root property, completing the square, and the quadratic formula) to solveeach of the following quadratic equations. Each method can be used only ONCE.
A) 4×2 – 27 = 0
B) 4×2 – 8x – 5 = 0
C) 4×2 – 8x – 12 = 0
D) 4×2 – 9x – 7 = 0
You may solve the equation if that clarifies which method should be used, but the solutions and answers should not be typed into the Discussion Board orsubmitted to the Assignments Link.
Step 2: In a posting to the Discussion Board in Falcon Online, explain the solutionmethod you chose for each equation and why you chose it. Refer to each equationby letter when stating the solution method. It is not necessary to post the solutions and answers. The posting should be written with complete sentences and proper grammar. The following explanation is not an acceptable part of the posting: “Thiswas the last method left.”
Step 3: Next, read at least two original posts by other students. After reading atleast two other original posts, reply to one other original post with acorrection/addition that enhances the explanation.
Use the Assignments Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 4 and 5
Step 4: Use the Equation Editor in MS Word to type a document showing thecomplete solution
(all steps) and correct answer to both of the following problems
The document should be saved in .docx, .doc, .pdf, or .rtf format.
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Question 7: Health Care
Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline. Two References within five years. APA formate
Question 8: Other
Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Question 9: Psychology
Instruction
Vicarious trauma is similar to but distinctly different from burnout and counter-transference. To treat and prevent vicarious trauma effectively, you must be able to distinguish between the three phenomena. Since vicarious trauma, burnout, and counter-transference are closely related, consider how you would educate future supervisees in understanding the similarities and differences of each. For this Application, review this week’s Course Media “Introduction with Laura Simpson” and consider the implications vicarious trauma may have on the counseling process. The assignment: (2–3 pages) Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and burnout. Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and counter-transference. Explain two implications vicarious trauma might have on the counseling process. Be specific. Explain one insight you had or conclusion you drew for each comparison. Be specific. Support your Application Assignment with specific references to all resources used in its preparation. You are asked to provide a reference list only for those resources not included in the Learning Resources for this course.
Question 10: Physics
A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.
Question 11: Business
you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.
Question 12: Statistics
A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
⦁ a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
⦁ b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
⦁ c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
⦁ d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
Question 13: Finance
Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?
Question 14: Other
Management Information Systems
Many organizations have started using behavioral targeting in order to capture your website visitor movements. This data is used in order to personalize advertising when you are surfing the web. Some businesses have started collecting personal information outside of your web clicking to create a profile of you. Do you have any personal issues with these practices? At what point could this type of data collection turn into an ethical dilemma? How about a legal issue? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work.
Case Study Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation
Vodafone Group PLC is the largest mobile service provider by revenue in the world, with 400 million customers across Europe, the Middle East, Africa, Asia Pacific, and the United States. In 2013, it had revenues of $64.6 billion and more than 86,000 employees working in over 30 countries. Since its founding nearly 30 years ago, the business has experienced phenomenal growth, largely by establishing local operating companies that provides products and services to their local markets.
As a result, the company was very decentralized, lacking common practices, centralized operations, and data sharing among its various operating companies. Most of Vodafone’s mobile subsidiaries operated as independent companies with their own business processes. Vodafone was a network of individual businesses, but it wanted to function more like a single global firm to better deal with competitive pressures. Management called for a major business transformation to make this happen.
In 2006, Vodafone’s board of directors approved the “Evolution Vodafone” Business Transformation Program” (EVO) designed to refashion Vodafone into a truly global company, with a centralized shared services organization and common worldwide business processes in finances, human resources, and supply chain management for all of the operating companies. (Shared services refers to the consolidation of business operations that are used by multiple parts of the same organization in order to reduce costs and redundancy.) A common SAP ERP system would provide the technology platform for these changes by supporting information-sharing and common business processes that would simplify and speed up work throughout the company. Additional software tools from Informatica, Opentext, Readsoft, Sabrix, Redwood, HP, and Remedy that could integrate with SAP were added to the mix.
Vodafone’s system turned out to be one of the biggest SAP ERP implementations in the world. How did Vodafone pull it off? First of all, Vodafone’s management realized the company lacked the expertise and resources to manage such a complex project entirely on its own. It enlisted the consulting firms Accenture and IBM to provide skills and services that this ambitious project required and which were not available inside the company.
The company spent a year identifying and designing its new business processes and establishing the scope of this project. The management team wanted to limit risks to non-customer-facing processes that were nevertheless important sources of value for the firm. Customer-facing front-end processes were excluded from the first phase of the rollout to keep the transformation more manageable.
Procurement was targeted as the first set of processes to be transformed using the new ERP system. Vodafone had been allowing each of its local companies to manage its own procurement, which prevented it from leveraging the massive purchasing power the company could obtain by managing relationships with material and service suppliers from a single entity. By generating savings from centralized procurement, the transformation project would be able to quickly show a return on investment and win further support. Vodafone did not establish a centralized procurement department but instead created a centralized procurement company based in Luxembourg that uses the SAP ERP platform. Most of the company’s spending goes through this central organization. Suppliers benefit because the system helps them plan their sales to Vodafone and they only need to work with a single purchaser instead of many. This new way of doing business included a new purchase-to-pay process in which invoices are approved automatically for payment by matching them with purchase orders and receipts.
Once the new procurement process and organization were running, Vodafone started creating a centralized shared services organization based on the SAP ERP system. It selected Budapest, Hungary as the pilot location for this new arrangement. Vodafone Hungary is a mid-sized company with 2,000 employees with a small IT platform based on Oracle software. This made Vodafone Hungary more receptive to changing its information system and business processes than Vodafone organizations in larger countries, and Hungary had already been using Oracle systems. There, Vodafone built an entire shared services organization from scratch while simultaneously implementing the SAP ERP system. Vodafone then set up two more shared services organizations in India running on SAP.
After Hungary, Vodafone implemented the new procurement process and SAP software for its German operating company. Germany is Vodafone’s largest market, and accounts for more than 20 percent of Vodafone’s total revenue. Vodafone Germany is a much larger organization than Vodafone Hungary, with 13,000 employees, over 130 local legacy systems, and many customized business processes to replace. Work habits were more deeply entrenched, and Vodafone encountered some employee resistance as it tried to implement the new systems and processes. To minimize risk, Vodafone used a phased, incremental implementation, did a tremendous amount of testing, and made all the necessary system modifications before the system went live. Special support teams were dispatched to work with all the employees affected by the transition. These efforts helped address problems and employee resistance before they got out of hand. Once the German implementation was deemed successful, Vodafone rolled out the new system at many more operating companies, prioritizing the implementations based on each operating company’s size, complexity, and willingness to change.
No two rollouts proceeded the same way because each operating company had unique challenges and demands. Many of these companies had grown rapidly, and had numerous legacy systems based on local requirements. There were large numbers of users, interfaces, and legal requirements to deal with. Vodafone’s project team had to balance the need to proceed rapidly with the need to ensure that the system was implemented carefully.
Vodafone’s implementation plan called for a core project team to visit each individual operating company and implement the new processes locally, assisted by a systems integrator and local resources. Local teams and senior management met with the global teams, IT consultants, and local IT vendors in a friendly environment to encourage knowledge-sharing and openness to change. The success of each rollout was based on multiple factors, including the number and complexity of each unit’s legacy systems, the skills of each local project team, and the willingness of each local organization to embrace change. Vodafone enlisted the services of the global consulting firm Accenture to provide skills where needed and assist with change management in the local companies. Over time, the Vodafone project team and the Accenture consultants learned how to tailor their activities to the needs of each operating company. For example, if no representatives from an operating company showed up for the project launch meeting or they attended but showed little interest, the project team knew that company might be less cooperative. In such cases, the project would require more resources and attention.
The project team also had to be sensitive to local trends as system rollouts took place. For instance, if an operating company was located in a country experiencing economic downturn, its employees might be more resistant to the rollout. Some might see a major business and technology change as an improvement in their situation, while others might see it as another thing to cope with during a very stressful time.
As it finished rolling out the system to its remaining operating companies, the Vodafone project team used what it had learned to make improvements to its earlier ERP implementations. For example, testing and employee feedback revealed that more attention should be paid to usability. So, the project team enhanced the system’s interfaces to make them more user-friendly.
Given the nature of the business, Vodafone’s management wants about 80% of the company’s internal transactions to take place on a mobile device. According to Niall O’Sullivan, Vodafone’s Global Finance Transformation Director, management believes mobile apps will be a major advantage in driving compliance, increasing ease of use, and reducing resistance to the actual processes themselves. The goal is to have the vast majority of user interactions with the system take place on a mobile phone. According to O’Sullivan, mobility provides easy access for employees who don’t typically engage with the SAP system, so more employees are using the system. The more people use the system, the greater the return on investment. Over 60,000 employees around the world now use the new system, with 80,000 expected by the end of 2014.
Vodafone is now rolling out some of its enterprise applications for mobile devices, and so far, four have been selected. The first to go mobile was a travel and expense reporting application. Employees are able to take a photo of their receipts and get reimbursed without using any paper, and they can issue or approve requests for leave on their mobile phones all at one time. This application has reduced the time required to file travel expenses from 30 minutes to 10 minutes, with 7,500 expense claims filed each week, resulting in 300 person-days’ potential savings per week. Vodafone’s future mobile plans call for the development of a mobility portal and the integration of approval applications with finance, HR, and electronic sourcing.
Vodafone’s business process transformation and ERP system have increased business efficiency and produced annual cost savings of $719 million. The total cost of ownership (TCO) of information technology has been lowered. Throughout the world, Vodafone has a consistent way of working and a more unified organizational structure. Getting the various operating companies to think and act more uniformly and to adopt a shared service model has produced benefits that are not immediately quantifiable, but should lead to further profitability in the long run.
Sources: “Customer Journey,” Vodafone Group PLC. www.mysap.com, accessed May 28, 2014,”www.vodafone.com, accessed May 29, 2014; Derek DuPreez, “Vodafone HANA Project Moves Beyond Trial Despite Skills Challenge,” TechWorld, March 11, 2013; “Using SAP MaxAttention to Safeguard the Global Rollout of SAP ERP,” www.mysap.com, accessed April 8, 2013; and David Hannon, “Vodafone Walks the Talk,” SAP InsiderPROFILES, October-December 2012.
Case Study Questions
⦁ 9-13 Identify and describe the problem discussed in this case. What management, organization, and technology factors contributed to the problem?
⦁ 9-14 Why did Vodafone have to spend so much time dealing with change during its business transformation?
⦁ 9-15 Why was an ERP system required for Vodafone’s global business transformation?
⦁ 9-16 What management, organization, and technology issues had to be addressed by the Vodafone project team to ensure the transformation would be successful?
⦁ 9-17 What were the business benefits of Vodafone’s global business transformation? How did it change decision making and the way the company operated?
Instructions
Introduction:
The main learning outcome for this unit addresses advanced information systems solutions. You need to be able to understand not only the concepts behind implementing an advanced solution like ERP, but also the management and technological factors involved in an implementation, the value added by implementing advanced systems, what prompts the need for an advanced system like an ERP system, and the potential benefits of implementing IS advanced systems such as ERP systems. This case gives them a successfully implemented case to analyze.
Assignment Instructions:
Review what you have learned about enterprise resource planning (ERP) from the textbook and from the unit’s study guide.
Analyze the case study titled “Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation” on pp. 376-378 in your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
analyze and discuss the central issue(s) faced by Vodafone, including the contributing management and technological factors;
explain why ERP was a necessary information system solution to address the organization’s issues;
evaluate the success of Vodafone’s implementation plan and provide one suggestion to improve the process;
discuss the value the new ERP system brought to Vodafone as a company; and
summarize your findings in a two to three page paper.
Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VI
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
9. Examine advanced information systems solutions such as ERP (enterprise resource planning) and SAP (software application and products).
⦁ 9.1 Explain the value added to organizations by implementing advanced information systems
solutions.
⦁ 9.2 Examine different advanced information systems solutions available for businesses.
⦁ 9.3 Analyze different features and functionality offered by advanced information systems solutions.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 9: Achieving Operational Excellence and Customer Intimacy: Enterprise Applications Chapter 10: E-Commerce: Digital Markets, Digital Goods
Unit Lesson
Advanced Information Systems
What exactly are advanced information system solutions? Most people who have worked in an office setting have a good understanding of the processes that affect their everyday lives. They understand that the data they enter or scan is stored in a database, and certain processes they run may close out a monthly account, process a payroll run, or bill a customer. These types of processes, while they seem separate, are often very integrated.
In years past, organizations had large mainframes. These mainframes had to process transactions in batches, usually at night, and until that batch process happened, the screens you were viewing were not always completely correct. For example, you could place an order for a customer, but you would not see the order until the next day. Unfortunately, that also meant that you could not see the inventory reduction until the next day as well. This means you might place an order and there might not be any of that item left in stock at the time. A salesperson or customer service representative might have to go look at three or four different screens to get a good picture of the customer’s account health or to research a problem—even with this batching process. Once client-servers came to organizations, employees had to look at two completely different computers to research that same problem (until organizations could get all of their data and processes moved off of those old mainframes).
Now that businesses have grown so much, many of them have multiple product lines, systems, servers, and databases. In the past, managers would have to wait for big printouts of various reports to make business decisions. Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems works to integrate all of those critical systems together so they can talk to each other. The applications that make up the enterprise software are created based on predefined best business practices. Think of it this way: When a business purchases a piece of equipment, that order is entered into accounting the same way for all businesses. If a customer makes a purchase, it should generally be handled the same way. When you hire someone, you have the same laws to follow. There may be some customization, but that is handled in the application as well (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
From a managerial perspective, what is the value in enterprise systems?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
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UNIT VI STUDY GUIDE
Advanced Information System Solutions
This is the question we have to ask ourselves when adopting any sort of informUaNtIioTnxsSyTstUemDYs sGoUluIDtioEn, is it not? We do not just spend large amounts of money on something without understanding the value it offers us
as a company. We have discussed the value of data in previous chapters. Among the other reasons enterprise systems bring us value, they also help us to have firm-wide information to make better decisions.
The bottom line is this: Advanced information system solutions can help organizations in many different ways, such as operating more effectively and efficiently, making better decisions, managing our goods more effectively, reaching our customers faster, and being more competitive and innovative. Anyone can see the value in that!
What Are Some Other Advanced Information System Solutions?
Supply chain management (SCM): Many large organizations (such as Walmart and Amazon) use supply chain management (SCM) to help their organization manage their suppliers and goods more efficiently. If you have thousands of suppliers and hundreds of thousands of orders, it would be impossible to keep up with everything. SCM software can manage all of this and allows for forecasting and decision making as well. Imagine that many of your suppliers are in other countries; this means you have a global supply chain that is even more complex to manage.
Customer relationship management (CRM): Customer relationship management (CRM) involves managing customers. Again, if you have 50,000 customers, how do you keep up with what they purchased? Sure, you can store that information in a database but would it be easy to manage those relationships? How would you keep up with the marketing incentives you have offered them? Better yet, what about the marketing incentives that you want them to pass on to their customers?
Systems application products (SAP): Systems application products (SAP) are a brand of enterprise resource systems. Oracle and Microsoft both have their own brands of enterprise resource systems as well. While all of these vendors offer very similar base functionalities, each of them compete against each other by bringing their own special capabilities to their enterprise resource system offerings.
E-commerce: Another type of advanced information systems involves e-commerce. The explosion of Internet purchasing is no surprise to anyone, but the technology involved in e-commerce is pretty unique. In the past, retailers had pretty tight control over everything. The options for consumers were not plentiful. Still, word of mouth was still prevalent so a business could suffer if it did not treat its customers well. Now, retailers have invited the world to comment on their websites. Sure, they can always delete bad comments, but knowledge is power. Have you ever had a bad experience at a store and wondered if it ever got past the customer service person that you complained to? E-commerce gives retailers global reach, which can be an advantage and a disadvantage. Advanced information systems have given retailers the ability to allow customers to interact with each other through social media-style functionality. Retailers can now personalize your viewing experience based on your web searches. This type of customer targeting was not possible before more advanced information systems were developed.
We have discussed business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce, but there have also been many types of e- commerce, e-commerce business models, and e-commerce revenue models developed. Social media is one of the most predominant focuses of marketing today. Another focus of late is m-commerce, which is mobile commerce.
One of the biggest boons to business-to-business e-commerce is the development of electronic data interchange (EDI). This service enables the transfer of data between two organizations. For example, an organization may receive an electronic bill from a supplier through EDI. Conversely, the organization can sent a notice of payment back to the supplier via EDI. An organization can send all of its UPS shipping information to UPS in the form of an EDI file.
Would any of this be possible without advanced information system solutions? What do you think the future holds for information systems and technology as businesses grow bigger and bigger?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Reference UNIT x STUDY GUIDE Title
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following journal article is a great study on the critical success factors involved in the implementation of enterprise systems. You are encouraged to review this information.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Ahmad, N., Haleem, A., & Syed, A. (2013). Compilation of critical success factors in implementation of enterprise systems: A study on Indian organizations. Global Journal Of Flexible Systems Management, 13(4), 217-232. doi:10.1007/s40171-013-0019-8.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
Assume that you have been hired as the new Social Media Manager for the e-commerce division of a retail chain. Create a seven to ten PowerPoint slide presentation to outline your strategic plan for integrating social media into the existing e-commerce business for the organization.
You may use various sources including your textbook and the CSU Online Library. Be sure to cite all sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. Cover and reference slides do not count in the length requirement. You may also use the slide notes function.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
Unit 6 Assessment
How can organizations create value by implementing an advanced information system solution paired with the appropriate business model?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length
What is social CRM? Why are some organizations hesitant to implement this advanced information system technology?
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Recall the e-commerce Internet business model discussed in the unit readings. Identify three different businesses that use this model and their successful descriptions for solutions to information systems.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?
Question 16: Physics
WORKSHEET Pre-Lab 2 (hand in at start of lab 2)
1. Consider an experiment where a marble is rolling between sensors for a computer controlled timer called a photogate. The sensor measures the time the photogate is blocked as the diameter of the marble passes by. You have measured the following quantities to determine the speed (v) of a marble rolling in front of a photogate. The uncertainty in time is estimated from the spread in values of several trials, and the size of the marble is known with a manufacturer specification on the uncertainty.
tblocked=(0.024±0.002)s and d=(2.54±0.01)cm
Determine the following, showing your work below neatly for each %σt %σd %σv σv and v.
These quantities mean: percent uncertainties in time blocked, diameter of marble, speed of marble respectively. Then the absolute uncertainty in the speed of marble, and finally the speed of the marble itself.
Your final reporting of the speed should look like (with numbers) v=________±_______cm/s
1
2. Consider the formula 2 ∆ . This is a kinematic equation relating final speed, initial speed, acceleration, and displacement. You will solve this equation for the acceleration, “a”, insert measured values for the other quantities and report “a” along with its uncertainty. The goal is to use error propagation to determine uncertainties.
You are given vi = 0.00 (consider this exact), and
vf = (1.87±0.04)m/s, and x=(30.0±0.3)cm.
Which rule will you apply to determine the result for acceleration along with its uncertainty?
Question 17: Mathematics
Question 8 Alone.
Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.
MAT2001-SFE- Digital Assignment-1
⦁ Find the mean, median and mode for the following data.
⦁ The mean of five numbers 6,9,2,x,y is 5 and the standard deviation is x,y.
√
6. Find the values of
Class mark 10.5 30.5 50.5 70.5 90.5 110.5
Fequency 19 6 3 2 1 2
3. A continuous random variable has the probability density function . { kx4 −1 < x < 0
f(x) = 0 otherwise Find the value of k and also find P [(X > 1/2)/(X < −1/4)].
⦁ Find the first four moments about the origin for a random variable X having the probability density function f (x) = 4x(9 − x2 ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ 3.
81
⦁ An investment firm offers its customers municipal bonds that mature after varying number of years. Given that the cumulative distribution function of T , the number of years to maturity for
a randomly selected bond is,
0, t < 1
1 / 4 , 1 ≤ t < 3 F(t)=1/2, 3≤t<5 3/4, 5≤t<7
1, t≥7
Find (a)P(T = 5)(b)P(T > 3)(c)P(1.4 < T < 6)(d)P(T ≤ 5/T ≥ 2).
6. The waiting time, in hours, between successive speeders spotted by a radar unit is a continuous random variable with cumulative distributive function
{
0, x<0 1−e−8x, x≥0
F(x) =
Find the probability of waiting less than 12 minutes between successive speeders (i) using the
cumulative distribution function of X (ii) using the probability density function of X.
⦁ If the probability density function of X is given by
{ 2(1−x), 0<x<1 f(x) = 0, otherwise
(a) Show that E(Xr) = 2 . (b) Using this evaluate E[(2X + 1)2]. (r + 1)(r + 2)
⦁ Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.
⦁ Ifthejointprobabilitydensityfunctionofvariable(X,Y)isgivenbyf(x,y)= 9(1+x+y) ,x> 2(1 + x)4(1 + y)4
X 1 3 k 7 8 10
Y 8 12 15 17 18 20
0, y > 0, find the mariginal densities of X and Y . Are they independent?
10. The joint density function of a R.V (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,0 < x < 1;0 < y < x. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
11. The joint density function of a random variable (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,1 ≤ x ≤ y ≤ 2
9 and = 0 , elsewhere. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
⦁ If the joint p.d.f of a two dimensional random variable (X,Y) is given by f (x, y) = 3(x + y), in x > 0, y > 0 and x + y ≤ 1 and =0, elsewhere, find Var(X), Var(y) and Cov(X,Y).
⦁ If the simple moments of a random variable X are given by E(Xr) = 0.6, for r = 1,2,3,…, show that P (X = 0) = 0.4, P (X = 1) = 0.6 and P (X ≤ 2) = 0.
⦁ The two regression lines are y = a+bx and x = c+dy. Find the values of E(X), E(Y) and rXY . Can you find SX and SY from them?
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables with variances σX2 and σY2 , prove that r(X, X − Y ) = √σX .
σ X2 + σ Y2
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables such that the correlation coefficient between (2X+Y)
and (X+2Y) is equal to 1, find the coefficient of correlation between X and Y. 2
Report values for %σvf %σx a %σa σa
Your last statement should look like a=________±__________m/s2.
2
Question 18: Health Care
Need 3 healthcare discussion questions answers to the following:
Take a few minutes to think about the healthcare system as it exists today.
(1) Discuss why quality management is critical?
(2) Explain the three principals of total quality which are customer focus, teamwork, and continuous improvement?
(3) Discuss two ways to ensure healthcare quality is important at the organizational, community, and national level.
In responding to the discussion questions, make sure you provide examples to support each part of the question, and each question should be answered with at least 250 words.
Total discussion questions should be at least 750 words minimum. Need this by Saturday Aug 31. If there are any questions, please let me know.
A heavy block of mass 625 kg is suspended by a cable is moving downwards with an initial velocity of 7.3 m/s. If the tension in the cable as the block comes to rest is 5000 N calculate the distance travelled by the block(a) 25.0 m(b) 13.6 m(c) 2.72 m(d) 14.8 m
Question 21: General Question
This is a personal paper. It is not a research paper. You can use I,we,she,he etc (cannot be written in 3rd person). The subject is Group Process-write about a personal team and/or group experience including issues faced and how the issues were resolved. Must be 15 pages. No grammatical errors or typos.
Question 22: Health Care
Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
The Quadruple Aim provides broad categories of goals to pursue to maintain and improve healthcare. Within each goal are many issues that, if addressed successfully, may have a positive impact on outcomes. For example, healthcare leaders are being tasked to shift from an emphasis on disease management often provided in an acute care setting to health promotion and disease prevention delivered in primary care settings. Efforts in this area can have significant positive impacts by reducing the need for primary healthcare and by reducing the stress on the healthcare system.
Changes in the industry only serve to stress what has always been true; namely, that the healthcare field has always faced significant challenges, and that goals to improve healthcare will always involve multiple stakeholders. This should not seem surprising given the circumstances. Indeed, when a growing population needs care, there are factors involved such as the demands of providing that care and the rising costs associated with healthcare. Generally, it is not surprising that the field of healthcare is an industry facing multifaceted issues that evolve over time.
In this module’s Discussion, you reviewed some healthcare issues/stressors and selected one for further review. For this Assignment, you will consider in more detail the healthcare issue/stressor you selected. You will also review research that addresses the issue/stressor and write a white paper to your organization’s leadership that addresses the issue/stressor you selected.
To Prepare:
⦁ Review the national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the Resources and reflect on the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected for study.
⦁ Reflect on the feedback you received from your colleagues on your Discussion post for the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected.
⦁ Identify and review two additional scholarly resources (not included in the Resources for this module) that focus on change strategies implemented by healthcare organizations to address your selected national healthcare issue/stressor.
The Assignment (3-4 Pages):
Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing your selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following:
⦁ Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).
⦁ Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources on the national healthcare issue/stressor. Explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
⦁ Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected. Explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.
Looking Ahead
The paper you develop in Module 1 will be revisited and revised in Module 2. Review the Assignment instructions for Module 2 to prepare for your revised paper.
Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing the selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following: · Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 23 (23%) – 25 (25%)
The response accurately and thoroughly describes in detail the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate, clear, and detailed data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Good 20 (20%) – 22 (22%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Fair 18 (18%) – 19 (19%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague or inaccurate.
The response includes vague or inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Poor 0 (0%) – 17 (17%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing.
The response includes vague and inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected, or is missing.
Feedback:
· Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources, on the national healthcare issue/stressor and explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response fully integrates at least 2 outside resources and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that fully support the summary provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response integrates at least 1 outside resource and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations that is vague or inaccurate.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of no outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided, or is missing.
The response fails to integrate any resources to support the summary provided.
Feedback:
· Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected and explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively, with specific and accurate examples.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively. May include some specific examples.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague or inaccurate. May include some vague or inaccurate examples.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided, or is missing.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing. Does not include any examples.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity.
A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion is provided which delineates all required criteria.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is stated, yet is brief and not descriptive.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time.
No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion was provided.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct APA format with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Question 23: Health Care
Evaluating a Statistical Study Assignment
To complete this assignment, select one of the articles below taken from the online library and answer the questions that follow.
Articles:
Trends in Patient Information Preferences and Acquisition
Determining College Performance of Allied Health students
The Impact of College Sports Success on the Quantity and Quality of Student Applications
Child Abuse: Radiologic-Pathologic Correlation
Reference Equations for the Six-Minute Walk in Healthy Adults
Questions:
⦁ Briefly summarize (2 or 3 sentences) the objectives and findings of the study
⦁ Describe the data analyzed in the study. Identify the data’s level of measurement. How was it collected? Evaluate possible sources of error or bias in the data.
⦁ What population characteristics or parameters were the researchers trying to evaluate or estimate? What sample statistics were used as indicators?
⦁ Identify one of the researcher’s null hypothesis and the corresponding alternate hypothesis. Did the researchers accept or reject the null hypothesis? What was the confidence interval (significance level) used for evaluating the hypothesis. Evaluate how choosing a different confidence interval could impact the execution or results of the study.
⦁ Identify the type I and type II errors associated with accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. Given the context of the study, which type of error is more critical to avoid? Why?
⦁ How might the results of this study be used? Describe how the knowledge gained could be applied. Suggest additional research that could be pursued to supplement these findings.
Question 24: Mathematics
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significance-experiment
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?
Question 25: Health Care
Evidence-Based Practice and the Quadruple Aim
Healthcare organizations continually seek to optimize healthcare performance. For years, this approach was a three-pronged one known as the Triple Aim, with efforts focused on improved population health, enhanced patient experience, and lower healthcare costs.
More recently, this approach has evolved to a Quadruple Aim by including a focus on improving the work life of healthcare providers. Each of these measures are impacted by decisions made at the organizational level, and organizations have increasingly turned to EBP to inform and justify these decisions.
To Prepare:
⦁ Read the articles by Sikka, Morath, & Leape (2015); Crabtree, Brennan, Davis, & Coyle (2016); and Kim et al. (2016) provided in the Resources.
⦁ Reflect on how EBP might impact (or not impact) the Quadruple Aim in healthcare.
⦁ Consider the impact that EBP may have on factors impacting these quadruple aim elements, such as preventable medical errors or healthcare delivery.
To Complete:
Write a brief analysis (no longer than 2 pages) of the connection between EBP and the Quadruple Aim.
Your analysis should address how EBP might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
⦁ Patient experience
⦁ Population health
⦁ Costs
⦁ Work life of healthcare providers
Write a brief analysis of the connection between evidence-based practice and the Quadruple Aim. Your analysis should address how evidence-based practice might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
· Patient experience
· Population health
· Costs
· Work life of healthcare providers–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 77 (77%) – 85 (85%)
Good 68 (68%) – 76 (76%)
Fair 60 (60%) – 67 (67%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 59 (59%)
Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization:
Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards:
Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running head, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
less than 20% similarities
Question 26: English
I need 5 questions answered from my english class the book is called practical argument 3rd edition
Read Student Sample Essay pp. 361-367 and answer the questions below using complete sentences and clear explanations:
1. Summarize the argument Blaine is making in one sentence.
2. Give three examples of evidence that Blaine uses to prove her argument. Cite the page numbers. Do you think this is enough evidence to support her argument? Why? Why not?
3. Does Blaine give an opposing argument? If so, summarize what it is and how she refutes it.
4. Does Blaine establish a strong context for her argument? Explain why or why not by using specific examples from the text. Make sure to cite the page numbers when stating an example from the text.
5. Do you agree or disagree with Blaine’s argument? Why or why not.
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Question 27: Business
One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions
Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 28: Business
Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?
3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?
Question 29: Business
One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions
Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 30: General Question
For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:
⦁ Library Article: How Netflix Reinvented HR
⦁ Article: The Woman Behind the Netflix Culture Doc
⦁ Presentation: Netflix Culture: Freedom & Responsibility
⦁ This information will be a key part of your final project for this course. According to Legal Dictionary, a fact pattern is “a concise description of all the occurrences or circumstances of a particular case, without any discussion of their consequences under the law.”
⦁ In other words, it provides the basic information—who, what, when, where, and why (which we will call the 5W approach):
⦁ Who: The individuals and organization involved in the issue
⦁ What: The issue at hand. What variables have created the situation that needs resolution, and what facts regarding the individuals involved and the organization can be codified as factual statements.
⦁ When: The timetable as to when the issue began and the approximate timeframe in which it must be settled. If not definitively known, provide an estimate of the duration.
⦁ Where: The geographic location, department, or division in which the problem exists.
⦁ Why: The drivers that created the situation needing resolution.
⦁ How: The ways in which the organizational culture may directly and/or indirectly impact the negotiation in an interpersonal or organization conflict situation.
For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:
Question 31: General Question
This forum is designed to engage us in a discussion involving a comparison between Kouzes and Posner’s Leadership Practices and Senge’s Five disciplines (click for link). Support your assertions with scholarly source material. Examine the document showing the table of comparisons and answer the following:
1. In what ways are the two sources suggestive of similar theoretical concepts and/or presentation?
Values/Actions Congruence, Shared Vision, Learning Together Through Collaboration,
2. How are they different?
Question the Status Quo, Integration of the Whole
3. What are your conclusions about the thinking of these leadership scholars as expressed in the table and with regard to additional sources you may elect to include in your discussion.
Question 32: Education
1. What building blocks can an organization use to sustain competitive advantage?
2. Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?
What is a value chain? Why is efficiency so important in an organizations value chain?
3. What does an internal analysis help a company to determine? How does this contribute to the overall health (value creation, competitive advantage, profitability) of the company?
4. Why do companies fail? How does competitive advantage relate to failure?
5. What are functional level strategies? How can functional level strategy contribute to efficiency?
6. Describe economies of scale and its relation to competitive advantage. What strategic significance does economies of scale have?
7. How does innovation relate to competitive advantage? What can be done to sustain innovation?
8. How does customer relations contribute to competitive advantage? What is the effect of customer relations on value creation and its components?
9.
Assignment 2
Chapter 3 Questions:
10. Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?
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Question 33: Health Care
NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University
NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University
Week 1 Discussion Nurs 6051 Transforming Nursing and Healthcare Through Technology
Question 36: English
Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care” Please respond to the following:
⦁ From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
⦁ Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Question 37: History
Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America from Reconstruction Through the 1920’s
Question 38: History
Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points
You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidents from the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.
Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:
Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.
Question 39: Gender Studies
Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources
Question 40: Gender studies
Apply information from the Aquifer Case Study to answer the following discussion questions:
⦁ Discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.
⦁ Describe the physical exam and diagnostic tools to be used for Mr. Payne. Are there any additional you would have liked to be included that were not?
⦁ Please list 3 differential diagnoses for Mr. Payne and explain why you chose them. What was your final diagnosis and how did you make the determination?
⦁ What plan of care will Mr. Payne be given at this visit, include drug therapy and treatments; what is the patient education and follow-up?
discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.
Question 41: Chemistry
Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models
Question 42: Geology
Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
⦁ The development of using slaves for labor
⦁ Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
⦁ Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.
Question 43: Geology
Describe the additional complications facing an MNC compared with a domestic corporation when it is evaluating a capital budgeting project. Why should an MNC’s capital budgeting decision be based on the parent’s results rather than those of the subsidiary? Is an MNC generally faced with incurring double taxation on its profits in the subsidiary’s country? Why or why not?
Question 44: Urban Planning and Policy
Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
⦁ How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
⦁ Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
⦁ How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?
Question 45: Computer Science
The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
⦁ What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
⦁ What can an HRIS do for an organization?
⦁ List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
Question 46: Biology
In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.
Question 47: Biology
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.
Question 48: General Question
Assignment 4 HR Training Class New Employee Customer Service Training
Imagine that you are a member of the HR department of a small retail company and upper management has asked you to create a new employee customer service training class for all new employees.
Write a six to seven (6-7) pages paper in which you:
1. Justify the use of a needs assessment of your company’s proposed employee customer service training, stressing five (5) ways in which such an assessment would expose any existing performance deficiencies.
2. Develop a customer service training implementation plan and determine the method of training (i.e., presentation, discussion, case study, discovery, role play, simulation, modeling, or on-the-job training).
3. Justify why you selected the training method that you did.
4. Propose two (2) ways to motivate an employee who has no interest in attending a training class.
5. Develop a survey to collect feedback from the employees who attend the training.
6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Question 49: Engineering
Read the article “Cognitive Effects of Risperidone in Children with Autism and Irritable Behavior”, and identify the research questions and/or hypotheses as they are stated. Consider the following questions: What are the variables (sample sizes, population, treatments, etc.)? How was the analysis of variance used in this article (and what type of ANOVA was used)?
Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below. In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style. Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1. Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2. Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3. Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study. Would you have included more and/or different variables? Explain your answer.
4. Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study. What would you have done differently in this case? Explain your answer.
5. Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6. Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.
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Question 50: Engineering
assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3. Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4. Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5. Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Question 51: Astronomy
Crane Corp., a company whose stock is publicly traded, provides a noncontributory
defined-benefit pension plan for its employees. The company’s actuary has provided the following information for the year ended December 31, 2018:
Projected benefit obligation $622000
Accumulated benefit obligation 449000Fair value of plan assets 740000Service cost 180000Interest on projected benefit obligation 12000Amortization of prior service cost 36000Expected and actual return on plan assets 46500
The market-related asset value equals the fair value of plan assets. No contributions have been made for 2018 pension cost. In its December 31, 2018 balance sheet, Crane should report a pension asset / liability of
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Question 1: General Question
Question 1 (500 points)
You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More. This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods. Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi. A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients. Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses. The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi. These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based. The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item. The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen. This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors. Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores. Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product. While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much. A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution. To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets. The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail. This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel. Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up. Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel. The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler. Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up? If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism? Why or
why not? If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel. Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market. Be specific in your response. Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter. Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products? How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix? Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.
Question 2: Biology
NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 3: Biology
NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University
Question 4: Biology
NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 5: Biology
NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University
Question 6: Business
Wk 4 – Advisory Memo
As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?
Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?
Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.
Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.
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Question 7: Business
Wk 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.
Question 8: Business
6 page paper (use template)
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.
Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).
Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
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Question 9: Business
The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
⦁ Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
⦁ Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
⦁ What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
⦁ What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
⦁ How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
⦁ What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
⦁ What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
⦁ What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
⦁ What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
⦁ What technology could be used for project communications?
⦁ At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
⦁ What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
⦁ How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
⦁ What business opportunity might project completion create?
⦁ What is the potential financial impact of the project?
⦁ What are the expected results of the project?
⦁ What value will the project add?
⦁ What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
⦁ Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
⦁ Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
⦁ Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.
Question 10: Business
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1) Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2) Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3) From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4) What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?
Question 11: Business
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
Question 12: Business
Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:
⦁ Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
⦁ Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
⦁ Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
⦁ Sexual Orientation in the Workplace
Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:
⦁ Requirements to Prove Under the Law
⦁ Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
⦁ Recent Case Example
Complete the chart for each section.
Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.
Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.
Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.
Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.
Question 13: Health Care
Nursing Therapy Quiz
STUDY GUIDE
This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:
Topics
· The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
· Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
· Assessment and Diagnosis
· The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
· Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
· Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
· Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
· Motivational Interviewing
· Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders
Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
· Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
· Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
· Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
· Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
· Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
· Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
· Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
· Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”
Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001
Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002
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Question 1
⦁ After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:
A.
Disclose all patient information as requested
B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information
C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible
D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?
A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient
B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient
C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
⦁ One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?
A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”
B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”
C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”
D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
⦁ The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?
A.
Assessing safety
B.
Applying therapeutic communication
C.
Using empathy
D.
Maintaining the frame
32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
⦁ True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
⦁ The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:
A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.
B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.
C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”
D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”
1 points
Question 7
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?
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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious
B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem
C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:
A.
Developing increased boundaries
B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy
C.
Scaling back contact with the patient
D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
⦁ An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
⦁ A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:
A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”
B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”
C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”
D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”
1 points
Question 11
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?
A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings
B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator
C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down
D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
⦁ A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.
A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego
B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses
C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning
D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
⦁ During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?
A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories
B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly
C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears
D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
⦁ During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?
D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
⦁ A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?
A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members
B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining
C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
⦁ A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?
A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated
B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort
C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?
A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”
B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”
C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”
D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
⦁ The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
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A.
Countertransference
B.
Therapeutic communication
C.
Empathy
D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
⦁ A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?
A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”
B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”
C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
⦁ A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?
A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions
B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws
C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
⦁ A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety
B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities
C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?
A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization
B.
Help the patient process painful memories
C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth
D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:
A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy
B.
use empathy
C.
utilize intersubjectivity
D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
⦁ During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:
A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”
B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”
C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”
D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”
1 points
Question 34
⦁ The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?
A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”
B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”
C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”
D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
⦁ At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?
A.
Autognosis
B.
Complementary identification
C.
Concordant identification
D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
⦁ The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:
A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient
B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization
C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety
D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?
A.
Emphasize the past
B.
Focus on expressions of emotion
C.
Identify patterns in relationships
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
⦁ A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.
A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations
B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others
C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship
D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
⦁ The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?
A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”
B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”
C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”
D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”
1 points
Question 43
⦁ A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?
A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”
B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”
C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”
D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
⦁ True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
⦁ A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?
A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust
B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself
C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?
A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event
B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is
C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
⦁ The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:
A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”
B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”
C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”
D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”
1 points
Question 48
⦁ A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:
A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”
B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”
C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”
D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
⦁ When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
⦁ A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?
A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws
B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients
C.
Have patients give informed consent again
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
⦁ A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.
A.
mindfulness techniques
B.
deep breathing exercises
C.
self-regulation strategies
D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.
A.
overly nurturing
B.
nonassertive
C.
exploitable
D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
⦁ The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:
A.
Observes and points out the behavior
B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak
C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk
D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
⦁ The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?
A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled
B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs
C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks
D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
⦁ In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?
A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness
B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature
C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed
D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?
A.
Provide safety through case management strategies
B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions
C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences
D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
⦁ Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.
A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning
B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member
C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure
D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:
A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”
B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”
C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”
D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”
1 points
Question 60
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?
A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep
B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake
C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime
D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?
A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension
B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up
C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
⦁ The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?
A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises
B.
Paradoxical interventions
C.
Biofeedback
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
⦁ A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?
A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”
B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”
C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
⦁ An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?
A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”
B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”
C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”
D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?
A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”
B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”
C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”
D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”
1 points
Question 66
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?
A.
Group therapy
B.
Controlled confrontation
C.
A safe-place exercise
D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?
A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states
B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer
C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings
D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points
Question 14: Health Care
Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations. (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1. To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2. The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3. Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4. Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5. The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6. APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1. Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2. APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3. Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4. Networking and Marketing Strategies
5. Conclusion
6. CV / resume
7. References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1. Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2. Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3. Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4. To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5. Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6. When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care
Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition
Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.
2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.
3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.
4. When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.
5. The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.
6. Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.
7. The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.
8. The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress
9. When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs
10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant
11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative
12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation
13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing
14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment
15. Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.
16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment
17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.
18. When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.
19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.
20. The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.
21. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.
22. A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses
23. Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms
24. A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.
25. A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.
26. A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.
27. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.
28. The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness
30. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.
MATCHING
Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.
1. A = first-level priority problem
2. B = second-level priority problem
3. C = third-level priority problem
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute
Question 16: Health Care
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Question 17: Health Care
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 18: Health Care
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 19: Mathematics
six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56
Question 20: Other
Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
⦁ What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
⦁ What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
⦁ How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
⦁ Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
⦁ Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?
Question 21: Business
For your research paper, be sure to include:
1. Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2. Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3. Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4. Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5. References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.
Motivating Employees
Name of student:
Student ID:
Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
⦁ What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
⦁ What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
⦁ What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
⦁ What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
⦁ By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
⦁ By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
⦁ By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
⦁ It improves the performance of the employee.
⦁ It helps in reducing employee turnover.
⦁ It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.
Question 22: Engineering
An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?
Question 23: Engineering
What are the types of soil dams?
Question 24: Computer Science
Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be
Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis
Question 25: Business
Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44
1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.
Question 26: Health Care
Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.
Question 27: Physics
Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.
1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.
2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.
3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.
4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.
4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.
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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.
4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.
4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.
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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.
5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.
5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.
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Question 28: Other
Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.
BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:
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⦁ (1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i) Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii) Table of Contents
⦁ iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?
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⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments
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⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
15
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18
Question 29: Law
Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)
Assessment Details
Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words
Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.
It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.
Question
Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.
In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.
The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.
Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.
In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.
In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.
As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.
Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.
Advise Rashid.
Further Considerations
You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:
⦁ Initial Registration
⦁ The possible creation of easements
⦁ The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
⦁ The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
⦁ Effectiveness/validity of land transfer
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Question 30: Philosophy
Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.
Question 31: Religious Studies
Instruction
APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources
Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..
Question 32: Business
Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.
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Question 1: General Questions
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Question 2: General Questions
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
Question 3: General Questions
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
Question 4: General Questions
HIEU 201 Chapter 2 quiz: Liberty University 1. The biblical account of the Exodus identifies ________ as leading the Hebrews out of Egypt 2. Under the rule of David’s son Solomon, 3. The Old Testament 4. The Hebrews thought of Yahweh as 5. Which of the following describes the Hebrews’ relationship with the natural world? 6. In the history of the Hebrew people, the covenant has served to 7. The historical significance of Israelite law was that it 8. The Hebrews regarded history as 9. During the flowering of the prophetic movement, the Hebrew prophets 10. All of the following is true of universalism in Hebrew thought EXCEPT 11. The first five books of the Old Testament are known as the 12. The Hebrews originated in 13. During the eleventh century B.C., the leadership of Saul united the ________ Hebrew tribes in Canaan. 14. After the fall of Israel to the Assyrians in 722 B.C. 15. The Hebrews’ concept of Yahweh 16. Which of the following is a fundamental Hebrew belief about the individual? 17. The Hebrews’ belief in moral responsibility resulted from 18. The Old Testament discussed slaves 19. Under Hebrew law, within the family 20. The legacy of the ancient Jews includes all of the following EXCEPT
Question 5: Business
State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.
Research, as a team, three relevant court cases on age discrimination.
⦁ SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES GOMEZ-PEREZ v. POTTER, POSTMASTER GENERAL
⦁ Texas Roadhouse to Pay $12 Million to Settle EEOC Age Discrimination Lawsuit
⦁ Jury awards more than $800,000 in an age-discrimination case
Design a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for the senior management team at “State of Estates” to train them on the following topics:
⦁ The concept of “BFOQ” and how it applies to age
Give examples of how this concept has been applied to employment situations involving the age of the employee.
Question 6: Business
Strayer University – BUS 499BUS 499 Assignment 3 Business Level and Corporate Level Strategies ( IKEA )
In this assignment, you are to use the same corporation you selected and focused on for Assignments 1 and 2.
Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Question 7: Business
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own
Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
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Question 8: Business
CSIA 360 case 4 Public-Private Partnership
Cybersecurity Public-Private Partnership, participate or not participate?
CISA 360Cybersecurity in Government Organizations
Question 9: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
· The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.
Question 10: Business
As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?
Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?
Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.
Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.
Question 11: Business
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.
Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name
Date
Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).
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Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
Question 12: Health Care
NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 6 Quiz (2018)-Walden University Question 1 A 9-year-old male contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? Question 2 An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? Question 3 A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration. The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely involved is the: Question 4 A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment? Question 5 A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Question 6 A 7-month-old male presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing reveals increased chloride. Which of the following should the nurse observe for that would accompany this disease? Question 7 A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes.
Question 13: Mathematics
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Question 13: Mathematics
⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) first.
⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) second.
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?
Question 14: Finance
As we discussed, there are four main factors that to go into loan pricing for financial institutions. As a bank manager, you are most concerned with the fourth factor that is the profit margin. Explain how the inflation and the interest rates are important when calculating the potential profit margin. Do any of these factors change if the loan is a fixed interest rate versus a variable interest rate? Your response must be at least 75 words in length.
Question 15: Finance
Deposit insurance is one safeguard that has been implemented against a potential bank run. After the financial crisis, the Federal Reserve increased the amount of money insured from $100,000 to $250,000. A bank customer has asked you why the increase was made and what this means for her money at your bank. Explain to the customer how the increase was a tool used by the Federal Reserve to help control the money supply, and discuss the benefits this brings to the customer. Your response must be at least 75 words in length
Question 16: Health Care
HER Security issue concerns
Assignment.
One of the best ways to learn about a subject is to discuss it with those who work in the industry. You can learn first-hand the real-world pros and cons of EHR security issues.
For this assignment, you will write a 1.5 – 2.0 page paper analyzing the issues surrounding what you discovered that are security concerns and issues are with EHR. In doing so the format should be written as if you gathered information from a manager of Health IT department.
Paper Topic:
⦁ What are the safety and security issues they see surrounding the use of electronic health systems technology?
Questions:
You are to create the questions and answer questions through research that revolve around password protections, internal information thefts, outside hacking, HIPAA concerns, ransomware, employee use of personal emails, PHI concerns, or any other avenues you care to explore.
Provide analysis and additional outside research to support the concerns. You will be graded on your strength of choice of interviewee, the depth of your questioning, outside research, and the structure of your write up.
.
Argumentative essay on the immigration system of the US and if it works or doesn’t work 1,300 words
Question 19: Health Care
Instruction
A. Identify a current nursing practice within your healthcare setting that requires change. Note: You can describe your setting without identifying it by name and begin to introduce the specific problem that you will be addressing. 1. Describe the current nursing practice. Note: Describe the current practice and what may be wrong with the current practice that is resulting in the identified problem. 2. Discuss why the current nursing practice needs to be changed. B. Identify the key stakeholders within your healthcare setting who are part of the current nursing practice. 1. Describe the role each identified key stakeholder will play to support the proposed practice change. Note: These are the individuals who will make up the team to plan, implement and evaluate the change. C. Create an evidence critique table (see “Sample Evidence Critique Table”). Note: Insert your evidence critique table into your paper. 1. Identify five sources from scholarly peer-reviewed journals, which adhere to the following standards: a. Each source must be published within the past five years. b. Each source must relate to the change identified in part A. c. Each source must be listed in the table using APA format. 2. Identify the evidence strength of each chosen source, using the Strength of Evidence information in the study plan. 3. Identify the evidence hierarchy of each chosen source, using the Evidence Hierarchy information in the study plan. D. Develop an evidence summary based on the findings from part C that includes each of the five sources used (suggested length of 1–2 pages for all sources). Note: Create one well developed paragraph for each article which includes the purpose, methods or study design, results or conclusions and how the article supports the practice change recommendation. E. Recommend a specific best practice based on the evidence summary developed in part D. F. Identify a practice change model that is appropriate to apply to the proposed practice change. Note: Identify the model that you have chosen and give a brief description of how it is generally used. 1. Justify why you chose the practice change model and how it is relevant to the proposed practice change. 2. Explain how to apply the identified model to guide the implementation of the proposed practice change. Note: Clearly articulate how the model will be used to guide change and address each step individually and with specific detail. G. Discuss possible barriers to successful implementation of the proposed practice change. H. Discuss any possible ethical implications that may arise while planning or implementing the proposed practice change. Note: Describe which ethical principle(s) or ANA Code of Ethics provision(s) speaks to, or supports, your practice change and why. I. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.
Attention
If you want to edit this document,
go to the file tab (upper left), click download as, click Microsoft Word, and then save the document.
Title of Paper
Student Name (no credentials)
Western Governors University
Title of Paper – centered (no bolding or underlining) on 1st Page
SEE LAST PAGE FOR TEMPLATE NOTE
Professional Practice Description
Key Stakeholders
Evidence Critique Table
Full APA citation for 5 sources.
Include doi or url. Evidence Strength (I-VII) and
Evidence Hierarchy
Chan, H. Y., Dai, Y. T., & Hou, C. (2016). Evaluation of a tablet-based instruction of breathing technique in patients with COPD. International Journal of Medical Informatics, 94, 263-270. https://doi-org.wgu.idm.oclc.org/10.1016/j.ijmedinf.2016.06.018
Level II, RCT
Piamjariyakul, U., Werkowitch, M., Wick, J., Russell, C., Vacek, J. L., & Smith, C. E. (2015). Caregiver coaching program effect: Reducing heart failure patient rehospitalizations and improving caregiver outcomes among African Americans. Heart & Lung – The Journal of Acute and Critical Care, 44(6), 466-473. Retrieved from:
http://www.sciencedirect.com.wgu.idm.oclc.org/science/article/pii/S0147956315001843
Level II, RCT
Evidence Summary
Evidence-Based Practice Recommendation
Practice Change Model
Potential Barriers
Ethical Considerations
References
Provide a reference in APA format for all in-text citations.
TEMPLATE NOTE:
This template provides a guide for graduate-level, scholarly papers that require APA style and formatting (American Psychological Association, 2010). The recommended font style is Times New Roman, and the font size is 12. Margins are set at one inch for top, bottom, left, and right.
Always begin your paper with an introductory paragraph or section that includes the purpose of your paper and what will be written in the paper – it may be helpful to write the paper first, then go back and write the introduction. The introduction should be included in the paper but does not require an introduction heading. Each content area/section of the paper should have a heading.
To follow is the recommended format for your title page and section headings consistent with APA format. The Title page is a separate page. Each section should include sufficient detail to meet the task requirements. All paragraphs should have at least three sentences. The References page is a separate page at the end of the paper.
Question 20: Other
Week 8- Assignment: Prepare a Revised Literature Review and Reflection
Instruction
This assignment has two components that will be submitted as one final comprehensive document: Part 1: Revise your literature review paper. Using the feedback and comments you received from your professor on the first draft of the literature review in Week 6, revise and edit the paper to reflect that feedback and incorporate all comments. Use the Track Changes option to indicate how you have incorporated the feedback, and use the Insert Comment option to indicate those areas where you have identified a need to revise further, where you have made recommended changes, and where you have made other adjustments based on what you have learned about scholarly writing throughout this course. Part 2: Prepare a reflection to include as an appendix to your literature review. Prepare a brief reflection paper in which you note any remaining questions and concerns that you may have about becoming an effective scholarly writer. Discuss areas of strengths and areas for further growth and development. Identify at least five resources available to NCU students to further enhance your writing skills and note how you will use them in the future. Part 1 Length: 12-15 pages Part 2 (appendix) Length: 2-3 pages Total Length: 14-18 pages, not including title and reference pages Your submission should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards.
Question 21: Other
Week 7- Assignment: Present your Research Findings
Instruction
Using the topic from Weeks 1 and 2, prepare a PowerPoint presentation suitable for an introductory psychology course that would be offered to undergraduate students. Your presentation should include the following: Be sure to include a title slide. Introduce your audience to the topic. Provide an overview and background information on the topic. Explain at least three key points about the topic. Discuss at least two research findings presented in your research articles. Summarize the key points. Your final slide(s) should be your reference slide(s). Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Speaker’s notes are located underneath the slide itself (where you see “click to add notes”). Support your presentation with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases on each slide with references in APA format and style where appropriate.
Prepare a literature review that addresses the topic you have been working on throughout this course. Remember, you likely have prepared literature reviews, albeit probably as sections of previous papers in your studies. The challenge for you now is that you will apply a critical eye toward what is known about the research topic and what you can identify as possible gaps in past research. Your previous assignments will offer great help to you as you put your literature review together. Specifically, you will need to: Introduce the problem. Include a clear and concise thesis statement. Provide sufficient background to the reader. Identify similarities between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the similarities. Identify differences between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the differences. Synthesize the themes and relationships you have identified in your research into the topic. Summarize the key findings of previous research. Conclude with an assessment of the status of the problem being researched. Support your literature review with at least 10 references from scholarly resources. You may incorporate the 10 resources you have used in other assignments as well as include other resources you have located throughout the course. Length: 8-10 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assignment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards
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Question 1: General Question.
BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College
Question 2: General Question.
BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)
Question 3: General Question
South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
Question 4: General Question
South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)
Question 5: General Question
Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture
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Question 6: Mathematics
Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C
Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C
Question 7: Mathematics
Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.
Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.
Question 8: Mathematics
Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)
The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $
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Question 9: Mathematics
Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)
Question 1 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?
A.3.10
B.9.61
C.7.03
D.49.50
Answer Key:
Question 2 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men. Assume α = 0.05. What is the test value?
Women Men
Sample size 50 80
Mean effect 7 6.95
Sample variance 3 4
A.t = 0.151
B.z = 0.455
C.t = 3.252
D.z = 0.081
Answer Key:
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Question 3 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?
Females Males
Sample size 20 18
Sample mean 3.8 2.5
Sample variance 3.5 2.2
A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value
B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value
C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value
D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value
Answer Key:
Part 2 of 8 – 4.0/ 5.0 Points
Question 4 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:
A.smallest number of outliers
B.smallest sum of squared residuals
C.largest number of points on the line
D.largest sum of squared residuals
Answer Key:
Question 5 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:
A.highly correlated
B.mutually exclusive
C.directly related
D.inversely related
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Answer Key:
Question 6 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Outliers are observations that
A.render the study useless
B.lie outside the typical pattern of points
C.disrupt the entire linear trend
D.lie outside the sample
Answer Key:
Question 7 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:
A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables
B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X
C.the magnitude of difference between two variables
D.a curved relationship among the variables
Answer Key:
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Question 8 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points
If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:
A.5
B.unknown
C.10
D.0
Answer Key:
Part 3 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points
Question 9 of 17 2.0/ 2.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area. The following are the results of his random sampling. Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?
Pine trees Spruce trees
Sample size 30 35
Mean trunk diameter (cm) 45 39
Sample variance 120 140
What is the test value for this hypothesis test?
Test value: 2.121 Round your answer to three decimal places.
What is the critical value?
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Critical value: 1.311 Round your answer to three decimal places.
Answer Key:
Part 4 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points
Question 10 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:
Store Shelf Space(X) Weekly Sales(Y)
1 10 2.0
2 10 2.6
3 10 1.8
4 15 2.3
5 15 2.8
6 15 3.0
7 20 2.7
8 20 3.1
9 20 3.2
10 25 3.0
11 25 3.3
12 25 3.5
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Find the equation of the regression line for these data. What is the value of the standard error of the estimate? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. Do not use a dollar sign. For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry. 0.308
Answer Key:
Question 11 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx
Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.
Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.
Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank. Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign. For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry. 525.4
Answer Key:
Part 5 of 8 – 0.0/ 2.0 Points
Question 12 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.
If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?
Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15
Answer Key:
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Question 13 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:
Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry. 1.010
Answer Key:
Part 6 of 8 – 2.0/ 3.0 Points
Question 14 of 17 2.0/ 3.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.
Experimental group Control group
sample size 35 50
mean sleep improvement 12.8 9.1
sample variance 56.3 61.2
What is the test value for this hypothesis test?
Answer:
Round your answer to two decimal places.
What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?
Answer:
What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test? Choose one.
There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.
Answer:
Answer Key:
Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples. Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:
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This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size). The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.
Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
Part 7 of 8 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Question 15 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.
True
False
Answer Key:
Part 8 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points
Question 16 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.
True
False
Answer Key:
Question 17 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points
To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.
True
False
Answer Key:
Question 10: Mathematics
Part 1 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points
Question 1 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.
A.1/600
B.1/2300
C.1/300
D.1/700
Answer Key:
Question 2 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:
A.0.25
B.0.90
C.0.40
D.Cannot be determined from the information given
Answer Key:
Question 3 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:
A.the Law of Large Numbers
B.the Empirical Rule
C.the Central Limit Theorem
D.subjective probabilities
Answer Key:
Question 4 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is
A.5
B.8
C.15
D.30
Answer Key:
Question 5 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be
mutually exclusive
complementary
independent
exhaustive
Answer Key:
Part 2 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points
Question 6 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is
A.6.00
B.1.50
C.4.00
D.10.00
Answer Key:
Question 7 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.
What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?
A.0.0009
B.0.9991
C.0.8967
D.0.0024
Answer Key:
Question 8 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.
x 0 1 2 3 4 5
P (X=x) 0.20 0.25 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.10
Find P( X 3)
A.0.80
B.0.85
C.0.15
D.0.20
Answer Key:
Question 9 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.
A.60
B.50
C.7.1
D.5.9
Answer Key:
Question 10 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?
A.0.081
B.0.243
C.0.027
D.0.003
Answer Key:
Part 3 of 6 – 2.0/ 4.0 Points
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Question 11 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.
Number of Products Purchased
Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total
Same 10 14 24 48
Changed 262 82 8 352
Total 272 96 32 400
What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. .7443
Answer Key:
Question 12 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points
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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Find the mean of the following probability distribution.
X 1 2 3 4 5
P(X) 0.20 0.10 0.35 0.05 0.30
Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.
Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find
E = sumx * P(x)
I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,
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Question 13 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.
Number of Products Purchased
Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total
Same 10 14 24 48
Changed 262 82 8 352
Total 272 96 32 400
What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. 0.6550
Answer Key:
Question 14 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry. 0.54
Answer Key:
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Part 4 of 6 – 4.0/ 4.0 Points
Question 15 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry 900
Answer Key:
Question 16 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:
= chocolate chosen
= strawberry chosen
= vanilla chosen
= ice cream on a cone
ice cream in a cup
Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry. 0.10
Answer Key:
Question 17 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:
Number of Vehicles Involved
Did alcohol play a role? 1 2 3
Yes 60 110 30 200
No 40 215 45 300
100 325 75
Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?
Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry. 0.30
Answer Key:
Question 18 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:
= chocolate chosen
= strawberry chosen
= vanilla chosen
= ice cream on a cone
ice cream in a cup
Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry. 0.3825
Answer Key:
Comment: You got the previous one
Part 5 of 6 – 0.0/ 1.0 Points
Question 19 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points
Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.
True
False
Answer Key:
Part 6 of 6 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points
Question 20 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points
True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.
True
False
Answer Key:
Question 11: Mathematics
Part 1 of 3 –
4.0/ 7.0 Points
Question 1 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.
How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?
Question 2 of 20
0.0/ 1.0 Points
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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.
Question 3 of 20
0.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.
Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.
Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5
Question 4 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Question 5 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Question 6 of 20
0.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Question 7 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.
Part 2 of 3 –
11.0/ 11.0 Points
Question 8 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?
A.27.2 < < 118.3
B.5.6 < < 10.3
C.4.4 < < 14.6
D.28.9 < < 115.0
Answer Key:
Question 9 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.
A.stays the same
B.increases
C.decreases
D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data
Answer Key:
Question 10 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.
A.0.15
B.0.85
C.0.70
D.0.30
Answer Key:
Question 11 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?
A.966
B.683
C.183
D.484
Answer Key:
Question 12 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:
A..06
B.16.667
C.30
D.0.60
Answer Key:
Question 13 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and = 0.20 is
A.0.7342
B.0.5316
C.0.2658
D.0.4684
Answer Key:
Question 14 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.
A.(9.96, 10.04)
B.(9.68, 10.32)
C.(9.97, 10.80)
D.(9.92, 10.08)
Answer Key:
Question 15 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Compute where t20 has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.
A.0.1767
B.0.8233
C.0.6466
D.0.5334
Answer Key:
Question 16 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?
A.0.4916
B.0.9916
C.0.0084
D.0.0054
Answer Key:
Question 17 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?
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A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level
B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level
C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level
D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level
Answer Key:
Question 18 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?
A.0.321 < p < 0.379
B.0.316 < p < 0.384
C.0.309 < p < 0.391
D.0.305 < p < 0.395
Answer Key:
Part 3 of 3 –
2.0/ 2.0 Points
Question 19 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.
True
False
Answer Key:
Question 20 of 20
1.0/ 1.0 Points
A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.
Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
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Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing
1 page
Question 19: Health Care
NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A
NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A
Question 20: Religious Studies
BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)
Question 21: Mathematics
Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?
Question 22: Business
Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document. The article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.
Question 23: General Question
NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )
NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )
Question 24: General Question
Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.
Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.
Question 25: General Question
Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)
Question 26: Business
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza.
Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following statements is true?
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?
Question 27: General Question
NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY
Question 28: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?
Question 29: Business
600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.
Instruction
In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.
Question 30: Literary Studies
– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.
Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:
What the source is about
What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text
How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining
How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?
WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED
Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336
Each question must be broken down in the following way:
Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)
Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)
Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)
Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)
Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)
If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?
The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected. How might this be
explained? How might this be changed?
In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?
This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.
You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.
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Question 2: Healthcare
Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.
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Question 1: General Question
Question 1 (500 points)
You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More. This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods. Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi. A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients. Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses. The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi. These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based. The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item. The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen. This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors. Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores. Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product. While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much. A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution. To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets. The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail. This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel. Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up. Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel. The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler. Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up? If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism? Why or
why not? If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel. Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market. Be specific in your response. Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter. Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products? How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix? Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.
Question 2: Biology
NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 3: Biology
NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University
Question 4: Biology
NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 5: Biology
NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University
Question 6: Business
Wk 4 – Advisory Memo
As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?
Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?
Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.
Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.
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Question 7: Business
Wk 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.
Question 8: Business
6 page paper (use template)
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.
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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name
Date
Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).
Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
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Question 9: Business
The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.
Question 10: Business
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1) Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2) Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3) From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4) What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?
Question 11: Business
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
Question 12: Business
Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:
Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace
Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:
Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example
Complete the chart for each section.
Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.
Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.
Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.
Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.
Question 13: Health Care
Nursing Therapy Quiz
STUDY GUIDE
This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:
Topics
· The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
· Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
· Assessment and Diagnosis
· The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
· Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
· Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
· Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
· Motivational Interviewing
· Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders
Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
· Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
· Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
· Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
· Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
· Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
· Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
· Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
· Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”
Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001
Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002
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Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:
A.
Disclose all patient information as requested
B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information
C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible
D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?
A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient
B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient
C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?
A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”
B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”
C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”
D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?
A.
Assessing safety
B.
Applying therapeutic communication
C.
Using empathy
D.
Maintaining the frame
32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:
A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.
B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.
C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”
D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”
1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?
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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious
B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem
C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:
A.
Developing increased boundaries
B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy
C.
Scaling back contact with the patient
D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:
A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”
B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”
C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”
D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”
1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?
A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings
B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator
C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down
D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.
A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego
B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses
C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning
D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?
A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories
B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly
C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears
D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?
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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder
B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C.
Borderline personality disorder
D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?
A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members
B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining
C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?
A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated
B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort
C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?
A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”
B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”
C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”
D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
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A.
Countertransference
B.
Therapeutic communication
C.
Empathy
D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?
A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”
B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”
C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?
A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions
B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws
C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety
B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities
C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?
A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization
B.
Help the patient process painful memories
C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth
D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:
A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy
B.
use empathy
C.
utilize intersubjectivity
D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?
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A.
Therapeutic communication
B.
Maintaining the frame
C.
Working with resistance
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:
A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”
B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”
C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”
D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”
1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?
A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”
B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”
C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”
D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?
A.
Autognosis
B.
Complementary identification
C.
Concordant identification
D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:
A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient
B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization
C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety
D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?
A.
Emphasize the past
B.
Focus on expressions of emotion
C.
Identify patterns in relationships
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.
A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations
B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others
C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship
D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?
A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”
B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”
C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”
D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”
1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?
A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”
B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”
C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”
D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?
A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust
B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself
C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic
D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?
A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event
B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is
C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:
A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”
B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”
C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”
D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”
1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:
A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”
B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”
C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”
D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?
A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws
B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients
C.
Have patients give informed consent again
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.
A.
mindfulness techniques
B.
deep breathing exercises
C.
self-regulation strategies
D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.
A.
overly nurturing
B.
nonassertive
C.
exploitable
D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:
A.
Observes and points out the behavior
B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak
C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk
D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?
A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled
B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs
C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks
D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?
A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness
B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature
C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed
D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?
A.
Provide safety through case management strategies
B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions
C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences
D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.
A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning
B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member
C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure
D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:
A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”
B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”
C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”
D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”
1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?
A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep
B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake
C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime
D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?
A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension
B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up
C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?
A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises
B.
Paradoxical interventions
C.
Biofeedback
D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?
A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”
B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”
C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?
A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”
B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”
C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”
D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?
A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”
B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”
C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”
D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”
1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?
A.
Group therapy
B.
Controlled confrontation
C.
A safe-place exercise
D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?
A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states
B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer
C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings
D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points
Question 14: Health Care
Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations. (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1. To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2. The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3. Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4. Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5. The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6. APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1. Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2. APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3. Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4. Networking and Marketing Strategies
5. Conclusion
6. CV / resume
7. References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1. Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2. Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3. Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4. To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5. Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6. When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care
Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition
Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.
2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.
3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.
4. When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.
5. The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.
6. Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.
7. The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.
8. The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress
9. When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs
10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant
11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative
12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation
13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing
14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment
15. Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.
16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment
17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.
18. When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.
19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.
20. The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.
21. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.
22. A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses
23. Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms
24. A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.
25. A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.
26. A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.
27. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.
28. The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness
29. The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.
30. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.
MATCHING
Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.
1. A = first-level priority problem
2. B = second-level priority problem
3. C = third-level priority problem
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute
Question 16: Health Care
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Question 17: Health Care
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 18: Health Care
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
Question 19: Mathematics
six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56
Question 20: Other
Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?
Question 21: Business
For your research paper, be sure to include:
1. Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2. Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3. Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4. Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5. References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.
Motivating Employees
Name of student:
Student ID:
Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.
Question 22: Engineering
An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?
Question 23: Engineering
What are the types of soil dams?
Question 24: Computer Science
Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be
Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis
Question 25: Business
Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44
1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.
Question 26: Health Care
Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.
Question 27: Physics
Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.
1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.
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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.
3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.
4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.
4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.
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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.
4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.
4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.
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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.
5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.
5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.
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Question 28: Other
Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.
BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:
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(1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i) Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii) Table of Contents
iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?
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What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments
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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law
Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)
Assessment Details
Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words
Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.
It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.
Question
Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.
In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.
The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.
Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.
In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.
In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.
As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.
Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.
Advise Rashid.
Further Considerations
You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:
Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer
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Question 30: Philosophy
Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.
Question 31: Religious Studies
Instruction
APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources
Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..
Question 32: Business
Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.
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Question 3: Psychology
1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).
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Question 4: Other
Proposal for Term Project
Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)
In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.
Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.
Annotated Bibliography
Format: APA annotated bibliography format 5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)
Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.
Final Research Paper
Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format
Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.
Presentation/discussion of Research Paper
Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.
Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP
Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)
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(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.
Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP
Part One:
For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.
not to use unearned privilege
not to participate in oppression
to enact egalitarian power structures.
When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.
As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
“What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
“Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.
Part Two:
Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:
Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
What was the day like for you?
Why is every day not like this for you?
How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?
This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.
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Question 5: Other
700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.
Question 12: Economics
Production function that uses one variable function
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Question 13: Other
Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below
In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?
Reply to jenn 100 words
During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, forexample, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.) Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, & Burns, 2009).
Reply to Jon 100 words listed below
The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.
Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.
The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.
Reference
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Question 14: Business
This is geared towards a teams in my class.
Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment
Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future
Question 15: Mathematics
1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)
e^(ix) *e(iy)
e^(ix)^n
(e^(ix))/(e^(iy))
This is for precalculus with BYU.
I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.
Question 16: Engineering
Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below
Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.
Question 17: Finance
As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?
Sales
Cost of goods sold
Other expenses
Depreciation
Earnings before interest and taxes
Interest
Taxable income
Taxes (40%)
Net income
Dividends $4,759,301
Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499
$210,900,000
148,600,000
25,192,400
6,879,000
$30,229,800
3,791,000
$26,483,000
10,575,200
$15,862,800
Asset
Liabilities
Current Asset
Current liabilities
Cash
3,285,600
Account payable
$ 6,977,700
Account receivable
Inventory
5,910,800
6,627,300
Note payable
Total
14,342,600
21,320,300
Total
Fixed Assets
$15,823,700
Long-term debt
Owner’s equity
36,400,000
Net plant and equipment
$101,481,200
Common stock and paid- in surplus
5,580,000
Retained earnings
54,004,600
Total asset
117,304,900
Total
Total liabilities and equity
59,584,600
117,304,900
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Question 18: Other
Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.
Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.
Give at least two examples.
Question 19: Mathematics
An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that
Question 20: Other
need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below
Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.
Give at least two examples.
Question 21: Finance
Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?
Show calculations
Question 22: Business
300-500 words (Tesla)
Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.
Give examples of how Tesla addresses:
Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in. Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.
Question 23: History
Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?
Question 24: Other
2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..
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Question 25: Other
Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.
Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words
The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture. Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures. Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession. The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison. Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).
Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences. When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).
In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate. Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).
When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement. If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).
Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them. If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)
Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below
Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.
Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.
The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.
McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
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Question 26: Psychology
1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).
Question 27: Psychology
Essay 1 Questions
Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.
In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.
Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation. Below is an abbreviated example.
For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.
Signal (NS)
Opening the refrigerator
UCS
Sound of an alarm
UCR
Jumps
CS
Opens refrigerator
CR
Jumps
Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.
In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?
Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.
This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Question 28: Business
I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.
I need a tutorial if possible.
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Project Instructions
The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:
Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.
You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.
It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.
Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Question 29: Psychology
Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words
Dual-Store Model of Memory
Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.
Question 30: Business
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),
Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:
Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
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Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.
Week 3 Assignment 1
Student Full Name
Strayer University
BUS499 Business Administration Capstone
Dr. Grizzell
Dr. Gardner
Date
Everything in Blue should be deleted
Due Week 3 and worth 115 points
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
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Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!
Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.
Week 3 Assignment 1
Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.
Globalization
Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.
Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.
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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.
Technology
Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.
Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.
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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.
Industrial Organization Model
Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.
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Resource-Based Model
Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.
Vision
Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.
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Mission
Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.
Stakeholders
Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.
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Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
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Question 1: Communications
MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Question 2: Health Care.
NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)
Question 3: Health Care
Final Exam Nurs 6531
When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES
Question 4: Health Care
Walden University NURS 6630 midterm
QUESTION 1
A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).
A.
“You have to take your medication to become stable.”
B.
“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”
C.
“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”
D.
“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?” I received 0/1 for this answer??
1 points
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QUESTION 2
Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters. (The answer wording is different.
A.
Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.
B.
Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.
C.
Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.
D.
The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.
1 points
QUESTION 3
When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:
A.
“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”
B.
“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.
C.
“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”
D.
“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”
1 points
QUESTION 4 ?
During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?
A.
Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.
B.
RNA must be converted to mRNA.
C.
The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong
D.
RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.
1 points
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While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?
A.
Genes impact neuron functioning directly.
B.
Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.
C.
Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.
D.
Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.
1 points
QUESTION 6
Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:
A.
Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.
B.
Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.
C.
Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.
D.
The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.
1 points
QUESTION 7
Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?
A.
The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.
B.
The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer
C.
The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.
D.
The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.
1 points
QUESTION 8
It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?
A.
About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l
lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.
B.
The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.
C.
About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.
D.
Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.
1 points
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QUESTION 9
1. As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?
A.
Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.
B.
The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.
C.
Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.
D.
Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.
1 points
QUESTION 10
1. The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:
A.
The patient smokes cigarettes. This is correct!
B.
The patient has hypertension.
C.
The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.
D.
The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.
1 points
QUESTION 11
1. A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:
A.
Alert staff to possible seizures
B.
Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??
C.
Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)
D.
Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper
1 points
QUESTION 12
1. A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?
1. A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?
A.
To promote the availability of serotonin
B.
To decrease serotonin
C.
To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body
D.
To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine
1 points
QUESTION 14
1. The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?
A.
“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”
B.
“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”
C.
“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”
D.
“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”
1 points
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QUESTION 15
1. Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?
A.
“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”
B.
“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.”
C.
“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”
D.
“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.”
1 points
QUESTION 16
1. A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?
A.
Benzodiazepine
B.
Mirtazapine (Remeron)
C.
Ketamine
D.
Varenicline (Chantix)
1 points
QUESTION 17
1. The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?
A.
Full agonists
B.
Antagonists
C.
Partial agonists
D.
Inverse agonists
1 points
QUESTION 18
1. A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?
A.
“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”
B.
“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”
C.
“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.”
D.
“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”
1 points
QUESTION 19
1. The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?
A.
Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure
B.
Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure
C.
Voltage-sensitive ion channels
D.
Anticonvulsants
1 points
QUESTION 20 ?
1. Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?
A.
“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.” Not correct
B.
“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”
C.
“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”
D.
“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”
1 points
QUESTION 21
1. A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy? I did not have this question
A.
Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality
B.
Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences
C.
Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting
D.
Measuring symptoms of psychosis
1 points
QUESTION 22
1. Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?
A.
Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.
B.
The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.
C.
MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.
D.
D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists. Correct answer
1 points
QUESTION 23
1. Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?
A.
“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”
B.
“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”
C.
“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct
D.
“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”
1 points
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QUESTION 24
1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?
A.
Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.
B.
Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
C.
Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.
D.
The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.
1 points
QUESTION 25
1. A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?
A.
Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex
B.
Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex
C.
Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex
D.
Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex
1 points
QUESTION 26
1. The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?
A.
Hypersexuality
B.
Amenorrhea
C.
Dystonia
D.
Tardive dyskinesia correct answer
A.
1 points
QUESTION 27
1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test
Olanzapine to clozapine
B.
Asenapine to Risperidone
C.
Aripripazole to ziprasidone
D.
Aripripazole to clozapine
1 points
QUESTION 28
1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test
A.
Quetiapine
B.
Paliperidone
C.
Lurasidone
D.
Clozapine
1 points
QUESTION 29
1. Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?
A.
Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.
B.
D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.
C.
D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.
D.
D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
1 points
QUESTION 30
1. Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?
A.
An underlying depressive disorder
B.
The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one This is correct
C.
The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic
D.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 31
1. The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest
A.
Long-term use of antipsychotics
B.
Genetic disposition
C.
Age
D.
A and C
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E.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 32
The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?
A.
Those that are potent D2 antagonists
B.
Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties
C.
D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway
D.
Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors
1 points
QUESTION 33
Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?
A.
5HT2 antagonism
B.
D2 antagonismThis was wrong 0/1
C.
Alpha-2 antagonism
D.
D2 partial agonist
1 points
QUESTION 34
A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?
A.
Norepinephrine
B.
Dopamine
C.
Serotonin
D.
A and C
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E.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 35
Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?
A.
The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.
B.
The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.
C.
The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.
D.
The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.
1 points
QUESTION 36
The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?
A.
Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me
B.
Patient with a bipolar II designation
C.
Patient with a bipolar III designation
D.
None of the above
1 points
QUESTION 37
Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test
A.
The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.
B.
The patient may experience severe depression.
C.
The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.
D.
The patient may experience increased mood cycling.
1 points
QUESTION 38
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?
A.
The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.
B.
The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.
C.
The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.
D.
The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.
1 points
QUESTION 39
Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?
A.
Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.
B.
Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.
C.
Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.
D.
Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.
1 points
QUESTION 40
Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?
A.
“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”
B.
“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”
C.
“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”
D.
“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”
1 points
QUESTION 41
The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?
A.
Insomnia
B.
Suicidal ideation
C.
Problems concentrating
D.
A and C
1 points
QUESTION 42
Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?
A.
Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.
B.
Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.
C.
Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.
D.
The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs. Correct
1 points
QUESTION 43
The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects
A.
Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.
B.
Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.
C.
Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.
D.
Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.
1 points
QUESTION 44
A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?
A.
Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.
B.
The patient cannot take any antihistamines.
C.
The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.
D.
The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.
1 points
QUESTION 45
After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?
A.
Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.
B.
Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.
C.
Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.
D.
All of the above.
1 points
QUESTION 46
A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?
A.
First onset in puberty or early adulthood
B.
Late onset of menses
C.
Premenstrual syndrome
D.
A and C
1 points
QUESTION 47
A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:
A.
MAOI plus SNRI
B.
SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI
C.
NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine
D.
NDRI plus modafinil
1 points
*Q/UESTION 48
Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?
A.
She may experience withdrawal symptoms.
B.
She may experience increased trauma.
C.
Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.
D.
It can lead to difficulties with concentration.
1 points
QUESTION 49
A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?
A.
Weight gain can be problematic.
B.
Sedation is very common.
C.
Induction of mania is rare.
D.
Seizures are not unusual.
1 points
QUESTION 50
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?
A.
Stop the venlafaxine
B.
Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%
C.
Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%
D.
Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%
1 points
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QUESTION 51
A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?
A.
It can affect her menstruation.
B.
Suicidality can be common among young adults.
C.
Sedation may be problematic.
D.
Weight gain is unusual.
1 points
QUESTION 52
Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?
A.
He has fibromyalgia.
B.
He has arrhythmia.
C.
He uses alcohol.
D.
He is overweight.
1 points
QUESTION 53
A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?
A.
Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.
B.
Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.
C.
Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.
D.
Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.
1 points
QUESTION 54
A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?
A.
The patient has hepatic impairment.
B.
The patient has moderate renal impairment.
C.
The patient has severe renal impairment.
D.
The patient has cardiac impairment.
1 points
QUESTION 55
The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A.
Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.
A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?
A.
“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”
B.
“You should not consume processed meats.”
C.
“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”
D.
“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”
1 points
QUESTION 57
A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?
A.
“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”
B.
“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”
C.
“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”
D.
“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct
1 points
QUESTION 58
Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?
A.
Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me
B.
Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.
C.
Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer
D.
Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.
1 points
QUESTION 59
The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?
A.
Patient with PTSD
B.
Patient with partial seizures
C.
Patient with galactose intolerance
D.
Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency
1 points
QUESTION 60
Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?
A.
The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.
B.
The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.
C.
The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.
D.
The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.
1 points
QUESTION 61
A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?
A.
mirtazapine (Remeron)
B.
doxepin (Silenor)
C.
alprazolam (Xanax)
D.
trazadone (Oleptro)
1 points
QUESTION 62
A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?
A.
Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression
B.
Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression
C.
Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions
D.
Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression
1 points
QUESTION 63
The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?
A.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
B.
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
C.
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
D.
Platelet Count
1 points
QUESTION 64
A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following? I don’t think I had this question
A.
There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease
B.
Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C.
It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression
D.
There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age
1 points
QUESTION 65
A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?
A.
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
B.
Gabapentin (Neurontin)
C.
Valporoic Acid (Depakene)
D.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 66
A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I
A.
Omega-3-fatty-acids
B.
Soybean lecithin
C.
Inositol
D.
L-methylfolate
1 points
QUESTION 67
The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?
A.
Valporic Acid (Depakene)
B.
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
C.
Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.
D.
Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
1 points
QUESTION 68
The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?
A.
Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.
B.
Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD
C.
Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.
D.
Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.
1 points
QUESTION 69
A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:
A.
Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain
B.
Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation
C.
Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)
D.
Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other
1 points
QUESTION 70
During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:
A.
“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??
B.
“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”
C.
“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”
D.
“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”
1 points
QUESTION 71
The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently.. The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor
A.
Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.
B.
Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines
C.
Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate
D.
Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy
1 points
QUESTION 72
After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?
a.
Respiratory depression
b.
Sedation and restlessness
c.
Sweating and nausea (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)
d.
Bradycardia and tachypnea
1 points
QUESTION 73
A patient is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is: I didn’t have this question
A.
“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”
B.
“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”
C.
“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”
D.
“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”
1 points
QUESTION 74 ?
The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:
A.
Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?
B.
What do you do when you feel fear?
C.
Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?
D.
What makes your fear better?
1 points
QUESTION 75
A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:
A.
He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.
B.
Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.
C.
This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.
D.
This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.
1 points
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Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:
What is an accurate description of psychosis? It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders (Correct)
Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression. She has apathy and no joy in life. What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system corre
Question 5: Health Care
NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..
Question 6: Health Care
MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………
Question 7: Health Care
MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care
Question 8: Health Care
IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..
Question 9: Health Care.
HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………
Question 10: Health Care
NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete
True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.
Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.
An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:
What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?
True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.
Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?
A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?
With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?
These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.
Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?
Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:
Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?
When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?
This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.
Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?
Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?
Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?
Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?
Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses
The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?
A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality. B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality. D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.
What is the first step in the delegation process?
A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment
What is the mos
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What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?
A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility C) The age difference between the client and the nurse D) What type of insurance coverage the client has
Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.
A) Crime scenes B) Women’s shelters C) Emergency rooms D) Correctional institutions
What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?
A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses
A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.
A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless
When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?
A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses B) During the last 6 months of life C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries D) During and shortly after being born
Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?
A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch
What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?
A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons
True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.
A) False B) True
Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.
A) Aggressive B) Assertive C) Dishonest D) Submissive
Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?
A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client. B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client. C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting. D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.
When does the encoding process of communication take place?
A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver. B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message. C) The sender sends the message. D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.
Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?
A) Hippocrates B) Emperor Darius C) Cyrus the Great D) William Harvey
Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.
A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging
A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?
A) Transcendental Meditation B) Guided Imagery C) Therapeutic Talking D) Visualization
Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.
A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding
Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.
A) Client, health, environment, nursing B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers D) Care, adaptation, system, cure
Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?
A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers
What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?
A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior. C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past. D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles
Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?
A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence. D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases
Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?
A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care. B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality. C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care. D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment
An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?
A) False B) True
What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?
A) All of the above B) Sensitivity C) Understanding D) Communication
Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.
A) True B) False
Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?
A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities. D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.
Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.
A) True B) False
The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?
A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Planning D) Diagnosis
This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.
A) Minority Model B) Purnell’s Model C) Non-English Model D) Bio-Cultural Model
True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
A) False B) True
Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?
A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.
An ethical code does which of the following?
A) dictates decisions B) provides a framework for decision-making C) sets firm rules D) provides a group of legally binding values
To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?
A) LPN B) CNA, level II C) CNA, level III D) RN
A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?
A) Partially compensated care B) Supportive developmental care C) Self-care D) Wholly compensated care
Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?
A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information
Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy
A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills
Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).
A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations
What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?
A) Laws B) Values C) Morals D) Ethics
Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?
A) Visualization B) Therapeutic Touch C) Hypnosis D) Guided Imagery
The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:
A) Quality Improvement B) Root Cause Analysis C) Case Management D) Leapfrog
Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.
A) False B) True
Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?
A) Magnet hospital B) Shared decision-making environment C) system of improvements and quality care D) Just culture organization
Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.
A) True B) False
Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?
A) Choose your battles B) Confront the conflict C) Postpone the conflict D) Ignore the conflict
Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?
A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.” B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.” C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.” D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”
Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?
A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.” B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.” C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.” D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”
A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?
A) The client’s next of kin B) The client C) The client’s spouse D) The client’s only child
A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?
A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.” B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.” C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.” D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”
Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.
A) Passive Obedience B) Active Obedience C) Health Care Aversion D) Communication Synergy
Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?
A) Scientific rationalism B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents
Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.
A) False B) True
What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?
A) Computer glitches B) Inexpensive computer systems C) Improved communication D) May be used by multiple users at one time
Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?
A) Provide health screenings B) Respond to emergency situations C) Prescribe medications D) Develop health-care plans
The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?
A) Assessment B) Diagnosis C) Evaluation D) Planning
What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?
A) Medicare B) Exclusive Provider Organization C) Long-term care insurance D) Medicaid
T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?
A) Rehabilitation Center B) Long-term care facility C) Home with homecare D) Assisted living
What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?
A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health. C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death. D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.
What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?
A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available C) Join professional organizations in large numbers D) Use union tactics to increase salaries
The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.
A) False B) True
Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?
A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture D) All of the above
Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.
A) Religion B) Spirituality C) Truth D) Meditation
True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.
A) False B) True
Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?
A) Conviction of a serious crime B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing
What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?
A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in. B) It reflects only the past medical history. C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received. D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history
The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:
A) Capitated Payment System B) Managed Care Organization C) Preferred Provider Organization D) Prospective Payment System
Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?
A) Institute of Medicine B) Department of Health C) Board of Nursing D) American Nurses Association
Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?
A) Desire for greater control over one’s health B) Traditions passed on from parents C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care
Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.
A) Easy access to computers B) Consumer concerns about access to health care C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas
The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.
A) True B) False
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A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?
A) Skill level of each staff member B) Staff preferences for specific clients C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station D) Developmental needs of clients
What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?
A) Primary intervention B) Assistive intervention C) Secondary intervention D) Tertiary intervention
Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.
A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies. B) The client is relatively stable. C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift. D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.
Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.
A) True B) False
Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.
A) Physician record keeping B) Interdepartmental communication C) Documentation D) Medication administration
What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?
A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help. B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it. C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek. D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.
This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.
A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?
A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs
Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?
A) Refers the problem to a supervisor B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience C) Uses the incident as a threat D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time
What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?
A) More portable B) Fewer privacy issues C) Unbreakable D) Reduces redundancy
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Question 11: Health Care
NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Question 12: Philosophy
PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet
Question 13: Philosophy
SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Question 14: Philosophy
PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Question 15: Sociology
SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Question 16: Computer Studies
Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)
Discussion Questions
Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.
Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.
I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.
Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.
Question 17: Computer Science
CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall
Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall
Due Week 2 and worth 110 points
The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:
“WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
“Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
“Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)
Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.
Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.
Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:
Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Question 18: Computer Science
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DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2
DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1
What is the best description of a conceptual model?
A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system
image
The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
Which statement best reflects interaction design?
Interaction design is a new discipline
Interaction design is multidisciplinary
Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
Interaction design is an application of common sense.
What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in humancomputer interaction?
Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
All of the above.
According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
They rate it as more honest
They rate it as less honest
They rate it as more likeable
They rate it as less likeable.
What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
Learners may feel that they are being patronised
Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
Which of the following options best represents the core values of usercentred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
Developing and testing in several cycles
All of the above.
When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
All of the above.
How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chestimplanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
They emphasize controlled experimentation
They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
They do not directly involve users.
What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
Seven plus or minus two (59 users)
Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
At least 10 users.
What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
The idea that experts need to work handinhand with users to develop an optimal user experience.
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DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2
Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
Effectiveness
Learnability
Helpfulness
Safety.
What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
The return on investment of the usercentred design process.
The opportunity cost of not using usercentred design.
An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
Powerful functionality
User experience
Access to content
Conceptual design.
Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from
the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from
the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
Conversation
Knowledge of a physical desktop
Embedded computing
Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
Restaurant menu
Touchscreen interface
A paper diary
Mobile technology.
What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
Gesture and body movements
Haptic (touch) interface
Exploring and browsing
Infrared position detection.
Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
People can actually hold much less than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
People can actually hold much more than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about contextaware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
Context is hard to define
The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
Interfaces that apologize to their users
Interfaces that look and behave like people.
The character Rea is an example of what?
A realestate agent
A zoomorphic interface
A persuasive technology
An embodied agent.
Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
By coloring the water when usage was high
By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
By sounding chimes when water usage was high
None of the above.
Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
Using different theories with which to interpret data.
Using multiple researchers in a usercentred evaluation.
Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering
information about users’ tasks?
Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
The data collected are rich and complex.
Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,
strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?
A psychometric scale
A Likert scale
A questionnaire
An openresponse questionnaire item.
What is a “participant observer”
An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
An observer who watches participants.
A participant who watches observers.
Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
“Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
Four different data gathering techniques were used.
Participatory design was used.
Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
5
5.5
6
None of the above.
What is an affinity diagram?
A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from thinkaloud protocols.
Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
Look for critical incidents to report.
What are web analytics?
Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
Webbased methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
Webbased methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to
interaction design?
Usercentred design
Systems design
Genius design
Conceptual design.
Should endusers always have a high degree of participation in software development?
Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of endusers, which should be universally applied.
Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
Never: endusers do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
None of the above.
What is the Volere shell?
An operating system similar to Unix.
A template for specifying system requirements.
A framework for defining personas and scenarios
A template for creating cultural probe packages.
What is Contextual Inquiry?
A component of Contextual Design.
A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
Participant observation in relevant use contexts
A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
“An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
Use case
Essential use case
Storyboard
Scenario.
Which of the following is a problem with lowlevel prototyping?
Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
They take too long to build.
User expectations can be set too high.
None of the above.
What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
It should support a wide range of user tests.
It should look like the final product.
It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
It should be easy to throw away.
Where would a cardbased prototype best fit in the design process?
After conceptual design, before scenario design
After scenario design, before storyboarding.
After storyboarding, before lowlevel prototyping.
After lowlevel prototyping, before highlevel prototyping.
What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
Conducting user tests.
Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your
data.
After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
End users and designers
Designers and usability experts
Usability experts and marketing personnel
Designers and marketing personnel.
How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
Interface metaphors.
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Question 19: Mathematics
MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete
Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?
Question 20: Business
ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions
QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation
The following information is given about Nadak Co.:
The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.
Required:
Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)
Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)
What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)
QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)
BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.
2012 2011
Return on Equity 13% 12%
Return on Assets 8% 9%
Profit margin 20 18%
Asset turnover 0.40 0.50
Days in inventory 72 days 55 days
Days in debtors 42 days 42 days
Current ratio 1.6 1.5
Quick ratio 0.7 1.1
Debt-to-Equity ratio 1.4 1.0
Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity
Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets
Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity
Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales
Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets
Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365
Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365
Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities
Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities
Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity
Required
Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.
QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts
Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:
Credit sales
86,500
Cash sales
6,100
Credit purchases
93,200
Cash received from debtors
67,800
Cash paid to creditors
55,890
Cash purchases
4,300
Discount received from
7,500
creditors
Discount allowed to debtors
3,500
Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.
QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)
The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):
DR CR
$ $
Bank Overdraft 10,000
Accounts Receivable 200,000
Allowance for Doubtful Debts 1,000
Inventory 100,000
Prepaid Rent 10,000
Property, Plant and 450,000
Equipment
Accumulated Depreciation – PPE 200,000
Accounts Payable 60,000
Bank loan 50,000
Contributed Capital 310,000
Retained Profit at 1 July 2013 34,000
Sales revenue 4,50,000
Cost of Goods Sold 265,000
Interest Expense 5,000
Wages Expenses 80,000
Rent Expense 5,000
The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:
Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
$5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.
Part A (12 Marks)
Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.
Part B (7 Marks)
Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:
Part C (4 Marks)
In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.
QUESTION 6 (15 marks)Inventory
The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:
Date Cash Purchases Cash Sales Balance
1 June 100 units @ $10
10 June 80 units @ $12
18 June 140 units @ $20
25 June 30 units @ $14
30 June 50 units @ $25
Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.
Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)
Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)
3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION
4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS
4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE
4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE
QUESTION 7 (10Marks)Noncurrent assets
On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.
Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)
What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)
3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)
1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)
Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)
Part A (2 marks)
For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost
Item Cost Classification
1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale
2)Depreciation of head office computers
3)Salaries of production line workers for a
manufacturer
4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s
½ mark each entry
Part B (9.5 marks)
Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:
direct labour cost of $200 000
raw materials purchased of $400 000
total overhead cost of $500 000.
The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:
31 January 1 January
(ending) (beginning)
Raw materials inventory $80 000 $95 000
Work in progress inventory $110 000 $60 000
Finished goods inventory $255 000 $75 000
Required:
Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.
Part C (2 marks)
Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.
What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?
Question 9 – MCQ practice questions
You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.
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Question 21: Business
MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10
Question 22: Business
HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)
Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)
A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?
planning
staffing
controlling
organizing
Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:
identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
create a mission statement.
identify new menu items to offer.
define strategic objectives.
Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?
Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.
Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.
Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.
Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?
Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.
Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.
Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.
A shopper service is a(n):
service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.
Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule
determined by the food and beverage manager.
control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.
The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:
comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.
evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.
determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.
Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?
preparing
serving
issuing
storing
purchasing
A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):
product specification.
portion control percentage.
algorithm.
standard recipe.
Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?
yield percentage worksheets
standard purchase specifications
standard recipes
standard portion size specifications
If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?
5.2
5.0
2.5
1.2
To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:
5.0.
4.0.
0.4.
0.25
The information is not enough
Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?
reforecasting
bottom-up budgeting
top-down budgeting
mark-up budgeting
Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?
general manager’s salary
rent expense
property taxes
food costs
At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:
lower than in September.
higher than in September.
relatively the same as in September.
impossible to forecast with any accuracy.
At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:
$25,000 net income.
$10,000 net income.
$0 (breakeven).
$10,000 net loss.
The information isn’t enough
Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?
consumer demand
menu mix
supply levels
competition
A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?
$11.67
$12.60
$14.76
cannot be determined
According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.
RU Prime-rib burger
10 Servings
Purchase
Cost/Purchase
Ingredient
Amount Needed
Unit
Unit
ground prime rib
3
lb.
10-lb box
$60.00
crispy fried onions
1
cup
1 gallon
$32.00
Worcestershire sauce
3
cup
1 gallon*
$16.00
pre-sliced mushrooms
1
#10 can
6 #10/case
$18.00
hamburger buns
10
a dozen
$6.00
spreadable cheddar cheese
1
lb.
5 lb.
$15.00
*1 gallon = 16 cups
The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:
$5.40
$1.80
$2.00
$6.00
The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is
$3.40
$14.70
$3.50
$3.20
If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:
$5.14
$10.00
$9.14
$9.71
cannot be determined
After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:
inelastic.
high.
elastic.
low.
The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?
Decrease prices.
Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
All of the above are reasonable strategies.
None of the above are reasonable strategies.
Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:
puzzles.
plowhorses.
stars.
dogs.
The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:
$4.
$6.
$8.
$10.
The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?
$6
$8
$10
$12
In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?
chef
purchasing agent
receiving agent
storeroom clerk
Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?
purchase specification
audit trail
delivery invoice
inventory checklist
In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:
highest price.
popularity of a menu item.
suitability for intended use.
greatest value.
A stockout can occur as a result of:
employing a perpetual inventory system.
over-purchasing.
inadequate menu engineering.
under-purchasing.
With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:
usage rate plus the minimum level.
usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
lead-time quantity minus the safety level.
According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:
Purchase unit
10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)
Usage rate
100 lb per day
Order period
5 days
Lead time
1 day
Safety level
100 lb
The order point quantity of this item should be at:
100lb
200lb
300lb
Question 6: Business
Instruction:
Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project
Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.
assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation
compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation
demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets
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Question 7: Health Care
Instruction
In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.
Question 8: Health Care
Instruction
In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.
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400lb
The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:
50
20
30
40
The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:
500lb
600lb
300lb
200lb
Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?
Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.
Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.
As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.
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Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:
delivery invoice.
daily receiving report.
purchase order.
standard purchase specification sheet.
To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:
supplier delivery personnel.
assigned staff from the property.
the food and beverage controller.
either a or c above.
How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?
Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving
Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?
Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
Directs are recorded in inventory records.
Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.
Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?
issuing
storing
purchasing
accounting
When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.
form
time
informational
place
According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?
Self-distribution
Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
Catalog online ordering
Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.
Physical Inventory
Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________
Amount in
product
Storage unit
storage
purchase cost
ground beef
10-lb bag
6 bags
$
2.55/lb
canned peaches
6#10/cs
3-3/6 cs
$
39.00/cs
flour
50 lb/bag
2 bags
$
24.10/bag
In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes
3.83 cases
3.50 cases
3.36 cases
3.30 cases
According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:
$212.87
$200.00
$194.54
$192.20
$337.70
Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:
As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz
Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb
Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb
According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45
The cost per servable pound is:
$10.13
$10.00
$8.00
Cannot determine
How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?
129 lb
131 lb
103 lb
Cannot determine.
If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:
$12.00
$ 11.00
$12.50
$ 11.50
Perpetual Inventory
Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)
Carried forward: __0______
Date
In
Out
Balance
1/7
3
3
1/9
2
1
1/10
1
0
1/12
5
1
4
1/15
2
2
According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.
2
3
4
0
Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)
What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
(1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).
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Question 23: Business
MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete
1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?
2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is
3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?
4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as
5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as
6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?
7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?
8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with
9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as
10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is
11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to
12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)
13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?
14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in
15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called
16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?
How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?
17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?
18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.
19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of
20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)
21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with
22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?
23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in
24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?
25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?
26) The end result of activity is known as
27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?
28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?
29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?
30) Suboptimization occurs when
Question 24: Business
ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution
1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?
The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.
2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?
The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.
3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?
A decrease to work in process inventory
B. A decrease to applied overhead
C. An increase to finished goods
D. An increase to cost of goods sold
4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?
The production of textbooks
B. The production of town homes
C. The pasteurization of milk
D. The production of cans of spinach
5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?
Debit Manufacturing Overhead
B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory
6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?
It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.
7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?
The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
B. The cost of the wheels
C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
D. The wages earned by motor assemblers
8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?
Planning, directing, and controlling
B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
C. Planning, directing, and selling
D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling
9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?
Work in process, finished goods raw materials
B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods
10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on
machine hours
B. direct labor
C. direct material dollars
D. units of production
11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)
overhead rate
B. product activity
C. cost driver
D. cost pool
12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with
computing the activity-based overhead rate
B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
C. identifying the activity-cost pools
D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products
13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?
Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
D. The manufacturing process has been stable.
14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that
the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries
15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is
identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
C. the labeling of activities as value-added
D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs
16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?
$60,000
B. $90,000
C. $150,000
D. $75,000
17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700
Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is
$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $1,920,000
D. $1,200,000
18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700
Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is
$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $2,000,000
D. $1,280,000
19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?
Buy; savings = $10,000
B. Make; savings = $20,000
C. Make; savings = $10,000
D. Buy; savings = $25,000
20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?
Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.
21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,
incremental costs are $1 per unit
B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
C. differential costs are $2 per unit
D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit
22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?
37.5%
B. 150%.
C. 266.6%
D. 62.5%.
23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?
The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.
24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?
$28,000
B. $18,000
C. $6,000
D. $12,000
25) Variable costing
is required under GAAP
B. is used for external reporting purposes
C. is also known as full costing
D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost
26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?
Direct labor
B. Direct materials
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
D. Variable manufacturing overhead
27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is
$18
B. $16
C. $27
D. $26
28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?
Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.
29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that
a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be
30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should
offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
C. not employ any standards
D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill
31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was
$2,400 favorable
B. $5,600 unfavorable
C. $3,200 unfavorable
D. $3,200 favorable
32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?
$15 per direct labor hour
B. $18 per direct labor hour
C. $19 per direct labor hour
D. $17 per direct labor hour
33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?
$2,000
B. $4,000
C. $3,000
D. $1,000
34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of
standard hours allowed
B. actual overhead costs incurred
C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
D. actual hours worked
35) The overhead volume variance relates only to
variable overhead costs
B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
C. all manufacturing costs
D. fixed overhead costs
36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,
the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied
37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?
$12,500
B. $25,000
C. $27,500
D. $13,750
38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?
600
B. 580
C. 630
D. 620
39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?
$57,525
B. $63,525
C. $42,350
D. $63,000
40) In most cases, prices are set by the
customers
B. largest competitor
C. selling company
D. competitive market
41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in
all cases
B. its early years
C. the long run
D. the short run
42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is
it considers customer demand
B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
C. it is simple to compute
D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost
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Question 25: Economics
ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
Exam #1
A resource is anything that:
A) can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.
Scarcity in economics means:
A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.
Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.
Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C) scarcity.
D) the margin.
A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C) at the margin
D) after the fact
A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B) trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces
When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.
Use the following to answer questions 9-11:
Figure: Guns and Butter
9.
(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:
A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.
(Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.
(Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.
An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.
Use the following to answer questions 15-17:
Figure: Comparative Advantage
Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.
(Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges
(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.
(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.
The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.
Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.
The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D) an increase in the incomes of buyers
The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.
B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.
A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.
If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.
Use the following to answer questions 24-25:
Figure: Demand for Coconuts
(Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.
(Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D) E to B.
When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B) complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.
Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C) an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks
A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C) when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.
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Exam #2
The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.
Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes
Use the following to answer questions 3-5:
Figure: Supply of Coconuts
(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B
(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B
(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) B to E
The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.
Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.
The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.
Use the following to answer question 9:
Figure: DVD Market
(Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.
In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.
Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.
Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) not change.
D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.
Use the following to answer questions 13-14:
Figure: Consumer Surplus II
(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF
(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF
The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.
Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A) price elastic.
B) price inelastic.
C) price unit-elastic.
D) perfectly price inelastic.
Use the following to answer question 17:
Figure: Consumer Surplus III
(Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.
Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00
The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6
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If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A) price-inelastic
B) price unit-elastic
C) price-elastic
D) positive
To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A) less than 0
B) equal to 0
C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
D) greater than 0
A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A) horizontal
B) downward-sloping
C) upward-sloping
D) vertical
The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A) between 1 and 0
B) less than 0
C) equal to 0
D) greater than 0
To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.
According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.
To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A) average.
B) top.
C) margin.
D) end.
Use the following to answer question 27:
Figure: Marginal Cost Curve
(Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10
If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D) the market is producing too much of the good.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Question 11
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
Question 12
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Question 15
0 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Question 16
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Question 18
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.
Question 20
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
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Question 24
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Question 41
0 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Question 43
0 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.
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Question 48
0 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
Question 50
0 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 31: Psychology
PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.
Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
Identify possible limitations of each perspective.
Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.
Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines
Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)
How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
2
3
5
16
Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
correlational analysis of trait adjectives
factor analysis of trait adjectives
selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
finds groups of variables that can be factored
finds groups of variables that have similar means
Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
Extraversion & “Surgency”
Conscientiousness & “Morality”
Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
Openness to Experience & “Culture”
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
values are cognitions, traits are not
traits appear to have more dimensions than values
unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?
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Justice
Transcendence
Humanity
Creativity
Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
Realistic & Enterprising
Conventional & Social
Artistic & Investigative
Realistic & Artistic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory
on personality?
extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
20%
40%
60%
80%
Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
projection
repression
sublimation
denial
Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
Unconscious, ego, repression
Unconscious, id, reaction formation
Preconscious, superego, regression
Preconscious, superfly, fixation
Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
being unfalsifiable
being unscientific
being deterministic
being simplistic
Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
fate
the weather
hard work
bad mood
Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping
strategy?
Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
rank order stability increases with age
Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?
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it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
it increases with age.
it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
Shame & doubt
Isolation
Guilt
Inferiority
Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors
26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?
convergent validity
content validity
internal consistency
retest reliability
Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
infrequency scale
incompatibility scale
lie scale
defensiveness scale
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
poor predictive validity
poor inter-rater reliability
susceptible to faking good bias
susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly
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Exam #3
The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility
The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.
Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475
Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy
Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.
While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.
Use the following to anser questions 7-8:
Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples
(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D
(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D
Use the following to answer questions 9-10:
Table: Total Product and Marginal Product
(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth
A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run
Use the following to answer question 15:
Figure: Short-Run Costs
(Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total
If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.
A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.
When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale
In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to
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Question 26: General Question
South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)
Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:
Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.
Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.
Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)
What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:
Respiratory distress
Sun intolerance
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations
Death(not confirm)
Question 6 (5 points)
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.
The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:
a)Oncotic pressure
b)Buffering
c)Net filtration
d)Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:
a)Capillary hydrostatic
b)Interstitial hydrostatic
c)Capillary oncotic
d)Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:
a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)
It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:
a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)
What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:
a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.
b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.
c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.
d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)
A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:
a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+
b)Intracellular and extracellular K+
c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+
d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)
In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:
a)Hypopolarization
b)Hyperexcitability
c)Depolarization
d)Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)
Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:
a)20:1
b)1:20
c)10:2
d)10:5
Question 15 (5 points)
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:
a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response
c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
d)Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)
Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:
a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development
b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair
c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant
d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:
a)Are antigen-presenting molecules
b)Bind antigens to antibodies
c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process
d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:
a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell
b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate
c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:
a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors
b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells
c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs
d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:
a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)
b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)
d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:
a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:
a)Complement-mediated cell lysis
b)Phagocytosis by macrophages
c)Phagocytosis in the spleen
d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Question 23 (5 points)
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:
Question 9: Psychology
Instruction
develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.
Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling
Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?
For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)
For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).
Your project should include all of the following sections:
Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
7. Intervention plan for the family
8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
9. Prognosis for the family
10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.
Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.
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Question 10: Science
Instruction
For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.
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Question 11: General
INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT
INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH
Worth 25% of final mark
Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)
Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.
Instructions
Select trade agreement, market and sector
Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).
Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).
Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).
Starting your research
Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.
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At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
One business journal article
Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.
Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime
Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime
Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime
Does not use 10 minutes adequately
/1
Q&A
Handles the questions effectively
Handles the questions properly
Handles the questions adequately
Handles the questions satisfactorily
Does not handle the questions satisfactorily
/1
Total:
/10
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Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
throughout
Documents sources using APA format with a few errors
Documents sources using APA format with many errors
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Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example
Unit IV Essay
Marketing Plan: Part II
Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).
This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.
Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
Include a competitive and industry analysis.
This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.
Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).
Question 17: Accounting
The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.
Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:
Work in process, beginninginventory 250 units
Direct materials (100% complete)
Conversion costs (50% complete)
Units started during June 800 units
Work in process, ending inventory: 150 units
Direct materials (100% complete)
Conversion costs (75% complete)
Costs for June 2010:
Work in process, beginning inventory:
Directmaterials $180,000
Conversion costs $270,000
Direct materials costs added duringJune $1,000,000
Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000
prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials
prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs
prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress
prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending
Question 18: Engineering
If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.
A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?
Question 21: Business
Assignment
– Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.
– Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.
– Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):
What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.
Rules
The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.
Question 22: Mathematics
A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.
Question 23: Mathematics
If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%
Question 24: English
Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.
Question 25: Economics
The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?
Question 26: Business
Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done. Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree. However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.
REQUIRED:
What costs are relevant to your decision? Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
Comment on response of 2 classmates. Agree or disagree
Question 27: Business
Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?
Question 28: Religious Study
Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each
Question 29: Other
Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?
Question 30: Psychology
Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!
In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!
Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.
Question 31: Literary Studies
Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility
Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.
Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:
Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?
Some Research Topics:
Equity in Casting
Equity in film
Equity in theatre
Representation in film
Hollywood Diversity Report
Effects of tv on minorities
Effects of tv race and gende
Women and advertising
How woman is portrayed in film
Masculinity in TV and Film
Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth
Question 32: Political Science
Instruction
Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?
Course Name
Course POLS 393-01 Online
Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN
Class Time
This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.
Blackboard Help
For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853
Course Description
Course Purpose
This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation. While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives
1) Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought
2) Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought.
3) Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.
Material
Textbooks
W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford)
Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale)
Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books)
Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover)
James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon)
Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon)
Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media)
Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)
Required Software
Microsoft Word
Required Technology
Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus.
Please check their operating hours.
1. Fairchild Tiger Hub
2. Student Center Lab, 2nd Floor
3. Labs within colleges
Grading
Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.
Grading Scale
A+,A, A-
B+
B
B-
C+
C
C-
D+
Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course
D
(Refer to Catalog)
D-
F
Major Assignments and Grade Distribution
Response Questions
Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric.
60% of grade
Final Project
Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals. Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard.
30% of grade
Class Participation
You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question).
10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
Total:
100% or 100 Points
Course Outline
This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.
Overview / Course Responsibilities
All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.
Each week you will have three assignments due:
(1) Discussion Board Assignment
(2) One Discussion Board Response (minimum)
I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Course Schedule
Date
Chapter / Focus
Assignments
8/26
I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought
None
09/02
II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk
Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3
Response question #1
Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*
Response questions #2, 3
Responses due 09//15
09/16
Du Bois, ch. 7-10
Response question #4
Du Bois, 11-Afterthought
Response questions #5, 6
Responses Due9/22
09/23
III. American Terrors
Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*
Response question #7
Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),
ch. 1-14
Response question #8
Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”
Response questions #9, 10
Responses
due
09/29
09/30
Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”
Response questions #11, 12
Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”
Response question #13
Responses Due 10/06
10/07
IV. Black Internationalism
Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82
Response questions #14, 15
Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*
Response questions #16
Response Due 10/13
10/14
V. The Civil Rights Revolution
King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*
Response questions #17, 18
Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.
Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*
Response question #23
Response Due 11/03
11/04
Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2
Response questions #24, 25
King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6
Response question #26
Responses Due 11/10
11/11
VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges
Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic
Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*
Response questions #27, 28
Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2
Response questions #29, 30
Response Due 11/17
11/18
Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.
Response question #31
Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3
Response question #32
: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6
Response question #33
Response Due 12/01
11/25
VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future
Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*
All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.
Each week you will have three assignments due:
(1) Readings
(2) Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs)
(3) Reply to at least two classmates blog post
I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Assignment Policies
Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation
Students may may share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy
Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy
The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory.
Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.
Question 33: Sociology
Instruction
Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!
Question 34: Economics
Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:
Instruction
The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand
Question 35: Other
I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.
PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method
CHECK FIGURE
(4) Ending work in process: $40,800
Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.
Percent Completed
Units
Materials
Conversion
Work in process, beginning…
50,000
60%
30%
Started into production………
470,000
Completed and transferred out
450,000
Work in process, ending………
60,000
70%
20%
Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:
Materials
Conversion
Work in process, beginning…
$24,500
$9,500
Cost added during June……….
$377,600
$274,200
The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.
Required:
Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.
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What is an overhead cost?
Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process
Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost
2. What is a cost driver?
Whatever causes a change in overhead cost
A phenomenon driving costs down for your business
An already budgeted expense
There is no such thing as a cost driver
202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…
Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.
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Question 1: General Question
Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)
Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)
Question 2: General Question
Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.
Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.
Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.
Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.
Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is
Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.
Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to
Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.
Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?
Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.
Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.
Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.
Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is
Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)
Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.
Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.
Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.
Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.
Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000
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Question
Instruction
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.
Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies
The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.
To prepare for this Discussion:
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Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.
Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.
Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.
Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.
Post a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.
Question 3: General Question
Question 1
6 out of 6 points
According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:
Question 2
6 out of 6 points
Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:
· Question 3
6 out of 6 points
This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.
· Question 4
6 out of 6 points
The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:
· Question 5
6 out of 6 points
La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:
· Question 6
6 out of 6 points
Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:
· Question 7
6 out of 6 points
Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):
· Question 8
6 out of 6 points
According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.
· Question 9
6 out of 6 points
According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.
· Question 10
6 out of 6 points
The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:
· Question 11
Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?
· Question 12
6 out of 6 points
Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.
· Question 13
6 out of 6 points
As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:
· Question 16
6 out of 6 points
Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?
· Question 17
6 out of 6 points
Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:
· Question 18
6 out of 6 points
Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:
· Question 19
6 out of 6 points
One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:
· Question 20
According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:
· Question 21
6 out of 6 points
Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):
· Question 22
6 out of 6 points
A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:
· Question 23
6 out of 6 points
Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:
· Question 24
Needs Grading
Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.
· Question 25
Needs Grading
Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?
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Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.
Learning Resources
Readings
Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.
Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.
Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.
Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.
Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.
Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc
Optional Resources
Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2
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Question 2: Business questions
Business Interview Case Study
How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?
We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.
You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?
You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?
First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.
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Question 4: History
Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?
Question 5: Biology
Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology final exam answers south university
Question 6: Mathematics
Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.
The after-tax CD earnings rate is %
Question 7: Sociology
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?
Question 8: Business
Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.
Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.
Address the following in your role as marketing manager:
Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.
Question 9: Business
answer survey questions only need 2 solution
SCREEING:
Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)
If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)
Age:
18-24
25-34
35-44
45-54
55-64
Over 65
Gender: Male Female
Children: If none, Do you want children?
Highest level of Education:
High School or Equivalent
Some college-no degree
Technical School
Associate’s Degree
Bachelor’s Degree
Graduate Degree
Household Income:
>$25K
$25K – $50K
$50K – $75K
$75K – $100K
$100K – $150K
$150K+
Social Media use:
Facebook
Instagram
Twitter
LinkedIn
ONLINE BEHAVIOR
Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?
HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE
What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?
Do you have any concerns about your health?
GENETIC TESTING
Have you done genetic testing yet?
If not, why?
What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
What would you not want to learn about yourself?
iii. What features would you want from the process/product?
If yes, why did you get the testing?
Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
What was the process for the purchase?
iii. What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?
What have you done with your raw data?
Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?
What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?
Question 10: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?
You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?
I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.
The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective?
You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?
I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results.
Question 3: English
An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown
Instruction
Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.
Graded Assignment
The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2
Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.
Total score: ____ of 55 points
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(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)
Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.
(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)
You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.
.
(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)
Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
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Question 4: Biology.
500 words on importance of prenatal care
Question 5: Political Science
Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States
Question 6: Health Care
Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides
Instruction
As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.
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Question7: Other
3 page paper with NO REFERENCES
Instruction
I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided
Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
Write your answers in a Word document.
Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below. Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.
Unit 5 – Case Study
Assignments submitted through this link will be checked using SafeAssign by Blackboard. Your work will not be used for any purpose other than preventing plagiarism in the University. Ownership of the intellectual property contained in your written work will not be transferred to any third party. Please submit your paper as a Word Document. If you have the 2010 version of Word, please save your paper in a previous version (Word 97-2003 document) as Safe Assign may not accept the most recent version.
Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.
Choose an organization with which you are familiar.
Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.
Describe the metrics selected for discussion.
Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.
Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.
Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.
Question 12: Education
Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.
Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.
Address the following in your role as marketing manager:
Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.
Question 13: Health Care
In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format, critically evaluate the following scenario:
Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.
Subjective Data
Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.
Question 14: Religious Study
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:
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Question9: History
I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you
Instruction
the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced
Name: Guirlene Hyppolite
The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.
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Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:
Check off Selections
Concept/Theme
Lesson/Milestone Alignment
The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations
Week 1, Milestone 1
The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800)
Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)
Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts
Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas)
Week 4, Milestone 2
The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945)
Week 8
The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization
Week 5
The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism)
Week 7, Week 8
The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)
Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
The impact of Cold War ideological divisions
Week 8
The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world
Week 9
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Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.
Concept/Theme Selection #1
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Concept/Theme Selection #2
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
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Concept/Theme Selection #3
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Concept/Theme Selection #4
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
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Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Question 10: English
Instruction
I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.
Question 11: General
Understanding Terrorism Wk 8
Instruction
Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.
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Question12: Other
Week 12: Signature Assignment
Instruction
Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question13: Other
Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach
Instruction
Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question14: Other
Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal
Instruction
Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
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Question 15: Other
Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection
Instruction
Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question16: Other
Week 8: Quantitative Research Design
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question17: Other
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Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question18: Other
Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal
Instruction
Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
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Question19: Other
Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question1: Finance
If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Question 2: Engineering.
separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane
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Question 3: Computer Science.
Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.
Question 4: Other
Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.
Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).
What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.
4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?
5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.
6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not
Question5:Finance
In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.
How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
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Question 6: Business
Chaebol and family ownership in Korea
The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).
I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.
Question 7: Mathematics
Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)
Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).
Question8: Accounting
QUESTION ONE
Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.
To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.
REQUIRED:
Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:
accounting rate of return on the project
payback on the project
net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
internal rate of return on the project
The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.
Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)
Required:
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Question 9: Finance
Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.
Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.
What is the NPV of this venture?
Question 10: Other
Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.
You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:
Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building
Question 11: Finance
Question 12: Physics
Question 13: Psychology
Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.
TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story
Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.
In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.
Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.
Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.
Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.
Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.
Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.
(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.
Question 16: Engineering
need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question
Question 17: Psychology
Wk 4 Discussion
Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:
Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
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Question 18: Business
Db And assignment
Unit 2 DB
In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.
Unnit 2 assignment
Instructions
Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.
Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.
Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.
Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.
Question 19: Business
Unit 1 Assignment
Instructions
Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.
Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.
Respond to the following questions:
Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
How can you apply information in this article to your field?
How did this article fit your ethical view?
Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.
Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.
Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.
Question 20: Other
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“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable. Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)
Continuation……
Question 21: Statistics
The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.
50
63
42
28
30
37
29
61
43
43
27
50
28
28
50
62
34
53
21
32
19
41
60
57
22
35
46
32
30
25
36
52
57
29
35
42
57
35
61
46
21
49
26
40
19
18
25
23
47
28
Range:
Class Width:
Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example: .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0.
Class Limits
Class Boundaries
Midpoint
f
cf
rf
crf
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
Question22: Germany
Name: 10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5
Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.
Verbs and Tenses:
Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:
German
English
einen Spaziergang machen
to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen
Vist the Film Museum
to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen
to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen
To vist the rhine tower
to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen
to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen
To vist the city museum
to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen
to go to the ‘Aquazoo’
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Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?
Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!
Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.
Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.
Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.
Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.
Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.
Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen
Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.
das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive
Ich besuche das Filmmuseum Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen
Wir gehen in den Südpark Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen
Er besichtigt den Rheinturm Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen
Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht
Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.
Meine Freunde und ich trinken
einen Kaffee im Café. __________
Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.
Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP
Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.
Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb
goes to the end of the sentence.
wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf
Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf
heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen
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ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten / dort
ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug
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Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)
Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:
on the weekend
first
after that
on the weekend
then
in the evening
on Friday afternoon
today
tomorrow
yesterday
next week
this morning
Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning
with the time phrase. Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)
Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:
Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.
Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:
P 112 Lesen 4
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
P 113 Lesen 4
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.
Conjunctions (with meanings)
Time Phrases
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Cases
CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative
Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)
Masculine
Feminine
Neuter
Plural
Nominative
der
ein
die
eine
das
ein
die
keine
Accusative
den
einen
die
eine
das
ein
die
keine
Dative
dem
einem
der
einer
dem
einem
den + n
keinen + n
* ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.
* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.
mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your- informal ) Ihr (your – formal)
Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.
Note:
If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the direct object. (receiving the action)
If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement). Where at – DAT Where to – ACCU
Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)
machen.
Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.
When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.
Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)
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Question 23: Statistics
Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent). Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64. Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.
Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married. Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word. Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.
Question 24: Engineering
Solve
Question 25: Psychology
Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning
Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.
You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”
Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.
Include the following in your paper:
At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.
Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.
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Question 26: Psychology
Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research
Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 27: Psychology
Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research
In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
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Question 28: Statistics
A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes. The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.
The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city. Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.
Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.
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Question 29: Chemistry
Complex metric Titration
A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL
Question 30: Chemistry
Gravimetric Analysis
Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5
Question 31: Computer Science
SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019
Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019
Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).
Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.
The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A
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The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:
Enter the G-language word to check:
Suppose that the user enters the word:
###
The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!
The output should appear as follows:
Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language
CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.
Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).
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1
Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.
Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should
allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
allow for multi-digit integer operands
The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:
Enter the infix expression to evaluate:
Suppose that the user enters the expression:
(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)
The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().
The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:
infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)
postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +
result: 12
2
infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)
postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +
result: 35
infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10
postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +
result: -312
infix: 3 * (4 + 5)
postfix: 3 4 5 + *
result: 27
infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)
postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /
result: 6
Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.
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Marks will be based on:
Completeness of your submission
Correct solution to the problem
Following good coding style
Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the
submission of uncompressed source files only)
The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).
In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.
files:
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3
The Client Program:
4
Question 32: Business
Fourth ENT assignment.
– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.
NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.
Question 33: Business
How to make $2000 from $20 in a year.
As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)
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Question 34: Mathematics
Probability
After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2
leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
started) after 15 minutes.
• Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
at random with equal probability.
What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?
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Question 35: Mathematics
ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION
Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation
Return on investment. Net present value
Question 36: Mathematics
Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)
Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Question 37: Economics
How easy is it to start a business in India?
I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.
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Question 38: Business
Discussion 4
William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.” Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.
Discussion 5
Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)
Question 39: Mathematics
Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.
Question 40: Physics
A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.
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Question 41: Physics
Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)
Question 42: Statistics
Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.
Question 43: Mathematics
A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?
Question 47: Mathematics
Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection
Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant. This is for a high school project.
Question 48: Psychology
Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News
CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides
Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.
Createan 2-slide presentationthat conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.
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TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity
Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.
Format your document according to APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Question 49: History
Major influences on development of the Renaissance
Instructions
This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?
Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:
significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).
You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.
Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.
You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.
Details
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Question 50: Statistics
Simulation
The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).
x(from 0 to 1000)
y(from 0 to 500)
RECENT QUESTIONS.
Question 1: General.
Introduction to Economics assignment
ECN1000 – Devoir 2
Tiffanie Perrault
Université de Montréal, Département des Sciences Economiques à rendre avant le 6 juin 2019
Le marché du locatif à Montréal
Selon Statistique Canada, 522 140 logements étaient loués dans l’agglo- mération de Montréal en 2016. La même année, 4% des logements étaient inoccupés. Selon l’Union des Banques Suisses, le prix moyen du loyer pour un 3 1/2 à Montréal en 2015 était de CAD 879. On supposera qu’entre 2015 et 2016, ce prix augmente de 2%, donc passe à approximativement CAD 900.
Pour faciliter l’accès au logement, Madame Gagnon, économiste pour les services urbains de la Ville de Montréal, proposait de plafonner le prix des loyers à CAD 850 au 1er Janvier 2017.
Représentez l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016 à l’aide d’un graphique d’offre et de demande.
Sur le même graphique, représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs. Vous pouvez utiliser des lettres pour désigner les aires correspondant à ces surplus.
Sur le même graphique, représentez l’équilibre du marché des loge- ments locatifs à Montréal en 2017, après la politique de plafonnement proposée par Madame Gagnon.
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Madame Gagnon ?
1
Madame Breton est également économiste pour la ville. Elle critiquait la solution de Madame Gagnon et proposait de subventionner l’accès au logement des familles montréalaises sous la forme d’une prime de CAD 50 par mois pour les locataires aux revenus les plus bas, au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Madame Breton pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Madame Breton.
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, est-il préférable, pour encourager l’accès au logement, de mettre en place la politique publique de Madame Breton ou celle de Madame Gagnon ? Pourquoi ?
Monsieur Tremblay propose une autre approche pour faciliter l’accès au logement et réduire le taux d’inoccupation : subventionner les propriétaires de logements locatifs, au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Tremblay.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay en termes d’accès au logement ?
Comme Monsieur Tremblay, Monsieur Laroche pense qu’il serait préfé- rable d’envisager une politique d’offre, plutôt qu’une politique de demande. Il propose de taxer les logements inoccupés au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
2
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Laroche.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Laroche en termes d’accès au logement ?
Le résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche est-il dif- férent du résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay ?
Des quatre solutions proposées, laquelle choisiriez-vous ? Pourquoi ?
3
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Question 2: Law
Instruction
PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR THE INSTRUCTIONS OF ASSIGNMENT. NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS! ALL instructions MUST be followed! ASSIGNMENT DEADLINE: 6/8/2019 DEADLINE TIME: 12:00PM M.S.T. Instructions for assignment is attached!!! Thanks!!!
Graduate Course Assignment
Assignment Deadline: 6/8/2019
Assignment Deadline Time: 12:00pm M.S.T.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
Write a 475-word analysis that THOROUGHLY ADDRESS AND EXPLAIN methods to work around potential ethical issues in the future for an intervention program of: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence
Include at least two (2) Peer-Reviewed resource within the response.
Properly quote and cite all references used. Response MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.
Properly format your document consistent with APA guidelines. Analysis MUST be in APA FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Analysis must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NOTE: cover page and reference page are NOT included in the 475-word count for analysis. The document must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.
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Question 3: Education
literacy narrative (anecdote), five pages,
Instruction
Literacy is the development of literacy and, the ability of communication between people. I have been suffered from literacy two times of my life. First, when I was a child I suffered from the Arabic language, how can I communicate with people in Arabic. I have been extremely lucky in having a chance to learn from several fantastic sponsors. The first sponsor is my parents. My parents are the most positive literacy sponsor in my life. My parents are considered the first teacher in my life. When I had homework, they always helped me and supported me to become a better student. Further, my parents always encouraged me to become better at writing and read more by buying me a lot of books. For example, when I went to my bed my parents read a story for me. That helped me and encouraged me to be a good student who read and write a lot in a short time. Also, I will never forget my teachers who made a big effort with me throughout my education. For example, they made a competition between my classmates to enhance our education in a good way, and they always gave us a present. Second, when I was 21 years I moved to the United States, and I started to learn the English language. It is a new period in my life a new language and education. First, I was scared of how can I get better and how can I improve my English language. With the time a get better and better in English. I practice every day, when I hear a new word, I write it in my notebook. I watched movies every day and repeated. The first station was the UCF English language institution (ELI), this was my new challenge. In addition, I did do my placement test and my grade was level one. The teacher at ELI taught in a really good way. For example, they gave a lot of homework and gave good feedback that helped me to improve myself.
Question 4: Psychology
Week two class one
Assignment 1 Due June 5, 2019
Vicarious Trauma and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder are closely related because the symptoms of each condition are similar. What distinguishes each condition from one another is how the trauma was experienced. For this Discussion, you review a video of three United States military servicemen previously deployed in the Middle East. Each experienced combat in unique ways and each experienced trauma differently. As you watch the clips, pay attention to who experienced vicarious trauma and who experienced post-traumatic stress disorder. Consider how each man experienced the trauma, the symptoms of each condition, and what makes their experiences similar but also distinctively different from the others.
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Post by Day 3 a brief explanation of which individual(s) has vicarious trauma and which has post-traumatic stress disorder. Then identify the symptoms of the individual(s) with vicarious trauma and explain how each symptom informed your selection. Finally, explain any insights you gained about vicarious trauma related to the video. Be specific and use the current literature to support your response.
Video: Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2010). Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder in military personnel.
Only a few paragraphs needed DUE JUNE 9, 2019
Assignment 2
Application: Your Risk for Vicarious Trauma
One major risk factor for developing vicarious trauma is the consistent use of controlled empathy which is the internal control of mental states, emotions, and behaviors (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). Prolonged use of controlled empathy can take an emotional, physiological, and spiritual toll on counselors and other trauma response helping professionals which may result in the development of vicarious trauma symptoms (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). For example, counselors who listen to a client or student sharing a story of abuse often remain calm and non-reactive as part of the counseling process. It takes tremendous mental and emotional effort, however, to absorb a traumatic story knowing they must respond therapeutically. This effort can become mentally and emotionally exhausting. Counselors and other trauma response helping professionals must be cognizant of their potential risk of developing vicarious trauma and be capable of assessing their own symptoms.
For this Application Assignment you take the Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL 5), a brief assessment instrument developed to promote self-awareness of vicarious trauma. It measures compassion satisfaction, which is the pleasure you derive from your profession, risks for burnout, and your exposure to extremely stressful events. Together, these three components help determine your risk for developing vicarious trauma and the impact of controlled empathy.
As you score the ProQOL 5, think about whether the results surprise you. What areas do you need to focus on to exercise strategies to prevent the development or further exacerbation of vicarious trauma?
Reference: Izzo, E. & Carpel Miller, V. (2009). Vicarious Trauma: The Impact of Empathy. Retrieved fromhttp://www.selfgrowth.com/articles/Vicarious_Trauma_The_Impact_of_Controlled_Empathy.html
The assignment: (2–3 pages)
Describe your results of the ProQOL 5.
Describe two areas you need to further develop to address or prevent vicarious trauma and explain why you selected each.
Based upon the current literature, justify two strategies you would use to develop those areas.
Explain how your use of controlled empathy might influence the development of vicarious trauma and how this might impact the counseling process.
Be specific and use examples to illustrate your points.
Question 5: Business
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Essay
Instruction
Unit V Case Study Open Instructions Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company. Read the “Franklin Electronics” case study on pages 545–546 of your textbook. As you complete the analysis, address the topics below. Explain the earned value measurement system and whether you believe that Franklin Electronics truly understands it. Analyze the cost projections completed by Franklin Electronics. Reconstruct the cost projections toward the compilation of a realistic project budget. Include a theoretical discussion around the steps involved in the budget that you built. Create a project management schedule that would be more effective than the one proposed in the case. Use scheduling techniques learned in this class to date. Include an assessment of why you selected this scheduling technique instead of others. Evaluate sources of project risk, and develop strategies that would decrease the impact of these risks. In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of two full pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations. A minimum of three in-text citations are required.
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Question 6: General
INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.
ACADEMIC SKILLS ASSESSMENT
INTRODUCTION: The following task is designed to gauge a prospective student’s academic skills in the areas of reading comprehension, content analysis, intellectual comparison, and writing abilities. It is largely based on a sample assignment for the AP Placement Test at the High School level (copyright 2017, The College Board).
TIME ALLOWED: The typical time allotted for this task on the AP test is 60 minutes in one sitting, but GCD’s Admissions Team has adapted this task in the following manner: prospective students will have 7 days to research, write, and submit their response paper.
INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.
Completed assignments should be properly formatted in one of the following styles:
– GCD expects undergraduate students to utilize Chicago style guidelines. For
students who are not familiar with any style of formatting, this may be the best option. Here is a link to a resource page on this style: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/717/01/
– High School students may be more familiar with MLA style guidelines. Here is
ACADEMIC PROMPT: Evaluate the extent to which differing ideas of national identity shaped views of United States overseas expansion in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Assignment Component Maximum Points Possible Points Earned
Is the paper properly formatted, using proper grammar, and 3-4 pages in length? 20
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Does the paper contain an evaluative thesis that establishes the student’s argument and responds to the question? 20
Does the paper describe a broader historical context immediately relevant to the question that relates the topic of the question to historical events, developments, or processes that occur before, during, or after the time frame of the question? 20
Does the paper explain how at least one additional piece of specific historical evidence, beyond those found in the documents, relates to an argument about the question? 20
Does the paper use historical reasoning to explain relationships among the pieces of evidence provided in the response and how they corroborate, qualify, or modify the argument, made in the thesis, that addresses the entirety of the question? In addition, a good response should utilize the content of at least six documents to support an argument about the question. 20
TOTAL: 100
Question 7: Business, Accounting.
Management Discussion and Analysis
Assigned Company is Lowe’s.
Accounting CASE 1: Management Discussion and Analysis
Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of
Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix
for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.
Accounting CASE 2: Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and
Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).
Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:
Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the
chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.
Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33
Question 8: General Business
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Wk 5 Discussion – Performance Evaluation
Respond to the following in a minimum of 250 words each:
• Discuss the pros and cons of four performance appraisal approaches.
• Explain the problems to be avoided in appraising performance
Integrate theory, research, and/or professional experience
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
• Question 9: Computer Science, Learning Systems and AI
Website Migration Project
As part of your job, you must complete a 10-to-15 page paper that follows this project through the system development life cycle (SDLC). This assignment will require you to do the following:
• Discuss what it will take to build a Web architecture, move an existing Website with minimal downtime, and provide a disaster recovery solution to ensure the site is always available.
•
o The Web architecture should describe and justify operating system choices (i.e., Linux, Apache, MYSQL, PHP, Windows, IIS, SQL, etc.).
• Evaluate alternatives to the company self-hosting the site.
• Build a Gantt chart using Microsoft Project or equivalent software, showing all tasks associated with implementing the Website.
• The chart should include a minimum of five (5) tasks, each with three (3) sub-tasks.
• Explain and justify the system architecture you have selected.
• Illustrate the system architecture using Visio or equivalent software.
• Create a use case that documents the event of a customer ordering a bag of chips from the new Website.
• The use case should include a graphical representation using Visio or equivalent software and a text description of the events.
• Discuss the support operations that the internally hosted Website will require after implementation.
• Explain how you will evaluate the performance of the new site and the success of your project.
Question 10: Business, General Business
1. Prepare a simple pro forma (projected) income statement and balance sheet for the first two years of operation, using income projections and incorporating an advertising plan.
2. Outline a plan for hiring and retaining competent, motivated employees for your business.
3. Prepare an outline for a “pitch,” i.e., a short 20-30 minute business plan presentation that will be made to lenders or investors.
4. Include at least two (2) references outside the textbook.
Question 11: Mathematics.
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Question 12: Statistics
Marketing Research SPSS
Need knowledge of Marketing and SPSS(need to have access to this) to do this assignment. Use the data set attached with SPSS tool and answer the following question:
1. The researchers want to know whether there are differences in the ability of the individual memes to effect attitudinal (Conscious) and behaviour (Influence) modification change in respondent driving behaviour. Please note that only one question is required and needs to include tables etc. ANOVA and multiple comparisons method to be used.
Overview
Speeding is recognized globally as the most common contributing factor to both serious injuries and fatalities in road crashes. Young drivers are significantly more likely to be involved in road collisions than other road users, with excessive speed being the major cause of young adult fatalities. Attempts to address this issue using traditional advertising methods are repeatedly unsuccessful, as people tune out and become normalized to risk and fear appeals. Social marketers must think outside the box if they wish to effectively reach this age demographic with their campaigns to create safer roads for everyone. One technique explored recently in online anti-speeding campaigns is the use of memes. Memes are important communication tools as they can influence the behaviours of social groups on a wide scale, while spreading on a micro basis. Memes reproduce by various means of imitation, and it is extremely simple and low-cost to create a meme. As a social marketing tool, memes can be extremely impactful when compared to other means of communication. People intentionally seek out and enjoy memes. Whereas, most Australians do not take notice of advertisements on social media and intentionally tune out. Memes are particularly valuable for smaller organizations with limited resources seeking to make an impression online. Internet memes use humour to convey their message. Humour can be used as a means for gaining attention, and positively influences recall towards advertisement and educational claims. Memes are distributed and shared through social media, and have the potential to go viral through online word-of-mouth. The ‘millennial’ age bracket, which incorporates 18 – 25 yearolds, are said to be a strong target audience for promotional content that use memes. Given the resonance of memes with young adults, and the often limited success of traditional 2 communications campaigns used to modify young drivers’ speeding attitudes and behaviours, there appears value in exploring the effectiveness of this non-traditional media within this context. The aim of this research then is to analyse the characteristics and interpretations of a meme that impact young drivers’ attitudinal and behaviour responses to excessive driving speed. This study seeks to answer two research questions: (1) What characteristics and perceptions of a meme influence how it is evaluated, and (2) How do memes and other driver characteristics affect attitudinal and behavioural modification outcomes. Data was collected from eighty-five undergraduate marketing students currently driving on Australian roads to understand how young adults evaluate memes, what makes a meme more likeable and memorable, and investigate whether the memes had an effect on attitudinal and behavioural driving responses. The researchers selected ten memes sourced from existing online anti-speeding campaigns posted by Australian state police force social media pages, which were modified to fit an Australian-wide context. Each student was randomly given two memes to assess from the pool of ten. The ten memes in the study are provided in the appendix. The young drivers were asked to evaluate each meme on how easy it was to understand (Understand), whether they found the image humorous (Humorous), how trendy (Trendy) and original (Original) the meme is, and whether the features of the meme are suitable for a road safety campaign (Suitable). They were also asked how likable the image was (Like), and how easy to learn and remember is the message (Remember). Whether the meme influenced the respondent to be more conscious of their speed (Conscious) was asked to better understand attitude modification effects. Whether the image influenced the respondent to be less likely to speed while driving (Influence) was asked to better understand behaviour modification effects. Respondents were asked to indicate their agreement on a 7-point Likert-type scale where 1=strongly disagree and 7=strongly agree. Information also was provided on how long respondents had been driving on Australian roads, and whether they had ever exceeded the speed limit. The full question wording is provided in the SPSS data file under ‘label’. The researchers that collected the data have indicated a number of research questions they wish addressed in the final report. These are given below. They are also very interested in the implications of the findings for marketing and development of their meme communication campaign, and these should be included in the final report. The data for this assignment is titled ‘MKTG2305 Group Project Dataset 2019.sav’, and can be found on LMS. Values (as indicated above) and labels for the variables are provided within the data set.
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Requirements_____________________________________________________ You are to address and answer each of the research questions below. Your answer should be in the format of a written report detailing the main findings of the one research questions, including technical appendices.
Question 13: History
Rome Essay
Rome and Romanization – 500 Word Essay
This assignment gives you the opportunity to practice determining the purpose and function of artifacts in order to create your interpretation of a specific historical development—Romanization.
Discuss the impact of the process of Romanization on the Roman world. Identify at least two examples of cultural structures that were patterned across Roman-conquered cities. Cultural structures can include physical features of Roman-ruled cities, practices, policies, ideas, or any artifact that was used to shape the conquered religions.
Discuss how these structures impacted daily life, which may include politics, economics, or social roles. Describe how and with what intent these events are “memorialized” or used in our current day political and cultural arena.
Step 1: Choose two appropriate sources. Resources should be credible and peer-reviewed and cannot include Wikipedia, Biography.com, History.com, any type of message board, or other similar encyclopedias.
Step 2: Complete your research. Choose one interesting development that illustrates the main point that you want to make about your chosen physical structures, practices, or ideas. Gather details about your choice. For example, what types of buildings were first introduced in Rome, and why were they purposely replicated in other, smaller cities?
Step 3: Draw conclusions from the details you found, and prepare your thesis. A thesis is prepared after you have completed your research and gathered enough information about the chosen structures. You should sit back to think about what it means to see the influence on culture. Your thesis statement should offer your reader the overall insight into the use and impact of the structure on Roman development.
Use the following guidelines to help decide on your thesis.
• -Ask yourself about how the cultural element (idea, practice, or structure) was shaped by its time period and environment.
• -Ask yourself how the structure impacted the lives of the people around it, the general public, and the immediately following period in the history of Rome.
• -Find the perfect specific example to demonstrate the qualities of the structure you would most like to show.
Step 4: Write your essay. Your essay must be at least 2500 words in length. All sources must be referenced and cited according to APA guidelines.
Be sure to consider the following guidelines in your essay.
• -The introduction should engage the reader and clearly present the essay’s thesis and summarize the main points that clarify your point of view. The last sentence of the introductory paragraph should be your specific thesis.
• -Organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis. Paragraph order and organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis rather than to narrate the chronological story.
• -Writing should be clear and concise with no spelling, grammatical, or punctuation errors.
• -The number of sources should meet or exceed any expressed assignment requirements, and the sources should be peer-reviewed or academic in nature. At least one source must be from the CSU Online Library.
• -APA guidelines should be used for reference entries and in-text citations.
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Question 14: Computer Science
Online Survey Assignment
Objectives for the final project:
Create an online survey
Due: Friday, May 24, last day of final’s week
In more details:
Create an online survey:
The goal is to create a simple online survey and name it – survey.cgi. Allow users to choose at the very least, between two choices (yes or no) on an issue of your choice (ok to work from html pages you’ve already created). The vote will be saved to the server (code provided), and the result of all votes will be displayed on the screen. The result from the survey should show up every time, even before we fill out the survey. This project will start from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp, by making use of the class WebApps, which should already go as far as providing a dynamic array, containing the fields from a form. However, the class will be moved from the main program to it’s own file, called a header file.
Another difference from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be that an HTML form will not call the program. survey.cgi is a ‘dynamic cgi program’ (or self referential), meaning that the code has to respond from two possibilities:
the script can be called either from a link for the first time, which will cause it to produce only the survey. That state corresponds to the first level ‘else’ in the code below
or the same script can be called from the ‘submit’ button of the form it has just published. That state corresponds to the first level ‘if’ in the code provided. Here are steps to follow, in order to to convert retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp into survey.cpp:
Also, here is a video to help explain steps A through D
Each capital letter corresponds to a significant stage in the development of this program. This document may seem lengthy, but parts of it also act as a tutorial. It is recommended to save a copy of survey.cpp after completing each capital letter stage in case something goes wrong with the next one.
Duplicate retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp to survey.cpp
Note: Friday this week, a copy of retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be provided for those whose version did not work so well.
Move the struct FIELDS and class WebApps to its own header file, named WebApps.h. We are going to leave the function definitions inline within the class, for simplicity-sake (though not ultimately recommended by industry)
Read more info on Header Files. WebApps.h needs to live in the same directory as survey.cpp, so that it is available at compile time – we do not compile .h files manually.
WebApps.h should contain the same includes as survey.cpp, the ifndef/define/endif directives, as a regular header file does, the FIELDS struct, and the class, pretty much exactly as already working properly in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp.
Check out the FileApps.h header file below as an example to follow for WebApps.h.
All the main program needs now is an ‘include’ to the header file and should compile and run.
Create a temporary web_form_survey.html, based on the older web_form.html to test the program until it runs as before (in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cgi). At this point, since this program is self referential, its first state is to serve the HTML form for the survey. From here, the current code in main should be replaced completely (might be good to just comment the whole thing and leave at the bottom of the program to reuse some of the code later) and start from the following skeleton (copy from this link to survey_start.txt):
WebApps wo; // make object wo global
void build_form();
int main()
{
const int cnt = wo.get_cnt();
if (cnt != 0) {
cout << “debug with cnt != 0” << endl;
}else {
build_form();
}
return 0;
}
////////////functions/////////////
void build_form () {
//simple HTML form to get started
//use the one from survey_start.txt if you wish
}
This code is pretty self-explanatory, nothing new here, except the HTML form in survey_start.txt demonstrates the tags for inputing from buttons, which may become useful.
This code represents the main flow of this program’s execution. It does this:
Gets the count from qs, if it’s there
If the count is zero, then just a debug as a place holder for all the functions (created next), which will take care of the vote, when received.
Else, the form is presented and several other functions will follow.
The HTML, of course will be your own design, which can follow previous work, but do include an option for ‘don’t know’, just for your instructor who is quite clueless with super heroes 🙂
Note: It is recommended to keep the HTML form minimal while working out the rest of the program’s functions.
Make this work perfectly and back up!
Now that the vote is at hand, time to save it to a text file. Here are the steps:
Given is a new class, FileApps.h, which will be used to save to and read from file: FileApps.h
Remember the class needs to be in the same directory as where survey.cpp will be compiled.
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File I/O operations are not trivial, therefore, the code is provided for this project, in hope that the class can at least be used, if not completely understood. Here is a link to I/O example code if interested. Also check out online book, chapter 18, File I/O. There are other relevant tutorials if anyone is interested
The constructor for class FileApps, expects a file name for the object to work with – use this syntax for creating file object fo: FileApps fo (“survey.txt”). Place it above main, so that it is global, as done with the WebApps object.
survey.txt will be created automatically in the same directory as survey.cgi, upon first saving to the file.
Here is an updated if statement, which now contains code to retrieve the vote and save it to survey.txt upon receiving a non-blank qs
if (cnt != 0) {
cout << “debug with cnt != 0< br>” << endl;
//call function to prepare vote string data_line = prepare_vote(cnt); //to be implemented,
//explained next cout << “debug with data_line: ” << data_line << “< br>” << endl;
fo.save_data_line(data_line);
The prepare_vote(cnt) function needs to be implemented (in the main program, not the class FileApps) – here are the specs:
string prepare_vote(int f_cnt) {
//create dynamic array name_value_pairs[] from the wo object
//as done earlier
statement here
//parse qs into name_value_pairs[] array from the wo object
//as done earlier
statement here
//param the vote field value into variable ‘vote’ from the wo object
return vote + “|\n”; //the new line character will put each vote //on a new line in the file
//ex of a concatenated vote: “y|\n”
Normally, this line of data would contain more fields, which would
commonly be separated by pipes, like:
“y|Fred|Flintstone|\n” – represents data for three fields. Therefore, even if we use only one field this time, we remain consistent with the protocol.
}
Once ‘data_line’ is sent to object method fo.save_data_line(), the debug statement in FileApps.h should confirm success (of save) and survey.txt should be checked for content manually.
Complete this stage before entering the next one and don’t forget to back-up!
Now, with the assumption that survey.txt captures the votes properly, survey.cpp is ready to read all the vote data into an array (data_array[]) and pass it back to us.
This code is entirely given, so get it here from survey_cpp_state_E.txt
Again, not necessary to understand how the data is saved and retrieved from the class code – just use it as shown. What is important is that you now have the data and ready to tally and display the votes, the main course of this project.
Leave the debug statements from main and FileApps.h in the finish product!
Finally, the last part: Just a few comments, to help with the mechanics of this function:
void display_result (string f_data_array[]) {
//function flow:
// initialize a dynamic array (vote_tally_array) from function
// create_int_array() (to be created under main(), not in the
// class), which returns a pointer to an array // with number of elements equal to the number of possible
// (different) choices of votes:
// For example, Y or N will require a vote_tally_array of 2
// elements
// initialize vote_tally_array to 0’s in a loop
// In another loop, increment vote_tally_array from f_data_array[]
// Use something like this pseudocode::
// if vote == “Y|” then vote_tally_array[0]++
// else if vote == “N|” then vote_tally_array[1]++
//print the results
}
Also, at the bottom of the result page, include a link to survey.txt in order to make it available.
To complete the program flow, follow this format:
if (vote coming in)
prepare vote
save data
read data
get data_array
build form
display result
else (no vote)
build form
read data
get data_array
display result
To turn in:
Dropbox survey.cpp and WebApps.h Create a message in the discussion board providing a workable link to your
final project survey.cgi, as done before with the HTML and String Processing app.
Remember these few steps:
Firefox is the only browser, which will allow creating links in a toolkit message.
In a new message for topic named ‘survey threads’, select the
check box Enable HTML
In the body of the message, type the html ‘a’ tag (shown below) substituting
your own url information (and not using a space as it is done here):
< a href=”http://toolkit.cs.ohlone.edu/~username/survey.cgi”>Some Descriptive
Name for the Project< /a>
Take the time to participate in each others’ surveys!
Student Examples: there were some differences, such as the same user could not vote more than once, otherwise – pretty close to this semester’s format, on the outside.
Lawrence Simon
Anitha Gopalan
Thank you for all of your work!
In hope this class has met your expectations and that it has prepared you sufficiently in your continuing education, cheers :
Question 15: History
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History of Animation Thesis
As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation
history.
.
A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a
comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.
The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the
first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).
The completed work (final) must be between 3500-6000 words, written with Times New
Dear studetns,
Your midterm assignment must contain the subject and its delimitation , a short abstract and the resources.
You must also add that your research will be a personal process or not.
If you research as group, group members must be determined with their part and personal contribution in the process and the subject. Groups must determine also if they will make an oral presentation with a power point file; or write an essay in a doc. file.
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Question 16: Business
Risk Analysis
Complete a risk analysis for a specific Organization
• For this task, choose an organization that you are familiar with or that has a great deal of information available to you through various reliable resources. Since you will use this organization throughout the activities in the course, it is important that you can access information about the organization. Then, write a paper that addresses the following questions:
1. What are some of the natural disaster risks associated with this organization?
2. What are some of the infrastructure risks associated with this organization?
3. What are some of the risks associated with the industry in which this organization operates? Which risks do you see as potentially threatening to your selected company?
4. Has this organization performed a risk assessment before? If so, what were the outcomes of that risk assessment?
5. What other pertinent information should be included in a risk analysis specifically for this organization? Why?
Length 5-7 pages
Question 17: Accounting
Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia
In around 700 words, please provide information on Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia. Ensure that the statistics for the percentage are from within the last 3 years (2016 onwards). In case you are not able to find exact percentages for EBITDA, feel free to include a proxy company as part of your calculations, and then explain about the method you used to arrive to the answer. Finally, include citations both inside and at the end of the document in hyperlinks. Write in Intro, Body, and Conclusion as per the usual Research Format (plus a methodology section, if necessary. Thank You!
Question 18: Computer Science
Part 1. (20 pts)
Write code to create a class definition for Account. These are the needed specs for the class.
1. There is only one constructor for this class that receives two strings: firstname, and lastname. The values of these strings will be passed from the client code. See below for what to do with these strings. An account starts with a $100 balance (see Balance property below).
2. ID. During creation (inside sub new), the ID value is made of the user’s first name followed by the underscore followed by the last name, for example if passed “John” and “Smith”, the ID value is John_Smith ID is a string property that is read-only.
3. Password. During creation the value for password the same as the ID with the added string “Change”. Afterwards, the password may not be “displayed” to the client. However, client may change the password, using ChangePassword method below. This makes password aWrite-only property. To force the end user to change their password before using their account, a boolean variable, PasswordReset, is set to true under Sub New. This variable is to changed false under the ChangePassword method below.
4. An account Balance is a number with fractions: • This property is Read-only. • Amounts withdrawn or deposited into the account affect the balance, using the Deposit and Withdraw method below.
Account has the following methods:
1. Deposit which takes two arguments, an amount (to be deposited as a number with fractions), and password (a string). If PasswordReset is False, then check if the password passed matches the account password then the actions below are possible, otherwise an error message is shown. If PasswordReset is True issue an error message to change the password first. If the amount passed is > 0 then add it to the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.
2. Withdraw which takes two arguments, an amount (to be withdrawn as a number with fractions), and password (a string). The logic to withdraw is the same as the logic to Deposit, except that we must additionally check if the withdrawal will cause the balance to be negative), then no withdrawal is possible. Issue an error message (make sure the balance is not changed). Otherwise f the amount passed is > 0 then deduct from the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.
3. ChangePassword is a method that takes two string, current password and a new password, if the current password matches the account password, change the account password to the new password, and issue a message, otherwise issue an error message.
Part 2. (5 pts)
Now we work on the client code. On the user form, there are 2 textboxes txtFname, and txtLname, and a button btnCreate. There are also, a textbox, txtAmount, and 2 buttons, btnWithdraw, and btnDeposit.
Make sure your code below uses the exact control names shown above.
In all the code below, no data validation is required (i.e. assume the user will type a number when expected, and a string when expected).
Also assume in all the code below that an object named MyAccount has been declared (declared only) as an Account as a form (global) level variable.
Write the code needed so that when the user Clicks btnCreate, MyAccount is created based on account with an id whose values are passed in txtFname (for the first name), and txtLname (for the last name). Then erase the content of all textboxes.
Sub CreateAccount(…,…) Handles btnCreate.Click
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End Sub
Part 3. (5 pts)
Write code to activate the account which calls the PasswordReset method. Use the two textboxes to pass the current and new password. Assume the following button handler:
Sub ResetPass(…,…) Handles btnResetPass.Click
End Sub
Part 4. (5 pts)
Using the same form and controls, write code for btnWithdraw so when the user types a number in txtAmount and clicks btnWithdraw, the account withdraw method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password entered into the second textbox. Clear both textboxes.
Show the new balance in a messagebox.
Sub withdraw(…,…) Handles btnWithdraw.Click
End Sub
Part 5. (5 pts)
Same as in the previous question, write code for btnDeposit so when the user types a number in txtAmount and the password in the second textbox then clicks btnDeposit, the account Deposit method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password from the second textbox. Clear the textboxes. Show the new balance in a messagebox. Sub deposit(…,…) Handles btnDeposit.Click
End Sub
Part 6. (5 Pts)
Update the code you wrote for the Account class
The Account class need to issue a warning (using an Event) so that when the Balance becomes $10 or less, the client is warned. In this answer you will only write the code for the Account class. You may add comments to explain where the newly added code goes. Limit your comments to a short one line sentence.
Part 7. (5 pts)
Now (re)write the code that declares an object that will later be created to represent the account class. This object will handle event statically. Add any code and show where this code goes, so that the object is able to handle events statically. Also write an event handler for the event required in the question above, so that when the event occurs:
In one messagebox show the balance to the user and tell them they should deposit money into the account.
Question 19: Statistics
In the data given above on earnings and education, we obtained the following regression. Meanwage_i = 0.7437 + 0.6416 Education Fill in the missing numbers. How do you interpret the coefficient 0.6416? Would you reject the hypothesis that education has no effect whatsoever on wages? Which test do you use? And why?
Question 20: Other
Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.
Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).
1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.
4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?
5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.
6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not
Question 21: Education
need 5 page paper by Sunday at 10pm, APA format, 6th edition. On brain development
Instruction
Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to: Locate research on brain development and early childhood. Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool. Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process. Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education
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Question 23: Psychology
Diversity and Individual’s Personal Psychology
Discussion question:
Please describe how being a part of a diverse population influences your personal psychology. How might your personal psychology influence your professional career?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 24: Computer Science
Cyber Security
A man-in-the-middle attack found the following HTTP Authorization header in transit. Authorization: Digest username-“880651232”, response “63e3807ce5ddf4971a5d349c7ad67703”, realm-“Mordor”, nonce “03e2abb8a924e966bee59d41cef32851”, uri-“/Public/cs/Home.png”, opaque=”4043168947418128″ What is the password that gives rise to the above HTTP Authorization header? The password is thought to be a common dictionary word, and theretore you may wish to try some of the common English words
Question 25: English
Instruction
I need a research assignment done on the benefits of exercising and maintaining a healthy diet. Must include a full reference citation (MLA 8th edition) and 4 sentence summary referencing a book, a journal or article, and a webpage on the topic. Also, Write a formally worded email to a friend (250 words) that includes a proposed argumentative / persuasive thesis for your chosen topic Within the body of the email, paraphrase and cite two of your sources and directly quote from and cite one of your sources. This means that all three of the sources you used in Step 2 should be represented in the email.
Step One
What is your research question?
This should be one sentence long.
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Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Book
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Journal
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
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Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Webpage
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
Step Three
Email to an Interested Party
Brief Opening and Thesis
This step should be, altogether, 250 words.
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What “They” Say:
Paraphrase and cite two of your sources of information and directly quote from and cite from one
What “I” Say:
The student’s claim about the topic based on his or her research findings.
Step Four
MLA 8th edition Works Cited
This should include three full reference citations for the book, journal, and webpage.
Question 26: Science
There are 3 discussions to answer. Each discussion must be at least 100 words. Discussions need to be written in a registered nurses point of view. At least one APA citation for each post.
Instruction
#1. Review the nine provisions of the Code of Ethics for Nurses in the textbook. Select one of the nine provisions and identify how you plan to meet it in your professional career. Select another provision and provide a potential, applicable scenario that may challenge you at some point. #2. Review the Nurse Practice Act of the state you plan to practice as an RN. Identify what it states regarding RN supervision of LVNs or unlicensed assistive personnel. Identify how you intend to practice within that scope. Explain how that Nurse Practice Act differentiates independent and dependent nursing practice. #3. As a nurse, you will be asked to deal with all kinds of patient concerns and issues. Thinking back to your nursing rotations [or observations], please describe your most challenging clinical experience requiring many tasks but little time to complete the necessary work. As you prepare to interview for RN positions respond to all aspects of one of the following: What was the situation? Provide details and examples. How did you handle all of these tasks? What would you do differently if you had it to do again? What did you learn from the experience?
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Question 27: Business
Assigned Company is Lowe’s.
Accounting CASE 1: Management Discussion and Analysis
Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of
Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix
for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.
Accounting CASE 2: Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and
Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).
Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:
Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the
chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.
Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33
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Question 28: Psychology
1. How do the concepts of validity and verifiability relate to the trustworthiness of the data and emerging theory within grounded theory research? 2. What other disadvantages might exist that pertain to the use of phenomenological research design when studying any phenomena that pertain to counseling, counselor education, and supervision?
Instruction
Responses to these questions should be a minimum of 400 words. Cite all sources using proper APA format.
Question 29: English
Oral Presentation Movie District 9
Instruction
PLEASE READ THE INFORMATION IN THE ATTACHMENTS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM!!
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Question 30: General
Response paper.
Timmerman 1 Title is
focused and
Lesley Timmerman announces
Professor Jennifer Wilson the thesis.
English 102
15 August 2012 Double-space
between
An Argument for Corporate Responsibility the title and
Opponents of corporate social responsibility (CSR) argue that first para-
a company’s sole duty is to generate profits. According to them, by graph — and
acting for the public good, corporations are neglecting their primary throughout
obligation to make money. However, as people are becoming more and the essay.
more conscious of corporate impacts on society and the environment,
separating profits from company practices and ethics does not make Brief state-
sense. Employees want to work for institutions that share their values, ment of one
and consumers want to buy products from companies that are making side of the
an impact and improving people’s lives. Furthermore, businesses exist issue.
in an interdependent world where the health of the environment
and the well-being of society really do matter. For these reasons, Summary of
corporations have to take responsibility for their actions, beyond the opposing
making money for shareholders. For their own benefit as well as the view.
public’s, companies must strive to be socially responsible.
In his article “The Case against Corporate Responsibility,” Lead-in to
Wall Street Journal writer Aneel Karnani argues that CSR will never quotation.
be able to solve the world’s problems. Thinking it can, Karnani says,
is a dangerous illusion. He recommends that instead of expecting 1” margin on
corporate managers to act in the public interest, we should rely on each side
philanthropy and government regulation. Karnani maintains that and at
“Managers who sacrifice profit for the common good [. . .] are in bottom.
effect imposing a tax on their shareholders and arbitrarily deciding
how that money should be spent.” In other words, according to
Karnani, corporations should not be determining what constitutes
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AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 323
Timmerman 5
Furthermore, plenty of companies have seen what happens when they Author argues
assume that consumers do not care about CSR. For example, in 1997, that it is to
when Nike customers discovered that their shoes were manufactured the companies’
by child laborers in Indonesia, the company took a huge financial interest to
hit (Guthrie). Today, Information-Age customers are even more be socially
likely to educate themselves about companies’ labor practices and responsible.
environmental records. Smart corporations will listen to consumer
preferences, provide transparency, and commit to integrating CSR into Author’s lead-
their long-term business plans. in to the quo-
tation guides
In this increasingly interdependent world, the case against the reader’s
CSR is becoming more and more difficult to defend. Exempting response to the
corporations and relying on government to be the world’s conscience quotation.
does not make good social, environmental, or economic sense.
Contributors to a recent article in the online journal Knowledge@
Wharton, published by the Wharton School of Business, agree.
Professor Eric Orts maintains that “it is an outmoded view to say
that one must rely only on the government and regulation to police
business responsibilities. What we need is re-conception of what
the purpose of business is” (qtd. in “From Fringe to Mainstream”).
The question is, what should the purpose of a business be in today’s
world? Professor of Business Administration David Bejou of Elizabeth
City State University has a thoughtful and sensible answer to that
question. He writes,
. . . it is clear that the sole purpose of a business is not merely
that of generating profits for its owners. Instead, because
compassion provides the necessary equilibrium between
a company’s purpose and the needs of its communities, it
should be the new philosophy of business. (Bejou 1)
As Bejou implies, the days of allowing corporations to act in their
own financial self-interest with little or no regard for their effects on
324 7 / USING SOURCES
Upbeat Timmerman 6
ending.
others are over. None of us can afford such a narrow view of business.
The world is far too interconnected. A seemingly small corporate
decision — to buy coffee beans directly from local growers or to install
solar panels — can affect the lives and livelihoods of many people
and determine the environmental health of whole regions. A business,
just like a government or an individual, therefore has an ethical
responsibility to act with compassion for the public good.
Fortunately, corporations have many incentives to act
“From Fringe to Mainstream: Companies Integrate CSR Initiatives into An article on a
Everyday Business.” Knowledge@Wharton. The Wharton School blog without a
of the University of Pennsylvania, 23 May 2012. Web. 14 Aug. known author.
2012.
Guthrie, Doug. Keynote address. Promoting a Comprehensive Approach A clip from
to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). YouTube. YouTube, 22 YouTube.
May 2012. Web. 11 Aug. 2012.
Karnani, Aneel. “The Case against Corporate Social Responsibility.” The
Wall Street Journal. Dow Jones & Co., Inc., 14 June 2012. Web.
12 Aug. 2012.
Meister, Jeanne. “Corporate Social Responsibility: A Lever for Em-
ployee Attraction & Engagement.” Forbes. Forbes.com, 7 June
2012. Web. 12 Aug. 2012.
Savitz, Andrew W., with Karl Weber. The Triple Bottom Line: How
Today’s Best-Run Companies Are Achieving Economic, Social, and
Environmental Success. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass, 2006. Print.
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Question 1. Mathematics
Applied Statistics homework through SNHU.
Question 2. Finance
Instruction
This assignment consists of two questions. Each question, in turn, consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems.
International Finance – Assignment 1
General information: This assignment consists of two questions. Each question in turn consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems. You can achieve a maximum of 100 points in this assignment. The maximum points for each question are indicated in brackets. Please provide your answers on the separate answer sheet that is available on Moodle. I will only accept answers written in the indicated areas on the answer sheet. Please carefully read the following notes:
• Important: The answer sheet consists of two pages. Use a double-page printer to print on one paper sheet only (front and back side)!
• If calculations are required, round your answer to two decimals and state the corresponding units.
• You may use an electronic calculator to solve the problems.
• Of course, you can also use the lecture notes and the textbook for support. But remember that this
won’t be allowed in the exam!
• You can work in groups. But every student has to submit his own answer sheet. Also remember that
you are not allowed to work in groups during the exam so you might want to solve the problems by
yourself first.
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• Write clearly! If I cannot read your answer, I cannot give you credit for it.
Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis
The Bureau of Economic Analysis publishes data on the net international asset position and nominal GDP for the United States. Moreover, the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) makes the forecasts for future growth rates and inflation rates, while the IMF provides estimates of future current account to GDP ratios. Here is an overview of the current data and estimates:
• Net international asset position, end of year 2018: W2018 = −9717.1 billion USD
• Nominal GDP in 2018: P Y2018 = 20494.1 billion USD
• Projected real GDP growth gt: 2.3% (2019), 1.7% (2020), 1.6% (2021), 1.7% (each year from 2022)
• Projected inflation rate πt: 2.0% (2019), 2.0% (2020), 2.0% (2021), 2.1% (each year from 2022)
• Projected current account balance (relative to GDP) cat: -2.4% (2019), -2.6% (2020), -2.7% (2021), –
2.4% (each year from 2022)
Use this data to answer the following questions.
1. Startfromtheassetaccumulationviewofthecurrentaccountandassumethattherearenovaluation effects. Show mathematically that the change in the external asset to GDP ratio wt over two years can be expressed by the following formula: (8)
2. Calculate the external asset to GDP ratio of the United States for the end of year 2018. (3)
3. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2019. (3)
4. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2020. (3)
5. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2021. (3)
6. Based on the formula above, what is the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP
ratio? (3)
7. In the long run equilibrium: What is the minimum value of the real interest rate that is required for
debt sustainability (i.e. such that the transversality condition is not violated)? (3)
8. In the long run equilibrium: Calculate the current account balance that is necessary to achieve an
external asset to GDP ratio of -25%. (3)
9. Calculate the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP ratio if the projected real GDP
account deficit widens to -3.5% (all else equal). (3)
The following figure is from Gourinchas and Rey (2010) and shows the cumulated current account balances and the net international investment position (both relative to GDP) for the United States:
Based on this graph, answer the following question:
12. Explain in detail how we can interpret the difference between the two lines! How do the develop- ments in this figure affect the standard debt sustainability analysis for the United States? (12)
Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account
Consider a small economy that lasts for two periods (period 1 and period 2). In each period, households receive an exogenous endowment of the single consumption good. The endowment is given by Y1 = 100 and Y2 = 110 respectively. The initial wealth of households is zero, i.e. W0 = 0.
Households have preferences over consumption in period 1 (C1) and period 2 (C2). Their intertemporal utility function is given by:
Assume that the economy is initially closed and has no access to the international capital market. The autarky interest rate is denoted by rA.
1.2. 3
2.
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·
1..
What is the value of C1 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 2. What is the value of C2 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 3. Calculate the value of the autarky interest rate in the closed economy. (11)
Assume now that the economy opens up. Households have access to the international capital market and can borrow or lend at the world market interest rate r = 10%. The initial external wealth of households is still
zero, i.e. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
12.
W0 = 0.
Using the transversality condition: What is the value of the net external asset position W2 at the end of period 2? (3)
Calculate the optimal consumption C1 in the open economy. (3)
Calculate the optimal consumption C2 in the open economy. (3)
Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 1. (3)
Calculate the value of the current account in period 1. (3)
Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 2. (3) Calculatethevalueofthecurrentaccountinperiod2.(3) Graphicallyillustratetheoptimalconsumptiondecisionofthehouseholdintheopeneconomy. Clearly indicate (i) the initial endowment, (ii) the budget constraint, (iii) the indifference curve, (iv) the optimal consumption point, (v) the trade balance in period 1 and (vi) the trade balance in period 2. (6)
Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
6) 7) 8) 9) 10)
11)
12)
Question 3. English
Essay Compare and contrast both stories “ The tale of the three brothers” (Harry Potter) the tale of the three brothers (harry potter and the deathly hallows part 1) and “ The story of an hour” by Kate Chopin https://archive.vcu.edu/english/engweb/webtexts/hour/ . * compare and contrast using the 4 lens : Marxist criticism , gender studies , Ecocriticism , & psychoanalytic criticism . https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/subject_specific_writing/writing_in_literature/literary_theory_and_schools_of_criticism/index.html MLA format Please use 6 quotes & in text cites Intro – introducing the authors
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Question 4. Other
graphic design adobe illustrator
Instruction
Artboard Size One artboard at 17″ X 11″ inches This map must be drawn using the Pen tool in Illustrator. You do not have to recreate the whole city, just a section of the town where this hotel is (the location of the hotel is up to you) with attractions nearby. To help give you a visual idea, please google ‘city map given by hotels.’ How do I draw the map? To draw the map, I would recommend going to Google Maps and downloading or taking a screenshot of the city section you would like to recreate. You can import this map graphic into Illustrator and trace over it using the Pen tool. Your map needs to contain the following: Full color Map drawn using the Pen tool Ten icons that are created by you using the Pen and Shape tools only – no bitmap graphics From these 10 icons, you need to create the following: Three restaurants Four attractions 2 shopping locations The guest hotel A legend explaining what these 10 icons represent – You might want to break the legend up based on interest (Attractions, Shopping, Restaurants, etc… to make it easier to read) A marker to identify the current location on the map (hotel location) Text should be used for the names of the icons and major streets Submit the following: Compress the Ai and JPEG files into a single .zip file. For assistance in zipping and unzipping files, review the How to Compress Files and Save as .Zip document (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. Submit the .zip file.
Question 5. General
You have been working as a supervisor in a community service organisation for some time.
The organisation has a policy of recognising diversity—personal/ individual and cultural. The current workforce is, therefore, comprised of a number of people from different cultures, with a wide range of background experiences and skills.
Inclusivity policies are supported by the current workforce and there is very little conflict. All staff receives cross-cultural training which helps them accept workforce diversity and accommodate the diverse needs of the clients for whom they care.
Write a 2,500 word paper explaining:
• the ways in which diversity can impact on work and work relationships
• the benefits of diversity
• the need for inclusivity, cultural safety and cultural competence
• why it is necessary for staff to reflect on their own individual and cultural characteristics, biases and prejudices
• how diversity should be valued and accommodated
• how effective and mutually beneficial relationships can be built with work mates, clients and clients’ families
• how to overcome communication barriers
• how the individual and cultural needs of clients can be accommodated and respected
• the methods that might be used to prevent, overcome or manage cultural conflicts
• strategies that people can use to improve their own self and social awareness
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Question 6. English
Create a short story.
Instruction
-Your story should have ONE main character and a MAXIMUM of THREE supporting characters. -Your story must have a clear plot. -Your story could include effective dialogue. -Your story should include some type of conflict. -Length? It’s a short story…so 3 – 5 pages.
Question 7. Literary Studies
Two papers I need done. Each paper is one page each. MLA formet. Essay response on African Amercian literature. Due by 3pm.
4. Consider Frances E. W. Harper’s short story “The Two Offers” (1859) and her poem “A Double Standard” (1895). What message does Harper prioritize in the poem, and what message does she emphasize in her story? In what ways might Harper’s messages be relevant in the lives of contemporary female readers?
5. Read pages 105-107 of Alexander Crummell’s “The Black Woman of the South: Her Needs and Her Wants” (1883): https://archive.org/details/blackwomanofsout00crum. Using textual evidence, discuss how Crummell’s characterizations of Black women’s experiences relate to the experiences of other characters or authors/orators we have read? Additionally, does any other character or writer we have read present a possible remedy for the challenges Crummell identifies? If not, do not answer this question. If so, be sure to cite characters, persona, and/or speakers who proscribe solutions to the issues Crummell outlines
Question 8. Mathematics
3. information or is
“word of mouth” an acceptable practice.
Rubric
View the rubric for this assignment.
View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.
MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task
Activity 1: The Functional Fairground
Assignment Assignment 4
Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.
Courtyard of Powers: 4 ¬ Fair Pay
4. In “Fair Pay” you visit the fairground administration building as a potential employee. You decide if the salary grid is fair today and in the future.
Table of Present Hourly Wages and their Future Growth
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To keep ahead of inflation the employees will get a yearly 5% increase. The minimum and maximum hourly wages after 10, 20, and 30 years are given.
A. Graph the minimum (0 year row) salary and the maximum (10 year row) salary growth as two
B. Create separate equations for the “0 year” data and “10 year” data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form W(t) = ?, where “W” is the hourly wage in dollars and “t” is the time in years.
C. i) Identify the input variable?
ii) Identify the output variable?
iii) Is W(t) a function? State your reasoning.
iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 30, what is the range on this interval for the maximum
experience?
D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find W(40) = ?, the hourly wage for both minimum and maximum experience after 40 years of 5% increases.
ii) Divide the 30 year hourly wage by the present hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10 year” experience level.
iii) How many times bigger is the salary after 30 years?
iv) Subtract the present hourly wage from the 30 year hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10
year” experience level.
v) What is the increase in each salary after 30 years?
vi) Do you think this method of increasing the salary grid is acceptable to all employees?
Explain with reference to your calculations as well as employee quality and type of job.
Rubric
View the rubric for this assignment.
View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.
MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task
Activity 1: The Functional Fairground
Assignment Assignment 5
Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.
Courtyard of Powers: 5 ¬ Bearly Working
5. “Bearly Working” is a black bear animatronic sing¬along presentation that always seems to be breaking down. How long will it take for word to travel around the park?
To avoid people showing up to this non¬functional presentation, the presenters asked the first person that showed up to tell three other people in the park that the show will not be running. This must be done within one minute of leaving the area. Furthermore, they have asked that each of these three people pass on this information to three other people in the following minute and so on…
A. Graph the data from the table above.
B. Create an equation for the data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form P(t) = ?, where “P” is the number of people informed after “t” rounds of communication.
C. i) Identify the input variable?
ii) Identify the output variable?
iii) Is P(t) a function? State your reasoning.
iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 4, what is the range on this interval for the maximum
experience?
D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find P(8) = ?, the number of people informed of the broken presentation after 8 rounds of communication.
Table of Number of People Informed per Round of Messages
Round of messages (minutes) 0 1 2 3 4
# of people informed 1 3 9 27 81
ii) If attendance is approximately 19 000 on this day, how long will it take for everybody in the
3. iii) If the original instruction was changed so that you inform four people on each round, what
would the new equation become?
4. iv) At this different rate, approximately how long will it take to communicate with the same 19
000 people?
v) Should the fairground management be responsible for communicating this
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Question 9. Other
Instruction
In order to give direction to your preliminary ideas for your business, your business plan, especially if you do not now have a business, or you do not know what business you would start if you did go into business for yourself this assignment is to conduct a 10 question interview with someone you know who is an entrepreneur, and/or has started and manages a small business. Here is the source to use for the interview:https://www.feedster.com/wisdom-strategy/10-questions-to-ask-an-entrepreneur/ Write a thorough report of you entire interview, with the question, and the response, be as detailed as possible to dig for explanations to each question. Give name of business owner, how you chose her/him, name of business, date of interview, and details of the business
Question 10. Other.
Instruction
You will write a 1,000-word book review of The King Jesus Gospel by Scot McKnight. This review will contain a short summary of the book, a personal response, a discussion of the book’s strengths and weaknesses and an application of the book in your life. You must follow the guidelines carefully. Use the following format in preparing your Book Review: 1. Summary: Summarize what you have read into 250 words. Prove that you comprehend the readings by writing a no-nonsense summary (picture a summary similar to reading the back cover of a book to decide if you want to read it). 2. Concrete responses: In at least 250 words, relate a personal life experience that this book connected with in your own life. Relate your story in first person, describing action, and quoting sentences you remember hearing or saying. You will remember almost nothing you have read unless you make this critical, personal connection. What video memory began to roll? This is your chance to tell your story and make new ideas found in the book your own. 3. Reflection: What new questions do you have in response to what you have read? Keep a rough note sheet at hand as you read. Begin with questions like: “What would I like further information on?” “Where do I disagree/strongly agree with the author?” “What bothers me/excites me about this content?” “What are the strengths and weaknesses of this book?” This section must be at least 250 words. 4. Application: How does information in the book influence how you are going to continue your own personal growth process? What actions or changes are you going to make in your life as a result of your learning? Your response here is a matter of obedience first, questions later. Be precise in summarizing your action steps (limit these comments to about 250 words). Note: Your grade for the Book Review depends on the quality and thoroughness of your response to each of these four headings. Include each heading in the body of your paper.
Question 11. Education
Instruction
Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to: Locate research on brain development and early childhood. Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool. Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process. Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education
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to 60 African American kindergarten children, half of low-income and half of middle-income status. Tasks were selected based on neuroimaging and lesion studies so that they taxed five neurocognitive systems that are involved in academic performance. The results indicated that there were no significant differ- ences between the income groups for the visual, spatial, and memory systems. However, SES differences were especially great in the areas of language and executive function, with indica- tions that some of the difference in executive function was associated with individual differences in language ability.
In a systematic replication, Farah et al. (2006) administered cognitive tasks to 60 African American children between the ages of 10 and 13 years, half of low-income and half of middle-income status; the children in the two groups were equivalent on health measures. Tasks were designed to provide information about abilities connected with seven specific neurocogni- tive systems. The results indicated that for the visual cognition, spatial cognition, and reward processing systems there were no significant differences between the groups. However, there were large differences in the areas of language and memory, including working memory, with a smaller difference in cognitive control. An explicit goal of this research group is to design more efficient interventions for low-income preschool children by targeting the neurocognitive systems that seem to be differentially impacted by variables that make up SES. For this purpose, it is better to use measures that are more specific than IQ or achievement tests. Thus, their goals are similar to those of Diamond et al. (2007).
Hackman, Farah, and Meaney (2010) stated that neuroscience can make an important contri- bution to society and human welfare by synthesizing the information that has resulted from dec- ades of research on socioeconomic differences in mental health, emotional functioning, and cognitive functioning in children and the environmental conditions related to those differences. The three studies described above are a few of the latest examples of those that have focused on cognition. The next step would be to identify the underlying cognitive and affective brain sys- tems that are influenced by SES, as illustrated by those studies, and then to identify the biologi- cal mechanisms by which environmental circumstances affect those brain systems. Hackman et al. (2010) discussed three such mechanisms, that is, influences on prenatal development, par- ental care, and cognitive stimulation in the home. For example, SES differences in parental care have been identified in a vast social science literature that associates family stress with harsh childrearing methods, conflict, insecure attachment, and decreased parental involvement as well as in studies indicating that high-quality parenting can promote resilience
Chemistry Formal Lab REport
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Objectives: Upon successful completion of this laboratory the student will be able to:
1. 1) Perform an acid-base titration accurately to an indicator endpoint.
2. 2) Calculate moles from molarity and volume.
3. 3) Write the complete, and net ionic equation for the neutralization of an acid with a base.
4. 4) Calculate equivalent mass from total mass and moles of hydronium ion.
5. 5) Write a formal scientific communication (laboratory report).
Introduction: Titration is a simple and very frequently used technique of quantitative volumetric analysis, which is able to achieve great precision and accuracy when it is done properly. The titration apparatus is shown in Figure 1. It consists of a Burette (A), a clamp (B), a stand (C) and a container (D) in which the titration reaction occurs. The Burette has a valve (E) that allows precise control of the flow of liquid from the burette, and it has a thin tip (F) that produces small and very uniform drops.
Figure 1, Titration Apparatus
There is a solution that has a very precisely known concentration of one of the reactants in the Burette. This is called the titrant. The flask has an unknown amount of the other reactant, called the analyte. The analyte can be a known volume of a solution of unknown concentration, or it can be a carefully weighed
1
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
solid compound or mixture dissolved in a solvent. In this lab you will titrate a solid that you have weighed to the nearest 1 mg and then dissolved in water.
Notice that the burette is marked the opposite way that a graduated cylinder is marked. It has the 0 mark at the top and the 50 mark at the bottom. Rather than being how much the burette contains, these marks represent how much has been removed from the burette, if the level starts at exactly 0.00 ml. What if you start titrating at some number other than 0? Then simply subtract your initial measurement from the final measurement.
When you are reading a burette, just as with any other instrument, your measurement precision should go 1 decimal place past the smallest tic mark (Figure 2)
Figure 2 How to read a burette
The smallest tic mark on our burettes is 0.1 ml. This means that you will read the burettes to the nearest 0.01 ml.
2
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
The number of moles of analyte present can be determined easily from the volume of the titrant, the concentration of the titrant in 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 (molarity, also abbreviated as M), and the balanced equation of the
reaction between the titrant and the analyte. This can tell you a number of things. If you know the formula and molar mass of the analyte, it can tell you how many grams are present, and the percent composition of a carefully weighed sample of the analyte material. If the volume of the analyte solution is known precisely, it can tell you the molar concentration of the analyte solution, and if you know the mass of a pure unknown compound, it can tell you the molar mass, of that compound.
The equation to obtain the moles of analyte from the volume of titrant is as follows:
To find percent composition, divide by total grams mixture:
𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 ×100%=𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Equation 3, Calculation of percent composition of an analyte mixture
To find the molar mass of an analyte divide the mass of the analyte by the moles of analyte
𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠⁄1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒
Equation 4 calculation af the molar mass of an analyte
Understanding the experiment: In this experiment we will perform an acid – base neutralization reaction, and use equations 1 and 4 to find the equivalent mass of an acid. Acids are broadly defined as sources of hydrogen ions, H+, also called protons. In water, acids will react with water to form hydronium ions, H3O+, by the following reaction, where HA stand for a generic acid. This reaction is also called acid dissociation.
𝐻𝐴 + 𝐻2𝑂→𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴−
Equation 5 dissociation of a monoprotic acid in water
In fact, the proton, or H+ ion, never exists alone in a water solution. It always exists as the hydronium ion, H3O+. Often people will talk about the hydrogen ion and refer to it as H+, but what they really mean is hydronium ion.
Acids can be mono-protic, di-protic, tri-protic and even poly-protic, depending on how many hydrogen ions they can donate. The stoichiometric ratio of a mono-protic acid is 1 to 1; that of a diprotic acid is 1 to 2; that of a triprotic acid is 1 to 3 and so forth. The reaction of a strong di-protic acid with water would be:
𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟
3
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
𝐻2𝐴 + 2 𝐻2𝑂→ 2𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴2−
Equation 6, Dissociation of a diprotic acid in water
Notice the stoichiometric ratio of hydronium ion to acid is 2 to 1. The equivalent mass of the acid is the amount required to produce 1 mole of hydronium ion. It would take half as many moles of the acid in equation 2 to make a mole of hydronium ion as it would if it were a monoprotic acid.
From this, you can see that the equivalent mass of a monoprotic acid will be equal to its molar mass, while the equivalent mass of a diprotic acid will be 1⁄2 of its molar mass. For a triprotic acid it would be 1/3 and so forth. Examples of monoprotic, diprotic and triprotic organic acids are shown in Figure 3. The acidic proton is shown in bold.
Figure 3 Organic acid structures.
A base is broadly defined as a compound that absorbs hydrogen ions. Bases produce hydroxide ions, OH- , in water in one of two ways. They either dissociate in water to form hydroxide ions (These are called Arrhenius bases), or they react with water to produce hydroxide ions. The base that we will use in this laboratory, sodium hydroxide, is one of the ones that dissociates in water. The equation is below.
𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) →𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)
Equation 7, Dissociation of an Arrhenius base in water
Observe that sodium hydroxide will produce exactly as many moles of hydroxide ion as there are moles of sodium hydroxide that dissolve. Ammonia is an example of a base that react with water to form hydroxide ion. These bases are called Brønsted-Lowry bases. The equation for the reaction of ammonia is shown below:
𝑁𝐻 3 + 𝐻 2 𝑂→𝑂𝐻 − + 𝑁𝐻 4+
Equation 8, Dissociation of a Brønsted Lowry base in water
A major simplification that is being made in this description of acids and bases is the assumption that they dissociate or react completely with the water to form hydroxide or hydronium ions. While this is true of strong acids and bases, there are many weak acids and bases that only react a little bit before the reaction starts going in the other direction to establish what is called an equilibrium with only a very low concentration of hydronium or hydroxide ion. A complete description of weak acids and weak bases is beyond the scope of this course. You will study this and other aspects of equilibrium in grueling detail, in CHM 2046. No worries, though; you will have a whole lot more chemistry under your belt by then.
Even though all of the acids that will be used in this laboratory are considered weak acids, they will completely dissociate through the course of the titration, because the sodium hydroxide is a strong base, and it will completely react with the small amount of hydronium produced by any aqueous acid, no matter
4
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
how weak it is. This will drive more of the acid to dissociate and make more hydronium ion, which will in turn be gobbled up by the hydroxide ion, until there is no acid left. This tendency is known as Le Chatelier’s principle. It is also a topic that will be covered extensively in CHM 2046.
The equations of acid and base add together as follows
The third equation is called the net ionic equation for acid base neutralization. It can be derived by assuming that the acid and the base are present in their completely dissociated forms.
Equation 9, Total ionic equation of an acid base reaction
The ions that are crossed out are called spectator ions, because they appear on both sides of the arrow. Taking them out gives you the third equation in scheme 1.
You can Also see that the stoichiometric ratio for a dibasic acid is two to one, base to acid, and for a tribasic acid the stoichiometric ratio of base to acid is 3 to 1, as shown in equations 10 and 11.
Equation 11, reaction of a triprotic acid with sodium hydroxide
Because 1 mole sodium hydroxide reacts with 1 mole hydronium ion, the equivalent mass of the acid is the mass of the acid divided by the moles of sodium hydroxide. In other words:
𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠(𝑔⁄𝑚𝑜𝑙) = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 (𝑔) × 1000𝑚𝑙 × 1
𝑚𝑙𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 1 𝐿𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠⁄𝐿𝑠𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 h𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
In most cases, both reactants and products of acid base reactions are colorless. It would therefore be impossible to see when the reaction is complete. To determine this we need to add an indicator dye. Indicator dyes are dyes that react with something in the reaction mixture to change color when the reaction is done. We will use dye molecule called phenolphthalein, which is a very weak acid that is much less likely to give up its protons than the acids that we are titrating. When phenolphthalein does give up its protons, it turns pink, or red. When the very last molecule of the acid reacts, there is no more hydronium ion to react. This is called the equivalence point. When the equivalence point is reached, the hydroxide ion in the next drop of titrant will react with the phenolphthalein and turn it red.
5
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Figure 4 structure of phenolphthalein acidic hydrogens are shown in bold
This marks the endpoint of the titration. At the true end point, very little phenolphthalein will have reacted, so your solution will be a very light pink. If it turns dark pink, you will have added too much base. See Figure 5. The flask on the left is a perfect endpoint. The one on the right has too much base added.
Figure 5, Good endpoint (left) overshot endpoint(right)
It is important to continuously swirl your analyte solution. If you do not, you can get a false endpoint. The color will appear, but then disappear when you stir it. As you approach the endpoint clouds of pink color will appear briefly when you add the base, then disappear (figure 6).
Figure 6, transient pink cloud near endpoint
6
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Procedure:
1. 1) Obtain a vial of unknown acid from the chemical stockroom.
2. 2) Obtain the following equipment: burette clamp, ring stand, Burette with valve and tip, burette funnel, 3
clean 250ml Erlenmeyer flasks, a 250 ml beaker, 2 or 3 little squares of white paper, a squirt bottle, and a few plastic transfer pipettes. Make sure that the valve fits snugly in the burette and that the tip fits snugly in the valve.
3. 3) Wash out the squirt bottle with deionized water and fill it with deionized water. Then wash the burette, two of the three flasks and the beaker with deionized water. Dry the beaker with a clean paper towel.
4. 4) Dispense about 150 ml of the sodium hydroxide solution from the carboy into the beaker. Write down the molar concentration of this solution.
5)
6) 7)
8) 9)
Caution! Sodium hydroxide is very caustic and it will permanently blind you if it gets in your eyes, even in low concentrations. Wear approved Safety glasses or goggles!
Assemble the burette in the burette clamp, and use a transfer pipette to run a few pipettes full of the sodium hydroxide solution down the inside walls of the burette. Put the unwashed Erlenmeyer flask under the burette, and drain out the sodium hydroxide solution into the Erlenmeyer flask. Repeat this process 2 more times.
Place the funnel in the top of the burette and carefully pour the sodium hydroxide until it reaches close to the 0.00 ml mark.
Open the valve and let a few drops of the sodium hydroxide titrant run into the waste flask. This will fill the tip of the burette with titrant.
Discard the waste solution in the sink and wash the flask thoroughly with deionized water.
Take the unknown sample of acid to the balance. Put a plastic weigh boat onto the balance and press “tare”. When the balance reads 0.000g, weigh out the amount of unknown acid that is indicated on the vial to the nearest 0.001g. Do not exceed this amount, or you might not be able to titrate it with only 1 burette full of sodium hydroxide solution. Write the mass down on your data sheet.
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10. 10) Carefully pour the acid powder into one of the flasks. Use the corner of the weigh boat to pour from. With your squirt bottle, wash any solid that remains on the weigh boat into the flask. Mark this flask “rough”
11. 11) Put about 50 ml of deionized water into the flask and then swirl the flask to dissolve as much of the acid as possible. Add a few drops of phenolphthalein solution to the flask.
12. 12) Use a ruler or the edge of a notebook as a straight edge, and draw a thick dark line horizontally across one of the small pieces of white paper. Place the other piece under the burette, and place the flask with the acid solution on top of it.
13. 13) Hold the paper with the line behind the burette, so that the line is horizontal, just underneath the meniscus. This will reflect off of the meniscus, making it easier to read (see Figure 7). With your eye at the level of the meniscus, read the burette to the nearest 0.01 ml.
14. 14) While constantly swirling the flask of analyte, open the valve and rapidly titrate until the acid solution turns pink. Be ready to stop the flow when the color change occurs.
15. 15) Write the initial volume, final volume and net volume (final – initial) in the “rough” section of the data sheet.
16. 16) Refill the burette with sodium hydroxide solution and let a little run through the pipette tip into the titrated sample if it is necessary to refill the tip of the burette.
17. 17) Repeat steps 9 through 11 with the other two flasks. Mark them “trial 1” and “trial 2”.
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
18. 18) To help you to estimate the amount of titrant that will be needed for trials 1 and 2, you can do a proportional calculation as shown below. This will allow you to titrate quickly to just under the estimated volume, and then titrate slowly to get an accurate endpoint.
19. 19) Read the initial volume as in step 13, and add the estimated net volume for Trial 1 to the initial volume to get the estimated final volume.
20. 20) Titrate rapidly to about 5 ml before the estimated final volume for Trial 1. Then titrate the solution drop by drop, with constant swirling until it turns a very light pink.
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21. 21) Measure the final volume as in step 13, and write down the measured initial volume and final volume in the “Trial 1” column of your data sheet.
22. 22) Refill the burette and repeat steps 19 through 21 for trial 2.
23. 23) Calculate the equivalent mass of the acid for trials 1 and 2, then calculate the average value.
24. 24) Discard the titrated acid solutions and the excess sodium hydroxide solution in the sink with water.
Clean and return all the equipment. Return the acid sample to the stockroom, and clean up your work area.
Figure 7, reading the meniscus with a black line
8
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Report Sheet: Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Lab Partner(s):_____________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Data sheet: to be turned in only with full, formal lab report.
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Prelab: Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Show calculations and be mindful of significant figures for full credit.
The following data were observed in an equivalent mass of an acid experiment.
1. 1) Fill in the blanks (2 points each). Show all calculations for full credit.
2. 2) (3 points) How many moles of hydroxide ion were consumed in the titration?_________________
3. 3) (3 points) How many moles of hydronium ion were available from the acid?___________________
4. 4) (4 points) What is the equivalent molar mass of the acid? ____________
5. 5) (4 points) If it happened that the acid in this experiment was one of the ones represented
in the table below, what is the most likely identity of this acid? ___________________
NaOH molarity
Acid mass
0.2511g
Initial volume (ml)
Final volume (ml)
Net volume (ml)
0.1000 M
Numerical value:
Acid name Molar mass Number of protons
Butanoic acid 88.11 g/mol 1
Tartaric acid 150.087 g/mol 2
Citric acid 192.124 g/mol 3
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Formal Laboratory Report
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This lab requires a formal laboratory report that will be turned in online through Turnitin. Specific guidelines for writing the report are shown below:
Section Requirements
Introduction (10 points) • • Explain the objective of the experiment and describe how the stoichiometry of the acid base reaction can be used to volumetrically determine the equivalent mass of the acid.
• • Provide an example of how titration is used in medicine, industry, or environmental protection.
• • Write in passive voice for example: “The volume and concentration of the base solution are used to find the number of moles of acid present.” not “I will use the volume and concentration of the base solution to find the number of moles of acid present.”
• • Cite any references with sufficient detail that your instructor can find them.
Procedure (20 points) • • Write the procedure in your own words. Do not copy the procedure in the lab manual
• • The procedure should contain sufficient detail that a chemist of equal experience can duplicate the experiment
• • Use passive voice past tense. For example: “The burette was filled to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.” not “Fill the burette to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.”
•Citeanyreferences
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Data and calculation (60 points) • • All quantitative results should be presented as tables or graphs, and also described in paragraph form.
• • Volumes should be recorded to the 0.01 ml place, and masses should be recorded to within 0.001g.
• • Use Passive voice past tense
• • Show the calculations for net volume, moles base, moles acid, and equivalent
mass of the acid.
Results and discussion (30 points) • • List the values obtained for the equivalent mass of the acid for all titrations, and the average values.
• • Compare the values of each titration to each other, and evaluate how closely they agree.
• • Discuss whether or not your results are reasonable. The highest equivalent masses in this experiment are about 200 g/mol, and the lowest equivalent mass organic acid is oxalic acid, with an equivalent mass of 45 g/mol. Anything much less than this is probably not reasonable, and masses of more than 500 are also not reasonable in this experiment.
• • Use passive voice in this section as well.
Conclusion (10 points) • • Discuss any experimental factors that could influence the reliability of your results
• • Given the equipment provided and your evaluation of the results of this
experiment, discuss whether or not you could perform the titration in the practical example that you provided in the introduction with sufficient precision and accuracy
Prelab
(20 points)
11
Question 15. Psychology
Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues in Psychology Week 6 Team Assignment.
Nipsey Hussel Story
Develop a 10- to 12-slide presentation that covers how to bring awareness to the conflict presented in the news story from the Week Four Learning Team assignment.
Include the following in your presentation:
• An analysis of the social psychology and multicultural psychology aspects of the news story
• Clear application of the principles of social psychology or multicultural psychology in your plan
• The principles of multicultural psychology
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•
A resolution to the conflict in your plan
Include a minimum of five references from peer-reviewed journals.
Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Materials
Grading Criteria: Multiculturalism in the News
Resources
• Center for Writing Excellence
• Reference and Citation Generator
• Grammar and Writing Guides
• Learning Team Toolkit
Question 16. Psychology
Wk 6 Discussion 2.Phych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.
Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Sociopolitical Factors, Psychological Effect, and Diverse Populations
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available throughVital Bookshelf]
Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott,B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 17. Psychology
Wk 6 Discussion Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.
Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Pedersen (1999, p. 13) recognized the “profound consequences” for our discipline that arise from a “culture centered perspective. (Lott, 2010, p. 126).
What now? How will applying the information gained in class help with research, practice, and personal growth?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 18. Finance.
A supplier is offering your firm a cash discount of 2 percent if purchases are paid for within ten days; otherwise, the bill is due at the end of 60 days. Would you recommend borrowing from a bank at an 18 percent annual interest rate to take advantage of the cash discount offer? Explain your answer.
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Question 19. Psychology
PSYCH/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology week 5 discussion.
Classroom Engagement Expectations
Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:
• Discussion 1 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.
• Discussion 2 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.
• Discussion 3 will be a more open ended, standard prompt that invites students to share in 2 substantive contributions about what they learned from course materials, how they will apply learning to their career, or muddiest points for which they need/want to learn more
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:
1. Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
2. Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
3. Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Question 20. Physics
Unpolarized light traveling horizontally is incident normally (at a 90 degree angle) on an ideal polarizer. At a point
beyond the polarizer, the magnetic field of the light wave oscillates along a vertical axis. What is the polarization axis of the polarizer?
Question 21. Other
How does transport create social cohesion and division?
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Q1. Workforce Planning
Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.
Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.
Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:
specific job skills and competencies
employee qualifications
the breadth of training offered and available
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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document
Q2. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:
How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.
Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS
Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)
Hide Folder Information
Turnitin®
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.
Instructions
Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.
Write an Introduction describing your topic.
Write the Statement of the Problem section.
Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
Describe your method of sampling.
Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?
Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.
Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes
Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.
Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q12. Wk 2 Discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q13. Original Work Only
Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
Industry and Market Feasibility
Product or Service Feasibility
Financial Feasibility
Entrepreneurial Readiness
Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?
Q14. Discussion question
Respond to thefollowing in a minimum of 175 words each:
What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q16.Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse
Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.
Important Concepts from Chapter 3:
Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.
Assignment:
Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.
Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?
Q17.Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.
Q18.The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem
Details:
The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.
Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.
Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.
Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.
The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).
Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.
Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.
Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:
Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.
To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.
Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q20.week 5 Starbucks
Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.
Organization (Starbucks)
Assess the organization’s current status:
o Leadership
o Board members
o Structure
o Number of employees
Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.
Q21.role of sport in education
role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
Q22.Strategic Choice and Evaluation
Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…
What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources
Q24.Mini-Strategy Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations(Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.
Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
Q26.MGT 279 Assignment 4
In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?
Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.
Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.
Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:
What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Q28.New hire for job position
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
Q29.Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
Hi,
I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization” So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process
Course textbook:
Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice(4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.
Q30.For Contemporary Decision Making.
Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.
Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?
Provide an example of empirical probability ?
BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;
Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.
ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions
When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)
Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.
Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,
Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end
Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points
According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points
Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points
Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points
According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points
Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points
The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points
According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points
Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:
Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.
Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab
Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****
Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
Assignment
In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.
Proposal Argument Prompt
Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
As you compose your essay, be sure to:
• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.
IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Q7. Thinking Critically 1
For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.
Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.
Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE
ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument
In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.
Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)
Ethical Essay Prompt
Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
Instructions
After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”
When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.
Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.
Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.
Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself
Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.
Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.
Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)
Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.
HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200
Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.
Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)
RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1
• Question 1
This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2
When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3
Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4
When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5
Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7
Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8
When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9
The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10
According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11
Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12
In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13
Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14
A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15
According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16
Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17
One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18
According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19
When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20
According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.
Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5
According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.
1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?
2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?
3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?
4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?
5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?
6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?
7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?
8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was
Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as
Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.
Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.
Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.
1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.
1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?
1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was
2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find
3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:
4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.
5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.
6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because
7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.
9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.
10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?
11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?
Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?
Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University
1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by
2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because
3.
Hidalgos were
4.
Convertible husbandry
5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT
6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by
7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by
8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when
9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was
10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of
11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by
12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of
13.
Francisco Pizarro was
14.
The European traffic in African slaves
15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from
16.
Enclosure was the process by which
17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it
18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain
19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period
20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that
Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University
1.
With respect to religiosity and women
2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that
3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526
4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as
5.
Catherine de’ Medici
6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT
7.
The Council of Trent met to
8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT
9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a
10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli
11.
The millenarians believed that
12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by
13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that
14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because
15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to
16.
The Huguenots
17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation
18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists
19.
The Jesuits were a
20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by
Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were
2.
In the Late Middle Ages
3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when
4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)
5.
Unam Santa (1302)
6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua
7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when
8.
The Conciliar Movement
9.
The Lollards were
10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to
11.
Feudal traditions
12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because
13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?
14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT
15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France
16.
The Great Schism came to an end
17.
Wycliffe and Hus
18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason
19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that
20.
Which of the following events occurred last?
Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?
1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that
2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at
3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?
4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:
5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?
6. The Crusades were
7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except
8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire
9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the
GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.
•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.
Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.
Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.
Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.
Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points
This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm
Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.
Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.
Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.
Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?
Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.
Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System
Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic
URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
ART
Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review
For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.
Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?
Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.
Our Case Study:
The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.
Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.
Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:
Classic Interpretations:
For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:
Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?
Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.
Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report
This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?
Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.
• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?
Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)
Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.
Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned
Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.
Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?
Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics
Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.
Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.
ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).
Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.
***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)
Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.
Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)
Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries
Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.
Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4
Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)
Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )
Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)
FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity
Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.
Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:
Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?
Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:
1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:
• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:
• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?
Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics
Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.
Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.
Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.
Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers
Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?
Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.
book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.
citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal
Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?
Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust
Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50
Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.
Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA
Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?
How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?
LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 5
1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.
with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.
Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma
Warp
Ship
Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense
back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:
2
5
3
none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.
They are all velar
They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar
They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.
rounded
tense
high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:
voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.
voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.
none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.
True
False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.
True
False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?
Voiceless velar oral stop
Voiceless velar nasal stop
Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.
True
False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?
Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.
None of these are false.
There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.
In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.
True
False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?
none of these answers
China
Cute
Bamboo
Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:
An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.
A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.
None of these answers.
The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers
alveolar
approximant
lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.
The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.
None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.
The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.
True
False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.
True
False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?
None of these answers.
The nasal system.
The vocal tract system.
The respiratory system.
The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:
none of these answers.
/θ/
/ð/
/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.
An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.
how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.
the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:
the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.
none of these answers
fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.
True
False
Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form
Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.
If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at
Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…
PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE
, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.
Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals
Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity
Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed
Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo
The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.
Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s
Double Indmnity market scene
50:20
LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s
Kiss me deadly beach scene
Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies
Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.
PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.
Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.
Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median
Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine
8
10
5
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS
Less likely to support No change More likely to support
25
12
9
7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30
1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers
Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers
Result A+
Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers
Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.
ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account
Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.
Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.
a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))
Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity
b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI
Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.
Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?
Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do
Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?
Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.
Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.
Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.
EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
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The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
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contains 50 Questions
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result
Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?
Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work
CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points
This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.
Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.
Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.
REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.
Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed
This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional
social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.
Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau
2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18
Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+
BIBL 104 – Quiz 7
• Question 1
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
• Question 2
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
• Question 3
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
• Question 4
In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.
• Question 5
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
• Question 6
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
• Question 7
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
• Question 8
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
• Question 9
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
• Question 10
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
• Question 11
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
• Question 12
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
• Question 13
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
• Question 14
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
• Question 15
2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
• Question 16
In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”
• Question 17
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
• Question 18
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
• Question 19
Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.
• Question 20
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
• Question 21
In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.
• Question 22
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
• Question 23
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
• Question 24
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
• Question 25
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
• Question 26
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
• Question 27
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
• Question 28
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
• Question 29
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
• Question 30
1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.
• Question 31
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
• Question 32
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
• Question 33
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
• Question 34
In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.
• Question 35
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
• Question 36
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.
• Question 37
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
• Question 38
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
• Question 39
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
• Question 40
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
• Question 41
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
• Question 42
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
• Question 43
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
• Question 44
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
• Question 45
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
• Question 46
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
• Question 47
Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.
• Question 48
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
• Question 49
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
• Question 50
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than
one large church.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by
Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual
building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 22
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 26
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Question 27
0 out of 1 points
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
Question 28
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.
Question 29
0 out of 1 points
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by
having the young man circumcised.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
Question 33
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Question 37
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise
of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.
Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim
belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Question 46
0 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Question 47
0 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 49
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in
the flesh.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He
then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that
we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first
generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when
He hung on the cross.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he
reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.
Question 44
0 out of 1 points
_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly
arrangement of the local church.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days
____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff
____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium
____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain
____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease
____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone
____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics
____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness
____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe
____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home
____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam
____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships
____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one
____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support
____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea
____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia
Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
• Question 23
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
• Question 26
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
• Question 41
0 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Question 6
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
Question 7
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Question 17
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Question 20
0 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Question 42
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT
GENDER STUDIES.
Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.
Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.
Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below
THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.
View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
Q5. Discussion Board Forum:
pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below
DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.
Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.
Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.
Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.
Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.
Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA
Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse
Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient
CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)
1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?
Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.
HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
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Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
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At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
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An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
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Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
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A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
7/127 5/25/2019
A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
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When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
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An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
14/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who
Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?
Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.
____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement
____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.
____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory
____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease
____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin
____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement
____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.
____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria
____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).
____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis
____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)
____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease
____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation
____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease
____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.
____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta
____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.
____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.
____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)
____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.
____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.
____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells
____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave
____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4
____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal
____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute
____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate
____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node
____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.
____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention
____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.
____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.
____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation
____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis
____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.
____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.
____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin
____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.
____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance
____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule
____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.
____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.
____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.
____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure
____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air
____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.
____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure
____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis
____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation
____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)
____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)
____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)
____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25
____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal
____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30
____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.
____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)
____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.
____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis
____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory
____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic
____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated
____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic
____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion
____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease
____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency
____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.
____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation
____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure
____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.
____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload
Matching
Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity
____ 198. Proto-oncogene
____ 199. Pleomorphic
____ 200. Anaplasia
____ 201. Caretaker gene
____ 202. Autocrine stimulation
Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent
____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins
____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle
____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction
____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles
____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole
Match th
Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]
Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1
Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive
Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer
Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.
Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support
Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in
Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few
Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)
NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –
Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy
____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners
____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing
____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level
Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney
____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin
____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues
____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects
____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues
____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range
____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range
____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long
____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action
____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists
____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow
____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed
____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual
____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.
____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.
____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion
____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above
____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins
____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above
____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive
____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs
____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time
____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor
____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug
____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”
____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration
____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose
____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.
____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally
____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration
____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response
Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form
____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug
____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders
____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment
____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy
____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above
____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated
____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English
____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective
____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration
____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.
Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings
____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure
____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity
____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin
____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state
____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed
____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above
____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them
____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy
____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above
Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male
____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution
____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function
____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D
____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen
____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E
____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response
____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F
____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer
____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication
____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants
____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G
____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives
____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction
____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F
Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices
____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations
____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds
____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders
____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting
____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.
____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.
____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above
____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms
____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.
____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance
____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence
____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above
Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption
____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities
____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization
____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care
____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction
____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy
____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States
Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers
____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism
____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin
____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine
____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic
____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug
____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify
Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University
An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:
A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure
Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?
A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:
A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
The DEA:
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:
A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:
A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI
The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:
A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:
A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:
A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?
A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:
A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes
First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium
Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:
A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:
A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:
A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker
Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:
A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:
A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Infants with reflux are initially treated with:
A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:
A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:
A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:
A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:
A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:
A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?
A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:
A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:
A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:
A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.
A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
Off-Label prescribing is:
A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
One goal of asthma management in children is:
A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:
A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation
A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.
A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:
A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:
A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A. True
B. False
B. False
A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:
A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:
A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:
A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis
Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:
A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:
A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:
A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:
A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
Sitagliptin has been approved for:
A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):
A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:
A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?
A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:
A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:
A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine
The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.
A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days
A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E
The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:
A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?
A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin
What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:
A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:
A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.
A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?
A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:
A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?
A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker
Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?
A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.
Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?
A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?
A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?
A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
A woman who has migraine with aura:
A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:
A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
…
Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…
LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948
article title
volume and issue information
journal title
author
Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?
paraphrase
hanging quote
direct quote
Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.
Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score
Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%
Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%
PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions
Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:
Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules
Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms
Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.
Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)
Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:
1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.
Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:
1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?
b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.
Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.
In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.
In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.
In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.
While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.
A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.
Questions to Consider
1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?
2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?
3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.
4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.
Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59
Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.
RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:
Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:
Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5
42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:
Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:
Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
CHEMISTRY.
Q1. Citric Acid Cycle
Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2
According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?
Solvent
Precipitate
Base
Acid
Salt
According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?
A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
A substance that has an H in its formula.
An electron pair donor.
An electron pair acceptor.
Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?
H2O()
NH4+ion
Cl–ion
HNO3(aq)
H2PO4–(aq)
Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
HCO3–(aq)
HOH()
NH3(g)
CO32–(aq)
CH3OH()
Consider the following generalized reaction.
For this reaction, which of the following is correct?
A is proton source.
B is a proton remover.
A is an electron pair donor.
B is an electron pair acceptor.
This a Lewis acid-base reaction.
Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
OH–
HPO42–
HCl
NH4+
Fe3+
Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?
H3PO4 / HPO42-
H2O / OH–
HBr / Br–
NO3– / HNO3
HClO2 / ClO2–
Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.
CH3CO2H / CH3CO2–
H3O+ / H2O
HSO4– / SO42-
H3PO4 / HPO42-
None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.
Which one of the following is a strong acid?
nitric acid, HNO3
phosphoric acid, H3PO4
hypobromous acid, HOBr
bromic acid, HBrO3
carbonic acid, H2CO3
Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3– < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?
CO32–< NO3–< Br–
Br–< CO32–< NO3–
NO3–< Br–< CO32–
Br–< NO3–< CO32–
CO32–< Br–< NO3–
Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?
HNO2+ HS–H2NO2+ + S2–
HNO2+ HS–NO2– + H2S
HNO2+ HSO4–H2NO2+ + SO42–
HNO2+ HSO4–NO2– + H2SO4
HNO3+ HSO4–NO3– + H2SO4
Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4– and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4–.)
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4– + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–
Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?
2 HClO42 ClO4– + H2
HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4–
HClO4 + OH– H2O + ClO4–
3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4–
HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH–
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.
The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH–] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH–] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH–] > [H+] is acidic.
i and ii
iii and iv
ii, iii, and iv
All statements are correct.
All statements are incorrect.
At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is
4.384
7.000
3.804
4.484
None of these choices are correct.
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?
2.7 × 10-6M
6.0 × 10-5M
5.6 × 10-3M
2.1 × 10–4M
2.5 × 10-4M
What is the [ OH– ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?
1.41×10-4 M
0.213 M
1.41×10-5 M
7.08×10-10 M
7.08×10-11 M
Which of the following is true for a basic solution?
[ H+ ] < [ OH– ]
Kw = [ H+ ]
[ OH– ] = [ H+ ]
[ H+ ][ OH– ] = 1
[ OH– ] < [ H+ ]
What is the pH of a solution when [OH–] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?
12.70
7.00
13.70
0.30
1.30
What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?
4.27×106
2.34×10-7
4.27×10-8
2.34×107
Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?
Producing a solution with a pH less than 7
Tasting sour
Producing hydrogen ions in solution
Turning red litmus blue
If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.
basic
amphoteric
neutral
acidic
The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH–].
[OH–] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
[OH–] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
[OH–] = 5.33 molar
A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?
13.50
13.19
11.74
0.81
0.31
The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.
HNO3(aq) + CN–(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3–(aq)
HCN(aq) + OH–(aq) H2O(l) + CN–(aq)
H2O(l) + CH3CH2O–(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH–(aq)
Identify the strongest base.
CH3CH2O–
NO3–
CN–
CH3CH2OH
H2O
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?
7.4 × 10-6M
1.7 × 10-4M
2.1 × 10–4M
6.9 × 10-4M
1.5 × 10-2M
As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that
the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.
the water has a lower [OH–] than cooler water.
the Kw value is decreasing.
the water is no longer neutral.
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).
11.94
2.06
5.97
3.15
8.03
At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is
3.727
7.000
4.307
4.407
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.
3.0*10^-14 M
7.0*10^-13 M
1.0*10^-7 M
3.4*10^-15 M
3.0*10^14 M
Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions
Chapter 16
Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.
Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?
KBr – solute and water – solvent.
Saturated solution.
Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
A heterogeneous mixture.
All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.
2.
Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?
heterogeneous mixture
variable composition
constant properties
dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
exist only in the liquid and gas state
3.
A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.
unsaturated
oversaturated
dilute
supersaturated
concentrated
4.
Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?
concentrated
supersaturated
unsaturated
static
saturated
5.
Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?
CH4
NaCl
Mg3(PO4)2
CH2Cl2
O2
6.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.
7.
“Like dissolves like” essentially means:
Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.
Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.
Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.
Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.
8.
In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.
solute, solution
solvent, solute
solute, solvent
solution, solute
9.
dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.
The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.
10.
When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …
the solution separates into layers.
dissolving and crystallization stop.
the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
the concentration of the solution remains constant.
the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.
Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–OH
CH3–OH
I < III < IV < II
I < II < IV < III
III < IV < II < I
I < II < III < IV
None of these is correct.
13.
The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.
cyclohexane
benzene
It is logical to expect that these liquids are…
miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
immiscible because both molecules have ring structures
14.
Consider the graph shown below.
Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?
A
B
C
D
E
15.
To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?
Mass of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and volume of solution
Mass of solute and volume of solution
16.
Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.
2.66%
16.7%
1.77%
83.3%
None of these choices are correct.
17.
If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?
11.6 M
1.16×10-2M
7.09×10-2M
25.1 M
0.114 M
18.
What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?
6.7×10-2 M
0.80 M
0.60 M
0.20 M
0.40 M
19.
What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?
mass fraction of solvent
molarity of solute
mole fraction of solvent
molality of solvent
mole fraction of solute
20.
75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?
1.70 M
1.45 M
0.0581 M
0.0430 M
0.0367 M
21.
What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?
0.531 L
1.06 L
2.12 L
0.0474 L
0.0237 L
22.
Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.
45.0 mL
7.01 mL
21.0 mL
63.1 mL
15.0 mL
23.
Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?
0.5189 M
0.2590 M
1.732 M
3.861 M
3.275 M
24.
The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.
1.16 M
3.47 M
0.110 M
0.386 M
0.329 M
25.
A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.
0.105 M
1.05 M
22.8 M
0.0439 M
0.237 M
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
h
3
1
2
5
4
Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?
(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.
2 and 3
1 and 2
3 only
2 only
1 only
The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.
True
False
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
1.
Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:
equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.
2.
Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?
3.
What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?
Fusion
Freezing
Condensation
Sublimation
Evaporation
4.
Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?
vapor pressure
boiling point
heat of vaporization
density
viscosity
5.
Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.
CH3CHO, SO2, H2O
SO2, CH3CHO, H2O
H2O, SO2, CH3CHO
H2O, CH3CHO, SO2
CH3CHO, H2O, SO2
6.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
All statements are correct.
7.
The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…
Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
Attractive forces between molecules are significant
Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character
8.
Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.
9.
The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?
10.
The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is
11.
Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?
CH4
I2
SiH4
SO2
O2
12.
Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.
The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.
13.
Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?
HF
NH3
CH4
H2O
all the same
14.
The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:
SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C
The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:
dipole-dipole attraction.
hydrogen bonding.
metallic bonding.
London dispersion forces.
ionic bonding.
15.
Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?
NaCl(l)
N2(s)
HF(l)
H2O(l)
K(s)
16.
Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.
Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.
17.
There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.
the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.
18.
What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?
It would decrease.
It would double.
It would become half its value.
It would increase.
Two of these choices are correct.
19.
Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:
Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
All statements are correct.
20.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
21.
Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?
Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.
Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.
Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.
Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl– in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.
22.
Why does ice float on liquid water?
It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.
23.
In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?
vaporization
sublimation
melting
crystallization
None of these choices are correct.
24.
Which of the following statements is correct?
There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.
25.
Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?
White phosphorus
Calcium fluoride
Sulfur hexafluoride
Carbon dioxide
Silver
26.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?
NH3
MgCl2
Cl2
H2S
CH4
27.
The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?
89 kJ
39 kJ
2.7 kJ
2.6 kJ
1.6 kJ
28.
Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.
1.09 × 10–5J/g
3.23 × 10–3J/g
3.10 × 102J/g
9.17 × 104J/g
3.10 × 105J/g
29.
Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
-81.4 kJ/mol
30.7 kJ/mol
9.73*10^3 kJ/mol
2.24*10^4 kJ/mol
22.4 kJ/mol
30.
Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.
0.88 J/g · °C
1.1 J/g · °C
5.8 × 103J/g · °C
1.3 × 104J/g · °C
8.8 × 107J/g · °C
31.
The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.
Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist
(i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3
What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.
2.3 kJ
7.4 kJ
61 kJ
71 kJ
9.8 × 103kJ
A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?
6.6 atm
With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
226 torr
680 torr
760 torr
505 torr
255 torr
Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.
The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.
Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.
The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.
1.1 kJ
1.4 kJ
9.4 kJ
10.8 kJ
11.8 kJ
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
543 torr
669 torr
266 torr
217 torr
760 torr
Q5. i a need diagrams
Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.
Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te
Non-Profit Organizations
Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)
1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
—Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.
Q7. One argument in the debate surround
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs
Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs
Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.
Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.
Q8. Stoichiometry Answer
8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?
Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
Q10. Assess the value of branding in health
Module 3 – Case
Branding & Online Marketing
Case Assignment
Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?
Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.
COMMUNICATIONS.
Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q2. technical commumications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation
Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)
Grading Rubric
Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.
This is the end of Assignment 8.
Q3. EN 360 technical communications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q4COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
Question 1
40 out of 40 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.
According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.
The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.
The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.
The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.
Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.
Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.
Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
The background noise we encounter in communication situations.
The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.
For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?
Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.
A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.
Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A
Question 1
30 out of 30 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.
Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.
As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.
In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.
In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.
In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.
Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.
Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.
He devised a theory of reflective thinking.
Question 2
20 out of 20 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.
In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.
In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.
In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.
The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.
The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.
The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.
The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.
Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)
Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1
Question 1
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.
Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.
When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.
When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress
A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”
A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.
The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.
The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”
The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.
A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”
A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”
Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.
Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.
Question 3
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).
Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.
A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.
Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.
Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.
Question 4
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.
Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.
Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.
The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.
Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.
Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:
Question 2
____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.
Question 3
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 4
All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.
Question 5
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 6
“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):
Question 7
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 8
A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?
Question 9
Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.
Question 10
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?
Question 11
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 12
Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.
Question 13
Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.
Question 14
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 15
“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:
Question 18
Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.
Question 19
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 20
Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.
Question 21
Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.
Question 22
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 23
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 24
Putting too much information on note cards can result in:
Question 25
Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?
Question 26
Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?
Question 27
Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?
Question 28
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 29
Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?
Question 30
What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?
Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.
Question 2
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 3
The first step in organizing your speech is:
Question 4
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 5
If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms. The organization of this speech would be considered:
Question 6
Outlining is regarded by our authors as:
Question 7
When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?
Question 8
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 9
According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.
Question 10
An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen. This part of the introduction is referred to as:
Question 11
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 12
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 13
Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.
Question 14
According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?
Question 15
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 18
Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.
Question 19
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 20
Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.
Question 21
Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.
Question 22
If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?
Question 23
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 24
A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.
Question 25
The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.
Question 26
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 27
Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?
Question 28
All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation. However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.
Question 29
One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.
Question 30
Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.
Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2
Question 1
Which is not included in the body of the speech?
Question 2
Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 3
A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.
Question 4
Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?
Question 5
The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.
Question 6
Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?
Question 7
Which of the following is a literal analogy?
Question 8
The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?
Question 10
____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 11
Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:
Question 12
“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.
Question 13
Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?
Question 14
“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?
Question 15
This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.
Question 16
The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?
Question 17
Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:
Question 18
A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.
Question 19
Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?
Question 20
Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.
Question 21
___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.
Question 22
The two overall persuasive goals are:
Question 23
“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?
Question 24
In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.
Question 25
In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.
Question 26
Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:
Question 27
The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:
Question 28
Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.
Question 29
“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.
Question 30
The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:
Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3
Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic?
Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘
Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income.
Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis?
Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation.
Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need.
Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations.
Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection?
Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values.
Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience.
Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information?
Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is:
Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias.
Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan
Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech.
Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and:
Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson.
Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy?
Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free.
Question 20 Message credibility is defined as
Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids?
Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is:
Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker.
Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid?
Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids?
Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?
ARCHITECTURE
Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-
Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.
Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living
Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.
Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper
Focus of the Final Paper
Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):
Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.
Include the following:
1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.
2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.
3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.
Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign
Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.
Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?
Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis
Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.
Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
Create a job description from the job analysis.
Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi
Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.
What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.
–
Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.
Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.
Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.
Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES
The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.
A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.
B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.
C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?
Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
HLT 310V A Spiritualit
HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W
hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score
Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do
Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)
____ 1. Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.
____ 2. A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.
____ 3. For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.
____ 4. Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.
____ 5. There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.
____ 6. The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.
____ 7. The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.
____ 8. Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.
____ 10. Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.
____ 11. Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
____ 12. A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.
____ 13. Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.
____ 14. Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.
____ 15. Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.
____ 16. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.
____ 17. Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.
____ 18. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
____ 19. Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
____ 20. When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.
____ 21. Veins are less compliant than arteries.
____ 22. Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.
____ 23. Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.
____ 24. While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.
____ 25. Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.
____ 26. Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.
____ 27. Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.
____ 28. Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.
____ 29. Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.
____ 30. Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.
____ 31. Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.
____ 32. In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.
____ 33. When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.
____ 34. Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.
____ 35. An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.
____ 36. Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.
____ 37. Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
____ 38. Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 39. Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?
a.
Osteogenic sarcoma
b.
Basal cell carcinoma
c.
Multiple myeloma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
____ 40. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a.
Blood vessels
b.
Epithelium cells
c.
Connective tissue
d.
Glandular tissue
____ 41. What are characteristics of cancer in situ?
a.
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b.
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c.
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d.
Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.
____ 42. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:
a.
dysplasia.
b.
hyperplasia.
c.
myoplasia.
d.
anaplasia.
____ 43. What are tumor cell markers?
a.
Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells
b.
Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c.
Cytokines produced against cancer cells
d.
Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
____ 44. How are tumor cell markers used?
a.
To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
b.
To treat certain types of cancer
c.
To predict where cancers will develop
d.
To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
____ 45. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:
a.
cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.
b.
an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.
c.
tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d.
apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.
____ 46. What is autocrine stimulation?
a.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
b.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
c.
The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
d.
The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
____ 47. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?
a.
A tumor suppressor gene
b.
A growth promoting gene
c.
An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth
d.
A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth
____ 48. What are oncogenes?
a.
Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b.
Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue
c.
Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue
d.
Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
____ 49. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome translocation
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome fusion
____ 50. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome fusion
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome translocation
____ 51. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
a.
Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b.
The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.
c.
Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d.
Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
____ 52. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?
a.
Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent
b.
Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth
c.
Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis
d.
Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation
____ 53. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
a.
By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b.
By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies
c.
By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs
d.
By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes
____ 54. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
a.
They invade local tissues.
b.
They spread through lymph.
c.
They cause systemic symptoms.
d.
They have a low mitotic index.
____ 55. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
a.
Liposarcoma, lipoma
b.
Lipoma, liposarcoma
c.
Adisarcoma, adipoma
d.
Adipoma, adisarcoma
____ 56. Most human cancers appear to arise via:
a.
autosomal recessive gene inheritance.
b.
spontaneous gene mutations.
c.
X-linked recessive gene inheritance.
d.
autosomal dominant gene inheritance.
____ 57. Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:
a.
lung.
b.
skin.
c.
bladder.
d.
kidney.
e.
pancreas.
____ 58. The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
a.
herpes simplex virus type 6.
b.
herpes simplex virus type 2.
c.
human papillomavirus.
d.
human immunodeficiency virus.
____ 59. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
a.
Ovarian
b.
Uterine
c.
Cervical
d.
Vaginal
____ 60. Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
a.
Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
b.
Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
c.
Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
d.
Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
____ 61. Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?
a.
Women over 45 years
b.
Women who never had children
c.
Women who had a high body mass index
d.
Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
____ 62. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?
a.
Skin, lung, and pancreatic
b.
Colon, liver, and lung
c.
Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic
d.
Bladder, skin, and kidney
____ 63. How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
a.
By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
b.
By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations
c.
By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
d.
By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
____ 64. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
a.
Proto-oncogenes
b.
Oncogenes
c.
Tumor suppressor genes
d.
Growth promoting genes
____ 65. Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.
a.
negative-feedback
b.
positive-feedback
c.
neural
d.
physiologic
____ 66. Hormones are effective communicators because they:
a.
are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
b.
increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
c.
are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
d.
decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
____ 67. Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?
a.
Thyroxine (T4)
b.
Aldosterone
c.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d.
Insulin
____ 68. How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?
a.
Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier
b.
Free in an unbound, water-soluble form
c.
Bound to a water-soluble binding protein
d.
Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry
____ 69. Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?
a.
Calcium
b.
Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
c.
Diacylglycerol (DAG)
d.
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
____ 70. Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?
a.
Angiotensin II
b.
Thyroxine
c.
Estrogen
d.
Testosterone
e.
Aldosterone
____ 71. Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:
a.
is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
b.
is continuously synthesized.
c.
acts as a second messenger.
d.
carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
____ 72. Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?
a.
When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour
b.
When serum osmolality is increased
c.
When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased
d.
When vasopressin is given pharmacologically
____ 73. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Anterior pituitary
c.
Mammary glands
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 74. Where is oxytocin synthesized?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Paraventricular nuclei
c.
Anterior pituitary
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 75. Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?
a.
Thyroxine
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c.
Growth hormone
d.
Insulin
____ 76. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
a.
It increases serum calcium.
b.
It decreases serum calcium.
c.
It decreases serum magnesium.
d.
It increases serum magnesium.
____ 77. Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?
a.
Potassium
b.
Calcium
c.
Sodium
d.
Magnesium
____ 78. Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?
a.
Increased triiodothyronine (T3)
b.
Increased thyroxine (T4)
c.
Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Increased calcitonin
____ 79. Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:
a.
tubules of nephrons.
b.
thyroid gland.
c.
glomeruli of nephrons.
d.
smooth and skeletal muscles.
____ 80. A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?
a.
The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
b.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.
c.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.
d.
The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.
____ 81. What are actions of glucocorticoids?
a.
Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis
b.
Fat storage and glucose use
c.
Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization
d.
Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism
____ 82. What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
a.
Hypokalemia and alkalosis
b.
Hyperkalemia and alkalosis
c.
Hyperkalemia and acidosis
d.
Hypokalemia and acidosis
____ 83. What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?
a.
It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.
b.
It directly increases calcium reabsorption.
c.
It directly increases sodium reabsorption.
d.
It directly increases water reabsorption.
____ 84. Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?
a.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal
b.
Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal
c.
Cortisol level above normal
d.
Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal
____ 85. Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:
a.
G-protein–linked.
b.
ion channel.
c.
second messenger.
d.
tyrosine-kinase linked.
____ 86. What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
a.
Solute retention and water retention
b.
Solute retention and water loss
c.
Solute dilution and water retention
d.
Solute dilution and water loss
____ 87. The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?
a.
Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality
b.
Serum K+ 5 and urine hyperosmolality
c.
Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality
d.
Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality
____ 88. A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:
a.
neurogenic diabetes insipidus.
b.
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
c.
psychogenic polydipsia.
d.
osmotically induced diuresis.
____ 89. Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary
b.
Organic lesion of the thalamus
c.
Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary
d.
Organic lesion of the renal tubules
____ 90. If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).
a.
neurogenic
b.
nephrogenic
c.
psychogenic
d.
ischemic
____ 91. Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Urine specific gravity is low.
b.
Serum sodium is low.
c.
Urine protein is low.
d.
Serum total protein is low.
____ 92. The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:
a.
neurogenic.
b.
psychogenic
c.
nephrogenic.
d.
ischemic.
____ 93. Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:
a.
a pituitary adenoma.
b.
hypothalamic hyposecretion.
c.
autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.
d.
a neurohypophysial tumor.
____ 94. What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
a.
Panhypopituitarism
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency
c.
Hypopituitarism
d.
Anterior pituitary failure
____ 95. How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?
a.
The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.
b.
The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.
c.
The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.
d.
The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.
____ 96. Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?
a.
Cushing syndrome
b.
Acromegaly
c.
Gigantism
d.
Myxedema
____ 97. What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?
a.
Posterior pituitary adenoma
b.
Thymoma
c.
Prolactinoma
d.
Growth hormone adenoma
____ 98. How does Graves’ disease develop?
a.
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
b.
A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue
c.
A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d.
An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter
____ 99. What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?
a.
Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″
b.
Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
c.
Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs
d.
Constipation and amenorrhea
____ 100. What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?
a.
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b.
Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
c.
Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin
Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice
To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.
Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:
The name of the theory
The year the theory was introduced
The theorist/author
Key components of the theory
For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.
Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.
The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.
Q3. Need help with DB post
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Assignment:
Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE
PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Paper on Disease Process Instructions
The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.
Content and Outline
Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate the disease to be discussed
Indicate the organ systems affected
Provide a brief overview of disease
Description
Describe disease process
Explain disease effect on organ systems
Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole
III. Diagnosis
Outline how the disease is diagnosed
Include common symptoms
Discuss the main causes of the disease
Treatment
Discuss treatment and management of the disease
Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Length
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Sources
Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.
Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.
Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it
Question 2
From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 3
From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 4
Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?
Question 5
Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by
Question 6
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 7
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 8
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 9
Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.
Question 10
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 11
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 12
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 13
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 14
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 15
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 16
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 17
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 18
The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it
Question 19
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 20
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 21
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 22
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 23
Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.
Question 24
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 25
In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
·Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
·Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
·Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
·Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
·Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
·Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
·Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
·Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
·Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
·Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
·Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
· Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
· Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
· Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
· Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
· Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
· Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
· Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
· Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
· Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
· Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
· Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
· Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
· Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
· Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
· Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
· Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
· Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
· Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
· Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
· Question 2
Directional selection
· Question 3
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
· Question 4
To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation
· Question 5
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
· Question 6
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
· Question 7
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
· Question 8
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
· Question 9
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
· Question 10
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
· Question 11
Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of
· Question 12
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
· Question 13
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
· Question 14
One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in
· Question 15
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
· Question 16
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
· Question 17
Directional selection has been used to
· Question 18
Stabilizing selection
· Question 19
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
· Question 20
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
· Question 21
Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?
· Question 22
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
· Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
· Question 24
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
· Question 25
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 2
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 3
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
·Question 4
Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?
·Question 5
Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 6
The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if
·Question 7
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
·Question 8
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 9
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 10
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 11
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 12
One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that
·Question 13
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 14
Directional selection
·Question 15
Stabilizing selection
·Question 16
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
·Question 17
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 18
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 19
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
·Question 20
The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as
·Question 21
One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it
·Question 22
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 23
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 24
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 25
The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to
Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
COMPUTER SCIENCE.
Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases
Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.
·Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.
·Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.
Q2. Network Planning Assignment
Network Planning Assignment
Overview
The main objectives of this assignment are:
· To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet.
· To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.
· To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.
Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.
Scenario
You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.
The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.
R2
R1
QLD
NT
WA
R4
R3
SA
NSW
R5
VIC
R6
TAS
Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.
Tasks
The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:
New South Wales (NSW) : 6 Million
Victoria (VIC) : 4 Million
Queensland (QLD) : 3 Million
Western Australia (WA) : 2 Million
South Australia (SA) : 1 Million
Tasmania (TAS) : 300 Thousand
Northern Territory (NT) : 150 Thousand
The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.
§ Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.
§ You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.
§ The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.
§ It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.
The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.
§ Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).
§ Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.
Recommended Readings
The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:
§ Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource
§ IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)
§ Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
· K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.
· K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.
· K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.
· K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.
· K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.
· A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.
Assessment Details
All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.
Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).
Submission
Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.
Marking Guidelines
IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)
63 Marks
Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)
28 Marks
Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)
14 Marks
Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)
33 Marks
Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)
12 Marks
Total marks
150 Marks
The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).
The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.
IP Address (NT)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Appendix A
IP Address (SA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (TAS)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
IP Address (WA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (QLD)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (NSW)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (VIC)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers
Routing Table for R1
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Routing Table for R2
R1
R2
Routing Table for R3
R3
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA
Router
NIC
IP Address
R1
#5
R1
#8
R1
#6
R1
#7
R1
#7
R2
#4
R2
#2
R2
#3
R2
#1
R3
#9
R3
#10
R3
#11
R3
#12
R2
R3
R1
NIC #6
NIC #1
NIC #2
NIC #3
NIC #4
NIC #5
NIC #8
NIC #11
NIC #12
NIC #9
NIC #10
NIC #7
Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection
The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.
The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.
The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.
Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.
If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure. Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.
ü The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .
If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself. This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation. It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship. You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about. When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.
Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.
Prompts:
In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?
Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
To: Replace with name
From: Replace with name
Date: Replace with date
Subject: Replace with subject of memo
Introduction
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Sed pellentesque sagittis diam, sit amet faucibus diam lobortis quis. Sed mattis turpis ligula, in accumsan ante pellentesque eu. Quisque ut nisl leo. Nullam ipsum odio, eleifend non orcinon, volutpat sollicitudin lacus. (Beetle Baily Cartoon)
Proposed Information System
Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur. Aliquam placerat molestie eros vel posuere.
Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.
Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)
Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.
Data Management
Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur.
Data Types
Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.
Storage Methods
Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.
Data Quality
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Transition of System Functions
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Evidence of Feasibility
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References
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command
[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.
[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.
Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.
[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.
[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).
[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references. In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.
Remove References in example that you do not use.
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE
Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.
Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA
Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following
In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?
EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES
It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.
Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?
Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
Submitting your work
In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.
Q8. Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D
IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS
Project Background
Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital. For example, Jane Doe Hospital. Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records. However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.
Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices. They have well surpassed this. You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design. This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.
Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design
Project Overview
This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.
In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.
To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital. Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure. Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.
Project Requirements
Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design. Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time. Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.
o This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name
Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception
o Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices
For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,
IPv4 or IPv6
Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
Use proper network address translation (NAT)
o Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design
o Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design
o Design and implement the following new services and servers
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
o Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings
o Introduction
Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed
o Packet Tracer design explanation
Explain each of the additions and improvements
Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:
o Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.
o You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows
o For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.
“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à
Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.
o In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.
o Paste the selected area to a word processor.
o Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI
Q9. Week 8 Assignment
Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Do the following tasks
The name of each Object should start with Week8
1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)
Week 1 Lab 1 submission
tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.
Lab Assignments
Submit each lab based on the following:
Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience. Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.
Lab Assignment 1
Due Week 1 and worth 30 points
Complete the following EC-Council Labs.
Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.
Lab Version
Module Title
Location
Lab #: Title
Deliverable(s) for Submission
Strayer
SEC435
(CEHv.9)
Session Hijacking
iLab
Module 1o
Lab 1: “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”
Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.
Q1. Artificial Neural Network
1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.
2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?
3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.
Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock
Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.
Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation
Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation
Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.
The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.
w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker
z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker
x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.
Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver
The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.
Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices
identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire
Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line
Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.
(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).
(b) Determine RL.
(c)Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.
(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.
Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)
Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.
Directions:
Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:
An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.
Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator
Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.
Or
Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)
Or
Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.
Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying
What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?
Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?
What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?
What is the function of the bit synchronizer?
How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.
Mathematically prove how the effect of 2w0 can be eliminated.
Q10. python programming
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
PHYSICS
Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring
3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate
(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage
Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?
Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
What is grounded theory?
The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful
Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay
Comparative Essay Instructions
Selection of Topic
Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:
Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)
Content and Outline
Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
Old-Earth Secular View
What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
o Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.
III. Young-Earth View
What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Be sure to restate your purpose.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.
Length
This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:
Ø paper title
Ø your name
Ø instructor’s name
Ø course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)
Ø date
There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.
Sources
Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.
Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name
PHSC 210-[Section]
Date
Instructor
Introduction
Old-Earth Secular View
Young-Earth View
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Conclusion
[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]
References
[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]
Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]
Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2
Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt
Topic: Current Young-Earth Research
Thread:
In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:
Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
The author and title of the article.
A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
A discussion the significance of the findings.
Your reasons for choosing this article.
A short concluding sentence or two.
(No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).
Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)
After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:
What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1
Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt
Topic: Earth Science in Action
Thread:
Complete the following step-by-step process:
Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:
Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
Read the article and take notes.
Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
What is the title of the article?
What is the web address for the article?
Who is(are) the author(s)?
What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
What new information have scientists found?
Why is this new information important?
What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?
Notes:
The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
Concluding paragraph
Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.
Replies:
After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:
What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise
Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.
Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight
For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more).
As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.
Selected Aircraft:
Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:
Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:
Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:
Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:
Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.
For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).
Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):
Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.
Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)
Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)
Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)
G
VS
(kts)
PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:
Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):
Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?
Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.
What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?
At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].
I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).
II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.
III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in degree per second).
For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.
Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)
From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.
Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn
Equation 14.15 r = = == 2020 ft
Equation 14.16 ROT() = = = 11.98 deg/sec
or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10
(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle. One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle
Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation
Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.
Refer to the Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines for content and delivery format and guidelines.
Content Format Guidelines
This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.
Delivery Format Guidelines
The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.
Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!
Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.
Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.
ABSTRACT
This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003). This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.
And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.
Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html
Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)
Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.
Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.
Exercise 4: Drag and Applications
The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.
Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):
Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.
Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):
Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):
Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):
Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):
Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):
Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):
CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):
Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):
Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):
What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.
Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.
Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.
V
(KTAS)
q
(psf)
CL
CDP
CDI
CD
CL / CD
DP
(lb)
DI
(lb)
DT
(lb)
VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300
Equations for Table:
q = CL = CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL2
CD = CDP + CDi CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL2 Dp = CDp q S
Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S
Answer the following questions from your table.
I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin’ [lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):
II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin’ [kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):
III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point in your table?
IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.
V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.
VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).
If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)
For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):
Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).
What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?
What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?
What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?
What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?
Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise
Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.
Must show work and references.
Answers need to be added in the attached word file
Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils
The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.
In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Selected Aircraft:
For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.
Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):
Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):
Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):
Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):
Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:
Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).
a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412, and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )
b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Stall AOA.
c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.
a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional uses of such airfoil in aviation.
For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):
L = CL * * S * V2 / 295
Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:
Research the Wing Span [ft]:
Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:
Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2 (if no Average Chord is directly found in your research)
Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:
Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):
Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):
Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘’ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)
You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:
Calculate LIFT (lb)
Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed:
0
10,000
40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS
I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA of 5°. (As initially indicated, a more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)
In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):
Airspeed (KTAS)
Required Lift = Weight
Required CL
Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200
First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).
Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):
I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the CLmax that you found in 3.
II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight Theory and Aerodynamics”).
Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.
Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:
Business
Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
Information Systems and Technology
The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
Criminal Justice
The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
Everyday Life
Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.
Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:
Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.
Your report must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.
MUSIC
Q1. Music homework assignment A grade
Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.
Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties
“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”
Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy
Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)
link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc
Finish the following questions
The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?
Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?
The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?
There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.
Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.
We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.
Some more specific questions:
What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?
Q4. A Man for all Seasons
A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe
Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.
American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.
Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.
Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:
Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.
Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
Question 1
(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?
Communities where some possess much
Communities where some have nothing
All of the above
None of the above
Question 2
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Empirical research is important.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.
the contractualists
Marxists
behavioralism
systems theory
Question 4
(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.
the social contract
institutions
behavioralism
superstructure
Question 5
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
Question 6
(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?
Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.
Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.
Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.
Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.
Chapter 3, page 37
Question 7
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
Markets regulate themselves.
Question 8
(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?
Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.
Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.
Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.
Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.
Question 9
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Liberals
Conservatives
Marxists
Libertarians
Question 10
(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.
Liberalism
Conservatism
Socialism
Fascism
Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)
Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points
For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.
After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.
You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.
Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:
Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
Leadership Styles (for Question 3)
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.
Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA
Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:
Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.
2pgs
Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)
Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81] vertical envelopment beachhead assault tentative landings fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)
POLI 330 Final Exam
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2. 2.(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4. 4.(TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5. 5.(TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)
charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty
Question 6. 6.(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)
scholarship
theory
power
culture
Question 7. 7.(TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)
the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment
Question 9. 9.(TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)
The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 12. 12.(TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)
It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)
Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)
Miranda v. Arizona Dred Scott v. Sandford Brown v. Board of Education Gibbons v. Ogden
Question 15. 15.(TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial
Question 16. 16.(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 17. 17.(TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Electoral
Coalition
Question 18. 18.(TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)
chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier
Page 2 – Multiple Choice
(TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)
a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy
Question 2. 2.(TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)
Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)
Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past
Question 4. 4.(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)
late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism
Question 5. 5.(TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)
classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian
Question 6. 6.(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)
Question 7. 7.(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.
Question 8. 8.(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
Question 9. 9.(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)
Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)
Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat
Question 12. 12.(TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)
Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.
Question 15. 15.(TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)
because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.
Question 16. 16.(TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)
Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure
Question 17. 17.(TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)
The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands
Page 3 – Essay
Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)
Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.
Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
click “View in Browser.”
Click the link above to submit your assignment.
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
PAD525-A3-5 5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
PAD525-A3-6 6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)
Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
PAD525-A3-7 7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
PAD525-A3-8 8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)
More than 6 errors present
Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)
5-6 errors present
Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)
3-4 errors present
Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)
0-2 errors present
PAD525-A3-9 9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)
Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)
Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)
Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)
Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.
Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
LAW
Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style
Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?
Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA
Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.
Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following: • How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?
?
How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper
Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.
Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:
Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?
Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
An appeal process
The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent
2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?
Vicarious authority
Express and obvious authority
Implied and apparent authority only
Express, implied, and apparent authority
3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?
Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
All members will lose their limited liability.
This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.
4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?
Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000
5) Partners of a general partnership
Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership
6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?
Negotiated settlement
Mini-trial
Mediation
Conciliation
7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment
Fact-finder
Arbitrator
Judicial referee
Negotiator
8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?
Arbitration
Fact-finding
Mini-trial
Conciliation
9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?
A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
A mediator does not make a decision or award
If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator
10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is
Violating a duty of loyalty
Violating a duty to exercise due care
Violating the business judgment rule
Not violating any duty
11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as
A breach of a director’s duty of notification
A breach of a director’s duty of care
A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
There was no breach of duty
12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?
Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate
13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?
The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate
14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?
Contributory negligence
Defendant was negligent per se
Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
Comparative negligence
15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of
Due care
Obedience
Loyalty
Good business judgment
16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will
Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
Win on the basis of design defect
Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear
17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?
The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case
18) What does the parole evidence rule do?
It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
It determines which contracts are required to be in writing
19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?
Pleadings
Motion for summary judgment
Discovery
Trial
20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest
Within 10 years
By the time of the employee’s retirement
In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
Only as provided in the pension plan
21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?
The Norris-LaGuardia Act
The National Labor Relations Act
The Labor-Management Relations Act
The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is
Not prohibited under federal law
A violation of Title VII
A violation of the Equal Pay Act
A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act
23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?
Quid pro quo
Hostile work environment
Gender discrimination
Pregnancy discrimination
24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?
The Freedom of Information Act
The Government Compensation Act
The Administrative Procedure Act
The Equal Access to Justice Act
25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?
The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
The person was the only person who lived on the land in question
26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?
A freestanding desk
Built-in cabinets in an office
A copyright to a literary work
A field of corn
27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?
Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need
28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?
Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
Ensuring companies are profitable
Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation
29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer
No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both
30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
High salaries for corporate executives
Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis
ANTHROPOLOGY.
Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships
Term Paper Topics
Select one of these questions to answer:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson? Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
Should animals be used in circuses?
Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
Should animals be used in modern warfare?
Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
Should animals be used in religion?
Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:
o Animal welfare proponents
o Animal rights advocates
o Food security proponents
o Ethicists, philosophers
o National and local economic / employment interests
o Educators
o Medical researchers
o Parents
o Small business owners
o Family ranchers or farmers
o Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers
o Wildlife managers
o Conservationists
EXAMPLE:
The question I selected is:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
My Thesis statement might be:
In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.
The body of my paper would include these sections:
PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:
Yes- animals should be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST:
No- animals should not be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER
WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?
Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.
Include the following in your paper:
Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
Q3. The red carpet cleaning
This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.
Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
Final exam is scheduled for April 20thfrom 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.
These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.
To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely. Good luck!
What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.
What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.
Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.
Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.
According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.
Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.
Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail.
While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”
How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)
Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.
Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.
The lifestyle reality television showWhat Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity.
In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.
In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.
Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.
Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.
Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).
Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN
PART I
Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length. Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted). List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources. You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal
Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights. Identify the sides in the conflict. Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate? How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?
Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers
The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.
The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.
State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands
Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W
Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet
Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Week 2 DQ1
How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
ASTRONOMY.
Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is
Unit II PowerPoint Presentation
Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.
Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.
Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.
Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:
Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.
This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”. There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace. The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications. Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides. Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements. Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes. This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit. In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.
Let me know if you have a question.
DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.
Q2. What kind of information do you think
Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.
REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.
Q3. Being a small-business owner such a
Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.
Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems
In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q5. Review Questions
These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.
Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
What is Design for Reliability? Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
Module Review Guidelines
Current APA format
Q6. Airline Service Delivery
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
Requirements
Discussion Board Posting Requirements
Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
All references must be in current APA format.
Below are the two peers postings
There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.
Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side. Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both. For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale. Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor. In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).
So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo. However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination. As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121). In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.
For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines. Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016). The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.
On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines. The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017). Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion. They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.
Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process. Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another. They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.
v/R
Ken
References
About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html
Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp
Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do
Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report
You Tube Video Analysis Report
Must be own works and with references
Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:
Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
In your paper write the following:
Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
Explain the pros and cons of this approach
Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
Find at least two additional references to support your paper
Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument
Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!
Q9. Fuel System internet research paper
For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Make sure it is your own works and with references.
Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:
Order Qualifiers:
Why must companies understand this requirement?
What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?
Order Winners:
What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
GENERAL QUESTIONS
Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s
Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
MATHEMATICS.
Need help in Acct 211
I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments. Is anyone available to assist me with this?
Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Name
Course
Professor
Date
QUESTION 1
Differences as normally distributed.
Dominant
Non dominant
d
1
0.177
0.179
-0.002
2
0.21
0.202
0.008
3
0.186
0.208
-0.022
4
0.189
0.184
0.005
5
0.198
0.215
-0.017
6
0.194
0.193
0.001
7
0.16
0.194
-0.034
8
0.163
0.16
0.003
9
0.166
0.209
-0.043
10
0.152
0.164
-0.012
11
0.19
0.21
-0.02
12
0.172
0.197
-0.025
d-bar
-0.0132
sd=
0.0164
Paired t test:
Let d =dominant-non dominant
Test statistic:
t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))
t=-2.78
df=12-1=11
p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090
As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.
There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.
QUESTION 2
The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:
off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)
QUESTION 3
Hypotheses. The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.
Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress
An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.
Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).
SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)] SE = 3.6342 DF = 69
t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE
t = – 1.65
where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.
The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.
P-value is 0.052
Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.
From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.
QUESTION 4
QUESTION 5
QUESTION 6
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
See Attachments
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion
See attachment.
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to
be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety
recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)
recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval
for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed
salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.
3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.
Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.
(Adapted from the American Lung Association)
4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct
a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round
to the nearest thousandth.
5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the
2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.
a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a
confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the
second quarter of 2014.
Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004
Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev, n
1 no pesticide 3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion 1.36, 0.52, 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium, Regular, Difference
Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
Mean: 30, 29, 1
St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Elementary Statistics
Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam
Each question is worth 13.75 points.
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the
following academic honesty statement.
I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct
consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s
Academic Regulations.
I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not
and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course
material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal
table, and Minitab Express.
I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic
honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n
1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13
2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium Regular
Difference
Vehicle 1 19 20 -1
Vehicle 2 35 32 3
Vehicle 3 34 33 1
Vehicle 4 18 19 -1
Vehicle 5 40 37 3
Vehicle 6 26 27 -1
Vehicle 7 36 33 3
Vehicle 8 28 29 -1
Vehicle 9 34 31 3
Mean 30 29 1
St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
Q6. Statistics Review
These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –
Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).
Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).
(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.
Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation
Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart
Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers
Derive or Evaluate the formula for
the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of consecutive even numbers
the sum of consecutive odd integers
Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers
Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for
The sum of positive integers
the sum of the square of positive integers
Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers
Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.
Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed
Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!
SPSS HOMEWORK 1
40 POINTS
Factual Informative Scenario
Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25
10
25
15
10
20
32
15
10
15
15
35
30
50
45
30
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Cooperation
Competition
88
91
73.5
82
84
92.5
76
95
98
81.5
92
87
85
79
91
95.5
72.5
74
63
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.
SOCIOLOGY
Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley
Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.
According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.
o Why is it a problem?
o Where does the problem or issue come from?
o How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?
o What are some possible solutions?
Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda
Instructions:
Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups
Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.
Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and
Consensus.
In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:
In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.
Q3. Caste systems in India
How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system
Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking
What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?
Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?
What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.
220 words
think as american
Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)
Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment
This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:
Burundi
Benin
Cameroon
Nigeria
Nicaragua
Guatemala
Central African Republic
North Korea
Angola
Ghana
Chad
Yemen
Eritrea
Cuba
Congo
Thailand
Egypt
Iran
Equatorial Guinea
Zimbabwe
Zambia
Oman
Ethiopia
Philippines
Congo
Liberia
Gabon
Bahrain
Tanzania
India
Guyana
Mexico
El Salvador
Lebanon
Honduras
Pakistan
Syria
Guinea
Kenya
Sri Lanka
Algeria
Gambia
Mozambique
Senegal
Malawi
Indonesia
Namibia
Vietnam
Morocco
Myanmar
Rwanda
Haiti
Sudan
Bolivia
Somalia
Kuwait
Mauritania
Mali
South Africa
Iraq
Botswana
Bangladesh
Tunisia
Niger
Libya
Malaysia
Uganda
Panama
Source: United Nations, 2014
It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.
The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.
Instructions:
Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:
Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
geography
extractive institutions
governmental corruption
internal or external conflicts
shaky financial systems
unfair judicial systems
ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
lack or misuse of natural resources
closed (statist) economies
Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.
Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)
SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?
Authoritarian
Democratic
Laissez-faire
Bureaucratic
Political
Chapter 5
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.
The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.
Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.
People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”
The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.
During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.
Chapter 5
Question 3
0 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.
You Answered
a role connection
impression management
status assistance
a network
LinkedIn individuals
Chapter 5
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.
employment based on technical qualifications
hierarchy of positions
specialization
rules and regulations
impersonality
Chapter 5
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?
They are sexually attracted to both sexes.
They are attracted to neither sex.
They have both female and male characteristics.
They have no gender.
They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.
Chapter 6
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?
Structural Functional Theory
Symbolic Interaction Theory
Social Conflict Theory
Queer Theory
Exchange Theory
Chapter 6
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.
Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.
Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.
Deviance encourages social change.
Deviance promotes social unity.
Chapter 7
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that
Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.
deviance results from differential access to wealth.
deviance is a frustration of ambition.
individualism inhibits the deviance.
everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.
Chapter 7
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?
Increased use of the death penalty
Reduction in the youth population
Changes in policing
Better economy
Declining drug trade
Chapter 7
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.
caste; crass
caste; classless
cask; class
mobility; closed
caste; class
Chapter 8
Question 11
0 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:
You Answered
Equality is functional for society.
World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.
The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.
Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.
Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.
Chapter 8
Question 12
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.
Income; personal property
Profit; income
Wealth; income
Income; wealth
Rent; net worth
Chapter 8
Question 13
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.
Relative poverty; absolute poverty
Absolute poverty; comparative poverty
Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation
Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation
Absolute poverty; relative poverty
Chapter 8
Question 14
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?
Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.
Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.
Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.
Weber agreed with Marx.
Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.
Chapter 8
Question 15
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____
blue-collar work.
white-collar work.
pink-collar work.
fur collar work.
no-collar work.
Chapter 8
Question 16
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?
Chattel slavery
Child slavery
Debt bondage
Debit slavery
Revolving credit slavery
Chapter 9
Question 17
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?
High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off
Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption
High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity
Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption
Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities
Chapter 9
Question 18
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is
Max Weber.
Emile Durkheim.
Walt Rostow.
Oliver Clozov
Immanuel Wallerstein.
Chapter 9
Question 19
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is
Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.
Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.
Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.
Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.
Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.
Chapter 9
Question 20
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.
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Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse
Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.
Important Concepts from Chapter 3:
Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.
Assignment:
Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.
Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?
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Statistics Review
q [1.1] Make sure you understand (and can correctly identify examples related to] the relevant terminology. These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values – see p. 5). Questions like #11-14, #15-18, #23-26 (on pp. 8-9) are fair game. [IMPORTANT GENERAL NOTE/ADVICE: Each of the MyLabsPlus Chapter Review homework assignments provide you with the level/type of multiple-choice questions you can expect.] q [1.2] Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster). See textbook page 15 for an excellent summary. Expect a few questions comparable to #23-38 (pp. 17-18). q [1.3] Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo). A number of the examples contained within Section 1.3 (pp. 19-27) and #9-20 (pp. 28-29) are comparable to what I have in mind for this section, except that your question(s) on these topics will be in multiple-choice format.] q [1.5] Know the three ways of classifying data: (i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank. See Example 1-3 pp. 40-43 for an illustration, as well as (on pp.43-44) #5-16, #17-28, and #29-40. q [2.1] Make sure that you are easily able (with the aid of your calculator’s built-in fraction keys/functions) to do the following: (i) change back-and-forth between improper-fraction form and mixed-number form (#1-2 & #3-4 on p. 55); (ii) simplify/reduce fractions; and (iii) perform operations with fractions (ideally with the aid of your calculator). q [2.2] Be skilled in (i) rounding decimal numbers to requested place values (for example, “round to the nearest hundredth”, “round to three decimal places”, “round to the nearest whole number”, etc.); and (ii) knowing how to use the bar notation to express a decimal in exact/unrounded form or in exact/unrounded form as a percentage [examples: % 3.8338.06 5 = = , % 45.4545.011 5 = = ]
q [2.3] Be able to convert numbers back-and-forth between fraction form, decimal form, and percentage form (e.g., #1-16, p. 63). q [2.4] Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation (e.g., Example 4-7 on pp. 65-67). q [2.5] Know how to calculate absolute change and relative change (and indicate whether it is an ‘increase’ or a ‘decrease’) with an applied problem comparable to the stock-price example we did in class. q [2.5] Given a percentage increase (such as a 2.75% increase to your annual salary) or a percentage decrease (such as a 30%-off sale), know how to solve related applied problems, such as “What would be your new salary?” or “What would be the sale price?” q [3.1] Make sure you understand the various types of frequency tables/distributions, including grouped vs. ungrouped, relative (r.f.), cumulative (c.f.), and relative cumulative (r.c.f.). I’m planning on asking you a question very similar to Ex. 8 from the in-class worksheet we completed last Saturday, which is comparable to #15-16 on p. 88. q [3.2] Given a two-way table (aka a contingency table), answer several questions about it to demonstrate your understanding of the information it provides. Example 1 on p. 91 is very similar to the difficulty level I have in mind, although I may possibly (?) omit the row/column/grand totals in the table I provide you… and leave those for you to calculate. q [3.3-3.4] Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart. q [General advice for Chapters 1-3 OVERALL — and for the ENTIRE rest of the course] At all times, your aim should be to develop real conceptual ‘understanding’ (i.e., resist the dangerous urge to blindly memorize!). Strive to cogently explain in your own words the purpose/role of each particular topic/skill and when it is applicable (and when it isn’t). In other words, in every one of your homework sessions, make sure you are always invoking your curiosity and then asking (and answering!) the following questions: where does this fit into the “big picture”? What is its purpose? What light does it shed on a given data set (i.e., what can we conclude)? If you were in a professional position in which you had to report this to information to the general public (or to a prospective client… or a patient… or before a judge/jury in a court of law… or to a group of elected legislators), what would you tell them? People who are able to do so are always in very high demand and short supply (in virtually every occupation) in the professional job market.
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STATS- SPSS HOMEWORK 2
SPSS HOMEWORK 2
40 POINTS
Drinks Per Week
Before Program
Drinks Per Week
After Program
25
17
20
29
16
17
23
21
24
23
19
16
13
14
7
18
11
8
21
10
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
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Twin 1
Twin 2
254
64
89
78
89
174
47
207
21
93
136
19
40
212
230
58
198
67
119
43
89
180
61
112
100
87
126
52
56
259
70
29
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 2.
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Python programming
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
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DB Post, need help
Topic: Lab Project Phase 1
Preliminary Reading: To prepare for this DB forum, please download and read the following documents, found in the Lab Project folder of the course Assignment Insructions in Blackboard:
Lab Project DB 1 Article Excerpt, from Quarles, C. (2015, March 29). Southern Baptists must learn to ‘choose our battles wisely’. [Louisiana] Baptist Message. Retrieved from http://baptistmessage.com/southern-baptists-must-learn-to-choose-our-battles-wisely/
You are only required to read the excerpt included in the lab project folder, but can find the entire article at the link above.
Lab Project Survey—this document contains the actual survey you will be administering
Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration
Background: Both Discussion Board assignments for this course relate directly to the Lab Project that is posted in the Course Content. This project requires you to administer a survey to at least 12 people and record the results, with an SPSS data file due at the end of Module 4. We are posing the research question, “Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?”
Thread Prompt: Based on the preliminary reading above, respond to the following prompts:
Summarize the Quarles (2015) excerpt in 2-3 sentences. Include in your summary a list of the main Christian doctrines that students are failing to grasp.
Before you administer your surveys, it is important to establish the null and alternative hypotheses that will guide the data analysis and interpretation. Think about the research question:“Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?” Based on the given research question and your reading, state a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis for the Lab Project. Note that you are not stating a hypothesis for the Quarles study, but for the lab project survey study that you will be conducting.Refer to Chapter 8 of your text for a review of formulating hypotheses, notably “Step 1” of the section “The Four Steps of a Hypothesis Test.”
Based on your reading of the “Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration,” state which method you are using or intend to use to collect your surveys (in-person, online, etc.). Describe at least one reason why you have chosen this method, and write about one possible challenge that could arise when administering surveys with your chosen method.
Share your thoughts: Based on your own opinion, briefly describe what you predict the results of such a study might be.
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Statistic review
These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –
Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).
Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).
(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.
Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation
Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart
PURPOSE: The purpose of this assignment is to administer surveys and create an SPSS data file containing the survey data.
SKILLS/ KNOWLEDGE: As a result of completing this assignment, you will be able to:
Administer surveys online or in person and score the surveys
Use SPSS statistical software to create a data file containing the raw survey data and one index variable
BACKGROUND: The questions on the survey are derived from instruments used in published studies of orthodox Christian beliefs, including Francis, Williams, & Robbins (2010) and Kaldor & Francis (2000).
TASKS:
Download the following documents from the “Lab Project” folder in the Assignment Instructions. The information in these documents is essential for successful completion of the Lab Project:
Lab Project Survey
Step-by-Step Instructions for Survey Administration
IRB Guidelines for Survey Administration
Raw Data Scoring Instructions
After reviewing the above documents, administer the Lab Project Survey to at least 12 people, either online or in-person, keeping in mind the IRB guidelines. Allow yourself plenty of time to complete this step.
Score your completed surveys and enter the data into a new SPSS data file. Create an index variable that represents the total understanding of Christian doctrine for your sample. Instructions for scoring the survey, entering data, and creating the index variable are in the Raw Data Scoring Instructions document in the Lab Project Folder.
ü Ensure that your SPSS data file includes individual surveys as the cases, or rows, and the survey questions as the variables, or columns. The index variable representing total understanding of Christian doctrine will reside in column 11, as shown in the example below:
Note: The only precondition to participating in the survey is that participants must be at least 15 years old; otherwise, participants can be of any gender, race, religious background, etc. It is important to emphasize that the results of the survey are anonymous by pointing out the instructions at the top of the survey. The survey is limited to 10 questions due to length limitations placed by online survey services. Do not add or remove any questions when administering the survey.
Submit this SPSS data file to Blackboard as the finished product for Phase 2
CRITERIA FOR SUCCESS: Please carefully review the Lab Phase 2 Rubric. Also, remember that asking questions contributes to learning and success, so please contact your instructor should you have any questions related to the assignment.
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Liberty University’s Institutional Review Board
Survey Guidelines For Students
In order to comply with IRB policy and to ensure a positive experience for all students and participants, the following directions must be followed when administering surveys for the Liberty University Psychology 355 Lab Project.
All survey respondents must remain completely anonymous. This means that there should be no identifying information of any sort on any of the survey forms or related documents. If you administer the survey electronically, there should be no way to track the respondents’ identities. If you administer the survey in person, all forms must be folded and placed by the respondents into a general collection envelope.
No results or other information related to the survey are to be released, used, or published in any form outside of the confines of the Liberty University Psychology 355 environment.
Respondents (or participants) have the right to withdraw or stop completion of the survey at any time.
All instructions given in other documents related to the survey or the use of survey data must be followed at all times.
Failure to adhere to these requirements could result in significant point loss on the lab project. If you have any questions about specific procedures, please contact your professor.
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Lab Project Survey
Disclosure: I am asking you to complete this survey as part of the requirements for my statistics in psychology course. Your answers will remain completely anonymous. No personal information about you will be linked to this survey. Please do not put your name or any other identifying information on the survey. The results of this survey will only be used for educational purposes and will not be published or released to the public. You must be 15 years old or older in order to complete this survey.
Directions: For the following questions, mark the answers that most reflect your understanding of general Christian doctrine. This is not a personal belief survey. In other words, we are more interested in your understanding of what Christianity teaches, and not necessarily in your own personal beliefs, which may or may not coincide with these statements. The survey consists of two pages of questions. For each question, please mark your level of agreement with the given statement.
Christianity teaches belief in a personal God.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ was God in a full sense.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ really rose from the dead.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that people are born good.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ’s death was a sacrifice that paid for the sins of humankind.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that what is good and evil depends on the circumstances of the time.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that the Bible is God’s word and all it says is true.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that faith in Jesus Christ is necessary if a person wants to go to heaven.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that God exists in three persons: God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Including Sundays and any other day of the week, how many times per year would you say that you attend church? (For your reference, there are 52 weeks in one year.) Please enter a number in the box:
Thank you for taking the time to complete this survey!
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Raw Data Scoring Instructions
How to create your SPSS data file:
Open a new data file in SPSS. You will create a file containing one survey per row. The columns will contain one variable for each item (question) on the survey (for a total of 10). Additionally, you will create one index variable that represents the sum of responses to questions 1-9 for each survey (see below). This index variable should appear in column 11. An example is provided here for your reference:
How to score surveys and enter the results into your data file:
All questions on the survey except the last one are written as Likert-type items, with choices ranging from “Strongly agree” to “Strongly disagree.” In order to enter these into the data file for analysis, each of the answer choices will be given a corresponding score ranging from 1 to 5. NOTE: It is important to pay attention to the following directions, as some of the items will be reverse-scored (see below).
Gather your completed surveys. It will be necessary to enter data from each individual survey into SPSS.
If you have used the online method, you must follow these steps to access each individual survey:
a) Sign into your account and go to “My Surveys.” Your survey title will appear with 3 icons to the right: Design, Collect, and Analyze. Click on the pie graph under “Analyze.” This will take you to a Response Summary page.
b) On the menu bar to the left, click on “Browse Responses.” This allows you to view each individual survey, which is necessary in order to enter and analyze data in SPSS. Within “Browse Responses,” you can move from one individual survey to the next by clicking on the “Next” and “Prev” arrow buttons at the top.
All items on the survey will be scored from 1 to 5 except for item 10. You will enter the scores for each survey in rows (survey 1 in row 1, survey 2 in row 2, etc.), under the appropriate question column (Question 1 in column 1, etc.). If you have 10 surveys, you will have 10 cases (rows), if you have 25 surveys, 25 cases (rows), etc.
a) Scores for items 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, and 9 are as follows:
Strongly agree = 5
Agree = 4
Neither agree nor disagree = 3
Disagree = 2
Strongly disagree = 1
b) Items 4 and 6 must be reverse-scored. This is because, in opposition to the other items, these items indicate a fundamentally different worldview than the Christian worldview, so the scoring must be reversed; this allows higher scores on all items to reflect an understanding of Christian doctrine, while lower scores indicate misunderstanding or disagreement. This is a method commonly used in survey research. Therefore, scores for items 4 and 6 are as follows:
Strongly agree = 1
Agree = 2
Neither agree nor disagree = 3
Disagree = 4
Strongly disagree = 5
c) For question 10 (church attendance), you will simply enter the exact number that the respondent filled in on the survey (for example, 10, 52, etc.) under the appropriate variable in the SPSS data file.
Remember that the original research question is about the relationship between church attendance and understanding of Christian doctrine. We have one variable that represents church attendance (item 10), but we do not have one sole variable to compare it to—a total score that represents doctrinal understanding.
To create this total score index variable: After you have entered all of your survey data, create a new variable called Tot_Und (which is shorthand for “total understanding”) in Column 11. In this column, enter the sum of items 1-9 for each survey.
You will submit this SPSS data file as your finished product in Blackboard.
Remember to refer to the “Lab Project Phase 2 Instructions” in addition to this document when completing this phase.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
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SPSS Homework 4
SPSS HOMEWORK 4
40 POINTS
Community Clinic
University Clinic
CBT
36
32
19
25
27
31
12
27
20
29
PD
24
41
38
12
42
21
37
53
19
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Male
Freshmen
Sophomore
Junior
Senior
39
66
54
66
60
44
32
62
59
29
63
67
46
51
41
45
53
68
57
60
Female
51
46
45
57
32
32
21
30
49
53
56
52
60
47
59
61
55
42
58
61
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 4.
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SPSS Homework 3 help needed
SPSS HOMEWORK 3
40 POINTS
Therapist 1
Therapist 2
Therapist 3
35
37
35
37
36
33
39
36
37
37
31
39
35
32
29
32
25
28
33
30
32
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
First-generation
immigrants
Second-generation
immigrants
Non-immigrants
35
39
34
37
36
23
39
26
37
28
29
36
25
18
29
22
17
25
19
30
16
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 3.
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Where does your state rank?
Description
All states are ranked according to their performance by ranking watchdogs. The Government Grading Project grades all fifty states and publishes its findings in Governing Magazine annually.
Proctor & Gamble (but not Wal-Mart) manages the inventory at the distribution centers owned by Wal-Mart. This is an example of a concept called Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI). How does Wal-Mart’s supply chain benefit from VMI? Discuss with reasoning.
Recall the following from the Module Four lecture document: “The manufacturer is trying to decide how many units to produce for the upcoming season. If too many products are produced, some of the products may be left unsold by the manufacturer to the distribution center. If too few products are produced, the manufacturer may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the distribution center.” A similar challenge is faced by the distribution center. In other words, if too many products are bought by the distribution center from the manufacturer, some of the products may be left unsold by the distribution center to the retail stores. If too few products are bought by the distribution center, the distribution center may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the retail stores. Discuss how the manufacturer and the distribution center can resolve their respective challenges while neither party should benefit at the expense of the other.
Work with your group to research and brainstorm how you might use customer categories for product pricing. Be sure to identify the categories a company would choose and provide reasons for your decisions in your group discussion.
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Apply the economic order quantity formula to the data in Example 2-2 on Page 35 in the textbook, and reproduce the answer of 2,828 units. Also, calculate the total annual cost incurred for the economic order quantity. Submit your solution.
Your State’s Budget
Description
Research your state’s budget. (Hint: Start with the state’s tax department or the office of the secretary in charge of state finances.)
What are the four top areas that consume budget resources in your state? In what area does your state spend the least amount of money? What is the main policy agenda item of your state’s Governor?
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Balanced Budgets
Description
Unlike the federal government, state governments must balance their budgets. Some short-term strategies used to assist states in closing budget gaps include short-term borrowing or the use of the “rainy day fund.” That fund is tapped only if certain conditions are met, but not all states have such a fund or at least not a well-endowed one. What strategies are your state Governor and legislature using to close any budget gap?
Refer to the example in One Order/Production Opportunity of the Module Five lecture document. Since the manufacturer is concerned that not all of the products might be bought by the distribution center, does the manufacturer tend to produce fewer for the upcoming season? If so, does it make sense for the distribution center to offer an incentive to the manufacturer to produce more so that the distribution center might be able to buy as many as desired? For example, does it make sense for the distribution center to pay a penalty to the manufacturer for each product produced by the manufacturer but not bought by the distribution center? Discuss such potential incentives with reasoning and examples.
Refer to the formulas given in the Multiple Order/Production Opportunities of the Module Five lecture document: safety stock, reorder level, order quantity, and average inventory level.
Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the demand uncertainty is high. (Your response must include the formula for the average inventory level.)
Discuss what happens to the reorder level if the lead time is long. (Your answer must include the formula for the reorder level.)
Discuss what happens to the order quantity and the average inventory level if the ordering cost is high. (Your answer must include the formulas for the order quantity and the average inventory level.)
Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the desired service level is high. (Your answer must include the formula for the average inventory level.)
4 True or False Questions about Arthur Danto, if the answer is false please provide the true answer. If you know any of the rest on top of your head feel free to answer and I’ll add it to the tip.
QSO 630 wk5 milestone
QSO 630 Module Five Overview One Order/Production Opportunity Module Four presented how the manufacturer can decide how many units of a seasonal product to produce for the upcoming season. However, it was assumed that there was no initial inventory. Here, that assumption is relaxed and the following example shows what happens. Example The initial inventory is 1,000 units, and the manufacturer is trying to decide whether to produce 2,000 additional units or zero additional units for the upcoming season. The demand from the distribution center to the manufacturer could be any of the following with the given probabilities: Demand from distribution center Probability 1,000 0.25 2,000 0.35 3,000 0.15 4,000 0.25 The following information is also given: · Fixed cost of production = $10,000 · Variable cost of production = $50 per unit · Selling price = $150 per unit · Salvage value of unsold products = $25 per unit If the manufacturer is considering production quantities of 2,000 additional units or zero additional units, which of these two options should the manufacturer choose? 2 QSO 630 Module Five If 2,000 additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be fixed cost + variable cost = $10,000 + (2,000 * $50) = $110,000. The revenue, however, may be different for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 1,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 2,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (1,000 * $125) + (2,000 * $25) = $175,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $175,000 – $110,000 = $65,000. If the demand is 2,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 2,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 1,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (2,000 * $125) + (1,000 * $25) = $275,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $275,000 – $110,000 = $165,000. If the demand is 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 3,000 units on hand. Revenue = 3,000 * $125 = $375,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $375,000 – $110,000 = $265,000. Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $175,000 $65,000 2,000 0.35 $275,000 $165,000 3,000 0.15 $375,000 $265,000 4,000 0.25 $375,000 $265,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit if the manufacturer produces 2,000 additional units = (0.25 * $65,000) + (0.35 * $165,000) + (0.15 * $265,000) + (0.25 * $265,000) = $180,000. If zero additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be $0. In this case, the revenue too will be the same for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units or 2,000 units or 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 1,000 units on hand. Revenue = 1,000 * $125 = $125,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $125,000 – $0 = $125,000. QSO 630 Module Five 3 Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 2,000 0.35 $125,000 $125,000 3,000 0.15 $125,000 $125,000 4,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit for the production quantity of zero additional units = (0.25 * $125,000) + (0.35 * $125,000) + (0.15 * $125,000) + (0.25 * $125,000) = $125,000. Since the expected profit is higher for production quantity of 2,000 additional units, the manufacturer should be recommended to produce 2,000 additional units for the season. Multiple Order/Production Opportunities The previous section considered a seasonal product with one order/production opportunity. This section now considers a generic product with multiple order/production opportunities. Like in the previous section, here too, the demand is uncertain and there is some initial inventory. A few definitions are in order: · Safety stock: If a firm does not allow its inventory to fall below a certain level, that level is called the safety stock · Reorder level: If a firm places an order for products if the inventory level falls to or below a certain level, that level is called the reorder level · Lead time: It is the duration between placement of an order and receipt of that order · Service level: The percentage of customers who get the product of their choice when they want it and where they want it; for example, if a retail store maintains a service level of 90%, the chance of stockout at that retail store is 10% Using statistical concepts learned in QSO 510 4 QSO 630 Module Five Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * Lead Time Where z is obtained using the desired service level and normal distribution concepts from QSO 510. The example that follows the below formulae illustrates the concepts. Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) Recall from Module Four that the Economic Order Quantity =Q * = 2RK h . Recall also that slightly changing the value of Q* will not increase the total annual cost by a lot. Hence, even though the EOQ formula was derived for a constant demand situation, Q = 2RK is used h here as well. Notice that the asterisk is removed because Q is no longer considered the “best” order quantity, given the fact that demand is no longer constant. However, R (constant annual demand) in this formula is replaced by the Average Demand calculated using historical data. Hence, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K h Recall from Module Two that the average inventory level is typically calculated by taking the average of the inventory level (Safety Stock) just before receiving the order and the inventory level (Safety Stock + Q) just after receiving the order. Hence, the average inventory level is (Safety Stock + Safety Stock + Q) / 2 = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock). The following example shows how all of the above formulae are applied: Example A retail store orders from a manufacturer. The ordering cost is $2,000 per order, and the holding cost is $1 per unit per week. Also, the lead time is two weeks, and the desired service level is 97%. The following table provides historical demand data for the last 8 weeks: Week I II III IV V VI VII VIII Demand 100 145 125 184 200 98 118 142 QSO 630 Module Five 5 Average Demand (using the AVERAGE function in MS Excel) = 139 units per week Standard Deviation of demand (using the STDEV function in MS Excel) = 37 units per week. Service level = 97%. This means, z = NORMSINV (0.97) = 1.88. Recall from QSO 510 that if area to the left of X under a normal curve is given, X is calculated by first obtaining the value of z by using the NORMSINV function in MS Excel. Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * = 1.88 * 37 * 2 = 98 units Lead Time Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) = (139 * 2) + (98) = 376 units Order Quantity, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K = h 2 *139 * 2,000 = 746 units per order 1 Average inventory level = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock) = (746 / 2) + (98) = 471 units
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Discuss the American Dream
The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.
Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated. 500 words
I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario
This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.
For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting
Problem Scenario
(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?
(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?
Writing
(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)
(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow
(10 pts) Grammar and spelling
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History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP
In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?
500 words
Help me with philosophy question!! Plato and Love
One of the background themes of Plato’s Alcibiades is love. What does the text imply about the nature of love? Using close readings of textual passages defend an interpretation of Plato’s implied position about love and show how that interpretation survives a strong objection. 300-400 words
Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger
In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a
mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.
Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode
of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,
either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve
or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology
more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.
Noticing Patterns in Addition
What is the sum of integers from 1 to n? Justify your formula with a proof.
Black and White Marbles in Two Jars
Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.
A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.
Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.
What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?
Need help with this proof, complex numbers
The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.
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City of Flies NEED HELP ASAP
A city of flies has a population that doubles once every day. The flies go extinct from overpopulation on the 30th day. On which day was the fly population halfway from extinction?
HELP: Card Stopping Optimization
In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?
Integer question help
Find the smallest positive integer that leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, a remainder of 3 when divided by 4, …, and a remainder of 9 when divided by 10
Sociology
What are the benefits and responsibilities of becoming a US Citizen? Please list them and provide some background following MLA guidelines.
Mathematics
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
Can trigonometry be used to prove the Pythagorean theorem? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
How do you solve this integral of 3 sec(2x-1)tan(2x-1)?
A mathematical model for the Future Value of a savings account earning interest that is compounded continuously is given by the equation FV = Pert, where FV is the amount after t years, P is the principal amount invested at t = 0, and the principal is assumed to grow continuously at a rate, r. How many years will it take the principal to triple if the annual rate is 12%?
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Health and medical
v What’s the difference between good bacteria and bad bacteria? Please list all the difference as well as how they both affect/interact with our organism. 450 words minimum, APA format.
v What are the manifestations of zinc deficiency in children and how is it diagnosed? In addition to signs and symptoms, please suggest treatments too. Thanks!
Engineering
v What is the difference between concrete, mortar and grout? Please list all the difference between them along with their respective definitions. Please add all the necessary references and follow MLA guidelines.
v A 72 ohm coil of wire is connected in series with an adjustable resistor (rheostat) whose resistance can be varied from 0 to 88 ohms. If the line potential of wire is 115 volts, what is the rheostat resistance when power taken by the coil is 90 watts?
v Do magnets become demagnetized through electromagnetic/magnetic induction? Please provide the answer and explanation.
Computer Science
v What is a UNIX Machine? I know Macs are Unix machines… but what does that mean? why are Unix machines better for programming? What is windows? Because I know windows is not a Unix Platform, and how come it isn’t? And whatever it is… what is it made for?
v What is the difference between java and java script?
v Around what time did the Internet come around and how did it all start? Would like to know more of the history of how the internet started – just a brief discussion will do.
Is my thesis arguable?
Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.
Algebra 2 Math Problem?
For her chemistry experiment, Marisol needs 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. The lab has two containers, one with 40% alcohol solution and the other with 80% alcohol solution.
Write a system of linear equations that you can use to determine how many liters of each type of alcohol solution Marisol should combine to get 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. Be sure to define your variables.
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Incentive theory in management
v Does the incentive theory really work in motivating employees in a high-stress work environment? Please explain your answer (whether yes or no) and provide your justifications of your answer. Thank you
v What is Chaos Theory and how does it apply to Management? Please cite sample scenarios where it is best applied to. Cite references when possible
Science
What is pollination and how is it important to the environment? Please explain the scientific significance of this process. Cite references.
Psychology
How animated shows do like cartoons affect the psyche of a toddler (kids aged 1-3)? Please cite references. I need an essay that states facts and statistics regarding this.
Passage reading Question
Question
“2.1.9. Generally speaking, the men who hitherto have written on the affairs of India, were a set of liars. Deimachus holds the first place in the list, Megasthenes comes next, while Onesicritus and Nearchus, with others of the same class, manage to stammer out a few words [of truth]. … No faith whatever can be placed in Deimachus and Megasthenes. They coined the fables concerning men with ears large enough to sleep in, men without any mouths, without noses, with only one eye, with spider-legs, and with fingers bent backward. They renewed Homer’s fable concerning the battles of the Cranes and Pygmies, and asserted the latter to be three spans high. They told of ants digging for gold, of Pans with wedge-shaped heads, of serpents swallowing down oxen and stags, horns and all; meantime, as Eratosthenes has observed, reciprocally accusing each other of falsehood. Both of these men were sent [as] ambassadors to Palimbothra … and such are the notes of their residence abroad, which, I know not why, they thought fit to leave. Patrocles certainly does not resemble them; nor do any other of the authorities consulted by Eratosthenes contain such absurdities. 2.1.10. If the meridian [i.e. line of longitude] of Rhodes and Byzantium has been rightly determined to be the same, then that of Cilicia and Amisus has likewise been rightly determined; many observations having proved that the lines are parallel, and that they never impinge on each other.” – Ibid. Notice the difference in tone and form of argument between paragraphs 2.1.9 and 2.1.10 above. What does this suggest about the nature of the science of geography in the first century BC? Be sure to back up your observations with direct quotations (even if only a word or two) from the passage. Direct quotations must be in quotation marks “like this”. (250 words maximum, 5 points)
Mathematics
An athlete needs to get across a river. He must reach from point A on one bank to point B, which is directly across from point A on the opposite bank. If he wishes to minimize the total time T it would take to do so, at what angle upstreams (measured from the line AB) should he swim? Let his swimming/rowing speed relative to the water be 6.0 mi/h, and his running speed along the bank be 10 mi/h. The river flows downstream at 3.0 mi/h.
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Write a Java program that contain the following class, i.e., class SecretCode. Please refer to the given UML diagram for the minimum required class’s data fields and methods. You are free to add additional class members as you see fit.
HELP WITH WRITING A FOUR PAGE SCENE ABOUT BLACK LIVES MATTER
Question
I need someone to write a scene about a young girl raising awareness about black lives matter and how her surroundings keeps rejecting this movement and what she does to internally change the characters. Requirements are 4 pages long. First person narrative. NEEDS TO HAVE:
1) Dialogue. What your character says…or doesn’t say is where a scene starts. The interaction, how characters relate to each other verbally shows so much about them. Do they watch their words? Are they brutally honest? Do their actions and reactions seem in line with the actual words? But then we need more, or all we have is a couple of talking heads.
2) Action. Action breaks up the dialogue. What types of action might your character be doing while she’s telling her ex-boyfriend to jump off a cliff? Maybe she’s reaching for a bat, which might hint to the reader that she’s got a bit of a temper. Or maybe she’s inching away, which hints to the reader that maybe the guy’s a bad guy…and hits.
Or…maybe she’s sliding into a fighting stance, subtly and naturally. Showing the reader that this guy may hit…and this gal knows how to fight.
Make the action a natural one for your character.
3) Reaction. We all react differently to situations. So will your characters…internally and in dialogue. If a guy comes at me with a bat, I’d probably hold up my hands and try to talk him out of smacking me. NOT the best defense. But my kick-ass heroine..well now. She’d go for the jugular. (I need to take a karate class, I think.)
4) Emotions. What are they? Characters can feel more than one emotion at a time…someone dumping their boyfriend might feel both relief and sadness. And our bodies react to emotions. What’s fun, is often the dialogue completely contradicts the emotions. Our heroine needs to keep her chin up, after all.
5) Senses. Use them all. But here’s a key: notice only what your character would notice. If your hero is color blind, there’s no reason to describe the sparkling blue of the heroine’s eyes. He can’t see that. He can see her lush hips, tilted chin…etc. And smell her natural lilac scent.
6) Setting/Atmosphere. Same thing here…your character might see a room differently than you do. I walk into my husband’s den, and I see it needs to be vacuumed and I left my favorite socks on the couch. He would see the pillows goofed up on the couch and know I let the dogs in and didn’t watch them. One of his buddies might walk in and let out a whistle at the ridiculously large television. A Broncos fan would walk in and snarl at all the Oakland Raider goodies. I don’t even see that stuff. You reveal your character by what they see, hear, smell…
7) Backstory. If you’ve done it right, numbers 1-6 have created your backstory for you. There’s no big info dump needed…you’ve spread it throughout. For example, my heroine walks into my home office. She immediately spots the fairy figurine on the desk, reminding her of the one her boyfriend Joe won at their small town’s fair last year. (Oh yeah, a bit of backstory WHILE the setting is being described.)
To sum up: Layer to round out your scene so the reader might as well be your character. Don’t layer to: Add word count…or describe a room. Your reader doesn’t care what the room looks likes. Your reader cares about what the room means to the character…and what he or she sees. And how what they notice reveals more about them.
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Physics
Question
Given the heat conduction problem in the rod as follows: Length of the rod is equal 5 and heat conductivity coefficient is equal 50. The left hand end of the rod kept with the temperature equal t and there is heat flow from the right hand end equal sin t. At initial time temperature of the rod was as -3sin 8 sin There is the heat source inside of the rod expressed by the function 10 (x -5)2 x2 10 -10 sint + tsin–4e+ + cost 2 25+ Your task followings: 1. 2. 3. 4, Specify the problem as mathematical model. Find the solution of the problem. Draw the graph of the temperature at the time t 10. Draw the graph of the temperature at point x = 3 in the time interval 0
Problem 1: Association Rules: Co-occurrence Matrix (10 points)
Question
A car dealer conducted a study on its 100 transactions during the period of one month, and noticed that 50 customers were “young age”, 30 customers were “middle age”, and 20 customers were “seniors”. It also noticed that 70% of “young-age” customers purchased model A, and 30% purchased model B. 90% of “young-age” customers financed their cars. Furthermore, the car dealer noticed that the” middle-age” customers purchased both models with the same probability (50-50). Only 20% of these customers financed their cars. The study also showed that 80% of the senior customers purchased model B, and 20% purchased model A. They never financed their vehicles.
Finally, going through the financing accounts, the dealer noticed that 39 Model A cars and 12 Model B cars were financed.
a. Derive the co-occurrence matrix based on the transactions described above.
b. Calculate support, confidence, and lift values for the following rules
i)Young age customers finance their cars.
ii)Middle age customers purchase model B.
iii) Which rule is strong?
Draw a Moore machine
Question
Draw a Moore machine to perform a parity check on the input string; that is, the output string ends in 1 if the total number of 0 bits in the input string is odd and 0 if the total number of 0-bits in the input string is even.
Annotated Bibliography Assignment
Question
Students will develop a case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a mircoaggression(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/or social- emotional development. the purpose of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore, may tell it as you see it. The cultural autobiography case study and training.
Researching and writing an annotated bibliography using 10 citations from journal articles between 2012-2017:2018) that support the cultural autobiographical case study, intervention.
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Cultural Autobiography Case study Assignment
Question
Students will write a 100 – 250 word case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a microaggressionn(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/ or social-emotional development. The purpose of this assignment of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore may tell it as you see it. The cultural Autobiography case study and training intervention will consist of:
Netflix Case
Question
After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case.
Describe Netflix’s strategy process over time. What approach to the strategy process does Netflix follow? What works well with this approach? What are some challenges with this process, especially as Netflix continues to grow fast?
How was Netflix able to disrupt the U.S. home entertainment industry? Describe Netflix’s innovation strategy over time. Also, how did Netflix’s business change over time? How did its business model innovation support its technology strategy?
What are Netflix’s core competencies? How can they help Netflix to sustain its competitive advantage? How must its core competencies be honed and modified?
Netflix growth in the United States seems to be maturing. How could Netflix increase demand for its services in the United States? What other services could Netflix offer to drive future growth?
International expansion appears to be a major growth opportunity for Netflix. What challenges does Netflix face by going beyond the U.S. market? What can Netflix do to address some of the challenges encountered when going internationally? And which international markets should Netflix focus on, and why?
Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper
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Economics
Question
A consumer is willing to trade 3 units of x for 1 unit of y when she has 6 units of x
and 5 units of y. She also is willing to trade 6 units of x for 2 units of y when she has
12 units of x and 3 units of y. She is indifferent between bundle (6, 5) and bundle (12,
3). What is the utility function for goods x and y? Hint: What is the shape of the
indifference curve?
Sea World & Universal Studios
Question
Contrast and discuss their competitive strategies. How are they similar? How are they different?
Please write 10 meaningful sentences answering this question using the outside resources to support your answer
Angie Ghent a local prominent Business Angel has expressed a keen interest in Razor Wire Productions (“RWP”), a large manufacturing of industrial fencing products. Angie estimates that RWP will have after tax earnings of $3.5 million in 2020 (year 1), $4.75 million in 2021, and $9.25 million in 2022 (year 3). In 2022 RWP is expected to have about 8.12 ROA, $12 million in total debt, and approximately $14 million in capital assets. Angie intends to value the firm as of year 2022 (her expected timeframe for exiting the investment) and is using an earnings multiple of 9 times. Angie’s required rate of return is 60%. The US tax rate is expected to remain constant at 21% for foreseeable future. Ralph Smithson owns RWP. Ralph is the sole owner and has 1.75 million shares of stock. If Angie invests $4 million into the RWP what percentage ownership of RWP should Angie receive in return? HINT: Not all of the data provided in this problem is relevant to the solution.
Part 2
Continuing with the question above, how many shares of stock and at what stock price should be issued to Angie upon closing the deal with Ralph Smithson? For the purpose of this question assume RWP has a fair market value of $23.50 million (this was determined by determining the net present value of RWP’s terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.
Part 3
After several discussions with other investors, Angie has decided to demand dilution protection by insisting that her diluted equity position still provide her a 60% return on investment in the event that future rounds of funding are necessary. In fact Angie now believes that an additional 10% of the company will have to be sold to raise an extra $3.25 million in funds in 2021, and 5% of the company for $3 million in 2022. What % ownership will Angie require now to insure that after the next rounds of funding her ownership position will be protected. For this question assume that RWP has a fair market value of $31 million (determined by discounting of RWPs terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.
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Information systems and technology
Question
The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.
Select one character in Loraine Hansberry A Raisin in the Sun (1771-1830), and explain how that specific character’s motivations, concerns, and/or personalities reflect or defy social historical conditions. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points
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HUM 3360 – African-American Literature
Question
Listen to slave narratives on YouTube. Locate narratives about Equiano and of others.
Please submit–1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Equiano’s narrative, and 1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Wheatley’s poetry. To discuss the tone, please consider the word choices of the authors, as well as the messages (not the voice of the speaker on youtube). Take another 2-3 paragraphs to compare and contrast the tones. How are they similar and how are they different?
Submit 2-4 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the Jacobs and Douglass narratives (listed in the Course Required Readings). Make sure you highlight and discuss issues of gender.
African American women writers of the antebellum period genderized African American life in pre-Civil War America. Discuss how you believe Sojourner Truth genderized her experiences in her Address to the Ohio Women’s Rights Convention (1851) on page 245-249. Consider briefly discussing the tone, genre, or narrative voice. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points.
Question
How did the British government attempt to illuminate conflict between Native Americans and colonist?
Persuade essay
Question
Understanding your target audience is key to developing productive promotions and communications that influence people. In this exercise you will select the specific target audience with whom you strategically choose to engage and define the specific desired action you want them to take. You will also identify the emotional feelings that need to be created within someone in order to prompt the desired behavior. You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.
length of paper 2pages
Write an Essay of 200 words
Question
Write a 200 words essay on any one of the below given topics –
Gambling and Its Effects
A Detailed Look at Globalization and Its Effects
A Comparison of Unemployment levels in India to the rest of the world
Ways In Which Creativity Can Lead To Huge Success
Labour economics
Crowd funding and benefits
How cartels manipulate market and price
The economics of global warming
Any topics that you pick from above must be written from an economic perspective. When using sources, you cannot copy paste their content and give the link in references.
You will be marked based on the following –
Content – 4 marks
Organisation – 4 marks
Language – 4 marks
Relevance to topic – 4 marks
Relativeness to economics – 4 marks
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Use of learning accounting in management education
Question
For your assignment , write a 100 word essay on the topic – “Use of learning accounting in management education”
Write Up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling
Question
Write a 1000+ word write up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling
2. it can be based on the entire ceiling or a single painting of it
3. Say “no” to plagiarism.
4. Use the popular terminology across your project such as impressionism, fauvism, renaissance, modernism, cubism, humanism etc.
Exercise 1
Question
In this exercise you will select the specific target audience
You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.
Week 1 discussion questions pysch635
Question
Here are the 3 discussion questions for week 1 in Psych 635. I just need questions answered in about 100-150 words with a reference. NO paper written. These are week 1 discussion questions.
How can you measure learning from behaviorist, social cognitive, information processing and constructivism perspectives? Choose two of these perspectives to discuss.
Table 1.5 in Ch. 1 of the Learning Theoriestextbook describes the critical issues for learning theory. Provide at least three brief examples of how each issue might be manifested in one of the following fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology.
3.
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in one to two paragraphs:
Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
.
Discussion questions Watch the video Comment on the elements of Persuasion
After watching the video, please comment on which elements of persuasion you believe will help you influence your chosen target audience (or the audience you’re considering if you haven’t selected a specific target audience yet) to take the defined action you’ve defined in your paper. Please briefly define that audience to put it in context for the class. You do not need to describe tactical execution at this point, but if you must, share it here not in your paper.
Java programming
Question
CIS 166 – Java Programming
Professor Rodrigues
Assignment 5: Die Class
You will be creating 2 Java files for this assignment: Die.java and TestDie.java
You will be creating 1 Word document that contains the UML diagram of the Die class
Part 1 – The Die Class
The program
Design a Die class that contains the following attributes:
• sides: represents how many sides a dice has. A dice usually has 6 sides but sometimes could have more. This will be provided by the user
• value: represents the current value that was rolled in the dice.
The die Class should have the following methods:
• Constructor: takes one parameter that represents the number of sides in the dice. It then rolls the dice to give it an initial value
• Accessor methods: Should return the fields of the Die class.
• roll: Randomly generates a value within the number of sides of the dice. For example, if the dice has 6 sides you need to set value to be a random number between 1 and 6. If the dice has 12 sides, you need to set the value to a random number between 1 and 12 and so on… (Hint, this function is of type VOID)
The UML diagram
Before you start programming, take a moment to figure out all the fields that you will need and all the methods that need to be created. Create the UML diagram for the Coin class. Don’t forget to account for the access specifiers (public or private), for the data types of the fields and for the return types and the parameters of the methods.
Commenting and Programming Style
The first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the assignment.
You should create a documentation comment before every class header and method header (Starting with /** and ending with */). For now, the comment only needs to describe the purpose of the method. We will improve our comments throughout the semester. A sample is provided below.
Don’t forget to add spaces before and after every operator and to align braces.
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Part 2 – The TestDie Class
The Program
The program should create two instances of the Die class (each a six-sided die). One Die object is the computer’s die, the other Die object is the user’s die.
The program should have a loop that iterates 20 times. Each time the loop iterates, it should roll both dice. The die with the highest value wins. (In case of a tie, there is no winner for that particular roll of the dice).
As the loop iterates, the program should keep count of the number of times the computer wins, and the number of times that the user wins. After the loop performs all of its iterations, the program should display who was the grand winner, the computer or the user.
Finally, if the user wins, the program must ask the user to enter a nickname (The nickname must be at least 1 character and at most 5 characters), keep asking to user to enter a name while it is not valid. Once the user enters their nickname, append their nickname and number of wins to a file called “scores.txt”. Opening this file will contain the score of every player that has won the game.
Commenting and Style
In this test file, the first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the file.
Add a documentation comment (/** */) explaining what methods you will be testing on the program.
You should then include single line comments throughout your main method to explain what you are doing. For example:
Don’t forget to add a space before and after operators and to align braces.
Submission and Grading:
Submit Payroll.java, TestPayroll.java and the UML diagram through Blackboard. You can compress the files if you want.
Your grade will be determined based on the following rubric:
Task
Points
Die UML diagram
10 points
Die.java contains all required attributes w/ correct data types and access specifiers
5 points
Die class contains a constructor method
10 points
Die class contains all accessor and mutator methods
10 points
Die class contains a method to roll the dice
10 points
TestDie tests uses the constructor to set up a new object
10 points
TestDie correctly uses a loop to roll multiple dice
10 points
TestDie correctly decides who won the match
10 points
TestDie correctly saves nicknames and number of wins to “score.txt”
10 points
Documentation & Style
15 points
Total
100 points
Penalties
If the program does not compile or run, 30 points will be deducted from your total.
It is very important to test your program!
FP Journe Case study
Question
The case papers should be 1 page, double spaced and generally follow this outline.
Issues/problems?
Diagnosis/analysis?
Recommendations
Action Plan (immediate, short/long term)
Need help with question
Question
A food freezing plant requires 20 tons of refrigeration at an evaporator temperature of -30 deg C and a condenser temperature of 35 deg C. The refrigerant Freon 22 is subcooled 4 deg C before entering the expansion valve and the vapor is superheated 5 deg C before leaving the evaporator. The clearance is 496, the suction and discharge valve pressure drops are 35 kPa and 50 kPa, respectively. Compression is polytropic with n 1.08. The mechanical efficiency is 75%. An 11.5 x 11.5 cm, six cylinder single acting compressor running at 1000 rpm is used. Determine: 1. (a) Clearance volume efficiency (b) Piston displacement (c) Total Volumetric efficiency (d) Theoretical HP in compressor (e) Actual HP in compressor (f) Heat rejected during compression (g) Heat rejected to condenser cooling water (h) Quantity of cooling water in the condenser of the temperature rise is 6 deg C.
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Brand Positioning
Question
Write a Brand Positioning Statement for Jersey Mike’s Subs. Discuss how the Positioning Statement aligns with Jersey Mike’s business goals.
Feel free to use this basic framework in the attachment
Discussion Question Week 12
Question
You are considering a firm under three separate scenarios: 1) no debt, taxes or bankruptcy costs, 2) with debt and taxes but no bankruptcy costs, and 3) with debt, taxes, and bankruptcy costs. Under which one of these three scenarios will the firm have the highest value?
History of Animation
Question
As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation
history.
A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a
comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.
The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the
first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).
Measuring IMC program effectiveness
Question
identification of the particulars of the monitoring, evaluation, and control efforts that will be employed to appraise the effectiveness of all IMC program elements used. what is to be tested ? when are the tests to occur ? where? explain how the testing is to take place, including the specific methods and techniques to be used.
3 pages (approx) need some graphs and etc…
triumph daytona 675 motorcycle
HUM3360: African American Literature-Assignment 2
Question
Submit 4-6 paragraphs on the Chestnutt and Dunbar reading assignments : how do these texts reflect the Reconstruction Period? Describe their tone in relation to political, economic, and social progress
Submit- 5-8 paragraphs on the DuBois and Washington readings: this should consist of 2-3 paragraphs summarizing Washington’s concept of progress, and Du Bois’ concept of progress. 1-2 paragraphs – comparing and contrasting these concepts. 2 paragraphs Answering the following questions within your paper – Has one proven to be more effective than another? Is the current Reparations movement a reflection of one of these authors?
Internal combustion engine
Cylinder conditions at the start of compression is an SI engine operating at WOT on an air-standard OTTO cycle are 70 oC and 98kPa. The engine has a compression ratio of 10.5:1 and uses gasoline with AF = 15.5. Combustion efficiency is 96%, and it can be assumed that there is no exhaust residual. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Specific work done during power stroke. [kJ/kg] d) Heat added during combustion. [kJ/kg] e) Net specific work done. [kJ/kg] f) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%]
A CI engine operating on the air-standard diesel cycle has cylinder conditions at the start of compression of 70oC and 130 kPa. Light diesel fuel is used at an equivalent ratio of Ф = 0.8 with a combustion efficiency 𝜂𝐶 = 0.98. Compression ratio is 𝒓𝑪 = 20. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Cutoff ratio d) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%] e) Heat lost in exhaust. [kJ/kg]
Figure 3 shows Pressure – Volume Diagram of Otto cycle. The engine has a capacity of 2000cc, 4 cylinders, compression ratio, Cr = 8:1 and using RON 95 as its fuel. Figure 3 : PV Diagram a. Shows that the compression ratio for the maximum work in this Otto cycle is given by 𝑟 = ( 𝑇3 𝑇1 ) 1 [2(𝛾−1)] where T1 and T3 are the lower and upper limits of absolute temperature respectively. b. Also prove that the intermediate temperatures for this condition are: 𝑇2 = 𝑇4 = √𝑇1𝑇3
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Information Systems
Question
The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.
Need help on how to solve
Question
1) Historically, the average time to service a customer complaint has been 3 days and the standard deviation has been 0.50 day. Management would like to specify the control limits for an chart with a sample size of 10- and 3- sigma limits. The LCL for the chart would be:
A) less than 2.40.
B) greater than 2.40 but less than or equal to 2.45.
C) greater than 2.45 but less than or equal to 2.50.
D) greater than 2.50.
Week 2 discussion questions
Question
Just need like 100 words for each question. I need 3 different answers for each question so a total of 6 different answer (3 for each questions). These are discussion questions for the week. please add at least 1 reference.
Select one of the four broad professional fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology. Which of the four learning theories is most effective in guiding professional practice in your selected field? Identify strengths and deficiencies of using the theory you identified
Watch the “Operant Conditioning – Discriminative Stimuli,” “Pavlov’s Experiments on Children,” and “Pavlov’s Experiments on Dogs” videos in this week’s Electronic Reserve Readings. Choose a theory of learning to explain the processes of classical conditioning and operant conditioning, supporting each usage with relevant evidence in animal and human psychological research.
Business
Question
Guidelines on Sector Report:
Selected industry: Global Medical Equipment Industry
Each student is required to select an industry or a subsector he or she is interested in and prepare a written report covering the sector or subsector at the global level. Your Sector Report Topic should be e-mailed to the instructor no later than February 20. Students interested in writing their sector reports on certain industries are urged to make a request for the industry they want to write a report on as soon as possible without waiting for the February 20 deadline. Be aware that the instructor will confirm the approved sub-sector or industry with a return e-mail.
As you will be introduced to sectors within Turkey during the SEC 302 course, for SEC 301 this report MUST be prepared at the GLOBAL LEVEL. Reports about a specific sector in Turkey or a specific company will NOT be Acceptable. The completed report is to be submitted to the instructor no later than April 30. Please note that sector reports will be checked for plagiarism through “Turn-it-in”.
Your sector (or sub-sector) report that will cover a global sector subsector, or better still, a global industry should at a minimum include the following:
Sector(Sub-sector or Industry) participants: (20Points)
Customers and Products of the Sector or Sub-sector (5 Points)
Major competitors within sector or sub-sector (5 Points)
Key Suppliers to the Sector (5 points)
Identifying substitutes for the sector’s products (5 points)
Market (25 Points)
A) Global Market size (5 Points)
B) Major Geographic Markets (5 Points)
C) Industry Growth Rate (5 Points)
D) Drivers of demand growth (5 points)
E) Future of the Sector (5 points)
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III. Attractiveness of the sector, subsector, or industry based on expected profitability as a function of the 5 competitive forces: (30 Points)
A) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of the Industry Customers (5 Points)
B) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of Industry’s Suppliers (5 Points) Sub-sector suppliers are industries that supply inputs to the sub-sector
C) Assessment of the Intensity of Rivalry among Industry Incumbents (5 Points)
D) Assessment of the Threat of New Entry into the Sector through an analysis of industry entry barriers (10 Points)
E) Assessment of the Threat of Substitutes to the industry’s offering from other industries (5 Points)
Key success factors(The factors that determine success in this industry or sub-sector; what a company has to be good in, to be successful within the current industry environment) (25 Points)
To write a successful sector report make sure to read the Porter article called “Understanding Industry Structure” or the Avigdor articles called “Kar Amaçlı Rekabet: 5 Güç Yaklaşımı”.
Please note that your sector report needs to be no less than 12 pages (can be more) including a contents page and an executive summary page and is to be prepared from a global perspective. Your executive summary should summarize your key findings, especially about the sector’s expected future. Your report can either be about a whole sector (like global retailing) or a sub-sector (like global convenience store retailing). Please note that it is highly recommended to write your report on a sub-sector or an industry rather than on an entire sector.
In writing your report, you are free to use information from the articles that have been listed as supplementary readings. However you are required to use at least 3 additional sources for your reports, which must be mentioned in your foot-notes. For all the sources used for your report, it is critical that you make these sources clear by mentioning the sources in foot-notes.
Your sector report needs to be written with double spacing and business-like font. The document format must be in PDF format. Please be clear that formats other than “PDF” are not acceptable.
Finance
Question
Term Project
Selected corporation: Alibaba Group
You should work alone on your case study. Your case study will be a publicly-traded corporation. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on corporate finance issues including ownership structure and potential governance problems, capital structure policies, dividend policies, etc. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups (5 to 10 pages of text plus supporting material such as spreadsheets, figures and tables) will be submitted as the project report.
Term Project
Selected financial institution: ICBC ( Industrial and Commercial Bank of China )
You should work alone on your case studies. Your case study will be a publicly-traded financial institution. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on financial reports of a bank published on the web. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups will be submitted as the project report.
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Theory of self
Question
Compare Hume’s theory of self, or lack thereof, with the Buddhist theory of self. How are they similar and different, and what consequences would they have on your life if they were true?
Walt Disney Case
Question
After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. This assignment due is by this Saturday (11:59 pm). Suggested discussion questions are as follows:
Have you “experienced” Disney in some way such as TV programming, movies, parks and resorts, merchandise, or video games? How did this shape your view of Disney?
Are Walt Disney, Michael Eisner, and Robert Iger strategic leaders? Why or why not? Where would you place them on the Level-5 Pyramid?
How did Disney create its uniqueness in the Media and Entertainment Industry?
What strategic pillars did Robert Iger put in place to grow Disney into the world’s largest Media and Entertainment Company? Detail each strategic pillar and explain why this may or may not be important to Disney’s future.
How is the media and entertainment industry being disrupted?
What are Disney’s biggest strategic challenges? What recommendations would you give Robert Iger to address the challenges? Be specific.
Where should Disney’s Board of Directors look for the next CEO: Silicon Valley, Global Brand Management, or Hollywood? Explain why.
Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.) All cases should use standard American Psychological Association (APA) format. In particular, cases must be double-spaced, employ 1” margins, use headings and subheadings where appropriate, use page numbers, and use a 12-point Times New Roman font. The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.
System Design
Question
(a) use-case diagram and use-case descriptions (may include activity diagrams for complex use-cases)
(b) domain class diagram
(c) system sequence diagram and
(d) state machine diagrams
Financial Management Case: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory
Question
CASE: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory
Each student pick one case and write a report on it. No more than two students can choose the same case. First come first serve. Please post your preferences in Blackboard forum.
The following information are from syllabus:
CASE WRITE-UP
Each student will pick one case on the list and should submit a write-up on that case. This write-up should be 5-10 pages, double spaced, and 12pt letter size. It should include at least the following: 1) a cover page with case title and name; 2) an executive summary of your recommendation and brief rationale; 3) detailed analysis of all the key issues related to the case; 4) tables and charts supported by numerical analysis/calculations; 5) references. These case write-ups should be considered as formal and professional reports.
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Quantum Chemistry
Question
Use the virial theorem to obtain an expression for the relation between the mean kinetic and potential energies of an electron
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider the operation of a PEM FC that provides power to an EV traction motor drive. The FC stack OCV characteristic is defined by the following function:
V =Voc– A ln(I) – RI – m exp(nI)
Voc is the open circuit voltage, A is the activation losses, R is the resistive losses, and m and n are mass transfer losses. The design goal is to have OCV as high as possible and the voltage losses to be also was possible. The FC stack parameters are as follows: Voc=436V,A=12.9 V, R = 0.181 W, m = 0.0091 Volts, and n =0.013/Ampere.
a) If the FC stack delivers 10 kW of power to the load, calculate the current and voltage of the fuelcell;
b) Determine the maximum power of the fuel cell and the corresponding voltage and current.
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Accurate measurements of the V-I characteristics of a fuel cell allowed the determination of its slope. It was found that at 10 A, the slope was -0.003 V/A, but at 5.0 A, the slope was much larger (in absolute value), -0.005 V/A. Does this make sense? If so, can you calculate the internal resistance of the cell?
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider a FC/Battery EV, wherein the power system consists of a FC stack with 400 cells and an induction traction motor that operates at 300V.
a) Assume that the EV consumes 2.1kW from the Li-ion battery pack alone to reach a speed of 20 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range if the battery pack has a rated energy of 1.1 kWh
b) Now, consider that the EV consumes 15.0 kW from the fuel cell alone to reach a speed of 60 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range, if the EV is fueled by 4.0 kg hydrogen
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
A UC bank consists of three UCs sized at 200F, 500F, and 1000F. They have breakdown voltages of 200V, 500V, and 100V, respectively. The three capacitors are connected in series and the voltage applied across the bank is gradually increased. Which UC will breakdown first? Calculate the total applied voltage and the total energy stored at the point of breakdown.
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
For a constant power traction application, assume the following parameters for a bank of UCs: Vmax= 15.0 V; Vmin= 9.0 V; P = 60 Watts; td= 5.0 seconds. Based on the given data, calculate the appropriate UC size for this application. Please make suitable assumptions where necessary.
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Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider that a UC bank consisting of the following scenario: A 2000F UC is charged to 150V and a 1000F UC is charged to 50V. The pair of UCs are then connected with plates of opposite polarity joined together. Calculate the total voltage in this case. Also, calculate the initial and final values of stored energy. Plot the wave form of the current flowing through the 2000F UC when the voltage across it is as shown in the figure.
HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce
Question
This week you also have the second mini-case analysis assignment. After reading mini case 21 ‘HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce (Rothaermel, p520-523), you will provide answers to discussion questions at the end of this case and submit the mini case analysis in Blackboard by Saturday at 12:00 pm.
It is expected that the written analysis of the case range from 1-3 typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.). The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.
Discussion post about Arthur Danto Artworld theory 150 words
Question
Use the Arthur Danto Artworld theory to discuss one of the works by Raphael, Dürer, Titan, Rembrandt, or Ai Weiwei. Make sure you use a few of the following art-relevant predicates: mimesis, Ideal, kitsch, sublime, sublime, inspiration, infection, ecstasy, Dionysian, Apollinian, taste (Hume’s), aesthetic (Kant’s), psychic distance.
150-200 words
Essay
Question
Questions for Exam 2.
Choose 2 of the 3 questions to answer. These questions are to be e-mailed to me by 4/15 at midnight. Each question is worth 6 points. Each answer needs to be 1 page or less.
Many Managers have Power or Authority. If you could choose would you want to have Authority or Power in your organization and why?
Why do you think it is important to communicate to employees who survived a company wide Layoff and what do you think is the most important thing to communicate to surviving employees?
There are several reason employees Resist change. Which of the following do you think is the reason most employees resist change and why?
Uncertainty
Habit
Concern over personal loss
Belief change is not in the best interest for the organization.
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HUM3360: African American Literature Assignment 3
Question
Submit–4-6 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the tone of readings from Ellison and Wright. (Listed in the Course Required Readings)
HUM3360: African American Literature Interpretive Paper
Question
1) Submit Interpretive Paper.- 1-2 page paper
Write a 1-2 page paper- Choose one of the course required readings from the first two weeks to explicate and interpret. Choose a symbol or theme from one of the course required readings and discuss its significance in the overall meaning of the reading. To explicate the text, analyze it closely – no detail it too small. Notice the word choices, the structure and organization, the repetition of images or ideas, and/or the attention to audience (if applicable). Do NOT summarize. Instead, cite passages and examine them closely.
English
Write a 1500-word argumentative essay. . Develop your own thesis based on the following topic: Is the traditional model of higher education still relevant with costs skyrocketing, lack of jobs in degree fields, and our current student loan debt crisis? If so, how and why should we keep the model the same? If not, how and why should we change the model?…Cite all sources using APA format. Your paper must include proper parenthetical citations and a Reference page. LESS THAN 15% SIMILARITY
Psychology
Instruction
Perform research in the Walden Library and the Internet to find three scholarly resources that focus on crime and victimization, specifically statistics of major crimes. Visit the National Center for Victims of Crime website listed in this module’s Learning Resources. Subject Research: Criminal Justice & Security Using the Walden Writing Center “Basics Executive Summaries” as a guide, write a 5- to 6-page Executive Summary in which you complete the following: Provide an overview of crime and victimization in the United States and include current statistics of at least three major crimes (UCR Part I Crimes). Identify and describe three direct impacts of crime on victims and their families. Discuss whether these are short or long-term impacts. Explain which crimes have higher reporting rates and which crimes have lower reporting rates. Identify methods for improving rates of reporting for underreported crimes. Discuss how using statistics and improving reporting rates can lead to social change.
Psychology
Instruction
In a minimum of 150 words, describe some of the public misconceptions regarding sexual assault you may have heard. Describe the concept of “victim blaming.” Why are victims of sexual assault more likely to experience blame than victims of other crimes? Compare at least two countries and note any differences.
Review Chapter 11, “Sex Offenders: Assessment and Treatment,” in the course text Correctional Counseling and Treatment. Pay particular attention to the types of sex offenses as well as sex offender treatment approaches.
• Review the article “Therapeutic Responses of Psychopathic Sexual Offenders: Treatment Attrition, Therapeutic Change, and Long-Term Recidivism” in this week’s Learning Resources. Consider the efficacy of different treatment approaches for sex offenders.
• Identify a specific treatment approach for treating one group of sex offenders that is of particular interest to you.
• Conduct an academic search in the Walden Library and select at least one scholarly article from a peer-reviewed journal that discusses the treatment approach you selected. Ensure that the treatment demonstrates efficacy in the treatment of your selected offender group.
• Think about the unique characteristics of the sex offender group you selected and reflect on considerations related to their treatment.
• Consider the challenges you might encounter when using the specific treatment approach with your selected group of sex offenders. Reflect on how you would address these challenges.
• Review the course document, Treatment Outcome Models provided in the introduction area to this week’s discussion.
• Think about how the success of the treatment approach could be evaluated with each treatment outcome model.
• Select one treatment outcome model that you think would be most effective for measuring the success of the treatment approach and consider why.
With these thoughts in mind:
Post by Day 4 a brief description of the research article you selected. Include the type of sex offender and treatment approach. Then explain which treatment outcome model you would use to measure program success and why.
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Psychology
Instruction
Review the website: Center for Sex Offender Management: Subtypes and Typologies. Consider similarities and differences among the types of sex offenders • Select two types of sex offenders to compare for this Discussion. With these thoughts in mind: Post by Day 3 a brief description of the two types of sex offenders you selected and explain at least two similarities and two differences between these two types of sex offenders. Then explain one challenge related to the treatment of each type of sex offender.
Biology
Instructions
Return thFor all submissions please double space and use 11 point font, this will give me room to make comments. Please use correct grammar and complete sentences throughout. Do not type in this form, and do not copy the questions over to your responses. You may use any legitimate sources that your wish, cite them below the pertinent question response. Do not plagiarize, make sure your answers are in your own words. If you have any questions regarding plagiarism check out this website: http://www.plagiarism.org.
There are many “right” answers to the essay questions. Ensure your answers are plausible and justifiable for full credit.
This is expected to be a short essay (10 points): Pompe disease is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD) which, along with the other 40+ similar genetic disorders in this family, affect 1 in 7,700 babies born. You are a pathologist and you would like to investigate and confirm the presence of LSD using histologic methods. What will you do? Include at least two histological techniques (not molecular techniques) in your answer and predicted experimental outcomes.
This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the posted article “Tissue-engineered artificial oesophagus patch using three-dimensionally printed polycaprolactone with mesenchymal stem cells: a preliminary report.”
What is polycaprolactone and why is it a good candidate for tissue engineering (specifically 3D printing based tissue engineering).
What is fibrin and what are three important contributions that it makes to the implanted artificial oesophagus?
Discuss figure 6, what is Desmin and what does it indicate? Find a commercially available source for a Desmin antibody. Include the source datasheet and price with your answer.
This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the article “How secret conversations inside cells are transforming biology,” which can be found at https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00792-9.
Summarize the main points of this article as they relate to sub-cellular structure.
Given this information (at least in part) has been known for nearly 70 years, why is cell biology not being taught in a way that reflects this organization? Your answer can focus on K-12 education and/or post-secondary education.
Using a TEM that you find (and must cite), indicate features of the intracellular environment that reflect the intimate association of organelles with one another.
This is expected to be a long essay question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments (at least 3) to test the hypothesis: mitochondrial dysfunction and autophagy are upregulated in breast cancer cells. Include experiments to observe integrity of the mitochondrial membrane(s), overall levels of autophagy, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results. Make sure to cite your sources.
This is expected to be a long Essay Question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments to test the hypothesis: α-synuclein protein builds up in the brain of Parkinson’s disease patients. Include experiments to observe sub-cellular location of α-synuclein, overall levels of α-synuclein, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results.
Literary Studies
Instruction
This essay will be at least 1,300 to 1,500 words long. This is a research-intensive essay that will require an annotated bibliography. Three academic, scholarly peer-reviewed articles, six academic-oriented sources with at least two specific media based references will enhance your essay. These two will be directly related to the media source you choose e.g. a television weekly describing a series.
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DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS
DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS
MUST REFERENCE THE 4 REQUIRED READINGS
REFERENCING MUST BE IN APA FORMAT
This task requires you to use ethnographic thinking and methods to construct an account of an organisational area or unit in which you have participated. This may be somewhere you have worked in a paid or voluntary capacity, or an organisation in which you are an active member such as a religious or sporting organisation. The intention is to make sense of that organisation, both for yourself and for the person reading your writing. You should briefly introduce the organisation as a whole but focus upon the unit or area that you have experienced.
The importance of your account is that you have insight into the workings of the organisation / work area that cannot be gleaned from outsider research. This is what makes your piece ethnographic. Therefore, you should provide an insight into organisational life that goes well beyond what might be found on official websites. Following a common convention in ethnographic descriptions, you will give your organisation a pseudonym. Any individuals you mention from the organisation should also be given pseudonyms.
The key to doing this task well is identifying what really goes on in the organisation using your insider experience and then using concepts and theory from the course to give depth to your account. So, as an observational ethnography, this task depends equally on developing your own descriptive and reflective abilities as it does on using academic reference materials. You will need to write in a way that communicates your insights and observations to a reader.
Some background questions to guide your initial thinking about this task are:
What does the organisation do? Does this match the organisation’s goals?
What is the culture of the organisation? Does this differ in your smaller work area? (Tip: Is the culture, for example, social? formal? high pressure? hierarchical? Does it reflect that a certain type of person is employed there?) How does the culture relate to the structure or purpose of the organisation?
What kinds of work practices are undertaken? How do they compare to practices that are meant to take place?
How does power operate in the organisation? (Tip: think about power in the formal organisational structure, in the informal culture, and by whose roles or identity are seen as more important?)
You can structure your Descriptive Ethnography of an Organisation by following the assessment criteria. At the start of your Ethnography, address the first assessment criteria by providing a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course. Next, address the second assessment criteria by reflecting thoughtfully on organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory. A description of the organisational climate is useful here. Topics covered in the first half of the course – such as learning, motivation and power – can be used here to make sense of the culture and practices. The last part of your Ethnography addresses the final assessment criteria by identifying gaps between espoused values and practices as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours. Here you need to compare the organisation’s values with what you know takes place. This needs to be informed by ideas in the course literature.
We will help you develop a good understanding of this ethnographic approach and support the development of your work through, for example, guided writing activities and workshopping how to integrate references into personal accounts.
Assessment criteria:
Your descriptive ethnography:
Provides a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course;
Describes and analyses organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory;
Identifies gaps between espoused values and practice as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours, in reference to theories covered in the course;
Is well structured, well written and edited, and referenced correctly.
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Communications
Letter of Advice
For this assignment, you will write a letter of advice to either a newly engaged couple or a group of coworkers. Imagine that either the engaged couple or coworkers hear that you are taking a course in interpersonal communication and want advice regarding how to communicate in their personal or professional relationships.
Instructions
Use the list of learning outcomes to write your letter. The course learning outcomes you will need to cover are listed below:
Explain the principles of and barriers to effective interpersonal communications.
Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem.
Differentiate appropriate levels of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships.
Describe strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications.
For each of the five learning outcomes, create a separate heading that states the learning outcome that you are addressing. Then, address the following for each segment:
Explain the principles of and barriers to effective, competent interpersonal communications. Why do the principles matter? How can your couple or group of co-workers overcome the barriers you have listed?
Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem. Begin by defining each term and then explain how these three notions of the self potentially impact the relationships of your couple or group of co-workers. What advice can you offer to help them develop a positive self-concept or build each other’s self-esteem?
Illustrate the importance of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships. What role does self-disclosure play in the relationships of your couple or co-workers? How can their relationships be improved by them becoming more emotionally intelligent? What connections can be made between emotional intelligence and self-disclosure?
Evaluate strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts. Explain one or two potential conflicts and then present at least two strategies for addressing the dispute(s).
Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications. First, define these two key terms. Then, explain the importance of gender and culture in relationships generally and for your couple or group of co-workers specifically. What advice can you give to become a better communicator based on the information you have presented?
Content Requirements
You must address all five of the learning outcomes and the questions listed with those objectives. For each objective, be sure to define key terms and relate those ideas directly to advice for your couple or co-workers. The point here is for you to demonstrate how these ideas can be utilized to help people in their relationships. Try to offer specific advice they can integrate into their lives.
Begin your paper with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement and that previews what you plan to cover in your paper. End with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis and restates your key points.
You must use at least five scholarly sources to help you make your points.
Must be 8 double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style.
Must use each learning objectives as a header dividing each section of the paper.
Healthcare
Instruction
Part 1: Despite the documented challenges that the U.S. health care system faces, it also enjoys a number of advantages over other systems around the world. Choose 2 other countries from around the world and discuss the strengths of the U.S. health care system as compared to these countries from an administrator’s and a third-party payer’s perspectives. Be sure to not only discuss each strength, but provide an explanation as to why you believe the United States has this advantage over the other countries you chose. Part 2: Identify a nonprofit health care organization and a for-profit health care organization (not an organization mentioned in part 1). Answer the following: Summarize the types of services provided, clientele served, and provider groups involved. Compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of each organization from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives. Provide at least 2 suggestions for each organization to minimize the identified weaknesses. Summarize which organization you would rather be part of, using rationale.
This is paper should be written in APA format. Deliverable length should be a minimum of 7 pages and no more than 10 pages not including the cover and reference page. This paper is 2 parts but should be written to address the information below and follow the grading rubric attached. Reading should flow to understand the assignment points Number of references a minimum of 5 peer scholarly reviews. Assignment Objective: Differentiate the primary goals of nonprofit health organizations and for-profit health organizations in the U.S. Differentiate the strengths and weaknesses associated with various types of healthcare delivery systems in the U.S. from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives.
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Healthcare
Instruction
Although both for-profit and not-for-profit hospitals provide a certain amount of charitable services to the public, there is debate as to which provides a higher level of charitable services to its respective community. Which type of hospital do you believe provides more charitable health care services, and why? Provide at least 2 to 3 reasons for the choice using a specific example for each type of organization.
Healthcare
Instruction
Thinking about this from both a provider’s and a payer’s perspectives, answer the following questions: What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the gatekeeper system in terms of progressing through the levels of care? Provide an example of each perspective. What are at least 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages for each group? Provide a rationale for your choices.
This is a masters class in Heathcare Administration. The assignment is a “discussion board” request. Not APA, just simple discussion on the assignment below that will allow others to join in. In an HMO, the primary care physician acts as the “gatekeeper” to all higher levels of care that the patient may need. In theory, this means that the physician decides what is best for the patient and coordinates his or her care, while at the same times working to control costs and trying to ensure the delivery of care in the most efficient manner possible.
Forensic Toxicology
Instruction
Term Paper: You are required to submit a term paper that is at least 12 pages in length exploring some aspect of the forensic science discipline. The length requirement excludes cover sheets, abstracts, appendices, graphs, figures, and references, if these are included. You have the freedom of choosing any topic related to the forensic science disciplines. Examples of suitable topics include a particular specialization in forensic science (entomology, forensic anthropology, etc.), a biography of a prominent historical figure in the field of forensic science, an appropriate topical event, or a discussion of important political/legal issues that involve the field of forensic science. The paper must include a minimum of six reference sources from scholarly publications (books, academic journals, governmental publications, etc.), though it is advisable to include more than the minimum. Non-scholarly sources may be used as supporting material, but will not count toward the requirement. The paper must follow APA guidelines, including proper citation and a cover sheet. The term paper should be considered a research instrument and should be supported by facts and data. The paper should not contain personal opinions.
Art
The final paper assignment portion of the course will consist of a critical analysis of either a work of art, individual artist, or period/movement/artistic style of the student’s choosing, pending approval by the instructor. This assignment will be measured by the student’s ability to demonstrate a working knowledge, understanding, and competency of course lessons by applying said information to take shape as a written formal analysis. The final paper must be formatted in MLA, utilize a 12pt font, contain a bibliography, an illustrations page (do not insert illustrations into the text itself) and be at least 8 pages in length.
While emphasis should be given to the understanding and ability to discuss art in a formal context, other areas that should be included in the paper are as follows:
• Introduction– Begin by stating why you chose the particular artist, or art work and what interests it holds for you as an individual. What is the aesthetic and personal appeal for you as an individual? Then provide a clearly defined statement of intent in regarding the work.
• Description– Describe the work visually along lines of the presence and use of the elements and principles of art, both as design and aesthetic compositional devices. So look at what’s there, literally right in front of you. Start with the most basic: what medium or material is it – a photograph, an object, a painting? How does it look? Rough and quick? Slick and neat? Shiny? Dirty? Carefully made? Thrown together? The artist will have made some very deliberate decisions about the materials, style and approach, and these will feed directly into the overall feel and meaning of the work.
• Analysis– Refers to how we see the elements and principles of art. In this step, our minds take in the lines, values, and colors of the artwork. We also may take notice of the balance, proportion, rhythm, and unity found within the work. Look, see and think about what is before you. The first two – look and see – are just about using your eyes, and observational skills. The third requires a bit of thought, drawing on what we already know and creatively interpreting what we’ve observed within an artwork’s broader contexts. When we see anything, whether it’s a work of art, a movie or a billboard, our brains perform a massively complex split-second process of reading and making meaning. We absorb a whole range of clues that make up our understanding of any image, many of which we’re not even conscious of.
• Context– Particulars should include biography, history as regarding artistic style and process, along with societal influences. The broader context of an artwork will help make sense of what you’ve already observed. Much of the information about context is usually given in the little labels that tell you the artist’s name, the title of the work and the year. And there are often other valuable morsels of information included too, such as the place and year an artist was born.
• Meaning– We look for meaning in everything, so this is natural. An interpretation of the work based upon research with considerations given to the possible presence of universal themes, iconography, symbolism, metaphor, etc., that will help to give shape and inform of the inherent meaning within an artwork. What is the artist trying to communicate to us?
• Judgement– This is a summation of the previous steps leading up to it. The goal is to provide a statement of the work’s cultural significance and worth based upon analysis, objective viewpoints, critical perspectives and reasoning. The aim is to provide an answer to the question, “Is this work of art successful?”.
Artist
If you have chosen to cover a particular artist, remember the focus should be on the development of the work created by that artist. While biographical information is important in relating the development of personal artistic style, it should not become the primary concern, nor subject of the paper. Biographical information that would be pertinent would be area of birth, early training, life experiences that bear influence upon the work, geographical locations and associations with other artists or groups.
In order to inform and define individual artistic style, you should choose works to compare and contrast, that visually demonstrate and provide example of early, middle and later artistic work. Remember, artistic style is based upon the individual’s personal methodology, habits and applications of formal attributes as pertaining to the elements and principles of design. While this may be initially rooted in geographic location, culture and training, it evolves and changes based on experiences and personal choices that reflect the growth of ideas.
Artwork
Whenever you conduct a formal analysis of an artwork, you are primarily looking at applications of the elements and principles of art and informing as to how they result in an effective, or ineffective piece. If you choose to focus on artworks for your paper, you may focus on the works of several artists comparatively, artworks from a specific period that crosses mediums, i.e. renaissance painting and sculpture, or compare artwork from different periods, such as Japanese woodblock prints compared to the artwork of contemporary graphic novels.
Contextual information is provided that serves to inform of the artists, but also serves more to inform of the work and the era/period in which it was executed. Inform the reader of the materials that were utilized, what markets did it serve, how does it compare to other works that are contemporary, what stylistic properties were introduced, and what are the lasting effects on subsequent generations of artists?
Period/Style /Movement
Without a doubt, writing about art regarding a specific artistic period, style or movement is the most challenging in terms of chronology, analysis and context. It involves the consideration and comparisons of several artists, mediums and can range over several geographic locations and decades.
Period
An artistic period can range over decades, involve hundreds of artists, various mediums and be broken into several smaller movements, i.e.
The Romantic Period 1790-1880
•Nazarene movement c. 1820 – late 1840s • The Ancients movement 1820s – 1840s • Purismo movement. 1820 – 1860s • Hudson River School movement 1850s – c. 1880
Movement
An artistic movement is a smaller association of a larger period and is relative to a specific location. They are collective titles that are given to artworks which share the same artistic ideals, style, technical approach, or timeframe.
Style
In the visual arts, style is a “…distinctive manner which permits the grouping of works into related categories” or “…any distinctive, and therefore recognizable, way in which an act is performed or an artifact made or ought to be performed and made”. An example of this would expressionism. https://www.theartstory.org/movement-expressionism.htm
Rubric
Final Critical Analysis Paper: Topic must be submitted by Week 2.
Paper due April 14 11:59pm. (for every day late, 5 points will be deducted from the overall grade.)
• Thesis 25 pts
• Analysis 25 pts
• Synthesis 25 pts
• Clarity 25 pts
• Grammar 25 pts Total: 125pts
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Finance
1) You are a manager at Northern Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your office, drops a consultant’s report on your desk, and complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.6 million for this report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 23 million on new equipment needed for this project, look it over and give me your opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates (in millions of dollars):
Project Year
Earnings Forecast ($000,000s)
1
2
. . .
9
10
Sales revenue
29.000
29.000
29.000
29.000
Cost
of goods sold
17.400
17.400
17.400
17.400
Gross
profit
11.600
11.600
11.600
11.600
General,
sales, and administrative expenses
1.840
1.840
1.840
1.840
Depreciation
2.300
2.300
2.300
2.300
Net
operating income
7.4600
7.4600
7.4600
7.4600
Income
tax
2.611
2.611
2.611
2.611
Net
Income
4.849
4.849
4.849
4.849
All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 30% on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by $ 4.849 million per year for ten years, the project is worth $ 48.49 million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be done! First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 8 million in working capital up front(year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10. Next, you see they have attributed $ 1.84 million ofselling, general and administrative expenses to the project, but you know that $ 0.92 million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted. Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus on!
1.) A. If the cost of capital for this project is
what is your estimate of the value of the new project?
Value of Project = $_____________ Million (Round to three decimal places.)
2) Buhler Industries is a farm implement manufacturer. Management is currently evaluating a proposal to build a plant that will manufacture lightweight tractors. Buhler plans to use a cost of capital of 12 % to evaluate this project. Based on extensive research, it has prepared the following incomplete incremental free cash flow projections (in millions of dollars):
Free Cash Flow ($000,000s)
Year 0
Years
1–9
Year 10
Revenues
93.00
93.00
Manufacturing
expenses (other thandepreciation)
-33.00
−33.00
Marketing
expenses
−9.00
−9.00
CCA
?
?
EBIT
?
?
Taxes
(35%)
?
?
Unlevered
net income
?
?
CCA
?
?
Increases
in net working capital
−5.00
−5.00
Capital
expenditures
−143.00
Continuation
value
11.00
Free
cash flow
−143.00
?
?
The relevant CCA rate for the capital expenditures is 10 % Assume assets are never sold.
A.) Using the indirect method requires a separate calculation of the CCA tax shield. What is the present value of the CCA tax shield?
The present value of the CCA tax shield is
$_________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
B.) For this base-case scenario, what is the NPV of the plant to manufacture lightweight
tractors?
The NPV is
$__________________ million. (Round to two decimal places.)
C.) Based on input from the marketing department, Buhler is uncertain about its revenue forecast. In particular, management would like to examine the sensitivity of the NPV to the revenue assumptions.
What is the NPV of this project if revenues are 10 % higher than forecast?
The NPV is
$__________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
D.) What is the NPV if revenues are
10 %lower than forecast?
The NPV is
$___________________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
You are a manager at Northern Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your office, drops a consultant’s report on your desk, and complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.9 million for this report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 25 million on new equipment needed for this project, look it over and give me your opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates (in millions of dollars):
Project Year
Earnings Forecast ($000,000s)
1
2
. . .
9
10
Sales revenue
26.000
26.000
26.000
26.000
Cost
of goods sold
15. 600
5.600
15.600
15.600
Gross
profit
10.400
10.400
10.400
10.400
General,
sales, and administrative expenses
2.000
2.000
2.000
2.000
Depreciation
2.500
2.500
2.500
2.500
Net
operating income
5.9000
5.9000
5.9000
5.9000
Income
tax
2.065
2.065
2.065
2.065
Net
Income
3.835
3.835
3.835
3.835
All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used
straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 45 % on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by
$ 3.835 million per year for ten years, the project is worth $ 38.35
million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be done!
First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 9 million in working capital up front (year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10. Next, you see they have attributed $ 2 million of selling, general and administrative expenses to the project, but you know that $ 1$ million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted. Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus on!
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Given the available information, what are the free cash flows in years 0 through 10 that should be used to evaluate the proposed project?
A.) The free cash flow for year 0 is
$_____________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
B.) The free cash flow for year 1 is
$_____________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
C.) The free cash flow for year 2 is
$_______________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
D.) The free cash flow for year 3 is
$__________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
E.) The free cash flow for year 4 is
$________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
F.) The free cash flow for year 5 is
$_______________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
G.) The free cash flow for year 6 is
$___________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
H.) The free cash flow for year 7 is
$__________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
I.) The free cash flow for year 8 is
$____________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
J.) The free cash flow for year 9 is
$_____________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
K.) The free cash flow for year 10 is $______________________million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
Sociology
Instruction
Child Observation Report Student will choose one the areas of development covered in the course (infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, late childhood, or adolescence) and conduct an observation of one child’s behavior. These observations must take place on a minimum of five different occasions with a minimum of one hour each observation. (You could do more frequent, smaller observations, just needs to be ten hours total) Students will provide commentary of the behaviors observed and correlate to information on the specific area of development from text, lectures, and outside research (if necessary). Report is worth 200 points. Observation report must include both the log of dates and times that observations took place as well as a summary and conclusion.
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Sociology Paper
Instruction
In a 2-3 page paper, review the following article and complete a critical analysis of the identified social problem within the article. Rector, Robert and Rachel Sheffield. “Understanding Poverty in the United States: Surprising Facts About America’s Poor” The Heritage Foundation, No. 2607, September 13, 2011. Use the following headings/parts within your paper to ensure all parts of the assignment are completed: Part A: Introduction (3 Points) Identify your chosen article, and provide a brief but clear discussion of how the article topic frames a social problem, given a social construction understanding of social problems. (1-2 paragraphs). Part B: Evidence (11 Points) Utilize at least three different academic sources and discuss alternative views of the identified social problem. (3-5 paragraphs) Part C: Critical Evaluation (11 Points) Critically evaluate, given the research demonstrated in Part B, the original chosen article, with a conclusion as to the accuracy of the article. (3-5 paragraphs). This evaluation should demonstrate the following: Evaluation of accuracy of the information. Distinguishes fact from opinion. Demonstrates alternative arguments and understandings.
Leadership Paper
MGT 248, Culinary Supervisory Development
Leadership Paper
List and describe in detail all the characteristics of a good leader. You must demonstrate a clear understanding of Deming’s 14 quality tenets and motivation by empowerment. Your description should include specific practices for a Leader to be successful.
Your paper should have an introduction paragraph explaining the purpose of the paper. Then the body of the paper with all the supporting details that relate to that purpose. Then a final summary paragraph drawing conclusions based on information provided.
Reference page: Utilizing the library worksheet provided, present at least 3 references 4 weeks before paper due date. All materials used must be cited in APA format. If you are citing the textbook as a reference there must be at least 2 other peer reviewed current (3- 5 year) cited references. Complete web address links must be included, along with proper referrals to written books used. Wikipedia will not be accepted. It is not considered a valid reference site because it is not peer reviewed, which means it is not double-checked for accuracy. You can however use this as a jumping off place to find valid references
Please provide a draft of your paper 2 weeks prior to the due date. If needed I may guide you to take your paper to the writing center for improvement.
Your paper must be in your own words and not cut and pasted from a web site. Plagiarism will result in a Zero grade.
Your project should be at least four pages, using double spaced # 12 type and Times New Roman font. It needs to done in Microsoft Word and submitted to Black Board.
Projects & Assignments Due Dates
All assignments and projects are due on the date indicated. Late work will be accepted as follows: up to one week late with a 20% points reduction. Up to 2 weeks late with a 30% points deduction and up to 3 weeks with a 50% deduction and after 3 weeks student will receive a zero and no work accepted for that assignment or project.
Grading
-Paper is worth 95 pts.
-Submitting the Library Worksheet 4 weeks before due date and Written draft 2 weeks before due date is worth 5 pts.
Homework Help
Instruction
Research Assignment – Leading Internationally 1.The purpose of this assignment is to help you see that one’s leadership style and effectiveness is culturally dependent. Assignment Overview – Assume that you are being sent to Japan to run a division of your company’s overseas operations. Let’s assume that you have been managing for five years in your current position at a U.S.-based facility. Now that you are going overseas you want to understand what the Japanese workers look for in a leader and what it will take to be a successful leader in Japan. Therefore, I would like you to report on what it would take for you to be a successful manager in Japan. What do workers expect from their leaders? What business or cultural norms would you have to be aware of to lead successfully in this new environment? 2.Include a description of the country, its workforce, and its common business practices. Discuss, for instance, language, traditions, values, and ethics. A good place to begin your research is with your eReadings from the OERs. Pay particular attention to discussions of some of the key ways that cultures vary such as power distance, individualism vs. collectivism, and uncertainty avoidance. Then incorporate information obtained from other scholarly sources and what you’ve concluded about your own leadership style from the readings. Keep in mind that your analysis is complete only if it provides practical insights for you to succeed as a business leader in Japan. Requirements: Eight to ten page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least six sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.
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Communication Strategies
Instruction
Midterm Assignment: Communication Strategies: An Essay Based on Experience For this assignment, you will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of different communication strategies and apply them to your own experience. You will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of the different communication strategies and techniques that are used in communicating across different cultures and how it improves one’s ability to connect with each other in a business setting. It is also true that certain other factors, assumptions, or beliefs can get in the way of effective communication. Introduce your essay by discussing why effective communication is important in the business world. Next, discuss one specific strategy that facilitates or supports effective communication in a multicultural work environment, and identify why it is effective. Then discuss a communication inhibitor—that is, a factor, an assumption, or a belief that can undermine effective communication in a multicultural work environment. Identify how and why this inhibitor gets in the way of effective communication. Finally, offer an example from your own experience of a communication event that you have either witnessed or participated in that illustrates what you have learned about either effective or ineffective communication in the workplace. In choosing an example, try to focus on a situation that illustrates the communication issues that can occur in a multicultural work environment. Requirements: Six to eight-page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least five quality scholarly sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.
Communications
Instructions
Write a 4-5 paper that analyzes the intercultural dimensions of the book “Spirit Catches You.” Choose one or two individuals from the book as the focal point for your essay. Develop your paper based on the intercultural interactions struggles, barriers and/or conflicts experienced by these individuals. Remember that in an intercultural interaction, the participants almost never have equal power. Reflect on how power and positionality play a role in these individuals’ lives. Provide specific details from the book related to things that the individuals said or did to support your thesis. In addition to the concept of power and positionality, you must draw on at least 3 specific concepts or ideas from your textbook to make theoretical connections and arguments related to the motivations, actions, and interactions of the characters.
General
Module 4
For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community. This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown! The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.
Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”
The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:
Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose. With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community. I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.
After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience. So you will have at least two documents. Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:
TIPS
Ø You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.
Ø Take a digital camera. You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find. The pictures will also add value to your presentation.
Ø Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.
o Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’
Ø You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.
Ø Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you. Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?
Ø If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey. To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.
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Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report. This will be a paper different from your presentation. No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.
Paper: (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.
Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses. Are they of particular style? What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!) What gaps in services did you observe?
Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)? How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area. What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems. You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this. This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community. Reasons for non-growth?
Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey. EVERY community has strengths!! You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.
Module 4 Presentation Project – 40 points
The format for your presentation slide show should be:
Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
Subjective feelings
III. Community needs
Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
Conclusions
Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view. .
You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice. Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.
If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues. Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.
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Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.