The
first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing
practice problem of interest.
Select
a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.
Start
with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from
clinical care.
Following
the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem
area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.
Conduct
a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected
practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both
quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your
practice problem.
The
PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project
students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of
study).
Select
six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5
weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative
research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in
which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s
abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference
list with abstracts.
Suggestions
for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible
sources:
Use
a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using
the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in
the “Limit Your Results” section.
When
setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add
quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes.
Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.
To
narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and
include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and
pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the
abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a
description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.
Prepare
this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide,
located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This
assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the
assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You
are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.
2. CMIS 320 project
In this
assignment you will perform the physical design and implementation using SQL
Data Definition Language (DDL) and proceed with populating the Mom and Pop
Johnson Video Store database via Data Manipulation Language (DML) SQL
commands.
For each of
the steps below you may create a separate SQL script file and SPOOL file or you
may want to put the SPOOL output for several steps, from the same SQL script
file, in the same file. Be sure your SPOOL file(s) contains your SQL
statements along with the Oracle responses and/or displayed results. Do
NOT submit your SQL script files. Only submit your output SPOOL files.
Assignment Details
1) Create
Oracle database tables using SQL Data Definition Language (DDL) for each table
listed in the metadata of Project 2. You may need to use a combination of
DROP TABLE, CREATE TABLE, and ALTER TABLE SQL statements. Make sure that
entity and referential integrity are enforced by declaring a primary key for
each table (these may be composite keys) and declaring all appropriate foreign
keys. Your CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements (if desired) must show
integrity constraints, as appropriate, for NOT NULL, UNIQUE, PRIMARY KEY,
FOREIGN KEY, REFERENCES, and CHECK constraints. Be sure to save your SQL script
file used to create these tables with a .sql extension and your output SPOOL
file with a .lst or .txt extension. You should rerun and test your SQL
script file until it runs without any errors (this is why you’ll want to include
DROP TABLE statements). Submit your SPOOL file showing that all SQL in
your SQL script file worked properly.
2) Populate
each of your tables with at least five valid rows of data each and show the SQL
INSERT statements as you executed them. Populate other tables in your database,
as necessary, to satisfy referential integrity. Save your SQL script file and
SPOOL file with the correct extensions. You should test and rerun your
SQL script file until it runs without any errors. Submit your SPOOL file
showing that all SQL in your SQL script file worked properly.
3) Develop an
SQL script file to perform the following queries and updates. You should test
your SQL script file until it runs without any errors.
Retrieve all
of your customers’ names, account numbers, and addresses (street and zip code
only), sorted by account number.
Retrieve all
of the videos rented in the last 30 days and sort in chronological rental date
order.
Produce a
list of your distributors and all their information sorted in order by company
name.
Update a
customer name to change their maiden name to a married name. You can choose
which row to update. Make sure that you use the primary key column in
your WHERE clause to affect only a specific row. You may want to include
a ROLLBACK statement to undo your data update.
Delete a
customer from the database. You can choose which row to delete. Make sure that
you use the primary key column in your WHERE clause to affect only a specific
row. You may want to include a ROLLBACK statement to undo your data
deletion.
Submit your
SPOOL file(s) showing that all SQL in your SQL script file worked properly.
Show the actual SQL statements executed and the results the SQL produced
below the code by making sure that you have a SET ECHO STATEMENT in your SQL
script file(s).
3.
Liberty HIEU 201 History of Western Civilization Evaluative Essay 1 & 2
Thesis Statement
To evaluate an historical theme using
assigned sources for support.
To compose a properly formatted,
scholarly paper, using the most recent edition of Turabian, Notes-Bibliography.
General Directions:
For this assignment, students will
choose 1 historical theme from the
list below to research throughout the course:
Religion/Philosophy
Literature
Law
Science/Medicine/Technology
Economy/Labor
Students will write 2 analytical essays on their chosen
theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional
documents.
In Week 3, students will submit a
thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the instructor for review. This
pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be required for Evaluative
Essay 2.
Evaluative Essay 1 will cover the
period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.
Evaluative Essay 2 will cover the
period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.
Specific Requirements:
The evaluative essay will consider
assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those sources using the
topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this assignment.
Format, Length and Organization:
Length: 750-1100 words (roughly
3-4pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
Double spaced text, Times New Roman,
size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian:
Notes-Bibliography)
The paper should have a title page,
body, and bibliography page
Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography
style, format footnotes for the paper.
Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in
literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body and
conclusion:
Introduction should be one paragraph
and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong thesis statement.
The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
Body of the paper is a few paragraphs
(3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing comparison and contrast
of the assigned documents, as well as
further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body of the paper should provide
specific examples and details from the assigned sources.
Conclusion is the final paragraph,
restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the paper, drawing
conclusions for the reader. No new information.
The textbook and lectures can be used
for basic background information, but the majority of supporting details should
be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic document.
For Biblical analysis, you can use
your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using
Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation (such
as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).
Note that no citation is needed for common
knowledge information, but specific examples, details, or arguments drawn from
the assigned sources DO need proper source citation.
Martin
Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the
door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation
needed)
The
Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories
that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always
reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees
rather than historians.[1] – citation needed because this expresses a
specific view or argument.
**If
you are unsure of whether or not a citation is needed, it is better to include
the citation than to leave it out. You can also contact your instructor for
assistance.
4. Management
Book Reactions:
Students will find
two to three compelling items within the book and tie it back into what has
been learned in the course. The book reactions should be a minimum of 2 pages
(writing should run onto page three) double spaced with 1” margins and 12-point
font. Feel free to agree or disagree with what was presented in the books, but
make sure to support your argument with information. Long headers at the
beginning of the submission will NOT count towards your page length.
5. I need an essay to
be written over the specified case study. I have attached the case study along
with the directions.
Instruction
Write
a two- to three-page essay. Double spaced, 12-pt font. Identify and discuss 5
nutrition related problems or potential nutrition problems in the Davis family.
Offer recommendations for dealing with the nutrition issue in the context of
the current crisis situation. Use your text book, the PPT lectures, previous
case studies and assignments, reliable websites, and your own critical thinking
skills. No references required.
6.
Your
Smallville client has asked you to gather details to meet IT audit requirements
to determine whether IT services meet the organization’s objectives. Prepare a
report for your Smallville client on IT audit objectives, risk assessment, and
what help you may need from them to complete this task. Review the Gail
Industries Case Study.
Write
a 3- to 4-page report or create a 12- to 16-slide media-rich presentation with
speaker notes in which you: Describe the reasons it is important to conduct
periodic reviews of information systems to determine whether they continue to
meet the organization’s objectives. Discuss the importance of the
organization’s policies and practices as they relate to information systems and
IT infrastructure. Identify strategic and operational objectives for planning
for the audit. Evaluate different risk assessments techniques and monitoring
tools to consider during an audit process. Note: You are preparing for a
systems audit, not a financial audit. Frame your analysis around the systems,
not the accounting or finance aspects directly. Format citations according to
APA guidelines.
7. 10
page Term Paper Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Impact on Climate Change
Instruction
Details
of the Paper: Prepare a 10-15 page paper in Microsoft Word (counts as 15% of
the final grade) in APA format (see writing expectations in the Policies
section) (350 words per page). At a minimum include the following: References
(minimum of 10) You may use resources from the APUS Online Library, any
library, government library, or any peer-reviewed reference (Wikipedia and any
other publicly-reviewed source is not accepted). The paper must by at least 10
pages double-spaced, 1″ margin all around, black 12 point fonts (Times New
Roman or Arial) with correct citations of all utilized references/sources,
(pictures, graphics, etc are extra – allowed but extra for the minimum page
count). The title page and references are also required but don’t count in the
minimum page count. A minimum of 10 references are needed. The paper will be
subjected to checking against plagiarism. The paper must follow acceptable
originality criteria (no more than 15% max total, and 2% per individual source
match are allowed). Save the file using the following file naming convention:
ITMG481_Project_First_Last.doc(x) (where first and last are your first and last
names resp.) and submit the file in this assignment area. Turnitin.com has been
enabled for this assignment so remember that your submission’s file type must
be either doc or docx Outline and Topic are attached. Paper needs to follow the
outline provided as well as include the references already provided.
8. Service and Contracts
Description
Analyze
how physicians and hospitals have negotiated service contracts with third party
payers.
Discuss
how fee for service versus managed care models of reimbursement have
contributed risk avoidance in their contract negotiations.
Recommend
future strategies for physicians and hospitals to effectively negotiate service
delivery contracts. Base the recommendation on your research and readings.
Citations
must appear within the body of your paper to correspond with the references
listed at the end of the paper (i.e., if the resource is included in your
Reference List, the resource must be cited in your paper).
Write a 7–10 page analysis of how the
practices of your own organization (or another organization with which you are
familiar) influence the success of its virtual teams.
You will benefit from taking a close
look at how your own organization fares in terms of addressing critical success
factors for virtual teams, as well as from building an understanding of the
skills needed to participate successfully in virtual team collaboration.
Preparation
In their seminal work, Mastering
Virtual Teams (2011), Duarte and Snyder identify seven critical success factors
in virtual team collaboration:
1. Human resource policies.
2. Training and development.
3. Standard organizational processes.
4. Communication and collaboration technology.
5. Organizational culture.
6. Leadership.
7. Competence (p. 10).
Note: You should be able to find a
number of resources that address these critical success factors through your
research for this assessment.
To prepare for this assessment,
research the seven critical success factors in virtual team collaboration.
Consider your own real-world experiences with these factors in the workplace.
This assessment incorporates multiple
elements. Be sure to thoroughly address each before submitting the assessment.
Use the seven critical success factors
to analyze how the practices of your own organization (or another organization
with which you are familiar) influence the success of its virtual teams. Base
your analysis on your own experience of being a member of a virtual team within
the organization.
Note: If you have not participated in
a virtual team, base your analysis on a hypothetical virtual team experience,
using what you know of your organization’s practices.
In developing this case, it is helpful
to assume that you have been tasked by executive management to conduct an audit
of your organization’s ability to support virtual team collaboration. Your
audit will include a detailed report in each of the seven critical success
factors. Go beyond a description of the “as-is” state for each of
these factors in your audit to evaluate and analyze each of the factors to
identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that the current
state presents to the organization in terms of its ability to support virtual
team collaboration.
Remember that the executive management
of your company is not interested in a report about the criteria
themselves—they are not interested in reading about human resource policies in
the abstract, for example—but about how the organization measures up to the
criteria. Use the success factors to analyze the organization—do not fall into
the trap of writing about the criteria. Use the criteria to describe, analyze,
and evaluate the organization.
Explain how organizational practices
influenced (or might influence) the virtual team’s performance. Address all of
the following:
Human resource policies: Do the
organization’s career development resources address the needs of virtual team
members? Does the organizational reward system recognize the efforts and
successes of those who work virtually? Are rewards given only for results, or
are they also given for effort? Does the organization actively support work
arrangements such as telecommuting?
Training and development: Is there access to technical training for virtual
team members? Is there access to training in the area of working across
cultures? Is there a program of ongoing training as needed? Is there a system
for sharing what has been learned, such as a database?
Standard organizational processes: Are there standard technical processes used
throughout the organization (with regard to virtual teams)? Are there standard
soft processes used throughout the organization? Does the organization support
the ability to adapt processes when necessary? Does the organizational culture
support shared ways of doing business across teams?
Communication and collaboration technology: Are there consistent standards for
electronic communication and collaboration tools across the organization? Does
the organization possess or provide enough resources to purchase and support
state-of-the-art electronic communication and collaboration technology? Do all
employees (across departments and geographic location) have equal access to
electronic communication and collaboration technology?
Organizational culture: Is there trust between the organization, its partners,
and other external stakeholders? Are teamwork and collaboration standard
practices? Are people from different cultures valued?
Leadership: Do leaders allocate enough resources for the training and
technology needed by virtual teams? What level of expectation do leaders set
for virtual team performance? Do leaders model exemplary behavior by working
across boundaries and using technology effectively?
Competence: Are team leaders experienced with working in virtual environments?
Are team members experienced with working in virtual team environments? Are
team leaders experienced in working across both organizational and cultural
boundaries? Are team members experienced in working across both organizational
and cultural boundaries?
Support your analyses with real examples, as well as evidence from your
research and readings.
Additional Requirements
Ensure written communication is free
of errors that detract from the overall message and quality.
Your report should be 7–10 content pages, in addition to a title page and
references page.
Use 12-point, Times New Roman.
Use at least three scholarly resources.
Follow APA rules for attributing sources that support your analysis and
conclusions. As a reminder related to using APA rules to ensure academic
honesty:
When using a direct quote (using exact or nearly exact wording), you must
enclose the quoted wording in quotation marks, immediately followed by an
in-text citation. The source must then be listed in your references page.
When paraphrasing (using your own words to describe a nonoriginal idea), the
paraphrased idea must be immediately followed by an in-text citation and the
source must be listed in your references page.
Suggested Resources
The following optional resources are provided to support you in completing the
assessment or to provide a helpful context.
Purvanova, R. K. (2014). Face-to-face versus virtual teams: What have we really
learned? The Psychologist-Manager Journal, 17(1), 2–29.
Read the case study about using the DMADV approach for designing new housing at the
University of Miami. Write a paper of two to four pages detailing the
DMADV steps for designing a new product/process at your firm. Your approach to
designing the new product/process at your firm should be similar to that in
this case study. Cite your sources in the APA format.
A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a
rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change
in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t)
according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:
1. The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.
Please explain how you arrived at your answer.
12. Which formula should be used to
determine the total cost?
The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges
$1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for
photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total
cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming
at least 60 are purchased?
a. C = 1000 p + 2
b. C = 1000(2p – 60)
c. C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)
Please explain your answer.
13. Philip and Claire are
married and file a joint
Question
Individual Tax
Return Problem 4
Required:
Use the following information to complete Phillip and Claire Dunphy’s 2017 federal
income tax return. If any information is missing, use reasonable assumptions
to fill in the gaps. Ignore the alternative minimum tax for this problem.
Any required forms, schedules, and instructions can be found at the IRS website
(www.irs.gov). The instructions can be helpful in completing the forms.
Facts:
Phillip and Claire are married and file a joint return. Phillip is
self-employed as a real estate agent, and Claire is a flight attendant. Phillip
and Claire have three dependent children. All three children live at home with
Phillip and Claire for the entire year.
The Dunphys provide you with the following additional information:
The Dunphys do not want to contribute to the presidential election campaign.
The Dunphys live at 3701 Brighton Avenue, Los Angeles, California 90018.
Phillip’s birthday is 11/5/1971 and his Social Security number is 321-XX-5766.
Claire’s birthday is 5/12/1974 and her Social Security number is 567-XX-1258.
Haley’s birthday is 11/6/2005 and her Social Security number is 621-XX-7592.
Alex’s birthday is 2/1/2007 and her Social Security number is 621-XX-8751.
Luke’s birthday is 12/12/2011 and his Social Security number is 621-XX-9926.
The Dunphys do not have any foreign bank accounts or trusts.
Claire is a flight attendant for Western American Airlines (WAA), where she
earned $57,000 in salary. WAA withheld federal income tax of $6,375, state income
tax of $1,800, Los Angeles city income tax of $675, Social Security tax of
$3,600, and Medicare tax of $825.
Phillip and Claire received $300 of interest from State Savings Bank on a joint
account. They also received a qualified dividend of $395 on jointly owned
stock in Xila Corporation.
Phillip’s full-time real estate business is named “Phillip Dunphy Realty.” His business
is located at 645 Grove Street, Los Angeles, California 90018, and his employer
identification number is 93-3488888. Phillip’s gross receipts during the year
were $730,000. Phillip uses the cash method of accounting for his business.
Phillip’s business expenses are as follows:
Advertising
$ 5,000
Professional dues
800
Professional journals
200
Employee wages
48,000
Insurance on office contents
1,120
Accounting services
2,100
Miscellaneous office expense
500
Utilities and telephone
3,360
Payroll taxes
3,600
Depreciation To be calculated
On March 20, Phillip moved his business out of the old offices at 1103 Allium
Lane into a newly constructed and equipped office on Grove Street. Phillip sold
the old office building and all its furnishings. Phillip’s expenditures for the
new office building are as follows:
Date Acquired
Asset Cost
3/20
Land
$ 300,000
3/20
Office building
2,500,000
3/20
Furniture
200,000
4/1 Computer
system 350,000
6/1
Artwork
150,000
Phillip computes his cost recovery allowance using MACRS. He would like to use
the §179 immediate expensing, but he has elected to not claim any bonus
depreciation. Phillip has never claimed §179 or bonus depreciation before. The
assets Phillip sold on March 20 are as follows:
Date Acquired
Asset
Sales Price Original Cost
Accumulated Depreciation as of Beginning of the Year
[1]
Marvin Perry, et.al., Western
Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form)
Phillip has never sold any assets relating to his business before this
transaction.
The
Dunphys sold 60 shares of Fizbo Corporation common stock on September 3 for $65
a share (minus a $50 total commission). The Dunphys purchased the stock on
November 8, 2016, for $90 a share. They also sold a painting for $13,000 on
March 1. Claire purchased the painting for $20,050 on September 1, 2010, as an
investment.
The
Dunphys filed their 2016 federal, state, and local returns on April 13, 2017.
They paid the following additional 2016 taxes with their returns: federal
income taxes of $630, state income taxes of $250, and city income taxes of $75.
The
Dunphys made timely estimated federal income tax payments of $17,000 each
quarter during 2017. They also made estimated state income tax payments of
$1,000 each quarter and estimated city income tax payments of $300 each
quarter. The Dunphys made all fourth-quarter payments on December 31, 2017.
They would like to receive a refund for any overpayments.
Phillip and Claire have qualifying insurance for purposes of the
Affordable Care Act (ACA).\
14. Facilities Management
As the manager of a resort hotel with 500
guest roomsyou are concerned with your monthly water and sewage bill. The water company uses the graduated billing
schedule listed below. Your operation is currently using 2,500,000 gallons of
water per month. It is time to replace your 3.6 gallon per flush toilets and
you initially decided to install 1.8 gallons per flush high efficiency toilets. The toilet salesperson is recommending that
you install anultra-high efficiency model that used 0.9 gallons per flush. The ultra-high efficiency toilets will cost
you $250more than the high efficiency toilets per toilet, installed. Based on
information your chief engineer found, you estimate that on average every
toilet in an occupied room is flushed 10 times per day. Your average annual occupancy rate is
91.0747%.Assume 30.5 days per month when calculating your monthly water
savings. Based on the information above
and the rate scale below,your ultimate goal is to determine if it is more cost
effective to install the ultra-high efficiency toilets?
Water rates:
monthly charge of $150.00 per month plus usage charge base on the rates
listed below.
Amount
of water used Rate
per 1000 gallons
First
100,000 gallons $6.00
Next
500,000 gallons $5.00
Next
1,000,000 gallons $4.00
Anything
over 1,600,000 gallons $2.00
Sewage rates: monthly charge of $200.00 per
month plus usage charge based on the total water used.
Amount
of sewage produced = Total water
used minus deduct meter
Rate per 1000 gallons is $10.00
Deduct
meter shows a monthly average of 125,000 gallons
Water and sewage rates are expected to rise at
the same rate,2.0202% per month. The owners of the operation expect a monthly
rate of return on their investment of at least 1.0%. Assume that the toilets
will last for 30 years. Assume that you will take out a loan for the
toilets. You must pay 10% down make
payments at the end of each month until the remainder has been paid off, 72
month. The nominal annual interest rate
for the loan is 3.99%. The equation for converting a nominal annual rate to a
monthly rate is:
Give the above
information answer the following questions. You must show ALL your work to
receive credit.
1. How
much will your water usage drop each month (to the nearest gallon) if you
install the ultra-high efficiency
toilets compared to the high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
2. If
your water usage is for the entire facility is projected to be 2,250,000
gallons if the high efficiency toilets are installed, how much water will be
used each month by your entire facility if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
3. If
you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets, what will be your average
monthly water and sewage bill (to the nearest dollar) for the entire facility?
Water portion of the bill
(Type
stating amount here)
100,000
x 6.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 100,000 here)
500,000
x 5.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 600,000 here)
1,000,000
x 4.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 1,600,000 here)
(Type
stating amount – 1,600,000 here) x 2.00/1,000 =
0
Total water bill =
Sewage bill =
Total water and sewage bill =
4. What
is the projected savings on your water and sewage bill (to the nearest dollar)
for the entire facilityin present value if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets instead of the high efficiency toilets? The projected monthly water and sewage bill
if you add the high efficiency toilets will be $30,000. Make sure you calculate
all interest rates to 4 significant digits, and write all percentages as
decimals.
Equation (variables only): PV =
A =
n =
ieffective =
PV =
PV =
5. How
much more will it cost to install the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to
installing the high efficiency toilets in present value will it cost (to the
nearest dollar) for the new toilets, installed? Make sure you calculate all interest rates
to 4 significant digits, and write all percentages as decimals.
a. What
will be increase in total price for all the toilets installed if you install
the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to installing the high efficiency
toilets (to the nearest dollar)?
(type
your answer here)
b. How
much more will the down payment be on the loan if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets compared to installing the high efficiency toilets (to the
nearest dollar)?
(type
your answer here)
c. How
much more will your monthly loan payment (to the nearest dollar) be if you
install the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to installing the high
efficiency toilets?
(type your answer here)
d. How
much will the total cost (to the nearest dollar) in present value for the
toilets installed increase if you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets
compared to installing the high efficiency toilets?
Equation (variables only): PV =
A =
n =
ieffective =
PV =
PV =
6. What
will be your net savings if you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets
compared to installing the high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
7. Should
you install the high efficiency or ultra-high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
15. Political Science and Policy response
Question
Assume that you are a Senator within
your home state in which determinate sentencing is currently being practiced;
however, you have introduced a bill to switch to indeterminate sentencing. What
are some of the strengths of indeterminate sentencing that you could use to
persuade your fellow senators?
16. Globalization in the role of Mass
Media in Healthcare and Higher Education
Question
Students will write a paper analyzing
the issues of the Globalization in the role of Mass Media in Healthcare
and Higher Education. This paper should be 2000-2500 words. It should examine relevant
professional issues and real-life dilemmas encountered by members of the topic.
The paper should cite at least seven (7) current sources.
APA Guidelines
Time New Roman
12 pt, Double Spaced
17.
BUILDING AN ETHICS-BASED WORKPLACE CULTURE
Question
Assignment Overview
Ethics Program Implementation
As you can see by your reading, a lot
of energy goes into the implementation of an organizational ethics program. And
Lockheed Martin has clearly allotted considerable resources to assuring their
program is successful. In this assignment we’ll be focusing on what the company
did to ensure the implementation of a successful program that was flexible
enough to accommodate the changing needs of the organization.
Case Assignment
Please address the following questions:
On p. 83 Terris discusses the
company’s ethics code. Why is the code considered important to the
company’s ethics program?
Discuss the importance of ethics
training and employee involvement. What are some of the things Lockheed
does to make the training process interesting and worthwhile?
How does Lockheed measure success with
respect to ethics in the workplace?
What are some of the things Lockheed
does at the operational level to make their ethics program work?
Assignment Expectations
Write a 4- to 5-page paper, not
including title page or references page addressing the issue and upload it by
the end of this module.
Your paper should be double-spaced and
in 12-point type size.
Your paper should have a separate
cover page and a separate reference page. Make sure you cite your
sources.
Use APA style, and proofread your
paper.
Upload your paper by the end of the
module.
18. BUS ADM 600
Question
The analysis of
strategy in the case of Wal-mart 2005.
(20 points)
Please summarize
its company strategies with supporting activities at the corporate,
business, andfunctional level.
Please state how
the corporate level of strategy is connected to the business level.
Stakeholder
Theory of the Firm: Theory and Application
(20 points)
Describe the
stakeholder theory for a RTE breakfast
cereal firm. Who are the major external stakeholders? Who are
the major internal stakeholders?
Imagine you are
the CEO of a ready-to-eat breakfast cereal company such as General
Mills. Recent research has linked diabetes to an artificial
sweetener that your company has been using for the last decade. Please
discuss the likely preference of each stakeholder group. Discuss how you
will go about deciding whether to continue with the same
artificial sweetener or to seek alternative yet more costly
replacements.
External
Analysis: Please describe Porter’s 5-Forces Model in the following order: Power
of Suppliers, Power of Buyers, Substitutes, Barriers to Entry, and Price
Rivalry from the perspective of Coke and Pepsi concentrate producers.
(25 points, 5
points for each force)
For each force be
sure to indicate if the power is HIGH, MODERATE or LOW.
Please be sure to
defend your assessment of each force with evidence.
Internal
Analysis: please list what resources and capabilities qualify as VRIO for the
case of Wal-mart 2005? (20 points)
Please first
describe the question of value, rarity, imitability, and organization.
Please list the
resources and capabilities that you identify from Wal-mart under each of the
question of VRIO model.
Internal
Analysis: Please provide a Value-Chain analysis for the company
of Coca-Cola.
(15 points)
Please
list the primary activities in value chain for a soft drink
company such as Coco-Cola.
Please indicate
whether those primary activities were conducted internally or
outsourced. If outsourced (at certain times or in certain regions), please
state the rationale behind such decision.
BONUS
QUESTION: Competitive Advantages – Value Chain and Economic Value
Creation (10 points)
For Milwaukee
Cheese Company, below are the breakdowns for its cheese production:
• Product priced
at $20/pound
• Raw materials
cost $10/pound
• Manufacturing
cost $1/pound
• Packaging cost
$1/pound
• Distribution
cost $1/pound
• Sales and
Marketing cost $1/pound
• Overhead allocation
$1/pound
• Production
facility rent $3/pound
• Employee pay
$2/pound
Given the
information above, please calculate Milwaukee Cheese Company’s Economic Value
Creation. Please provide all of your work below in calculation.
19. Outline the cybersecurity issues
and vulnerabilities of the petrochemical industry
Question
1. Outline the Cybersecurity issues
and vulnerabilities of the petrochemical industry. Include in your answer
specific actions required to improve the security profile of this industry.
2. Using Clarke’s
assessment from chapter six of Cyber War: The Next Threats to
National Security and What to Do About It, describe America’s
potential best scenario use of “Offensive Cyberwar” to attack other nation’s
infrastructure. Feel free to provide ‘theoretical’ scenarios and
war-gaming actions that would best serve our nation’s efforts for
debilitating a foe’s national infrastructure.
20. Starbuck Corporation Case Anaylsis
Question
This week, we will analyze a
full-length case study, which is about Starbucks Corporation
With more than 25,000 stores in 75
countries and $21 billion in annual revenues, Starbucks is the largest roaster
and retailer of specialty coffee in the world. Howard Schultz’s strategic
leadership was critical in turning Starbucks around. He is now hoping that his
second retirement from the company he built from the ground up will be his
final one. In the meantime, Kevin Johnson, the new CEO, faces several
challenges. In particular, the question of maintaining core competencies and
how to achieve future growth, both domestically and internationally is central
to the case. The case also focuses on diversification, as Starbucks is
branching out in new areas such as menu extensions including offering alcohol
as well as rolling out coffee bars with high-end offerings such as a $12 cup of
coffee.
To-Do
List – Week Six: All assignments are required.
Read
Overview of this case
Reading
Assignments: Starbucks
Corporation
Full-length Case
assignment: Read
‘Starbucks Corporation’ case, and think about the discussion
Discussion questions
How
did Starbucks create its uniqueness in the first place? Why was it so
successful (until the mid-2000s)?
Why
and how did Starbucks lose its uniqueness and struggle in the mid-2000s?
What
strategic initiatives did Howard Schultz put in place to re-create Starbucks’
uniqueness after his return in 2008? Detail each strategic initiative. Explain
why a specific strategic initiative was successful.
Is
Howard Schultz an effective strategic leader? Why or why not? Buttress your
arguments.
How
is Starbucks trying to grow in the future? What are its biggest challenges?
What
recommendations would you give the new Starbucks CEO, Kevin Johnson, to address
the challenges identified in Question 5? Be specific.
After reading the case, you
are expected to submit a written analysis of the case which ranges
from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should
conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the
case
*Note add references behind sentences
that are used from other sites.
21. Sex Crime Statutes
Research your Louisiana government website to
locate information on a recently adopted sex crime statue in this area.
Write a 550- to 700-word paper in which you
do the following:
Provide
a brief summary of the statute, including the intended category of sexual
offense. Louisiana
Explain
how the statute could impact laws or enforcement in the area.
Provide
a brief history of other statutes that may have led to the creation of the
current statute.
Describe
the range of punishments for violation of the law.
Explain
whether the acts identified in the statute are acts that previously were
considered accepted practice.
Explain
what made this statute a current precedent and if it was derived from a
previous law.
Format your paper consistent with APA
guidelines.
22. Analysis of Ground Rules
Write a
minimum of 3 pages with team experiences you have had in which a team was
effective and another in which it was not. Write a description of these teams
and their tasks, paying particular attention to the behavioral expectations for
which the team members held each other accountable.
Describe how ground rules help an effective team perform and work
well together.
Analyze prospective differences in ground rules for team members
and tensions that may result.
Analyze how differences in unspoken ground rules and team members’
expectations cause conflict and damage performance.
Describe the effect of discussing ground rules as a method of team
learning.
Analyze applications of change management principles.
Describe an effective team from a real-world experience, including
the tasks of the team.
Describe the ground rules applied in an effective team.
Describe an ineffective team from a real-world experience,
including the tasks of the team. Explain the spoken or unspoken ground rules
that describe expectations for behavior in an ineffective team.
23. The Epic of Gilgamesh and Monkey
Compare
the heroes as kings. Monkey as a king of the monkeys has some things in common
with Gilgamesh as a king, e.g. a desire for immortality. When they are good
kings,what virtues do they show?Is one of them better than the other? When they
are not good kings, what feelings do they share? Who has the greatest flaws as
a king?
Please
use quotes from the text.
The
paper should be in MLA guidelines and be around 1000-1250 words
a. Business goals
b. Technical goals
c. User communities and data stores
d. Network applications
6. Current state
of the network
7. Logical design
8. Physical design
9. Results of network design testing
10. Implementation plan with a project schedule
11. Project budget with a return on investment calculation
Your assignment
must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed,
double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins
on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific
format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
25. Managerial Accounting
Over the last 50
years the financial reporting systems have dramatically changed and will
continue to change as the financial world faces changes such as globalization,
changing regulations and the increased use of technology. The accounting
profession must be ready to not only face these changes but to also adapt to
them, providing relevant and reliable information to the many internal and
external users of financial and managerial accounting reports.
It is important
to understand the difference between managerial and financial accounting
reports.
You are the chief
executive officer of a multinational corporation that operates wholly owned
subsidiaries in several countries. One of the company’s manufacturing plants is
located in Europe. As CEO, respond to the following questions in 400-600 words:
What
types of internal and external accounting reports will you use in the
process of making decisions?
How
will the reports differ for a multi-national corporation?
26. Resistance
and Communication – Walmart
Write a four to
six (4-6) page paper in which you: (previous paper is attached)
Diagnose
the reasons for resistance to change.
Interpret
the potential causes of resistance in the organization (WALMART). Identify
and describe three (3) potential causes of resistance to your change plan
(better benefits and better training and development programs). Identify
and describe three (3) potential sources of resistance to your change plan
(better benefits and better training and development programs).
Create
a plan for minimizing possible resistance to your change management plan.
Elaborate
on the relationship between resistance to change and communication.
Evaluate
three (3) communication strategies.
Recommend
one (1) communication strategy that would be applicable to your
organization (WALMART). Diagnose why this communication strategy is best
for your organization.
Create
a solid communication plan for your change initiative.
Use
at least four (4) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia
and other similar Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Note: If you choose to submit a video
presentation, please also submit a one (1) page summary of your presentation.
If you choose the
written paper, your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed,
double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins
on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific
format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a
cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the
professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the
reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
27. Fraud Prevention and Detection Plan
Scenario
– You went back to your corporate controllership position with Dingwow Inc.
Senior Management has assigned you as the team lead to develop a fraud
prevention and detection plan for the company.
Use the Internet, to research the key elements of a fraud
prevention and detection program, and prepare a plan.
Write an eight to nine (8 – 9) page paper in which you:
Evaluate the key elements that should
be included in the plan, including a justification as to how the element is
likely to protect corporate assets and minimize risk based on your research.
Create an argument to be presented to
the senior leadership in support of a fraud prevention and detection plan,
indicating the consequences of failure to implement the plan. Provide support
for your argument.
Create an approach to identify the
roles and responsibilities of key personnel in the organization, indicating the
significance of each role in the fraud prevention and detection equation.
Provide support for your rationale.
Compare the roles of management,
internal auditors, external auditors, governing bodies, and the board of
directors, and assess how each can contribute to your fraud prevention and
detection plan.
Evaluate the tools that you would
propose to use to make your plan more effective in mitigating or eliminating
fraud and how you would justify the risk / reward ratio of each tool
recommended.
Prepare a fraud prevention and
detection plan based on your findings, indicating how you would communicate the
plan to employees throughout the organization.
Predict the future occurrences of
corporate fraud and the likelihood that it will be detected by regulatory
agencies based on your research. Provide support for your rationale.
Use
at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment.
NOTE:
Wikipedia and similar Websites do NOT
qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment
must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times
New Roman font (size 12), with 1” margins on all sides; citations and
references must follow APA
The cover page containing the title of
the assignment, and the reference page are NOT
included in the required assignment page length.
The specific
course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Create an approach to implementing a
fraud detection plan.
Research and analyze the impact of
fraud on financial reporting within a corporation.
Examine the role that corporate
governance plays in preventing and detecting fraud.
Research and analyze the impact of
fraud prevention and detection using forensic accounting practices.
Create strategies for communicating
the prevention and detection of fraud.
Use technology and information
resources to research issues in fraud prevention and detection.
Write clearly and concisely about
fraud prevention and detection using proper writing mechanics.
28. Philosophical explication and
analysis of the first chapter of “Being and Some Philosophers” by
Etienne Gilson (refer to instructions for specifications).
Instruction
Prompt:
The goal of this essay is to understand and explicate, in your own words, what
Gilson has to say in the first chapter. This essay should explain the argument
that Gilson makes and comment on the significance of his analysis. In your
essay you will be expected to touch on the following three problems:
1.
What does Gilson mean by the “existential neutrality” of our
conceptual knowledge? How does this frame the problem that Gilson intends to
study in “Being and some Philosophers”?
2.
What is Parmenides’ answer to the question, “what is being”? How is
Plato the heir and continuator of Parmenides?
3.
How does plato give rise to the Neo-Platonic “metaphysics of the
One”? What problems does such a metaphysics pose for a Christian thinker?
Specifications:
This
essay should be 6-8 pages (double spaced), 12 point in the “Times New Roman”
font, with one inch margins, plagiarism free, and proofread. Helpful Tip:
Gilson’s book is a philosophical analysis of the ways that various philosophers
have understood the meaning of being in the Platonic tradition. His goal is to
present not a history of metaphysics, but rather a thinking through of the
views of several historical philosophers.
29. ChE 230Problem Set 3
Optimization
75 Points. You are to optimize a series of two heat
exchangers. The first heat exchanger uses low-pressure steam as a utility. The
second heat exchanger uses medium-pressure steam. The third uses high-pressure
steam. Together, the heat exchangers must bring a 1.5 kg/s stream of Dowtherm
from 25C to 220C. Dowtherm has a heat capacity of 6.0 .
Both types of steam enter as a saturated vapor and leave as a saturated liquid
(so the utility stream does not change temperature). The following table
summarizes the relevant properties:
lps
mps
hps
Temp (C)
160
187
254
Cost
$13.28/GJ
$14.19/GJ
$17.70/GJ
Heat
exchangers are costed by their area. To determine the area, the following
design equation must be used
Where is the heat duty, is the overall heat transfer coefficient (, is the area of the heat exchanger, and is the log-mean temperature difference.
See the following diagram for more
information.
Heat exchangers are costed according to the
following equation
where A is area in m2.
Since there are two intermediate
temperatures, this is a multivariable optimization. You are to optimize this
system two ways:
Set , then minimize
the EAOC with respect to using golden
search. Once you get the optimal, keep that
constant, and minimize the EAOC with respect to , again using
golden search. Repeat this process once more to see if the optimal temperatures
change. This is called a “greedy” optimization. (Greedy because you only look
at one variable over all others at a time.) Was this technique effective for
this system?
Use
a grid search to minimize the EAOC with respect to both temperatures
simultaneously. You can then use solver or fmincon to see how closely the
solutions match.
30. Self-Defense Essay for Criminal
Law
Instruction
Instructions:
You have been asked to give a lecture to a group of first-time gun owners about
self-defense. Explain when force may be used in self-defense. What about deadly
force? How will you instruct the session differently if you are in a
stand-your-ground jurisdiction? -1000 word minimum, 1500 maximum length.
-FORMAT: Set in APA or MLA format, typed in Times New Roman 12-point font, 1”
margins, Double-spaced, Spell-checked, and Proofread. -Plagiarism will not be
tolerated on any assignment. Always cite your sources. -No images. Create a
successful academic prose that is readable, coherent, and grammatically
appropriate for the college level. Begin by introducing the topic.
(Introduction) You will then use a minimum of three (3) resources to gather
facts about the topic. (Body) Finally, you will report your findings.
(Conclusion)
31. Business
When a business is
not focused on sustainability, value may be solely determined outside its
customers’ interest in green behavior. Suppose a restaurant makes a
great-tasting hamburger. Very few of its customers might care whether or not
the restaurant engages in green business practices. However, what if there are
two restaurants that make equally great-tasting burgers, but one is green while
the other is not? Many customers may choose the green business, because the
business adds value to its offerings by engaging in sustainable practices. In
the case of sustainable products, meaning those products made with an effort to
be environmentally and socially responsible, sustainability plays a large role
in the customers’ decisions to buy, and tends to be central to the company’s
brand.
Instruction
Identify
a Saudi business that may not yet be focused on sustainability. Suppose this
company decides it would like to deliver products that are more socially,
environmentally, and economically superior. In a 4-5 page paper, not including
the cover and reference pages, present the company with the total value
proposition from a sustainability perspective. In that total value proposition,
include a discussion of use values and nonuse values for the business’ green
products. How should the business determine WTP, WTA, or consumer surplus? Your
required readings this week provide insight which will aid you in your
analysis. Make sure to cite and reference any information gleaned from those
documents. Additionally, include two current and scholarly sources beyond the
course materials and readings to support your analysis. Current sources are
those published in the most recent five years. Scholarly sources come from
peer’s reviewed journals. Use Saudi Electronic University academic writing
standards and APA style guidelines, citing references as appropriate.
32. Capital Financing
Description
Does
financial innovation in health care improve productivity and consumer
welfare the way technological innovation does? Why or why not?
33. Healthcare and Macroeconomics
Description
Which of the factors given below is more
important in determining how much to spend on medical care:
How
sick people are.
How
much money is available.
Who should be determining which factor is more
important? Why?
34. STAT 3502 C –
Assignment 2 Carleton University Winter 2019
1. (5 points) Let
X be a positive and continuous random variable for which E[X] exists. Show
that: E[X] = Z ∞ 0 (1 − F(x))dx, where F is the cdf of X.
2. Customers
arrive at a checkout counter in a department store according to a Poisson
distribution. Let X be the number of customers arrivals during a one-hour
period such that X ∼ P oisson(λ),
(a) (4 points) Show that Var(X) = λ.
(b) Let λ = 7.
During a given hour, what are the probabilities that:
i. (4 points) no
more than three customers arrive?.
ii. (4 points) at
least two customers arrive?.
iii. (4 points) exactly five customers
arrive?.
3. (6 points)
Past experience shows that the number of accidents per month is modelled by a
random variable N with p(n) = P(N = n) = 1/ (n + 1)(n + 2),
where n = 0, 1,
2, …. Calculate the probability of at least one accident during a particular
month, given that there have been at most five accidents during that month.
4. (6 points) The
annual rainfall (in inches) is normally distributed with µ = 40 and σ = 4.
Assuming rainfalls are independent from year to year, what is the probability
that starting with this year, it will take more than 10 years before a year
occurs having a rainfall of over 50 inches?
5. Headway time (HT) (in seconds) in a traffic
flow (time elapsed between the passage by a fixed point of two successive cars)
has pdf f(x) = αλα (λ + x) α+1 , where x ≥ 0, α > 0, and λ > 0.
(a) (4 points) Check this actually is a pdf.
(b) (4 points)
Compute HT’s cdf.
(c) Let α = 0.5
and λ = 10
i. (4 points) What is the probability of HT
above 7 sec.
ii. (4 points)
What is the probability of HT between 2 and 6 sec?
iii. (5 points)
Find an expression of the (100p)th percentile.
iv. (4 points)
Find the HT’s median.
v. (4 points) 75%
of the HT are below which value?
6. (6 points) * A
baseball team has scheduled its opening game for April 1. If it rains on April
1, the game is postponed and will be played on the next day that it does not
rain. The team purchases insurance against rain. The policy will pay 1000 for
each day, up to 2 days, that the opening game is postponed. The insurance
company determines that the number of consecutive days of rain beginning on
April 1 is a Poisson random variable with mean 0.7. What is the standard
deviation of the amount the insurance company will have to pay?
7. (6 points)
Suppose you throw a die and say that you have success if you get 5 or 6. You
want to get two such successes. What is the probability that you need exactly
10 tries for this?
8. Suppose that
25% of all students at a large public university receive financial aid. If 65
students are sampled,
(a) (5 points)
What is the probability that at most 10 of them receive aid? (Use normal
approximation to binomial).
(b) (5 points)
What is the approximate probability that between 5 and 15 (inclusive) receive
aid.
9. In an assembly-line production of
industrial robots, gearbox assembles can be installed in 1 minute each if holes
have been properly drilled in the boxes and in 10 minutes if the holes must be
redrilled. Twenty gearboxes are in stock, 2 with improperly drilled holes. Five
gearboxes must be selected from the 20 that are available for installation in
the next five robots.
(a) (5 points) Find the probability that all 5
gearboxes will fit properly.
(b) (5 points)
Find the mean, variance and standard deviation of the time it takes to install
these 5 gearboxes. (Hint: Denote by X the number of improperly drilled
gearboxes in the sample of 5, determine the distribution of X, and represent
the total time as a function of X.)
10. (6 points)
The number of years a certain type of TV functions is exponentially distributed
with an average lifetime of 6 years. If Jones buys a used TV (3-year old, say),
what is the probability that it will be working after an additional 6 years?
(Comment: You will find that this probability is the same as the probability
that the TV will function after 6 years from the beginning. That is, the TV
does not actually get old. This is the so-called memoryless property of
exponential distribution.)
Problems marked
by a star are inspired from old actuarial exams.
35. ITS 835 Enterprise Risk Assessment
Final Research Paper
Write a research paper on the topic: What are the main drivers for successful
ERM implementations in organizations?
Your research paper should be
minimally 6 pages (double space, Font – Georgia with font size 12). The
research paper needs to refer to the following sources
Rubino, M.
(2018). A comparison of the Main ERM frameworks: Howq Limitations and Weakness can be Overcome
Implementing IT GOvernance. Internation Journal of Business and Management,
13(12).
In addition the
research paper needs to minimally refer to 3 peer reviewedq journal papers
The following case studies from your
book need to be referenced in your research paper
Chapter 30,
“Alleged Corruption at Chessfield: Corporate Governance and theq Risk Oversight Role of the Board of
Directors”
Chapter 31,
“Operational Risk Management Case Study: Bon Boulangerie”q
Chapter 34,
“Turning Crisis into Opportunity: Building an ERM Program atq General Motors”
In addition you
need to refer to at least two other case studies that we haveq covered so far in the course
The research needs to minimally
discuss the role of the following factors in successful ERM
implementations
Corporate
governance
Risk frameworks
such as COSO, ISO 31000q
Information
Technology
Operational
factors
Please do not describe the case
studies from the book but focus on elaborating on key points and examples from
the case studies that support the research topic.
The bibliography should be included as
a separate page and is not part of the 6 page requirement. Student assignments
will be run through Safe Assignment. Please ensure to check the safe assignment
result prior to submitting
36. HCM 4025
E-Prescribing
E-prescribing is the
transmission of prescription or prescription-related information using
electronic media between a prescriber, dispenser, pharmacy benefit manager, or
health plan, either directly or through an intermediary, including an
e-prescribing network.
In an effort to
understand the benefits and cautions about e-prescribing, conduct thorough
research. For your assignment, create a 4- to 5-page report in Microsoft Word
document consisting of your research findings covering your responses to the
following questions:
Evaluate three pros and three cons of e-prescribing.
Summarize the e-prescription standards as described by the National
Council for Prescription Drug Programs.
Evaluate the projected cost and time savings as estimated by the
United States Department of Health and Human Services.
Comment on the controversy surrounding the 2013 e-prescribing
penalty.
Use the following
resources, and 2 outside resources and your text book for this assignment.
Ratanawongsa, N.,
Lenny L. S. Chan, Fouts, M. M., & Murphy, E. J. (2017). The challenges of
electronic health records and diabetes electronic prescribing: Implications for
safety net care for diverse populations.Journal of Diabetes Research, 2017doi:10.1155/2017/8983237
Juszczyk, D.,
Charlton, J., McDermott, L., Soames, J., Sultana, K., Ashworth, M., . . .
Gulliford, M. C. (2016). Electronically delivered, multicomponent intervention
to reduce unnecessary antibiotic prescribing for respiratory infections in
primary care: A cluster randomized trial using electronic health records-REDUCE
trial study original protocol.BMJ Open, 6(8)
doi:http://dx.doi.org.southuniversity.libproxy.edmc.edu/10.1136/bmjopen-2015-010892
Support your
responses with examples in a 3-6 page APA formatted Word Document. Include an
introduction and conclusion. Cite any sources in APA format.
37. M7a3
Assignment 3: Course Project Task XII
Final Submission
It’s now time to complete your
dissertation paper. In the previous modules, you tried different statistical
analyses as possible approaches for your final prospectus.
Now, submit your Final Prospectus
Project including a cover page and the following subheadings:
An abstract of the prospectus project.
Introduction: A one-page overview of
the background theory, definitions, and questions for the study.
Goals: A one-page summary of specific
goals and hypotheses for the study.
Sampling and sample size: In one to
two pages, describe your sample size and the sample. Address the following
points:
Who, how, and how many?
How did you come to these decisions?
How does your proposed sample size
relate to the planned power?
Operational definitions of variables
included in your study, which are as follows.
Independent variables (IVs): What they
are and how are they measured or defined in the actual research operations of
your study? For example, what exactly are the treatments being compared? Give
specifics of how they vary in such things as intensity, content, and length and
cite supportive references for background information including the effect
sizes. This will depend on the number and types of IVs and levels or categories
of each.
Dependent variables (DVs): What they
are and how are they measured in the actual research operations of your study?
How was the measurement technique developed? What are the reliabilities,
validities (citing supportive resources), and level of measurement of each
measure? Is the resulting score a single item score or a composite score? How
do you interpret the score? Are there norms available for interpreting the
score? What were the known relationships between and among the measures prior
to your data collection? Are there covariates (CVs) you plan to use? If so, how
are these measured and what are all the details of these measures (repeat all
the questions for the DVs)? This again will depend on the number of DVs.
However, sufficient information should be given for each to answer all these
questions. This could take several pages.
Procedures: Detail exactly how you
plan to develop measurements (if not already developed) and to obtain
participants or observations. How are your procedures compatible with ethical
and legal standards of research including institutional review board (IRB)
expectations? (This could be two pages long if no new development instrument is
being developed, but it could be longer if you need to detail such things as
these procedures and the establishment of reliability.)
Results: Detail your plans for using
statistical analyses to evaluate each of your research questions or hypotheses.
How will you assemble and prepare your data for SPSS analysis? Given your
statistical analysis(es), how will you do such things as screen data, make any
necessary modifications in the database, and compute composite scores, if
necessary? How will you proceed with your statistical analysis(es)? Give sample
outcome tables (with dummy data) that would be part of what you would be
presenting if you were reporting this as actual study results. Depending on the
study and the statistical methods used, this could be two to three pages long
for each question or hypothesis. However, this is variable.
Discussion: Point out possible
limitations or problems with your design and any ideas for ways to improve on
them. (This could be, at most, two pages long.)
Appendix: Include copies of your test
instruments and/or other supporting information.
Your Final Prospectus Project should
be of 10–15 pages (plus Appendix, if included). Present it in Microsoft Word.
Name your file R7034_M7_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc. Submit it to
theSubmissions Area by the due date assigned.
Note:
Your facilitator will assign you one research proposal submitted by a classmate
for peer review in Module 8.
All written assignments and responses
should follow APA rules for attributing sources.
Assignment 3 Grading Criteria Maximum Points Provided an introduction with an adequate
summary of the introductory background theory, definitions, and questions for
the study.8Identified and described specific goals and hypotheses for the
study8Described and justified sampling and sample size.12Identified and
operationally defined all variables to be used or measured in the study and
addressed relevant questions for IVs and DVs12Analyzed and described a plan to
develop measurements and explained how the procedures are compatible with IRB
expectations16Identified and justified statistical analyses to be used to
evaluate each of the research questions or hypotheses.16Provided a discussion
of possible limitations or problems with the design.16Included flawless copies
of test instruments, projected assignment activities with a timeline, and/or
other supporting information.12Wrote in a clear, concise, and organized manner;
demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of
sources, displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.4Total:104
38. Research Paper
Develop
a Complete Disaster Recovery Plan to be submitted to the executive board of
your company.
Only
MS Word (.doc, .docx) and Adobe Acrobat (PDF) formats are acceptable.
Please
note that this is a formal writing, all references (peer-reviewed) mostly must
be cited appropriately within the text and clearly avoid plagiarism.
The
paper should have a minimum of 10 pages, 1.5 spacing and Times New Roman
font.
A
minimum of 5 peer review references must be provided. Reference style is
APA.
With
also 10 slides of PPT. Slides may also contain visuals and/or graph content to
enhance your presentation. Include speaker notes of at least 50 words per
slide. Use 12-point Times New Roman and APA citations and reference page.
39. Discussions
Discussion Topic 1
During the Great Recession of 2008–2009, (1) what actions would have
been required of Congress and the President had a balanced budget amendment to
the Constitution been ratified? (2) What
impact would that have had on the unemployment rate?
Discussion Topic 2
Explain how decr
Discussion Topic 2
Explain how decreased domestic investments that occur due to a budget deficit will
affect future economic growth.
40. M7a2
Assignment 2: Prospectus Project Task XI
Planning
Discriminant Analysis or Logistic Regression Analysis
In
this project task, you will formulate a research question for your study that
would be compatible with the use of either a discriminant analysis or logistic
regression analysis of selected data.
For
this assignment, write a response to the following points:
Identify one dependent variable (DV) or
criterion variable and three predictor variables from your selected
variable set that would fit the requirements of discriminant analysis or
logistic regression analysis. Create new variables if you don’t have
exactly what you would need to do this type of analysis.
State your research question in a manner
compatible with the selected type of classification analysis.
Elaborate on your design for using
discriminant analysis or logistic regression analysis for your study.
Describe and justify the methods you propose for each of the following
(discuss any possible concerns or limitations in the proposed methods):
Determining sufficient sample
size: Specify considerations for the selected alpha level, desired power,
desired effect size, and the validation checks you may plan.
Selecting a sample: How would
you ensure representativeness?
Performing statistical analyses:
Include the method to be used and validation checks.
Screening data and evaluating
assumptions: Are any data transformations or modifications required? If
yes, describe.
Interpreting the outcomes in
relation to the stated hypothesis(es).
Present
the response in Microsoft Word. Name the file
R7034_M7_A2_LastName_FirstInitial.doc and submit it to the Discussion
Area by the due date assigned.
Through the end of the module, review your
partner’s research question description and design for using a discriminant analysis
or logistic regression analysis. Post a response addressing the following
points:
What are the challenges and strengths in
the design of your partner?
How does the design promote sample
representativeness?
What are your thoughts about the proposed
sample size?
How will the methods for analyses serve
the goals of the study?
All
written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing
sources.
Assignment 2 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsAccurately
identified one DV or criterion variable and three predictor variables that
would fit the requirements of discriminant analysis or logistic regression
analysis.8Accurately identified and described the research question for design
in a manner compatible with the selected type of classification analysis.8Determined
a procedure for planning a sample size appropriate to the scope of the study
and the alpha level8Identified and clearly described any concerns or
limitations of the plan.8Determined a procedure for sample selection consistent
with the underlying assumptions of representativeness and identified any
concerns and limitations in the plan.8Identified and justified the
classification analysis method to be used and described a technique for
validating the results.8Determined a procedure for data screening and the
evaluation of assumptions and described any data transformations or
modifications required.8Justified a method for interpreting outcomes in
relation to the stated hypothesis(es).8Evaluated and critiqued partner’s plans
indicating strengths and limitations in the design, sample size, sample
selection, and the chosen method of analysis.16Wrote in a clear, concise, and
organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation
and attribution of sources, displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and
punctuation.
41. Costing Method
Use the
Internet to research the annual report of at least one (1) merchandising
company. Determine which costing method (Last In First Out [LIFO], First
In First Out [FIFO], or weighted average cost) that is used to record
inventory by your selected company.
Identify the
three (3) primary advantages and three (3) primary disadvantages of using
the costing method (LIFO, FIFO, and weighted average) that is used to
record inventory.
Provide
support for your response.
42. HCM4012
Workforce Shortage
Clickhereto read the health
care workforce shortage and its implications on America’s hospitals, at the
American Hospitals Association’s (AHA) website.
Select a hospital,
which is not more than two hours away from your place of residence. Based on
your readings and understanding, create a 5- to 6-page report in a Microsoft
Word document, that includes:
A plan for a rural,
medium-sized hospital to deal with short- and long-term workforce shortages.
Your plan should
include the following elements:
Introduction
Problem description of the healthcare workforce shortage and its
implications
The aspects that need immediate attention and aspects that need
long-term attention
Provide a rationale on why these aspects need attention
A description of the financial implications for these issues
Evaluation of alternatives with an explanation of the risks
associated with these problems
Your recommendations to solve these problems
An explanation of the methods to measure the success of the
plan
A description of the next steps, if the plan failed
Conclusion
Reference list
To support your work,
use your course and textbook readings and also use the South University Online
Library. As in all assignments, cite your sources in your work and provide
references for the citations in APA format.
Submission Details:
Your assignment should be addressed in an
5- to 6-page document.
Based
on what you read in the text, in at least 150 words, discuss three things you
agree with or disagree with, or a mix of agree/disagree.
Use
at least three key terms in bold from your text in your post.
44. M7a1
Assignment 1: SPSS Discriminant Analysis
While
regression analysis evaluates the ability of multiple predictor variables to
predict values on a single continuous variable, discriminant analysis evaluates
the ability of multiple predictor variables to predict classification on a
single categorical variable. Discriminant analysis can also be viewed as the
reverse of a MANOVA: In MANOVA, the IVs are the groups and the DVs are the
predictors. In DA, the IVs are the predictors and the DVs are the
groups. (In order to avoid semantic confusion, it’s easier to refer to IVs
as the predictors—or discriminating variables—and to DVs as the grouping
variables.)
The
emphases of MANOVA and DA are different. While MANOVA seeks to find a linear
combination of variables that will maximize the test statistic, DA is used to
establish the linear combination of dependent variables that maximally
discriminates among groups. DA is used to predict membership in naturally occurring
groups and to determine if a combination of variables can reliably predict
group membership. Several variables are included in a study to see which ones
best contribute to the discrimination between groups.
As
with factor analysis, discriminant functions are identified through the
analysis, but it remains for the researcher to provide a meaningful
interpretation and labeling of these.
Use
the Discussion
Area to ask for help in completing the tasks from your
classmates and the facilitator; likewise, offer your suggestions to those
asking for help. Participating in this community of scholars will help you
clarify processes, solve problems, and gain the immediate reinforcement you
need to quickly solidify gains that you’re making in working with multiple variables
and advanced statistics.
Open
the Statistical Package for the Social Sciences (SPSS) data file created in M6:
Assignment 1. Use the following variables:
Create
a Grouping Criterion Variable: Using the continuous data for Number of Previous
Hospitalizations, transform this into categorical data by assigning patients to
different categorical groups. You will add a new variable to your data file,
which indicates which group each case falls into. For example, use the
descriptive statistics and frequency information for the number of
hospitalizations to decide your cut-offs for scores to define each group and
then to assign patients to a group such as Group 1 (lower number of
hospitalizations), Group 2 (medium number of hospitalizations), and Group 3
(higher number of hospitalizations) or you may consider quartiles, a median
split, and dividing by standard deviation units. Justify your method.
Select
five (or more, if justified) continuous variables to use as predictor variables
for your analysis. Briefly justify your choices.
Conduct
a discriminant analysis of these data. Use the same methods and choices found
in the textbook’s sample study. Include tests for homogeneity of group
variances.
Save
the SPSS file as R7034_M7_A1_LastName_FirstInitial.sav.
Prepare
a two- to three-page (plus Appendix for tables) response, which presents a
summary report of the following information:
State a research question that could be
studied using the specified variables for a discriminant analysis.
Report the results of prescreens for the
missing data, multivariate outliers (Mahalanobis distance), univariate
normality, and linearity (bivariate scatter plots). Indicate if any
transformations or other decisions are required.
In your Appendix, report group
descriptive statistics, analysis of variance (ANOVA) summary tables,
summary of steps, eigenvalues, Wilks’ lambda table, standardized
discriminant function coefficients, cannonical correlation or structure
matrix, classification of results, and discriminant function means.
Summarize the results of the discriminant
analysis, including an interpretation of discriminant functions. Compare
the outcomes in terms of the research question.
Create
your response in Microsoft Word. Name your file
R7034_M7_A1_LastName_FirstInitial.doc. Submit your response to the Discussion Area
by the
due date assigned.
All
written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing
sources.
Assignment 1 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsCorrectly
created a nominal variable for number of hospitalizations and assigned cases to
each group.4Identified and justified choice of continuous variables to use as
predictor variables for the DA.4Accurately interpreted the results of
prescreens for the missing data, multivariate outliers, univariate normality,
and linearity.8Conducted discriminant analysis and reported the results
correctly for group descriptive statistics, ANOVA summary tables, summary of
steps, eigenvalues, Wilks’ lambda table, standardized discriminant function
coefficients, correlation coefficients or structure matrix, classification of
results, and discriminant function means.36Presented an informative narrative
summary of the analysis.24Participated actively in the Discussion
Area by asking for or providing clarification of a response,
addressing gaps, offering suggestions, and asking for help, as needed.8Wrote in
a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in
accurate representation and attribution of sources, displayed accurate
spelling, grammar, and punctuation.4Total:88
45. PURPOSE-DRIVEN MARKETING Portfolio
Essay
My Portfolio
MARKETING STRATEGY. Imagine you work at a large multi-brand
company of your choosing (e.g., Apple, Nestle, Unilever). (a) BRAND DEVELOPMENT
STRATEGIES. Imagine you are hired as a Brand Manager for any one brand at the
company. Name the brand (e.g., iPhone). Using the slide titled “4 Brand
Development Strategies,” detail 4 pathways to grow the Brand. (i) LINE
EXTENSION. (ii) BRAND EXTENSION. (iii) MULTIBRAND. (iv) NEW BRAND. (v) Rank
order the anticipated success of these 4 strategies and explain your reasoning.
(b) BUSINESS GROWTH STRATEGIES. Flash forward a few years, imagine you are now
promoted to a Vice President position for a region of your choosing. Name the
region (e.g., USA). Using the slide titled “4 Strategies for Growing
Businesses,” detail 4 pathways to grow the Company. (i) MARKET PENETRATION.
(ii) PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT. (iii) MARKET DEVELOPMENT. (iv) DIVERSIFICATION. (v)
Rank order the anticipated success of these 4 strategies and explain your
reasoning.
PURPOSE-DRIVEN INNOVATION. Think of a purpose-driven innovation in each
of the following market categories: (a) TRANSPORTATION, (b) FOOD AND BEVERAGES,
and (c) PERSONAL CARE. Within each category, answer these questions. (i)
CATEGORY INNOVATION. Describe the status quo in the product category, your
purpose, and your innovation. (ii) TARGET MARKET. Identify the consumer segment
who will be the most likely to value your category innovation. Use demographic,
geographic, psychographic, and/or behavioral variables to define this segment.
(iii) ANTICIPATED RESPONSE. Anticipate the response and resistance to your
innovation from other relevant stakeholders (e.g., activists, employees,
communities, governments, journalists). (iv) PROMOTION MIX. Explain how you
would promote this innovation to ensure that it is a success. The slide
entitled “Promotion Mix” could serve as a checklist of options.
MAKING THE PITCH. A key step in any marketing project is
pitching your ideas to your colleagues, bosses, partners, and funders. Watch
any 3 pitches from the TV show Shark Tank on YouTube. You just need to watch
the pitch, not the investor negotiations. (a) LINKS. List weblinks for the 3
pitches you selected. (b) THE LEAST EFFECTIVE. In your opinion, which pitch was
the least effective and why? If you were to redo the least effective pitch,
what would you do differently? (c) THE MOST EFFECTIVE. Which pitch was the most
effective and why? If you were to redo the most effective pitch to make it even
better, what would you do differently? (d) PITCHING EXPERIENCE. Describe any
experience you have had pitching a new idea to a tough audience and what you
learned from the experience. (e) MY PITCH. As an entrepreneur, you are seeking
venture capital for a new business idea. Please write a short elevator pitch.
CAREER ADVANCEMENT. Find 5 different job ads (internships or
permanent jobs) in marketing or other business areas that interest you. Aim for
as much variety as possible. At least one of these jobs should be at a global
company (e.g., Nestle, P&G, Unilever, etc.). At least one of these jobs
should be at a relatively small company in NYC. (a) JOB ADS. Provide web links
to the descriptions of each of these 5 jobs. (b) VALUES-BASED SELECTION. Which of
these jobs most closely aligns with your personal values and how? (c) LIKELY
HURDLES. Identify all the educational, experiential, psychological, and
practical hurdles you might face in securing these jobs. (d) MY NEXT STEPS.
Enumerate the steps that you are going to take to overcome these hurdles and
get these jobs in the next few months.
PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT. (a) COURSE SLIDES. From all the slides
discussed in the course so far, elaborate on 3 course slides that could be helpful for
your personal or professional goals. Describe when, where, and/or how you might
use the slide. (b) CHARACTER STRENGTHS. Describe 3 character strengths that you think you have
improved upon during this course. Describe where you used to be, how you have
progressed, and how you hope to develop next. (c) WELL-BEING PILLARS. Do the pillars of well-being exercise. Identify at
least 3 actionable insights you learn about your current circumstances.
Directions for Portfolios
Each portfolio consists of five projects. The recommended word
count is at minimum 1000 words per project (or 5000 per portfolio). The
projects are purposefully open to customization. Students are free to make
adaptations to match their specific career interests.
Evaluation criteria. The grade is determined as follows: 50% for completion + 50% for
quality. What constitutes high quality in business is necessarily defined by
competition. That said, here are some typical quality markers:
readability;
shorter sentences are generally clearer than longer ones
logic; all of
the assumptions and arguments make sense
concepts and
frameworks from the slides and beyond (e.g., Changing
Minds)
all concepts
and frameworks are explained before they are applied
several
different sources of data and insights from appropriate sources
useful
examples to illustrate the key points
no long quotes,
which signal an inability to synthesize
elegant
presentation, including clear organization and consistent formatting
conceptual
illustrations (e.g., process maps, comparison tables)
photographs
or other images that provide evidence or animate key ideas
Examples. Students who have limited exposure to professional business
reports are encouraged to review examples before producing their own.
Submission checklist. Consider these items before you submit:
Does your
cover page include your own name?
Does your
table of contents list page numbers for each project?
Does each
project begin on a new page?
Are your
sources cited in the text and referenced in a works cited page?
Do your
citations/references use a standard format (e.g., MLA)?
Is most of
the text in a readable 10-12 font size?
Is your text
single-spaced like most professional reports?
Is each part
clearly numbered (1, 2, 3…/a, b, c…/i, ii, iii…)?
Is each part
clearly titled to help guide the reader?
Have you run
a spelling and grammar check?
46. Movie Critical Review
Watch
the following film and write a 2-page reaction paper/review.
Salt of the Earth: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n3VPWmqaOb4
47. Case Study
APA STYLE- 2
Pages
Synthesis: Suggest ways
to improve/strengthen your chosen solution (may use information not contained
within the scenario). Scenario: Security at All Pine Medical Center.
Questions:
a. Identify
concepts and ideas from multiple sources that improve or strengthen your
solution.
b.
Identify any new found information and the impact that new information may or
may not have on your solution.
c.
Identify potential missing information and the impact that missing information
may or may not have on your solution.
48. Macro Econ Discussion
Go to the internet and find a news article
published within the last three monthsthat discusses balancing the federal
budget of the U.S. and fiscal policy, summarize key points and post in the
Discussions area. Discuss the current level of the Federal budget deficit
and the implications of the deficit. Support a proposal for addressing
these concerns.
Reflection – the students also should include
a paragraphin the initial
responsein their own words
reflecting on specifically what they learned from the assignment and how they think
they could apply what they learned in the workplace.
49. Research Paper
Develop
a Complete Disaster Recovery Plan to be submitted to the executive board of
your company.
The
paper should have a minimum of 10 pages and APA format. A minimum of 5
peer reviewed references in APA.
50. “Nike Sweatshops: Behind The
Swoosh” (300 Words) Reflection
Watch
the videos below and write a 300-word individual reflection discussing
two most poignant/surprising things you learned from this video.
You can focus on Jim Keady’s story and mission, any new perspectives this opens
for you, and how the issue connects with international business (law) and
corporate social responsibility.
In
this video, Jim Keady, a renowned speaker on social injustice, recounts his
experience living in Indonesia for a month on Nike sweatshop worker
wages.
Using your
Beyond the Book Guide, course materials, and online resources, assume the role
of the office manager and provide the following information for your staff to
ensure they understand the electronic record keeping systems used in the
medical office. What is a practice management system
(PMS) used for in a medical office? How is a PMS related to an electronic
health record (EHR) system? Name 2 uses for computers and software
programs in a medical office in addition to the electronic health record
entries and explain what is meant by a computer back up and why it is important
in a medical office. What is meant by supply chain management and
why is it important in a healthcare organization?
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EMAN 620 –
Information Technology in Emergency Management
Module # 5
Mapping
Exercise
Due
at the end of Module # 5
Goal:
The Goal of this exercise is to
familiarize the student with online tools that help organize and display
information on a map in a short time frame.
The tool I recommend you use is Google Earth. You will be creating a map after an act of
terrorism has occurred.
Objectives:
The objectives of this exercise are
to:
Explore a online mapping platform like
Google Earth
Identify Key Features for a functional
site map
Produce a map with a legend that is
clear, readable and has value to commanders and responders
Background
Scenario:
A “ Dirty bomb “ has been detonated
directly in front of the White house in Washington D.C . This occurred at 10
a.m. on 04-20-(this year). The President was not at the White House during the
blast. It is utter chaos, with DC Fire/EMS responding.
Your role is the Emergency manager for
the City of Washington D.C. Within minutes of the attack you activate all
emergency functions. At 13:00 you are expected to provide a briefing to the
Mayor of D.C., and the President of the United States at a nearby facility. You
have been asked to keep your brief short with a single map that portrays the
situation and the response effort.
Your initial assessment reveals that
there is damage to buildings within a ¼ mile.
There are currently 86 fatalities and 200+ injured.
There happens to be absolutely no wind
on the day. However you are still concerned about the potential for radiation
exposure. Your staff recommends a “ hot zone” with a mile radius. That means
everything inside that area has potential for radiation.
Your overall task is to create a
status map for the purpose of:
Assuming you watched the video and
have downloaded Google Desk Top
If you cannot access Google Maps you
can use another map making program to produce your map or you can create a
paper map.
Review the scenario. More than enough
information available.
Email or text me with any questions.
Create a status map that provides a
snapshot of the situation. A few things you should consider
The immediate impact zone
The “ hot zone” i.e. suspected
contamination zone
Points of ingress/egress for rescuers
Staging area for rescue areas
De-contamination area for
people/equipment leaving
Temporary Debris Storage area. This
should be a large area of debris from the rescue effort can be temporarily
stockpiled.
Create a legend, Title and any other
required formatting.
Deliverables:
By the end of Module # 5 you are to
submit a file (yes PDF is ok) in the assignment folder with your result. The
file should contain the Map with a legend that is clear and easy to read.
Notes:
I purposely provided sparse
information. Take as many creative and
logical liberties as like to develop the scenario on your own. The point is
that you have to produce a single map – with what you feel is the most
important info to provide a snapshot of the situation. It’s up to you decide to what should go on
there.
The
Role of Stakeholders
What
are the stakeholders?
How
do the three primary stakeholder groups influence organizations?
What
steps would you take to effectively communicate a strategic plan?
Final
Strategic Plan
Create the Final Strategic
Plan. The Final Strategic Plan contains the elements of all the previous
weeks’ components and incorporates instructor feedback. However, this is
not a compilation or “cut-n-paste” of these prior papers. This
is intended to be a stand-alone project that builds upon your earlier
learnings. The strategic recommendations will be evaluated and the best options
chosen for the recommendation. The final strategic plan contains: (JP
Morgan Chase)
Executive Summary (Word
Document – 350 to 700 words)
Company Background
Mission Statement
Vision Statement
Value Statement
Environmental Scan
Internal and External
Environmental Analysis
Strategic Recommendation
Implementation Plan
Organizational Change
Management Strategies
Risk Management Plan
Conclusion
References
Create a 25- to 35-slide
Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with
speaker notes to present the strategic plan, combining all relevant elements
from previous weeks. The objective is to sell the strategic plan to investors
or company directors.
Format the assignment
according to APA guidelines. Support your assessments. Include a minimum of four
authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the
body of your presentation/speaker’s notes as in-text citations.
For the purpose of grading the project you are
required to perform the following tasks:
Step
Instructions
Points Possible
1
Start Excel. Open the downloaded Excel file
named e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons.xlsx. Save the file with the
name e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons_LastFirstreplacing LastFirst with
your last and first name. In the Security Warning bar, click Enable Content.
0.000
2
On the StudentData worksheet, select the range
A7:K94, and then name the range Student_Data. Create a named range
for each column in the Student_Data named range, using the top row as the range
values.
2.000
3
On the DataInputs worksheet, select the range
A3:B3, and then create a named range using the left column as the name.
Select the range A6:E10, and then create a named range using Lesson_Pricing as
the name.
Select the range A13:E17, and then create a named range using Trans_Fees as
the name.
Select the range A20:G24, and then create a named range using Uniform_Fees as
the name.
Select the range H6:J7, and then create a named range using Entry_Fee as
the name.
4.000
4
On the StudentData worksheet, in cell E5, add
a COUNTIF function to count the Teacher field in the
Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell E4. Copy the formula
through cell I5.
In cell K5, add a DCOUNTA function to count the StudentID field in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in the range D1:K2.
8.000
5
In cell K8, add a VLOOKUP function nested in
an IFERROR function to retrieve the price per hour, located in column 3 in
the Lesson_Pricing named range, for each student on the basis
of the student’s skill level, located in the Skill level field. The value
should be looking for an exact match. To prevent an error from being displayed
when the skill level is not known, use the IFERROR function to leave the cell
blank.
Copy the formula through cell K94.
On the LessonData worksheet, in cell F3, add a
MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve Skill_level of each
student listed in column B (StudentID). To prevent zeros from displaying when
the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions in an IF
function to leave the cell blank when the skill level equals 0. Copy the
formula through cell F121.
8.000
7
On the LessonData worksheet, in cell G3, add a
MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the total fee located in
the Lesson Pricing table on the DataInputs worksheet for each student listed in
column B depending on their lesson length and skill level. To prevent an error
from being displayed when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and
MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function, and display the default total fee
of $50. Copy the formula down to G121.
8.000
8
On the Report worksheet, in cell B3, add a
VLOOKUP function to look up the teacher’s name in the Student_Data table
for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact
match.
In cell B4, add an AVERAGEIF function to calculate the teacher’s (Teacher)
average in the Price_Per_Hour field for the teacher listed in
cell B3.
In cell B5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s skill level in
the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The
value should be looking for an exact match.
8.000
9
In cell B6, add a COUNTIF function to count
the StudentID field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria
in cell B2.
In cell B7, add a SUMIF function to sum the Total Fee field on the LessonData
worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.
In cell B8, add a two nested IF function to determine how many free lessons the
student has earned. If the student has had fewer than 5 total
lessons, display 0 earned. If the student has had less than 10 lessons,
display 1 earned; otherwise, display 2 earned.
9.000
10
In cell E5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up
the student’s uniform size in the Student_Data table for the
student listed in cell B2. The function should be looking for an exact match.
In cell E7, add a HLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s registration fee
in the Entry_Fee named range for the registration type in cell
E3. The function should be looking for an exact match.
In cell I13, add a COUNTIF function to count the number of uniforms in
the Uniform_Size column of the Student Data table that meet
the filter criteria in cell H12.
8.000
11
In cell I14, add a MATCH function nested in an
INDEX function to retrieve the uniform fee located in the Uniform_Fee table on
the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cells H12 and I13.
To prevent an error from displaying when no uniforms of the size located in H12
are needed, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function to
leave the cell blank. (Hint: Set the match type to 1.)
8.000
12
In cell B12, add a VLOOKUP function to
retrieve the student’s first name in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an
exact match.
In cell C12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s last name in
the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell
A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.
8.000
13
In cell D12, add a VLOOKUP function to
retrieve whether or not the student has a permission slip on file in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an
exact match.
In cell E12, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IF function to retrieve the
student’s uniform size. To prevent zeros from being displayed when the uniform
size is not known, nest the VLOOKUP function in an IF function to leave the
cell blank. The value should be looking for an exact match.
6.000
14
In cell F12, add an AND function nested in an
IF function to determine whether the student has a permission slip and a
uniform. If the student has a permission slip and the uniform size is not
blank, then display Yes in the field; otherwise, display No.
Highlight B12:F12 and then copy the formulas through cell range B38:F38.
6.000
15
In cell F39, add a COUNTIF function to
determine how many students are currently traveling to the competition as
indicated by Yes in cell range F12:F38.
In cell E8, add a MATCH function nested in an
INDEX function to retrieve the transportation fee located in the Trans_Fee
table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell E4 and
F39.
4.000
17
Click Save, exit Excel, and then submit your
file as directed by your instructor.
0.000
Total Points
100.000
List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen v List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenvvv List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv
Students will
write 2 analytical essays on their
chosen theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional
documents.
In Week 3,
students will submit a thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the
instructor for review. This pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be
required for Evaluative Essay 2.
Evaluative Essay
1 will cover the period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.
Evaluative Essay
2 will cover the period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.
Specific Requirements:
The evaluative
essay will consider assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those
sources using the topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this
assignment.
Format, Length and Organization:
Length: 750-1100 words (roughly
3-4 pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
Double spaced text, Times New
Roman, size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian:
Notes-Bibliography)
The paper should have a title
page, body, and bibliography page
Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography
style, format footnotes for the paper.
Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in
literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body
and conclusion:
Introduction should be one
paragraph and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong
thesis statement. The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
Body of the paper is a few
paragraphs (3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing
comparison and contrast of the assigned documents, as well as further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body
of the paper should provide specific examples and details from the
assigned sources.
Conclusion is the final
paragraph, restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the
paper, drawing conclusions for the reader. No new information.
Sources:
The textbook and lectures can be
used for basic background information, but the majority of supporting
details should be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic
document.
For Biblical analysis, you can
use your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using
Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation
(such as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).
Note
that no citation is needed for common knowledge information, but specific
examples, details, or arguments drawn from the assigned sources DO need proper
source citation.
Martin
Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the
door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation
needed)
The
Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories
that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always
reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees
rather than historians.[1] –
citation needed because this expresses a specific view or argument.
**If you are unsure of whether or not
a citation is needed, it is better to include the citation than to leave it
out. You can also contact your instructor for assistance.
[1]
Marvin Perry, et.al., Western
Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form)
E
WHY IS IT NOT
APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF
HISTORY?
Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your
team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.
Include the following in your paper:
Explain what factors can play a role in
organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
How do organizational processes give
rise to potential failures?
How can certain conditions influence
errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room,
pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
Implementation,
Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans
What
are some current and potential risks in the global environment that might
impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international
corporate-level strategies?
How
can organizations benefit from performing a political risk analysis?
Under
what conditions would it make sense to use a political weakness as an
opportunity to transfer operations in the home country to a new market?
What
are some potential advantages to implementing a cooperative strategy?
What might be some potential risks?
What
is a strategic network? What is a strategic center firm? How is a strategic
center used in business-level, corporate-level, and international cooperative strategies?
What
are the benefits of implementing International Cooperative Strategies? Why?
What
are political risks and what are economic risks? How should firms approach
dealing with these risks?
What
is a top management team, and how does it affect a firm’s performance and its
abilities to innovate and design and bring about effective strategic change?
Statistic
for business
You may use Minitab or other software for any calculations. However, you must
show your
manual calculations when asked. You may paste
your output onto your assignment to show your use of Minitab; however, this
output does not replace any of the steps outlined below. This means that
answers that are exclusively computer output may receive only one mark.
If you are performing a hypothesis test, make
sure you state the hypotheses, the level of significance, the rejection region,
the test statistic (and p-value, if requested), your decision (whether to
reject or not to reject the null hypothesis), and a conclusion that answers the
question posed or interprets the decision taken. These steps must be completed
in addition to any computer output.
The data in the Minitab data files can be
found in the file Assign1Data.xlsx.
Role of sport in
education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and
their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to
support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a
reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
Management
Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services
Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS) Project 1
is due at the end of Week 3. It is out of 30 marks. Required: Assume the role
of a partner in Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist
her with completing the analysis and developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a
report and supporting exhibits for Gretel, president of Holzmann Cleaning
Services (HCS), to analyze HCS’s current profitability and provide analysis of
the overhead allocations used. It should include the following: 1. Profit
analysis: Prepare a brief high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total
based on Exhibit 1 in the project details document. Your discussion should
highlight significant changes between 20X5 and 20X6 operations, and between
20X6 actual and 20X6 budgeted operations. (8 marks) 2. Costing analysis:
Prepare overall comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its
overhead and provide further analysis on ways in which the company can improve
its costing methods in order to assess and manage its costs. Your analysis
should include the following: a) Calculate overhead applied rate per direct
labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar), the overhead applied amount and
the resulting over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6 using the traditional
costing approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating service
overhead using direct labour hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual
wages and benefit rate were the same as budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks)
b) Use the regression analyses in Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the
viability of each cost driver to predict costs for cleaning supplies and
transportation. This should include reasons for choosing or not choosing the
regression analyses that were provided. (3 marks) c) Use the regression
analysis equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s) from the
fixed cost(s). Only the fixed cost(s) would be categorized with the other
overhead costs. With the adjusted overhead costs, follow the traditional
costing approach to recalculate the overhead application rate using direct
labour hours as the allocation base. Calculate the over- or underapplied
overhead by applying the new overhead rate. Compare your result to part (a) and
provide an analysis of the differences between the two application rates. (4
marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 1 3 / 3 d) Using
activity-based costing and the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details,
prepare a partial profit analysis for commercial and residential operations.
Use wages and benefits costs (allocated on the same basis as revenue) and all
costs from the activitybased data to prepare a partial operating statement that
includes all direct/traceable costs. Compare the segment margins between the
commercial and residential operations. (4 marks) Provide three points that
highlight the reasons for the difference between cost allocations using
activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks) e) Provide overall
comments on the results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks) In addition
to the above, award 3 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report
should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively
persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded
numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar
Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 11 PROJECT DETAILS “Adding time to
your day” is the slogan of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). The company was
started by Gretel, who began offering cleaning services to support herself
while she was in university studying for a business degree. At the age of 21
she was determined to be known as more than a simple labourer who needed to
fund her education. She researched different cleaning products and
methodologies to deliver a fast and thorough service to her clients. Ten years
later, the business has grown in size and has expanded throughout the city and
local rural areas. Gretel is the majority shareholder of the private
corporation with two other shareholders. The company consists of a full-time
staff of three operations managers (one for commercial operations and two for
residential operations), an administrative staff of three, and part-time
cleaning staff of over 200 university students, called cleaning agents. Not
only is Gretel able to provide high-quality cleaning services to her clients,
but she is also able to offer university students part-time work, reducing the
need for student loans. The company also owns a fleet of three vans that are
used to transport cleaning agents to and from work sites. A fourth van is
available for the operations managers to make site visits if necessary.
Gretel’s training regimen is thorough as potential hires are trained in the
areas of cleaning products, effective cleaning methods and acceptable
deportment when entering a client’s residence or place of business. Through
this training process, which Gretel carries out herself, she is able to hire
only those individuals she feels would provide the high-quality service that
keeps clients coming back. Recently, Gretel engaged Martine, a CPA and a local
consultant, to review the latest operating statement. Gretel is discouraged
with the 20X6 profit margin (Exhibit 1). Additionally, she is concerned with
the cash flow as there are seasonal fluctuations in the work, with more work in
the months of March and April when many homeowners request more hours for
springcleaning chores. As such, Gretel must ensure that there is enough cash on
hand to build cleaning supplies inventories and pay for training of any new
recruits required to handle the extra work. Other than springtime, cleaning
supplies inventory on hand is minimal. She is hoping that Martine will provide
some guidance that will help the company attain its profit margins. She has
called a meeting with Martine, Sam, the operations manager of commercial
operations and Ling, one of the operations managers of residential operations.
Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 3 / 11 GRETEL: I thought we
had a pretty good year; sales were up, and we’ve had great reviews. Yet when I
look at the bottom line, the profit margin is only 9%. I was hoping for at
least 12%. According to industry statistics, the profit margins should be at
least 25%. The other issue is that we were short on cash in the late summer.
MARTINE: Have there been any significant changes in the operations in the past
year? LING: I’ve noted that we’re taking on more residential clients outside
the city. I’ve had to make sure that we schedule in more travel time to reach
the destination on time. SAM: And don’t forget that at the request of a
majority of our commercial clients, we’ve included more eco-friendly cleaning
products. It helps boost their image of being socially responsible. MARTINE: I
can imagine that this has increased both your travel and cleaning supplies
costs. How do you currently cost out your services and how do you arrive at a
charge-out rate? GRETEL: We treat the wage costs of our cleaning agents as
direct costs. The cost of cleaning supplies, transportation and operations
managers’ salaries are considered overhead. We apply the overhead at $10 per
direct labour hour and add on an additional 60% to arrive at our charge-out
rate. MARTINE: Have you ever taken an activity-based approach to costing your
services? Besides the increase in cleaning supplies’ costs, are there some
other significant differences in the costs consumed by your commercial clients
versus the costs consumed by your residential clients? LING: Well, I’ve had a
bit of free time on the residential side so I’ve helped Sam out on occasion
with the commercial side. I’ve noted that most of the commercial clients are
clustered around the downtown core. So it takes less time to travel there.
GRETEL: Because our commercial clients have in-house accounts payable
departments, we usually only bill them once per month. While our more recent
residential clients are on monthly billing, we still have some that are on
weekly billing. However, you should note that we spend almost three times more
hours training cleaning agents who work for our commercial clients than
training those who work for our residential clients. Part of the reason is that
eco-friendly products require more application knowledge. MARTINE: So I
understand that the operations managers are not that busy on the residential
side? What’s the breakdown between residential and commercial clients? GRETEL:
We have about 120 regular commercial clients. They account for 60% of the
revenue, even though they amount to less than half of the clients. As for the
residential side, I’m not sure we require both full-time operations managers.
Alex has gone home early on some days because there was a shortage of work.
Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 4 / 11 MARTINE: And are your
cash disbursements pretty much in line with your revenues? GRETEL: For the most
part. Our major expenses are cleaning supplies and transportation, which mostly
fluctuate with revenues, except for annual preventive maintenance on our vans,
which takes place in the slower months of July and August. Oh, and one more
thing: I would really like a solid way of giving a potential client a quote
before we begin a contract with them. Right now, I measure the square metres
and estimate how many hours it will take to complete the work. I multiply that
by the direct labour hourly rate and then add on our $10 overhead factor per
direct labour hour and 60% for profit. Any ideas? MARTINE: Let me work on this
and get back to you with a full report. In the week following the meeting,
Martine spent time with Gretel, the operations managers and the administrative
staff. She developed the following: ·
cost pools for indirect costs related to cleaning services along with the cost
driver for each pool and activity breakdowns for residential and commercial
clients (Exhibit 2) ·
regression analyses summary results (Exhibit 3) to determine the statistical
relationship between: o direct labour hours and transportation costs o direct
labour hours and cleaning supplies costs ·
details regarding expected growth for 20X7 (Exhibit 4) · details regarding a typical commercial and
residential client that could be used to develop quotes (Exhibit 5) · details relating to cash collections and
disbursements (Exhibit 6) Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 5
/ 11 Exhibit 1 REVENUES AND EXPENSES 20X5 20X6 20X6 Budget Total revenue
728,910 819,000 778,050 90,090 12% 40,950 5% Cost of sales Wages and benefits
233,747 292,184 277,575 58,437 25% 14,609 5% Cleaning supplies 66,406 88,541
67,291 22,135 33% 21,250 32% Transportation costs (including fuel, insurance,
depreciation and maintenance) 23,619 30,281 25,890 6,662 28% 4,391 17% Salaries
of operations managers 116,000 120,000 118,000 4,000 3% 2,000 2% Cost of sales
(direct expenses) 439,772 531,006 488,756 91,234 21% 42,250 9% Gross margin
289,138 287,994 289,294 Operating expenses Administrative labour (training and
billing) 175,750 185,000 166,500 9,250 5% 18,500 11% Depreciation (excluding
transportation vehicles) 2,703 2,350 2,303 (353) (13%) 47 2% Repairs and
maintenance (excluding transportation) 881 890 872 9 1% 18 2% Utilities and
telephone/telecommunication 4,712 4,620 4,528 (92) (2%) 92 2% Rent 10,320
10,320 10,114 0 0% 206 2% Interest and bank charges 998 1,050 1,029 52 5% 21 2%
Business fees 4,200 4,200 4,116 0 0% 84 2% Advertising and promotion 1,890
2,520 2,470 630 33% 50 2% Insurance (excluding transportation) 2,594 2,730
2,675 136 5% 55 2% 204,048 213,680 194,607 9,632 5% 19,073 10% Net operating
profit/loss 85,090 74,314 94,687 (10,776) (13%) (20,373) (22%) 11.67% 9.07%
12.17% Variance from 20X5 actual Variance from 20X6 budget EXHIBIT 1 Holzmann
Cleaning Services — Report on Operations Intermediate Management Accounting
Project Details 6 / 11 Exhibit 2 Cost pools and activities for activity-based
costing analysis Cost driver Cost pool Total activity Commercial activity
Residential activity Cleaning supplies commercial Square metres $ 70,833 664,054
664,054 Cleaning supplies residential Square metres $ 17,708 442,703 442,703
Billing Number of invoices $ 129,500 3,054 1,062 1,992 Transportation Number of
kilometres $ 30,281 53,124 15,937 37,187 Training Number of hours $ 55,500 554
416 138 Operations management Number of managers $ 120,000 3 1 2 Total expenses
$ 423,822 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 7 / 11 Exhibit 3
Summary results of regression analyses Analysis of transportation costs and
statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly
information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.370106959 R Square 0.136979161
Adjusted R Square 0.050677077 Standard Error 205.6109076 Observations 12 ANOVA
d f SS MS Regression 1 67100.46346 67100.46346 Residual 10 422758.4532
42275.84532 Total 11 489858.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept
2006.01049 414.9577567 4.8342523 Labour hours 0.280500299 0.222646934
1.25984353 TRANSPORTATION ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management
Accounting Project Details 8 / 11 Analysis of cleaning-supply costs and
statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly
information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.834454446 R Square 0.696314222
Adjusted R Square 0.665945644 Standard Error 152.2094937 Observations 12 ANOVA
d f SS MS Regression 1 531207.6171 531207.6171 Residual 10 231677.2996
23167.72996 Total 11 762884.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept
5922.619076 307.1846274 19.28032378 Labour hours 0.78922842 0.164820911
4.788399819 CLEANING SUPPLIES COST ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate
Management Accounting Project Details 9 / 11 Exhibit 4 20X7 expected growth
data Change in dollars: Expected revenue growth (due to increase in charge-out
rate to $39 per hour) 8% Expected increase in cleaning supplies costs due to
increase in volume (residential and commercial) 7% Expected increase in
commercial cleaning supplies costs due to price increase 9% Labour wage and
benefit rate per hour $13.46 Expected increase in transportation costs 9%
Change in activity for ABC analysis: Increase in overall square metres of
cleaning 7% Increase in number of invoices (commercial only, see option 2 below
for residential) 5% Increase total kilometres driven (30% of total kilometres
relate to commercial clients) 8% All other expenses will be unchanged. Cost
reduction options: 1. Reduce operations management staff costs by putting one
residential operations manager on half-time. This would reduce the total cost
from $120,000 to $100,000. 2. Change all residential billing to monthly. This
would reduce the number of residential invoices sent out by 10% from 20X6
activity. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 10 / 11 Exhibit 5
Client data for contract quote development According to Gretel, a cleaning
agent is able to clean approximately 50 square metres per hour, on average.
Base the annual sales amount on 50 annual visits for commercial clients and a
per-visit basis for residential clients. Use the following variable costs: · Wages and benefits — see 20X7 budget and
information in Exhibit 4 for hourly rates. ·
Cleaning-supply costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate
per square metre. ·
Transportation costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate
per kilometre. Commercial client: Typical commercial client details are as
follows: ·
square metres 1,950 ·
kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 20 Residential client: Typical
residential client details are as follows: ·
square metres 232 ·
kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 25 Intermediate Management Accounting
Project Details 11 / 11 Exhibit 6 Cash collection and disbursement activity May
June July August September October Sales revenue $85,100 $62,900 $67,155
$49,210 $50,875 $68,265 Purchases of cleaning supplies $7,664 $7,240 $7,500
$6,850 $6,900 $7,575 Transportation costs $2,022 $1,904 $2,323 $2,377 $1,327
$1,475 Direct labour wages $30,360 $22,440 $23,958 $17,556 $18,150 $24,354
Management salaries $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 General operating
expenses $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 Cash collections: Cash sales
25% Credit collections: Amount collected in month of service 50% Amount
collected in month following service 30% Amount collected in second month
following service 15% Uncollectable 5% Cash disbursements: Transportation 100%
Paid in month incurred Cleaning supplies 60% Paid in month incurred 40% Paid in
month following Direct labour 50% Paid in month incurred 50% Paid in month
following Remaining expenses 100% Paid in month incurred Additional notes:
Depreciation included in monthly general operating expenses $ 196 Annual
dividend payment to three shareholders, paid in August $8,000 Expected July 1
beginning cash balance $5,000
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Intermediate
Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 2 (40 MARKS) Project 2 consists of a second
report from Martine to Gretel, the president of Holzmann Cleaning Services
(HCS). It is due at the end of Week 5 and is out of 40 marks. 1. Prepare a
complete 20X7 operating budget for both commercial and residential operations,
based on the details provided in Exhibit 4 in Project Details. The operating
budget will require adjustments to the activity-based analysis prepared for the
direct costs in requirement 2 of Project 1. Indirect general costs should be allocated
60% to commercial and 40% to residential. (6 marks) Provide a discussion of the
results in your report. (4 marks) Note: It is important to provide the analysis
done in Project 1 so that markers don’t deduct marks for errors made in Project
1. 2. a) Revise the 20X7 operating budget statements to a contribution format.
Assume the following are variable costs: i) Wages and benefits ii) Cleaning
supplies iii) Transportation costs All remaining costs are fixed. (1 mark)
Based on the 20X7 budget: b) Calculate the break-even point in sales dollars
based on the 20X7 sales mix. (2 marks) c) Calculate the sales revenue required
to achieve a 25% profit margin. (2 marks) d) Provide comments on the results in
the report. Your discussion should also include comments on the margin of
safety (1 mark) and the limits of the CVP analysis as it pertains to HCS. (2
marks) 3. To assist Gretel in submitting bids for new work, use the 20X7
contribution margin budget to determine an average markup percentage on
variable costs for both commercial and residential cleaning services. Using the
markup percentages, calculate the sales price of a typical commercial and
residential contract (see Exhibit 5 in Project Details). (8 marks) Also provide
a short discussion of the results in your report. (2 marks) Intermediate
Management Accounting Project 2 3 / 3 4. Cash analysis: a) Prepare a cash
budget for the quarter starting July 20X6 using the information in Exhibit 6
found in Project Details. (6 marks) b) Prepare a discussion that highlights
your findings in your report. What advice can you give Gretel regarding the
handling of cash and her operations during this period? (4 marks) In addition
to the above, award 2 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report
should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively
persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded
numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar.
Strategic
Choice and Evaluation
Answer the following
questions No Intro or conclusion…
What
is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy
in terms of who, what and how? Why is this
relationship important?
How
can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative
to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn
above-average returns?
What
motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What
might encourage diversification?
What
are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of
international strategies, particularly international corporate-level
strategies?
What
are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to
successfully use international strategies?
Why
do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What
risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
South
University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University
Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology
Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South
University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced
Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam
South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced
Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam
South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Examv
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How
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire
research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the
above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion
paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA
guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and
cite all sources
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CSTU
101 learning activity 1
Go online and find some information about the
“Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the
controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership
of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own
words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the
Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You
do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment
well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This
assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses.
Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days
before the assignment is due.
How
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire
research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the
above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion
paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA
guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and
cite all sources
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statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33
Mini-Strategy
Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations (Apple Inc)
Evaluate
the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss
the organization’s current goals and objectives.
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Strategic
Plan, Part 3
Write a 1,400-word minimum internal environmental
analysis in which you include the following:
Assess
the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
Identify
the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an
assessment of the organization’s resources.
Identify
the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and
external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
Perform
competitor analysis.
Assess
the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its
performance.
Determine
the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this
provides.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in
the body of your paper as in-text citations.
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Internal
Capabilities and Resources
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal
organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the
firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm
will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your
organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the
future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining
& why?
What does it mean to say that each core
competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an
organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it
means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and
weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their
firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
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Week
2 General Questions/Thoughts
Why
is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
Which
are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic,
political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own
industry & firm? Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about
your firm and be as specific as possible.
What
are the differences between the general environment and the industry
environment? Why are these differences important?
What
is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm
want to learn when using this process?
Explain
the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are
these details of interest to organizations?
How
do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability
potential?
Why
is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?
MGT
279 Assignment 4
1. In summary, what does the report’s author
blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
2. As an expert, to what extent do you think
the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to
manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong
with this project?
3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big
Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major
programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in
trying to employ the US DoD approach?
4. What lessons can be derived from the Big
Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are
about to begin work on a major program?
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MGT
270 Assignment 6
Questions
Based on
demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some
key characteristics of the community and its members.
Beginning in
the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC
uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using
specific examples from Citizens Guide.
What are the
top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe the PWC revenue profile is
typical for counties in the USA? Explain your answer.
PWC divides
its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is
the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the
capital budget? For the operating budget?
A big portion
of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both
the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data
from Citizens
Guide. Be sure to look at the special character of this budget item
on p. 11.
Smart county
budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such
political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
The PWC
Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the USA.
Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets and
operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital budget
expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three areas?
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MGT
270 Assignment 7
Slann points out that two prevailing traits of today’s world are increasing
interdependence in the global economy and increased strength of ethnic and
religious forces. Your response should be 1 – 2 pages long, single spaced. Note
that the answers to these questions require thought and research on your part.
There is no cookbook answer.
What
evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?
To
what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary
directions?
Strategic
Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper
You will perform an environmental scan for
your target company.
Choose an organization according to the
following:
Organization
that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)
Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in
which you include the following:
Determine
how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental
scanning strategy.
Evaluate
the company’s external environment.
Identify
and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving
competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
Assess
the company’s general environment.
Evaluate
the organization’s industry operating environment.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember
all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text
citations.
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Qualitative
study on Autism
Prior to beginning work on this assignment, be sure to have read all the
required resources for the week.
Locate a peer-reviewed qualitative research
study in the Ashford University Library on the topic you chose in Week One for
your Final Research Proposal. You may choose to use a qualitative study that
was included in the literature review you used in the Week One assignment by
searching the reference list for qualitative research studies on the topic. It
is also acceptable to utilize a qualitative research study on your topic that
was not included in your literature review.
Once you have located an appropriate
qualitative study, identify the specific qualitative research design used.
Summarize the main points of the study including information on the research
question, sampling strategy, research design, data analysis method(s),
findings, and conclusion(s). Evaluate the published qualitative research study
focusing on and identifying the researcher’s paradigm or worldview and any
evidence of reflexivity described in the report. Explain whether or not
potential biases were adequately addressed by the researchers. Describe how the
researchers applied ethical principles in the research study.
Assignment # 1
Philosopher Report on
Edward T. Hall. research the contributions of this ethicist to communication
ethics. Detail the contributions of this writer to the understanding of
communication ethics. Write a 4-5 page report and present your findings in this
paper. The report should include: biographical information, an overview of his
philosophy (main concepts he is known for) and the connection he has to
communication ethics. Cite 5 sources.
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Assignment # 6
Instructions Choose
one of the articles below for analysis. Discuss the subject matter in the
article, and interpret the results and what the confidence interval and margin
of error mean as they apply to the specific subject matter. Bobkoff, D. (2016,
Aug 05). Hillary clinton looks like she’s about to crush donald trump — but it
might not be so simple. The News Herald Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1817877470?accountid=28180
McKnight, P. (2006, Jun 03). Understanding a poll’s margin of error: The
Vancouver Sun Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/242148444?accountid=28180
Silver, N. (2013, Mar 08). A justice’s use of statistics, viewed skeptically.
New York Times Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1315037352?accountid=28180
Graves, A. (2017, Jun 27). DID SOUTH ST. PETERSBURG’S POVERTY RATE FALL AS FAST
AS RICK KRISEMAN SAID? EVIDENCE THIN. Tampa Bay Times Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1914205644?accountid=28180
Alternatively, you may search for an original article. If you choose this
route, locate a news article or report (in a popular news source such as Time,
Newsweek, or the Wall Street Journal) in which a population mean is estimated
from a sample. The article should include a margin of error and confidence
interval. The Northcentral Library has created a resource to aid you in finding
an appropriate article: Population in the News Assignment Guide Length: 1-2
pages not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate
thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts that are presented in the
course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Assignment # 4
Read the article
entitled, “Are We Smarter than Our Parents?” in chapter 5 of your textbook.
This article addresses a study by Dr. James Flynn of the rise of the IQ rate
over generations, and how statistics are involved in tracking this phenomenon,
especially with reference to the material in chapter 5. Write a paper in which
you explore some of the statistical data that has been found in this area of
study. Additionally choose and answer one of the four questions below in a
focused and clear manner. Remember to integrate the statistical data in the
article that discusses this topic. 1.Which explanation do you favor for the
Flynn effect: that people are getting smarter or that people are merely getting
more practice at the skills measured on IQ tests? Defend your opinion. 2.The
rise in performance on IQ tests contrasts sharply with a steady decline in
performance over the past few decades on many tests that measure factual
knowledge, such as the SAT. Think of several possible ways to explain these
contrasting results, and form an opinion as to the most likely explanation.
3.Results on IQ tests tend to differ among different ethnic groups. Some people
have used this fact to argue that some ethnic groups tend to be intellectually
superior to others. Can such an argument still be supported in light of the
Flynn effect? Defend your opinion. 4.Discuss some of the common uses of JQ
tests. Do you think that IQ tests should be used for these purposes? Does the
Flynn effect alter your thoughts about the uses of IQ tests? Explain. Length:
1-2 pages not including title and reference pages
Professional Portfolio Based
on ISOP
Professional
Portfolio This assignment requires you to gather a compilation of papers and
projects from this course and previous courses and add them to your
Professional Portfolio. The portfolio is designed to help you compile all you
have learned throughout your undergraduate studies with the best examples of
your work to represent what you are capable of doing when you graduate the
program. This assignment also gives you a opportunity to reflect on what you
have learned as a student of psychology, and to prepare to actualize your
post-graduation goals. It will serve as a resource as you navigate the world of
prospective employers and graduate admissions committees. The student portfolio
is also a measure of effectiveness for the Argosy University baccalaureate
program in Psychology. As you develop professionally following graduation, you
can add work samples and other pertinent materials, as well as modify existing
documents, to reflect that development. The Professional Portfolio includes two
main sections. A Professional Profile section that is completed by all students
with either an Employment focus or a Graduate School focus, depending on your
post-baccalaureate plans. The second section holds your Professional Work
Samples demonstrating your abilities, skills, and competencies across a range
of tasks and objectives. This section also includes a Final Evaluation of your
work samples, yourself, and the psychology program. The Professional Profile
section summarizes your career planning and professional goals. You have
already compiled the documents for this section in Modules 1 and 2 of this
course. It contains the following documents: A Cover Letter as a way to
introduce yourself to a potential employer This includes details about yourself
and why you feel you are qualified for the position. (Employment). OR A
Personal Statement describing your immediate and long-term career goals,
including an explanation of why these goals are appropriate in terms of your
knowledge, skills, personal characteristics, values, and experiences (Graduate
School). Note: The personal statement is attached to the Curriculum Vitae
(Graduate School), and the Cover Letter is attached to the Resume (Employment),
so take the time to be creative and not repeat yourself. A Resume with list of
References that is current, accurate, and professional in appearance.
(Employment). OR A Curriculum Vitae with list of References that is current,
accurate and professional in appearance. (Graduate School) OPTIONAL: A copy of
your Transcript(s) The Professional Work Samples section demonstrates your
performance and mastery of Argosy University’s program outcomes/competencies
for the Psychology major. Select 3-5 documents to serve as samples of your best
work in the program. Together, they should illustrate your mastery of all the 7
program outcomes listed below. Examples of the type of work that would
illustrate each outcome is provided below, as well. The 3-5 documents should be
samples of your work that you completed in previous courses as an undergraduate
student. These outcomes are listed below, along with the assignments that could
be included to demonstrate mastery of the outcome: Cognitive abilities
(critical thinking and information literacy): Assignments or projects that
demonstrate problem solving, analysis, synthesis, appropriate use of
information resources, etc. Research skills: A copy of a research proposal, a
survey developed, etc. Communication skills (written and oral): A topic paper,
presentation outline, or PowerPoint that demonstrates your written and oral
communication skills. Ethics & Diversity awareness: Papers that demonstrate
your understanding and/or analysis of ethical and diversity issues in
psychology. Knowledge of foundations of the field: Assignments, papers, or
projects that demonstrate your understanding of basic concepts, theories, and
empirical findings in one or more of the domains of psychology, including
biological, cognitive, developmental, personality, and social. Knowledge of
applied psychology: Assignments, papers, or projects from courses and/or an
internship that demonstrates your ability to apply psychology to personal,
social, and/or organizational problems. Interpersonal Effectiveness: PowerPoint
presentations, videos of your presentations that demonstrate your ability to
communicate effectively, appreciate diversity and cultural sensitivity and
awareness of your impact on others. Once you have assembled your work samples,
you will write a 700-1000 word narrative to serve as a preface to the
Professional Work Samples section. This narrative should consist of a clear and
thoughtful analysis of how each work sample reveals your strengths and areas
for improvement, according to each of the seven areas addressed in the program
outcomes/competencies (listed above). Towards this purpose, you will complete
the Student Self Appraisal of Learningfirst, and then use that to generate the
preface . Make sure you also address how you intend to strengthen your
competencies in all areas as you graduate onto the next step of your professional
career. On which areas will you focus most and why? This preface should also
include an evaluation of the Psychology program as well as suggestions for the
program that will enable it to help future Psychology majors develop these
strengths and overcome these weaknesses in the future. Enter each of these
components (Professional Profile, Professional Work Samples, with self-
evaluation) into the Professional Profile Template.
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GE’s Poor Planning Results in
Delays & Increased Costs
ASSIGNMENT-1
Principles of Management (MGT101 )
2nd Semester (2018-2019)
Assignment
Workload:
This
Assignment consists of a Mini Case.
Assignment
is to be submitted by each student individually.
Assignment
Purposes/Learning Outcomes:
After
completion of Assignment-1 students
will able to understand the
Recognize the functions of planning, organizing and controlling
and how they interrelate (Lo2.1)
Ability to carry out organization’s role in ethics, diversity, and
social responsibility. (Lo3.3)
Answer questions related to case study.
Assignment
Regulation:
All
students are encouraged to use their own words.
Student
must apply “Times New Roman Font” with 1.5 space within their reports.
A mark
of zero will be given for any submission that includes copying from other
resource without referencing it.
Assignment
-1 should be submitted on or before the end of Week-07.
If the
assignment shows more than 25% plagiarism, the students would be graded
zero.
Due
date for the submission of Assignment-1:
Assignment
-1 should be posted in the Black Board by Week-5.
The due
date for the submission of Assignment-1 is end of 7th Week.
Assignment
has to be in Word format only no PDF.
Assignment
Structure:
A.No
Type
Marks
Assignment-1
Case Study
5
Total
5
Assignment-1
Please go to Chapter
5 “Planning” available in your textbook Management: A Practical Approach 7th
edition by Kinicki, A., &
Williams, B., at the end
of the Chapter read Case: “GE’s
Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs” and answer
the following questions:
Assignment
Questions:
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Q1. Which of the
fundamentals of planning did GE execute ineffectively? Explain your rationale.
Q2. State two
SMART goals for GE based on the case. Given the political issues discussed in
the case, how might GE ensure that these goals are attainable? Discuss.
Q3.
Using Figure 5.5 “The Planning /Control Cycle”, describe what GE could
have done to improve the process of transporting the evaporator. Provide
specific recommendations.
Q4. What did you
learn about planning based on this case? Explain.
Ans:-
Graduate Course Analysis
Assignment Deadline: 2/15/2018
Assignment Deadline Time: 3:30pm M.S.T.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO
PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
Writea 1,750-word
essay report on perception and concept of forensic science in
21st-century criminal justice.
Be sure to THOROUGHLY ADRESS the following components in the
essay:
How important is forensic science to policing and criminal
investigations, court processes, and security efforts at various levels?
Explain your rationale in a historical approach.
How accurate is the popular media representation of forensic
science? How does this influence popular opinion on justice-related
issues?
What possible influence does the “CSI” effect have on the
judicial process?
Provide Subtitles for each section
Include at least four (4) Peer-Reviewed resources within the essay.
Properly quote and cite all references
used. Essay MUST have
direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.
Properly format your paper
consistent with APA guidelines. Paper MUST be in APA ESSAY FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Essay must have a strong
introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences
and paragraphs.
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NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO
PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NOTE: cover page, reference page and
subtitles are NOT included
in the 1,750-word count for essay. Essay must have thoroughly detailed
information and references to support analysis.
NAME
__________________________________________
Introduction to Theatre Exam #1
List four distinguishing traits
of Ancient Greek Theatre . . .
b.
c.
d.
Shakespeare was a major
theatrical influence during the
_____________________________________
era.
What is a cyclorama?
Explain how catharsis relates to
Ancient Greek theatre.
When an audience sits on three
sides of the stage, what type of stage configuration is that called?
Name three traits that can
describe Roman Theatre.
a.
b.
c.
What is the area downstage of the
curtain line referred to as?
If you are hidden from the view
of the audience in a proscenium theatre, you are likely ______________________________________________________
. (In what area?)
List three distinguishing traits
associated with theatre during the Middle Ages.
What type of curtains are used to
hide the offstage areas from the view of the audience?
What is the stuff called that you
can put in front of a light to change its color?
List three major theatre artists from the Elizabethan era.
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Explain the difference between a
spot light and a flood light.
Give me the names of three major
figures in Greek Theatre.
What purpose did theatre serve in
the Middle Ages?
Describe to me how your experience might have been had you attended
a public showing of a piece of theatre in the Elizabethan era.
What do you call a piece of
masking that hangs vertically to hide the wing space of a proscenium
stage?
What kind of stage configuration
has audience sitting on four sides?
What’s the difference between
private theatre and public theatre during the Elizabethan era?
What is the literal translations
of tragedy according to the Ancient Greeks?
Describe what a pageant wagon
from the Middle Ages would look like.
___________________________ was the god of wine, fertility, and theatre in Ancient
Greece.
What kinds of Roman theatre are
equivalent to our modern “reality” programming?
Who wrote POETICS?
Who was the most famous actor of
the Elizabethan era?
What is the device called that
goes between the lamp and the lens of a spot light that allows a designer
to create patterns in the light?
List two distinctive traits of a
proscenium stage.
Why might have the Greeks
performed their theatre in an amphitheater?
What is a dithyramb?
Near the end of the Roman Empire,
what entity outlawed theatrical performances?
What era of theatre history most
resembles our current theatrical paradigm?
Please explain the difference
between upstage and downstage.
Please, label each area of the
stage on the plan view drawing below . . .
AUDIENCE
IS HERE
What is a satyr play?
Who did the Romans get most of
their theatrical ideas from?
What were the two possible
purposes of an “orange girl” at an Elizabethan theatre
performance?
Out of the four eras of theatre
history we studied in class, which two were considered “Golden
Ages” of theatre?
What era (of the four we studied)
of theatre is the most intriguing to you, and why?
What is the name of the masking
curtain that hangs horizontally to hide the stuff hanging above the stage
from the view of the audience?
Explain how theatre lost its
original purpose (why it was invented) throughout its history from the
Greeks to the Romans to the Middle Ages.
At a public performance at the
Globe theatre during the Elizabethan era, what choices might you have as
to where you view the performance (hint: there are three of them).
What new type of lighting
instrument allows you to use colored diodes to mix color while using a lot
less electricity?
According to Aristotle’s POETICS
what defines a play as a comedy?
What is a raked stage?
Who was employed to put on the
plays depicting stories from the Old Testament in the Middle Ages?
Tell me what Hamlet is saying in this quotation in your own words .
. .
“I have of late–but wherefore I
know not–lost all my mirth, forgone all custom of exercises; and indeed it
goes so heavily with my disposition, that this goodly frame, the earth, seems
to me a sterile promontory; this excellent canopy, the air, look you, this
brave o’erhanging firmament, this majestical roof fretted with golden fire,
why, it appeareth nothing to me but a foul and pestilent congregation of
vapors. What a piece of work is a man, how noble in reason, how infinite in
faculties, in form and moving, how express and admirable in action, how like an
angel in apprehension, how like a god! The beauty of the world; the paragon of
animals; and yet to me what is this quintessence of dust? Man delights not me.
Management
Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services
Answer the following
questions No Intro or conclusion…
What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
Why
is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
Which
are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic,
political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own
industry & firm? Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about
your firm and be as specific as possible.
What
are the differences between the general environment and the industry
environment? Why are these differences important?
What
is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm
want to learn when using this process?
Explain
the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are
these details of interest to organizations?
How
do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability
potential?
Why
is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?
Week
2 General Questions/Thoughts
Why
is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
Which
are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic,
political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own
industry & firm? Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about
your firm and be as specific as possible.
What
are the differences between the general environment and the industry
environment? Why are these differences important?
What
is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm
want to learn when using this process?
Explain
the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are
these details of interest to organizations?
How
do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability
potential?
Why
is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?
MGT
279 Assignment 4
1. In summary, what does the report’s author
blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
2. As an expert, to what extent do you think
the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to
manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong
with this project?
3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big
Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major
programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in
trying to employ the US DoD approach?
4. What lessons can be derived from the Big
Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are
about to begin work on a major program?
Based on
demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some
key characteristics of the community and its members.
Beginning in
the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC
uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using
specific examples from Citizens
Guide.
What are the top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe
the PWC revenue profile is typical for counties in the USA? Explain your
answer.
PWC divides
its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is
the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the
capital budget? For the operating budget?
A big portion
of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both
the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data from Citizens Guide. Be sure to look at the special
character of this budget item on p. 11.
Smart county
budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such
political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
The PWC
Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the
USA. Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets
and operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital
budget expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three
areas?
Slann points out that two prevailing traits of
today’s world are increasing interdependence in the global economy and
increased strength of ethnic and religious forces. Your response should be 1 –
2 pages long, single spaced. Note that the answers to these questions require
thought and research on your part. There is no cookbook answer.
What
evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?
To
what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary
directions?
Strategic
Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper
You will perform an environmental scan for
your target company.
Choose an organization according to the
following:
Organization
that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)
Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in
which you include the following:
Determine
how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental
scanning strategy.
Evaluate
the company’s external environment.
Identify
and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving
competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
Assess
the company’s general environment.
Evaluate
the organization’s industry operating environment.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember
all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text
citations.
Strategic
Plan, Part 4
Write a 1,050-word minimum strategic evaluation in which you include
the following:
Organization JP Morgan Chase
Evaluate potential business level strategies for the organization.
Assess potential corporate level strategies for the organization.
Assess potential global strategies for the organization.
Recommend a strategy or combination of strategies the organization
should implement, and include a rationale for that recommendation.
Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all
references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text
citations.
The
role of sports in education
Role of sports in
education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports or
their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to
support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a
reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
NUR502 Week 4
Benchmark Assignment Application of Concept
NUR502 Week 4 Benchmark Assignment Application
of Concept
Benchmark Assignment: Application of Concept
Analysis to Clinical process
Grand Canyon University: NUR 502
Benchmark Assignment: Application Of Concept
Analysis to Clinical process
EDU
599 Week 10 Professional Development Plan
EDU 599 Week 10 Professional Development Plan
–
Write a seven to eight (7-8) page, three-part
Professional Growth Plan in which you focus upon the following areas of
personal and professional growth:
Part
1: Content Knowledge and Resources
Part
2: Competencies
Part
3: Reflective Activities
For Part 1, use the Internet or the Strayer
Library to research professional organizations, grant opportunities, and / or
virtual learning communities pertinent to both the theme of your portfolio, and
your current or prospective work environment.
For Part 3, use your textbook, the Internet,
and / or Strayer Library to research information on teaching and learning
through reflective practice.
Part 1: Content Knowledge and Resources
Select
at least two (2) of the professional organizations, grant opportunities,
and / or virtual learning communities that you have researched, and
analyze the manner in which you would utilize the organizations you
selected to support your continued professional development.
Predict
at least three (3) issues that you believe will be of particular
significance within the next decade, or choose three (3) remaining
questions that you ponder which relate to both the theme of your portfolio
and your current or prospective work environment.
Select
one (1) of the issues or questions you identified in relation to your
theme and work environment, and construct an annotated bibliography of at
least five (5) print and non-print resources to consult in the future.
Part 2: Competencies
Specify
the development of your information literacy / research skills throughout
your coursework. Provide one to three (1-3) papers / artifacts / examples
from previous coursework in order to demonstrate your change(s) and
acquired knowledge within this area. Note: If you do not
have papers / artifacts / examples, attach the description(s) of your
chosen previous assignment(s).
Develop
a plan for continued information literacy development as part of your
personal and professional growth plan. Your plan must include, at a
minimum:
Three
to five (3-5) information literacy goals
Potential
means (e.g., organizations and resources that you may utilize) to achieve
the information literacy goals
Relevant
strategies for applying the literacy skills in educational / work environment
Specify
the development of your writing skills throughout your coursework. Provide
one to three (1-3) papers / artifacts / examples from previous coursework
to demonstrate your change(s) and learning in this area. Identify plans
for continued writing development as part of your personal and
professional growth plan. Note: If you do not have papers
/ artifacts / examples, attach the description(s) of your chosen previous
assignment(s).
Create
an action plan geared toward both building upon your personal and
professional strength(s), which you identified previously in Journal Entry
#6, and toward improving your weaknesses related to your portfolio theme.
Your plan must include, at a minimum:
Three
to five (3-5) goals
Three
to five (3-5) key steps that you plan to take for further evaluation and
continuous improvement
Potential
means (e.g., organizations and resources that you may utilize) to achieve
these goals
Relevant
strategies for applying the plan in educational / work environment
Part 3: Reflective Activities
Ascertain
whether or not you met the reflection goal that you established in Week 3
of this course. Analyze the significant way(s) and extent to which the
process of reflection caused you to become a more reflective practitioner.
Propose
two to three (2-3) measures that you would use in order to strengthen your
reflective process. Provide a rationale to support your response.
Propose
two to three (2-3) ways that you would apply continued reflective
activities within your current or prospective work environment. Provide at
least one (1) example of such application to support your response.
Upload
Assignment 2 to your Optimal Resume portfolio. Copy and paste your
portfolio’s URL into the comment box of Assignment 2 to submit the
assignment to Blackboard.
Your assignment must follow these formatting
requirements:
Be
typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch
margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or
school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional
instructions.
Include
a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name,
the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and
the reference page are not included in the required assignment page
length.
The specific course learning outcomes
associated with this assignment are:
Apply
theoretical and practical knowledge gained in prior program courses to
explore a new topic or synthesize understanding in the concentration area
and the overall Strayer University Master of Education program.
Develop
a working portfolio that focuses on a specific theme or project tied to
the Strayer University Master of Education program goals and the learner’s
area of concentration.
Create
materials that demonstrate the analysis, synthesis, and intersection of
course work in the Strayer University Master of Education program.
Use
technology and information resources to research information about
education.
Write clearly and concisely about education
using proper writing mechanics
LEG
320_Week 2_DQ Elements of a Crime and Jurisdiction
“Elements of a Crime and Jurisdiction” Please respond to the following:
Review
the table, titled “Elements of a Crime”, located in Chapter 3 of the
textbook, then compare and contrast the roles of mens rea (i.e., guilty mind)
and actus rea (i.e., the forbidden act or omission) as they relate to proving a
crime has been committed. Next, discuss whether the concurrent occurrence of
these elements is more beneficial to the prosecution or the defense. Justify
your response.
It
is common knowledge that jurisdiction, the official power to make legal
decisions and judgments, is vitally important to the adversarial legal system.
Discuss the importance of having either subject matter jurisdiction or personal
jurisdiction over the cause of action. Include one (1) example of the
importance of the chosen jurisdiction to support your response.
Management
Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services
Intermediate Management Accounting
2 / 3
PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS)
Project 1 is due at the end of Week 3.
It is out of 30 marks.
Required:
Assume the role of a partner in
Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist
her with completing the analysis and
developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a report and
supporting exhibits for Gretel,
president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS), to analyze
HCS’s current profitability and
provide analysis of the overhead allocations used. It should
include the following:
1. Profit analysis: Prepare a brief
high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total based on
Exhibit 1 in the project details
document. Your discussion should highlight significant
changes between 20X5 and 20X6
operations, and between 20X6 actual and 20X6
budgeted operations. (8 marks)
2. Costing analysis: Prepare overall
comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its
overhead and provide further analysis
on ways in which the company can improve its
costing methods in order to assess and
manage its costs. Your analysis should include the
following:
a) Calculate overhead applied rate per
direct labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar),
the overhead applied amount and the resulting
over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6
using the traditional costing
approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating
service overhead using direct labour
hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual
wages and benefit rate were the same as
budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks)
b) Use the regression analyses in
Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the viability of
each cost driver to predict costs for
cleaning supplies and transportation. This should
include reasons for choosing or not
choosing the regression analyses that were
provided. (3 marks)
c) Use the regression analysis
equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s)
from the fixed cost(s). Only the fixed
cost(s) would be categorized with the other
overhead costs. With the adjusted
overhead costs, follow the traditional costing
approach to recalculate the overhead
application rate using direct labour hours as the
allocation base. Calculate the over-
or underapplied overhead by applying the new
overhead rate. Compare your result to
part (a) and provide an analysis of the
differences between the two
application rates. (4 marks)
Intermediate Management Accounting
Project 1
3 / 3
d) Using activity-based costing and
the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details, prepare
a partial profit analysis for
commercial and residential operations. Use wages and
benefits costs (allocated on the same
basis as revenue) and all costs from the activitybased data to prepare a
partial operating statement that includes all direct/traceable
costs. Compare the segment margins
between the commercial and residential
operations. (4 marks) Provide three
points that highlight the reasons for the difference
between cost allocations using
activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks)
e) Provide overall comments on the
results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks)
In addition to the above, award 3
marks for report format and professionalism. Your report
should clearly communicate the
important details of the case and effectively persuade the
reader to act on your advice.
NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded
numbers for all calculations and round the final
answer to the nearest dollar
South
University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam
statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V
HIEU
201 Lecture Quiz 1 Liberty University
According to “Empire Builders of the Near
East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many
Israelites into captivitty
According to “Earliest Civilizations of
the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy
to Western civilization?
According to the lecture, “Earliest
Civilizations of the Near East,” which sea faring people, mentioned in the
Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than
pictures?
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the
Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in
which region?
According to “Empire Builders of the Near
East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion
iron weapons?
True or False: According to “Earliest
Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider
all important civilizations from around the world.
According to “Empire Builders of the Near
East,” who built the very first, world empire?
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most
civilizations rise up?
According to “Empire Builders of the Near
East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
According to “Empire Builders of the Near
East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire
Mini-Strategy
Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations (Apple Inc)
Evaluate
the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss
the organization’s current goals and objectives.
Strategic
Plan, Part 3
Write a
1,400-word minimum internal environmental analysis in which you include the
following:
Assess
the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
Identify
the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an
assessment of the organization’s resources.
Identify
the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and
external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
Perform
competitor analysis.
Assess
the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its performance.
Determine
the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this
provides.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in
the body of your paper as in-text citations.
Internal
Capabilities and Resources
Why
is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What
is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this
tool?
What
factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What
factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a
competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What
is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own
industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What
does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How
do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure
and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have
a reciprocal relationship
How
do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that
managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
Social
Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related
degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart
Performance Standards found
on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement
for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early
Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as
another reference if needed.
Learning
Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety
of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type
your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or
changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt
each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the
following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7,
6, 6,
3
b. 14, 12, 11,
10, 8
c. 65, 65,
65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8,
6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5
pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is
the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the
mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is
the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure
of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2
pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores,
z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may
refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2
pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative
mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and
are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or
score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate
distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take
the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing
your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the
test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing
your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the
test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing
your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take
the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing
your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take
the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing
your answer: _____
5. (16 pts,
varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions
5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed
from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the
scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an
ellipse drawn around the data points.
a.
(2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
b.
(2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
Consider Figure D (below).
c.
(2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what
effect does this have on the direction and strength of
the correlation coefficient?
d.
(4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e.
(2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f.
(4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been
indicated.
Liberty
University BIBL 104
BIBL 104 Quiz 7
· Question 1
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him
for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above
your very soul.”
· Question 2
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when
He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
· Question 3
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a
runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
· Question 4
In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely
different kind
of gospel.
· Question 5
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but
of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to
Sarah rather than ___________.
· Question 6
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided
with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
· Question 7
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry
includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to
discredit the ministry.
· Question 8
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with
_____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
· Question 9
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific
situations.
· Question 10
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow
believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to
be with Christ forever.
· Question 11
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience
true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
· Question 12
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to
church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
· Question 13
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on
church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
· Question 14
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in
extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the
Gentiles.
· Question 15
2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
· Question 16
In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at
the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”
· Question 17
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on
circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
· Question 18
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
· Question 19
Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s
opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.
· Question 20
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary
nature of
· Question 21
In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their
attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.
· Question 22
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has
set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
· Question 23
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which
Paul
was seeking to correct.
· Question 24
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted
in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
· Question 25
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no
one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can
save anyone.
· Question 26
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians
to
· Question 27
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce
good
Christian behavior.
· Question 28
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under
condemnation.
· Question 29
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s
substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ
in faith.
· Question 30
1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer
some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.
· Question 31
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable,
available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
· Question 32
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
· Question 33
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were
Jews.
· Question 34
In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as
immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in
divisions among them.
· Question 35
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride,
Christ is
the Bridegroom.
· Question 36
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the
purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.
· Question 37
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of
these is the issue of
· Question 38
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary
journey.
· Question 39
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God
and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
· Question 40
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on
their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
· Question 41
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned
Paul’s
apostolic authority.
· Question 42
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had
until
they had corrected their three current issues.
· Question 43
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and
focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
· Question 44
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae
after
ministering in Ephesus.
· Question 45
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations
of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to
the cross.”
· Question 46
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian
believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the
future.
· Question 47
Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.
· Question 48
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance.
Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
· Question 49
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is
towards the
· Question 50
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Chapter
19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life
Care
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the
statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Hospice
care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both
the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die
within 7 days
____ 2. Evidence
reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term
care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision
makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff
____ 3. The most
prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium
____ 4. Pain at
the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain
____ 5. The
strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID
use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease
____ 6. The drug
specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone
____ 7.
Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics
____ 8. Delirium
is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness
____ 9. The
first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has
psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep
the patient safe
____ 10. The majority of
patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home
____ 11. A drug that can be
used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea)
is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam
____ 12. The tasks of
grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships
____ 13. The best
description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or
disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the
death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the
death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death
of a loved one
____ 14. All of the
following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved
except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended
interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the
family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support
____ 15. The highest level
of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea
____ 16. The highest level
of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high
adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for
adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for
adjuvant analgesia
Liberty
University – BIBL 104
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal
Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the
Jews only.
·
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Matthew gives special attention to the
rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.
·
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament consists of
twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.
·
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
·
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took
place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
·
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a
parable of Jesus?
·
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the
original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who
were living outside of Israel.
·
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John,
Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of
these signs is
·
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition,
Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James
tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
·
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the
Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
·
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of
Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers,
animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
·
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels,
the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
·
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more
personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
·
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Jesus first miracle was healing a man
in Canaan who had leprosy.
·
Question 15
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other
readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been
instructed.”
·
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a
miracle that Jesus performed?
·
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
·
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
·
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s audience was familiar with
Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing
further explanation.
·
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John,
Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of
these signs is
·
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus
on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in
Jerusalem.
·
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of
Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of
important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the
kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
·
Question 23
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the
ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel
message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Selected Answer:
False
·
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to
Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became
a Christian.
·
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _________, the travel
companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
·
Question 26
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts ends with a final
“update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message
continues spreading as the church continues to grow.
·
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s
Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed
eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.
·
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
John’s Gospel concludes by noting that
while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down.
If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that
would have to be written.
·
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the
first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
·
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am”
declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
·
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman
period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
·
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a
General Epistle?
·
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The writer of the Gospel of John
identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”
·
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly
sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death
followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
·
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are
Pauline Epistles?
·
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am”
declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
·
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of __________ places an
emphasis on the individual person.
·
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the
Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
·
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at
least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
·
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are
General Epistles
·
Question 41
0 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
·
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have
more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the
“_____________ Gospels.”
·
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection
appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and
reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
·
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s
theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human
history.
·
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles
of Jesus.
·
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed,
forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift,
rough, brief, and to the point.
·
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only
one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law
of Moses.
·
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the
only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
·
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am”
declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
·
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so
that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the
request of the religious leaders.
Liberty University – BIBL 104
Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there
seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
___________ references more historical
events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took
place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the
ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel
message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Question 6
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a
General Epistle?
Question 7
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a
miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of
Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more
personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s
Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly
sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death
followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel
for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old
Testament.
Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a
miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the
genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding
with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am”
declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at
least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Question 17
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following people did not
write a letter included in the New Testament canon.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are
General Epistles
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the
Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the
righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Question 20
0 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the
time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John,
Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of
these signs is
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Luke is the longest book in the New
Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.
Selected
Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a
Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born
again.”
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into
two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is
the Book of Glory.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the
Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only
one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law
of Moses.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of
Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of
important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the
kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
A slave’s birth was unimportant, so
Mark does not include the birth of Christ.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
A slave is expected to rush from task
to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed,
forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift,
rough, brief, and to the point.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the
Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s
theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human
history.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the
only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman
period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s
physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels,
the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to
Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became
a Christian.
Question 42
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other
readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been
instructed.”
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John,
Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of
these signs is
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
John sees prophetic fulfillment in the
fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came
out at once.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the
original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who
were living outside of Israel.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus
on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in
Jerusalem.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have
more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the
“_____________ Gospels.”
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am”
declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The book of Titus belongs to the
section of the New Testament known as
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary
journey.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches
rather than
one large church.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available,
and
approachable to all believers at all times.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow
believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to
be with Christ forever.
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but
of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to
Sarah rather than ___________.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided
with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers
have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth.
So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this
earth.
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the
preeminence
of Christ.
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s
righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus
Christ.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him
for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above
your very soul.”
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s
substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ
in faith.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by
Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a
spiritual
building in which all the different elements are welded together into a
collective unity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on
church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of
these is the issue of
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral
Epistles.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the
basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give
Onesimus his freedom.
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance.
Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians
to
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 22
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God
and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends
at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire
circumstances.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of
these is the issue
Question 26
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Question 27
0 out of 1 points
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a
runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
Question 28
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry
includes the
idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it
affords.
Question 29
0 out of 1 points
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in
Rome.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by
having the young man circumcised.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in
extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the
Gentiles.
Question 33
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry
includes the
idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people
to become Christians.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which
Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian
believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the
future.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Question 37
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the
promise
of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.
Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific
situations.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing.
That claim
belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no
one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can
save anyone.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is
towards the
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride,
Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations
of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to
the cross.”
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the
Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Question 46
0 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you
have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated
at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Question 47
0 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old
Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 49
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a
thorn in
the flesh.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and
selflessness. He
then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims,
“follow me as I follow Christ.”
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old
Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s
Apostles.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry
includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to
discredit the ministry.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians
to
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers
have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth.
So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this
earth.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ”
and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry
includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of
God.
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is
towards the
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted
in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary
journey.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness
that
we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they
should live a life of good works toward all men.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided
with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a
section of doctrine and the second section is a section on
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no
one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished
work can save anyone.
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first
generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy
who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people
converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others”
who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s
substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who
come to Christ in faith.
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of
these is the issue
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to
church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already
revealed.
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the
purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of
these is the issue of
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a
youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with
Barnabas.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary
nature of
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends
at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire
circumstances.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on
church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that
salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow
believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to
be with Christ forever.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs
within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must
possess.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s
righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the
image of Jesus Christ.
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for
us when
He hung on the cross.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on
their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no
remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living
in a hostile culture.
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s
letters as he
reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and
focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian
believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope
for the future.
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by
his own good works, with or without the law.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.
Question 44
0 out of 1 points
_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and
orderly
arrangement of the local church.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and
abstinence from food.
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in
Rome.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which
Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were
Jews.
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have
Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God
and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
CSTU
101 learning activity 1
Go online and find
some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon
Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek
governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay,
first summarize the controversy in
your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the
Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You
do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment
well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This
assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in
parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for
feedback a few days before the assignment is due.
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Follow the directions in the assignment and the instructions listed below.
Write a well formed, essay-style paper to your manager addressing all of the points requested in the activity. Include separating section headers in your paper to identify each point you are addressing. Include screenshots of your search progress/results. Use of tables, charts and lists as appropriate is encouraged and recommended. Remember to identify and cite your sources
Use proper grammar and spelling.
Describe the original data warehouse designed for Indiana University Health and its limitations. Please describe the new data warehouse and the differences between each?
Type your answer here.
Q: Identify the major differences between a traditional data warehouse and a data mart? Explain the differences between the traditional data warehousing process compared to newly designed data warehouse in less than 90 days?
Type your answer here.
Q: While this case study supports a specific data warehouse product, please locate another case study from another data warehousing software company and explain the data warehouse that was designed in that case study?
Type your answer here.
Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing. Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C-suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive: WRITE A MEMO IN 4 PAGES
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business. 2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured. 3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better. 4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
Networking Trends Paper: In this paper, you will research and report on network design and management trends over the last three years (present year minus 2) in the areas of virtualization, security, hardware, network management tools, software defined networking, and wireless. Choose, at least, three areas and explain the general trend and trends within two subsets of the area (i.e., security has subsets of physical, perimeter, monitoring) over the last three years. Use at least one figure from Google Trends showing a trend discussed in your paper. Support your information and make sure all information sources are appropriately cited. The paper must use APA 6th ed., 7th printing formatting and contain a title page, 5 to 7 pages of content, and a minimum of four peer-reviewed references. Your assignment will be graded based on the rubric, which can be viewed when clicking on the assignment submission link above
Role and Relevance of an Information System to aid in decision making
Type your answer here.
Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing. Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses.
Q. Use a red colored font for you answers.
Place the answers below the questions
1.How often are network standards reviewed? The standards are reviewed and updated approximately every 5 years.
2.What category of UTP cabling is the minimum for a telephone cable? Cat 5 is used for telephone cable, before Cat 5, Cat 3 was used.
3.What category of cabling should be installed as a best practice for a telephone cable? Cat 5
4.What is the problem with leaving abandoned cable in place in a building? It creates a fire hazard because of the extra combustible material.
5.Why must the twisting in the individual wires be maintained in a UTP cable?
6.How many wires does a gigabit cable use?
7.Is the labeling standard commonly used or not used?
8. Grounding should be attached to what in the building?
9. Horizontal cabling connects what areas to each other?
10.What is a plenum rated cable?
11.What is a riser tube used for?
12.What is the code for plenum rated horizontal cable?
13.How many wires in a UTP cable does Fast Ethernet use?
14.How many inches should separate UTP cable from 120 volt electrical cable?
15.What is the reason for grounding jumpers on each connection in ladder rack?
16.Why should overfilling of a riser tube be avoided?
17.Is the grounding of equipment a safety or a performance concern?
18.What are the current recognized horizontal cabling categories?
19.May an existing Category 5 cable be used to make network connections?
20.In the example used here what does the firestop material consist of?
21.In what circumstances will poorly installed cabling still function?
22.Why should the outer cover on a UTP cable be maintained in place?
23.Does cable labeling impact network performance?
24.May CM cable be used in the plenum space?
25.Why should a plastic riser tube not be used
Q. What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme? Top of Form Bottom of FormExplain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks
Q. Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War. Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well
I need you to build a game that will be easy for me to explain because I have to present it to my professor and he will grade it for me so please I want good and easy game that meet the requirements below. I want you to tell me what game or application you will do for me before you do it. Please don’t copy and paste any code from outside websites because this is the last project I have and don’t want to screw up the work for the whole semester.
Learner Objectives:
At the conclusion of this programming assignment, participants should be able to:
However, you may NOT develop a solution to the game of Snake or Pong!!! You must apply inheritance and polymorphism in your solution. You are also required to develop a test class and implement 5 test cases for your application.
Your goal for the assignment is build a complete graphical, and possibly networked, game or application. As a team you must ultimately decide how you will implement graphics. You have many tools and library options available to implement the graphics portion of the assignment. Some include the Unreal Engine, SFML, Qt, SDL, Allegro, DirectX, OpenGL, etc. Please be sure to also add some directions of how to play the game or use your application.
Aside from the requirements listed in the above paragraph, you are free to complete this assignment as you see fit. We will have a Gamefest! At which point you will need to allow other students in the class play your game or use your application.
Have fun with this assignment!
Submitting Assignments:
Your .zip file should contain a project workspace. Your project folder must have at least two header files (.h files), three C++ source files (which must be .cpp files), and project workspace. Delete the debug folder before you zip your project folders.
Your project must build properly. The most points an assignment can receive if it does not build properly is 200 out of 300.
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Addiction Paper- Alcohol
You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set
Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.
Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following:
Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Case Study – SuperFun Toys
SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.
Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.
This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.
For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.
As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.
Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.
SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Error.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.
Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,
Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.
Include answers to the following:
Case 1: Bell Computer Company
Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.
HRM 517 Week 9 DQ
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.
Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28
From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.
Community Support Pamphlet
You will create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help. Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.
MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…
Pamphlet Instructions:
Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:
Information on both sides of the paper;
8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
12-point Times New Roman font;
A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.
Normal Distribution
the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.
The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:
Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.
SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
CJUS Quiz 3 L U
Question 1
Correct Answer:
As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states
that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,
including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the
right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order
regarding transfer.
Question 2
Correct Answer:
____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the
equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.
Question 3
Correct
Answer:
At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require
the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What
is not one of the ways the case is resolved?
Question 4
Correct Answer:
Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal
court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what
court to file charges.
Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?
Question 5
____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment
used by the juvenile justice system.
Correct Answer:
Question 6
Correct Answer:
The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made
to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the
juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:
Question 7
Correct Answer:
Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,
emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders
are completely responsible for their own actions.
Question 8
Correct Answer:
At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court
intervention is necessary?
Question 9
Correct
Answer:
Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?
Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with
juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication
Question 10
Correct
Answer:
In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among
juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:
Question 11
Correct Answer:
Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a
____________ is filed.
Question 12
Correct Answer:
Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory
restitution programs.
Question 13
Correct Answer:
Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention
facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile
public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on
deficiencies in his defense.
Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the
juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document
that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights
and disposing of all the issues.
Question 14
Correct Answer:
Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum
standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of
the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?
Question 15
Correct Answer:
Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?
Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:
Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:
o In person surveys
o Telephone surveys
o Computer-based surveys
o Focus group surveys
Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.
Include at least four peer-reviewed references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.
Reflection paper
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.
The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper
After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation
The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.
Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Reference Attached
Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true
Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:
Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?
Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.
References:
Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831
LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018
Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?
Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.
Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.
Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.
Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.
Workers’ compensation is defined as the:
insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.
remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.
set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.
system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.
Corporate officers are best described as:
directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.
owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.
employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.
Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?
An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.
A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.
A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.
A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.
Which of the following best describes the term warranty?
It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.
It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.
It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.
It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.
Which of the following is a category of torts?
Nonintent crime
Professional malpractice
Strict liability
Personal liability
Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?
Special damages
Punitive damages
Binding arbitration
Specific performance
Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?
They are usually not tried by the jury.
They are punishable by the death penalty.
They are tried by criminal procedure.
They are brought to court by a plaintiff.
Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:
creating a new status quo.
minimizing the freedom of employees.
advocating social justice.
providing a basis for compromise
Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?
Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.
The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.
An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.
The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.
Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?
It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.
It allows a business to consist of only general partners.
It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.
It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.
Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:
minimizing individual freedom.
maintaining the status quo.
advocating social justice
providing bases for compromise
A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:
allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.
end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.
enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.
control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.
Insider trading is considered illegal because:
it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.
it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.
it results in excessive losses for the company.
it makes use of nonmaterial public information.
Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?
It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.
It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.
It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.
It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.
Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?
Adverse possession
Reasonable grounds for suspicion
Adequate assurance of performance
Reasonable duration of detention
Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?
The invention must be original.
The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.
The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.
The invention must be in the form of a service.
Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?
The rule of reason
The per se rule
The rule of four
The pro rata rule
Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?
The sale of non-organic food products
The sale of adulterated food
Labeling of raw seafood products
Labeling of genetically engineered food products
The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.
monopoly power
implied power
enumerated power
reserved power
A group boycott occurs when:
competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.
competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.
parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.
parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.
When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?
While drafting a submission agreement
When an arbitration is binding
While entering a negotiation
When an arbitration is nonbinding
The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:
duty of restitution.
duty of restoration.
duty of loyalty.
duty of care
Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.
nonintent crime
unintentional tort
intent crime
intentional tort
When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.
racial discrimination
religious discrimination
sex-plus discrimination
color discrimination
The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.
acceptance
an offer
an agreement
consideration
When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.
franchise
joint venture
kickback
limited liability partnership
Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.
owners
common stockholders
board of directors
preferred stockholders
An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.
fully disclosed agency
apparent agency
implied agency
agency by ratification
Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?
Failure to warn
Defect in product packaging
Failure to tamperproof
Defect in manufacture
Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week
In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.
Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.
About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.
Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.
In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:
What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1
Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.
Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county. The country is Saudi Arabia’
.2. Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed. Provide a rationale for the response.
3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right. Provide support for the analysis.
Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification for the response.
Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.
The Assignment must be APA Format. Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.
I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%. Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.
Levels Of Competing Cultures
Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.
You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.
What is the African American population of the area?
Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?
NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.
(Essay must be plagiarism free)
REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2
The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation
Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.
Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.
There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based
Who is provided access?
Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed
Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
(20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
13, 7, 6, 6, 3
14, 12, 11, 10, 8
65, 65, 65, 65, 65
12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
(20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
Why is the median relatively unaffected?
Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
(24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
(20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
(16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
(2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
(2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
(2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
(4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
(2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
(4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
By “noumena” Kant is referring to:
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 10
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, source skepticism questions:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 18
Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 20
3 out of 3 points
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.
Question 2
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 3
In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:
Question 4
According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:
Question 7
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 8
Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.
Question 9
According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:
Question 10
The scientific case for determinism holds that:
Question 11
Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.
Question 12
Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?
Question 13
Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?
Question 14
Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?
Question 16
The term “contiguity” means:
Question 17
Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 20
According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:
Question 1
Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?
Question 2
Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?
Question 3
One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.
Question 4
In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.
Question 5
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 6
Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?
Question 7
The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.
Question 8
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 9
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 10
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 13
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 14
Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?
Question 15
Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.
Question 16
An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.
Question 17
The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:
Question 20
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 1
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 2
Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:
Question 3
Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting
Christian revelation.
Question 4
Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 7
According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.
Question 8
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 9
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 10
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
What is one of the advantages of Dualism?
Question 13
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 14
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?
Question 16
Which of the following is not an element of causality?
Question 17
Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.
Question 18
Metaphysical Realism says that:
Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”
Question 20
Which of these is an example of an essential property?
Question 1
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 2
According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?
Question 3
According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.
Question 4
For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:
Question 5
For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:
Question 6
For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:
Question 7
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 8
Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 9
David Hume was a:
Question 10
The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 11
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 12
The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:
Question 13
One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.
Question 14
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 15
Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:
Question 16
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 17
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 18
Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:
Question 19
William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.
Question 20
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection
Term Draft Paper
APA style Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,
demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,
Judaism, and Islam:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 20
Needs Grading
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.
Question 4
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 6
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 7
If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 8
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9
Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 10
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11
This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12
The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 13
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 15
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18
According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.
Question 19
The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 2
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 3
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 4
In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.
Question 5
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 6
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 8
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:
Question 10
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 11
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 13
The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.
Question 14
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 16
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2
According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 4
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 5
According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 6
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 7
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 8
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9
Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:
Question 10
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 11
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 14
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 113 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18 3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19 3 out of 3 points
The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.
Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as firstcause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.
Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.
Question 13 Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
What kinds of responses might be considered?
What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
Give a summary of the event
Outline the response by police and fire agencies
Detail roles within the structured incident command
Outline crisis response objectives
Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Resources:Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?
How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
Defend or refute one of the following statements
Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.
Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.
Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.
Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.
Include answers to the following questions:
What is White privilege?
If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?
Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.
Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines
Factorial math problem help!
How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.
Clock hand problem
What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.
A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?
Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard
The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.
HELP: Card Stopping Optimization
In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?
What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.
Black and White Marbles in Two Jars
Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.
A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.
Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.
What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?
History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP
In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?
Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!
Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.
I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario
This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.
For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting
Problem Scenario
(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?
(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?
Writing
(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)
The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.
Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated
Every college student should at the very least strive to have the following items well planned for this fall sessions when the finals can be a pain. The first is a good timetable which would enable them to plan their time well. Second is a good sleep schedule which would give their bodies energy to handle the pressures that comes with fall finals. The last and most important is – a relievable college homework help website – which in this case is homeworknest.com. Someone would for instance ask … where can I get assignments help this fall semester for pay? Who can Ace My Homework this Fall Semester? Any Website similar to AceMyHomework.com? Is there a website that helps college students with their homework? Can I get Exam help this fall semester at www.homeworknest.com …. Yes, HomeworkNest.com is the best website for college students to pay someone to do their homework. This fall 2018 Finals are scoring straight alpha grades at www.homeworknest.com. At homeworknest.com, college and university students post their homework for free, pick a tutor to handle the assignment and pay later. Homework nest has been voted the best website for college homework help which is not just another studypool or homeworkmarket place but a website where you can find someone to do your homeworkforyou!
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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question
Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
Creating a physician expert panel
Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
Conducting an external review of a guideline
Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Inhaled corticosteroids
Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
Leukotriene receptor agonists
Oral corticosteroids
Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.
The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
Diamox
Diamox
Promethazine
Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Filiform/digitate wart
Dysplastic cervical lesion
Condyloma acuminata
Koilocytosis
Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Dementia
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Delirium
Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
“Drive to the emergency room now.”
“Call 911.”
Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
Fluid restriction
Hemodialysis 4 days a week
High-protein diet
Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Glaucoma
Increased sperm quality
Bladder cancer
Eczema
Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:
3 weeks
1 month
6 months
1 year
Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Parkinson’s disease
Alzheimer’s disease
A CVA
Bell’s palsy
Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Tension
Migraine
Cluster
Stress
Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
African American men
Scandinavian men and women
Caucasian women
Asian men
Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Pharyngitis
Allergies
Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Severe asthma
A common valvular lesion
Severe hypertension
A prosthetic heart valve
Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
Increase the dose of antibiotic.
Order a cytoscopy.
Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.
This condition only occurs on the face.
Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
“We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
Stage 2 hypertension
Hypertensive
Normal in healthy older adults
Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
1 month
3 months
6 months
As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
He should stop smoking today.
He should stop smoking tomorrow.
His quit date should be in 1 week.
He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
No activity at all
A blank stare
Urine is usually voided involuntarily
The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
Permethrin cream
Lindane
Crotamiton lotion and cream
Ivermectin
Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
Viral conjunctivitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Every 3 months
Every 6 months
Annually
Whenever there is a problem
Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Repeat the test.
Refer to a nephrologist.
Measure the serum protein.
Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
CN V
CN VII
CN IX
CN X
Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray
Cystoscopy with biopsy
Magnetic resonance imaging
Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
Biopsy
Best practice
Boundary
Border irregularity
Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Greater than 30
Greater than 40
Greater than 50
Greater than 60
Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Legionella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Serum calcium
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Complete blood cell count
Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
All of the above
Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
BUN and creatinine
Electrolytes
Creatinine clearance
Urinalysis
Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
It is an old wives’ tale.
It is used as a last resort.
Salicylic acid is more effective.
It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
Penicillin
Quinolone
Cephalosporin
Macrolide
Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Otosclerosis
Cholesteatoma
Presbycusis
Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
An ulcer
A fissure
Lichenification
An excoriation
Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
B-type natriuretic peptide
C-reactive protein
Serum albumin
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Baker phenomenon
Arnold reflex
Cough reflex
Tragus reflex
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treat
NR511 Midterm Exam
NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Erythema infectiosum
Laterothoracic exanthem
Erythema migrans
Morbilli exanthem
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
All of the above
Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
Elevated blood urea nitrogen
Decreased urine pH
Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
Absent cremasteric reflex
Pain relieved on testicular elevation
Testicle very low in the scrotum
Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”
Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Reduces postprandial blood glucose
Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Reduces total cholesterol
All of the above
Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Platelet count
Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
Anemia
Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)
Sports-related injuries
Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?
Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.
Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.
Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.
The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.
Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Oral contraceptive use for 15 years
Early menarche
Diet high in soy protein
Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
All of the above
Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive bacillus
Gram-negative bacillus
Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?
100% bleach
50% bleach and 50% vinegar
Nine parts H2O to one part bleach
The friend must have his or her own bathroom.
Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?
Ferritin
Porter’s syndrome
Hypochromasia
Pica
Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Free T4 and serum calcium
Free T3 and T4
TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
“My optometrist checks my eyes.”
“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
SLE
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?
Bradycardia
Extreme diaphoresis
Severe bronchoconstriction
Hypotension
Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,
minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?
“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”
“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”
“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”
“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”
Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:
It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
It can be utilized during routine office visits.
It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.
All are benefits of MI.
Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?
PEP should be started within hours of exposure.
PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.
Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.
PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.
Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
All of the above
Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
Carrots
Spinach
Potatoes
Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
CN II
CN III
CN IV
CN V
Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Pheochromocytoma
Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac arrhythmias
All of the above
Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Urinalysis
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Complete blood cell count with differential
Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:
A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.
A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.
A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.
A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:
Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem
Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter
Focus on the “process” and not the assessment
Make the patient and family happier
Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma
Pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
All of the above
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
Question
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:
A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Ovaries
D) Fallopian tubes
The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
A) anteverted and anteflexed.
B) retroverted and anteflexed.
C retroverted and retroflexed.
D)superiorverted and anteflexed.
An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:
A)aging.
B)becoming fibrous.
C)estrogen dependent.
D)able to respond to estrogen.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
A) 2; 2; 1
B) 3; 2; 0
C) 3; 2; 1
D) 3; 3; 1
During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?
A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”
B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”
D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
A) dysuria.
B) stress incontinence.
C) hematuria.
D) urge incontinence.
During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
A) a change in your urination patterns?”
B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?
A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”
B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
C) “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
A) Redness of the labia majora
B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
A) Nabothian cysts are present.
B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
A) These findings are all within normal limits.
B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) In the parent’s lap
B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”
B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”
C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A) pediculosis pubis.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
A) an ovarian cyst.
B) endometriosis.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.
A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) endometriosis.
B) uterine fibroids.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
A) syphilitic chancre.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
A) stellate.
B) small and round.
C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
D) everted.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
A) uterine
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) endometrial
During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
D) a normal finding.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”
B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”
C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”
D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”
The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
A) Heavy and solid
B) Mobile and fluctuant
C)Mobile and solid
D) Fixed
E) Smooth and round
F) Poorly defined
HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)
Questions:
How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?
Millennium development goals report
Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.
BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?
What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?
Activity 2.
What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with
environmental regulations?
How might an assessor conduct an assessment?
Activity 3.
What is resource efficiency?
What is an Environmental Management System?
How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?
Activity 4.
Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.
Activity 5.
What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.
Activity 6.
Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.
Activity 7.
How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?
Activity 8.
List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.
Activity 9.
What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
What is the hierarchy of control?
Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:
Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.
Activity 11.
What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.
Activity 12.
Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.
Activity 13.
Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.
Activity 14.
Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?
Activity 15.
Define the term “Engagement”.
Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.
Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
What are the benefits of having a diverse team?
Activity 16.
List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.
Activity 17.
A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.
Activity 18.
Determine whether the following statements are true or false.
Activity 19.
Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
Create performance Indicators.
Decide how you are going to publish report.
Gather the data and evaluate it.
Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
Identify the target audience for your report.
Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
Obtain Feedback.
Produce, publish and distribute the report.
Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.
Activity20.
Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?
Activity 21.
List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.
Activity 22.
Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.
Question 1.
What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?
Question 2.
What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?
Question 3.
What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?
Question 4.
What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?
Question5.
What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?
List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.
Question 6.
Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.
Question 7.
What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?
Question 8.
How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?
Summative Assessment 2
Project 1.
Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.
Your response should include a discussion of:
Complex environmental issues.
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Project 2.
Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.
Millennium development goals
Pick two MDGs
Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries.
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.
Week 2 – Healthy People 2020
After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT. Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice. Topic: Affordable Medication Program
Length: Minimum of two full pages of text in length. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references
Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Human Resource Management Overview
Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview
Due Week 4 and worth 200 points
Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..
2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..
3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..
4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Which statement about confusion is true?
Question options:
a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question options:
a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
Question options:
a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 4 2 / 2 points
How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Question options:
a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Question options:
a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
Question options:
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.
Question 7 2 / 2 points
Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
Question options:
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
Question options:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
Question options:
a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
Question options:
a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Question options:
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
Question options:
a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
Question options:
a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 16 1 / 1 point
Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
Question options:
a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
Question options:
a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
Question options:
a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
Question options:
a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
Question options:
a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion
Question 22 2 / 2 points
What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
Question options:
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel
Question 23 2 / 2 points
Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
Question options:
a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto
Question 25 0 / 2 points
Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
Question options:
a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
Question 26 2 / 2 points
About 90% of all headaches are?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause
Question 27 2 / 2 points
Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Question options:
a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
Question options:
a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids
Question 29 2 / 2 points
The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Question options:
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
Question options:
a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
Question 32 1 / 1 point
Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
Question options:
a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
Question options:
a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 35 2 / 2 points
When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Question options:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 37 2 / 2 points
The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Question 38 1 / 1 point
A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Question options:
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
Question options:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy
Question 40 1 / 1 point
Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Question options:
a) Hypersomnolence
b) Blunted feelings
c) Loss of interest in significant activities
d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?
Question options:
a) Decrease in adrenal size
b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone
Question 42 2 / 2 points
The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
Question options:
a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 5 weeks
Question 44 2 / 2 points
It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Question options:
a) Before the initiation of treatment
b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
c) When switching to a different medication
d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 45 2 / 2 points
A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?
Question options:
a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.
b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.
c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.
d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.
Question 46 1 / 1 point
According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Question options:
a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?
Question options:
a) Memory impairment
b) Sexual dysfunction
c) Dry mouth
d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question options:
a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 49 2 / 2 points
What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?
Question options:
a) 0.05
b) 0.1
c) 0.2
d) 0.3
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?
Question options:
a) Every 30 minutes
b) Every 60 minutes
c) Every 90 minutes
d) Every 180 minutes
Question 51 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
Question options:
a) Hypercholesterolemia
b) Hypermagnesmia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Decreased TRH
Question 52 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Question options:
a) Sertraline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Citoprolam
d) Imipramine
Question 53 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Question options:
a) Liver function
b) Vision
c) Growth parameters
d) Renal function
Question 54 2 / 2 points
It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) Substance abuse
d) PTSD
Question 55 2 / 2 points
Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
Question 56 2 / 2 points
Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Anxiety
c) Substance-related addictions
d) Gambling
Question 57 1 / 1 point
What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?
Question options:
a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention
b) Personality or environmental problems
c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors
d) Global assessment of functioning
Question 58 2 / 2 points
Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
Question options:
a) CAGE
b) SANE
c) SAD PERSONAS
d) DIGFAST
Question 59 2 / 2 points
Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?
Question options:
a) ADHD
b) Bipolar
c) Depression
d) Anxiety
Question 60 1 / 1 point
Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?
Question options:
a) Substance abuse and medication effects
b) Medical and neurological disorders
c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression
d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Question 61 1 / 1 point
The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 62 1 / 1 point
Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 63 1 / 1 point
Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 64 1 / 1 point
Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 65 1 / 1 point
Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 66 1 / 1 point
The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 67 1 / 1 point
A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 68 1 / 1 point
Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 69 1 / 1 point
Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 70 1 / 1 point
When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 71 1 / 1 point
A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Question options:
a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b) Endometrial hyperplasia
c) Vagismus
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 72 2 / 2 points
A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Question options:
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Doxycycline
c) Acyclovir
d) Metronidazole
Question 73 1 / 1 point
A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) HPV
c) Chlamydia
d) Trichomonas
Question 74 1 / 1 point
A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Question options:
a) Trichomonas
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) HPV
d) Herpes simplex virus
Question 75 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Question options:
a) Metronidazole
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Diflucan
d) Doxycycline
Question 76 1 / 1 point
A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Question options:
a) Fluconazole
b) Estrogen vaginal cream
c) Metronidazole
d) Doxycycline
Question 77 2 / 2 points
Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Question options:
a) Filiform/digitate wart
b) Dysplastic cervical lesion
c) Condyloma acuminata
d) Koilocytosis
Question 78 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 79 2 / 2 points
Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Periorbital cellulitis
c) Erysipelas
d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis
Question 80 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 81 2 / 2 points
The most common cause of CAP is?
Question options:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 82 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 83 2 / 2 points
The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 84 2 / 2 points
A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
Question options:
a) The scrotum will be dark.
b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c) The scrotum will appear milky white.
d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 85 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 86 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 87 1 / 1 point
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 88 1 / 1 point
A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Testicular cancer
b) Inguinal hernia
c) Varicocele
d) All of the above
Question 89 1 / 1 point
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 90 1 / 1 point
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 91 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 92 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
Question options:
a) An ulcer
b) A fissure
c) Lichenification
d) An excoriation
Question 93 2 / 2 points
A bulla is:
Question options:
a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Question 94 1 / 1 point
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 95 1 / 1 point
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 96 1 / 1 point
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 97 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 98 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 99 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 100 1 / 1 point
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 3 2 / 2 points
After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Question options:
a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.
b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.
c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.
d) All of the above
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Question options:
a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 5 2 / 2 points
John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Question options:
a) Valgus stress test
b) McMurray circumduction test
c) Lachman test
d) Varus stress test
Question 6 2 / 2 points
The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
Question options:
a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Question options:
a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
d) All of the above
Question 8 2 / 2 points
The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?
Question options:
a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s
b) Recent exposure to mumps
c) Vegetarian diet
d) Allergy to iodine
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Question options:
a) Rice
b) Carrots
c) Spinach
d) Potatoes
Question 10 2 / 2 points
One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:
Question options:
a) Goiter
b) Abnormal serum calcium
c) Elevated urine biochemical markers
d) Bony fracture
Question 11 2 / 2 points
After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Question options:
a) Elevated TSH
b) Normal TSH
c) Low TSH
d) Undetectable TSH
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Question options:
a) Decreased C-reactive protein
b) Hyperalbuminemia
c) Morning stiffness
d) Weight gain
Question 13 2 / 2 points
The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 14 2 / 2 points
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Question options:
a) Gastrocnemius weakness
b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c) Numbness in the lateral foot
d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 18 2 / 2 points
You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?
Question options:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
Question options:
a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
d) All of the above
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Question options:
a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose
b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c) Reduces total cholesterol
d) All of the above
Question 22 0 / 2 points
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
Question 23 2 / 2 points
The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”
d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?
Question options:
a) Check his blood sugar.
b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
c) Call 911.
d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.
Question 26 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
Question options:
a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b) Free T4 and serum calcium
c) Free T3 and T4
d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) TSH
c) Electrolytes
d) Urine specific gravity
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?
Question options:
a) History of hypertension
b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.
c) Her history of diabetes mellitus
d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
Question options:
a) 1,200 mg/day
b) 1,000 mg/day
c) 1,300 mg/day
d) 1,500 mg/day
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Question options:
a) Sinus bradycardia
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Supraventricular tachycardia
d) U waves
Question 31 2 / 2 points
You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Question options:
a) Articular
b) Inflammatory
c) Nonarticular
d) A and B
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
Question options:
a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
d) All of the above
Question 33 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Question options:
a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?
Question options:
a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.
b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.
c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.
d) None of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:
Question options:
a) Apprehension sign
b) Bulge sign
c) Thumb sign
d) None of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
Question options:
a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis
c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Bone scan
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) X-ray of the foot
d) Culture of the ulcer
Question 38 2 / 2 points
One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Question options:
a) Bone
b) Synovium
c) Tendons
d) Fascia
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Question options:
a) Elevated uric acid level
b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen
c) Decreased urine pH
d) Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?
Question options:
a) Myxedema
b) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Pan-hypopituitarism
Question 42 0 / 2 points
How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Question options:
a) Once a year
b) Every 6 months
c) Every 3 months
d) Every visit
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Question options:
a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.
d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?
Question options:
a) Low-dose aspirin
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Ethambutol
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 49 2 / 2 points
The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?
Question options:
a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
b) RAI binds free T4.
c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.
d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Pancreatitis
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?
Question options:
a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.
b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.
c) Recommend cranberry supplements.
d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Question options:
a) Repeat the test.
b) Refer to a nephrologist.
c) Measure the serum protein.
d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
Question options:
a) 0.05% liquid formulation
b) 0.1% cream
c) 1% foam
d) 0.02% cream
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
Question options:
a) Pruritis
b) Glycosuria
c) Irritability
d) Hypotension
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?
Question options:
a) Keratosis pilaris
b) Dennie’s sign
c) Keratoconus
d) Pityriasis alba
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Erectile dysfunction
b) Glaucoma
c) Hypotension
d) Headache
Question 8 2 / 2 points
When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?
Question options:
a) A piece of hair or a thread
b) Hyphae
c) Leukocytes
d) Spores
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?
Question options:
a) Vagistat vaginal cream
b) Monistat combination pack
c) Terazol vaginal cream
d) Diflucan, 150 mg
Question 10 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question options:
a) NSAIDs
b) Beets
c) Vitamin A
d) Red meat
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
Question options:
a) BUN and creatinine
b) Electrolytes
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Urinalysis
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?
Question options:
a) 35
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Question 13 0 / 2 points
When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?
Question options:
a) Spores
b) Leukocytes
c) Pseudohyphae
d) Epithelial cells
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?
Question options:
a) Last menstrual period
b) Method of birth control
c) Last unprotected sexual contact
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Question options:
a) Urinalysis
b) Gram stain of urethral discharge
c) Complete blood cell count with differential
d) Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?
Question options:
a) Bullous impetigo
b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
c) Nonbullous impetigo
d) Ecthyma
Question 18 2 / 2 points
An example of ecchymosis is:
Question options:
a) A hematoma
b) A keloid
c) A bruise
d) A patch
Question 19 2 / 2 points
An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Prostate cancer
d) All of the above
Question 20 0 / 2 points
A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Testosterone level
b) Prostate-specific antigen
c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
d) Prolactin level
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Peyronie’s disease
b) Damage to the pudendal artery
c) Scarring of the cavernosa
d) All of the above
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 23 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Tinea unguium is also known as:
Question options:
a) Onychomycosis
b) Tinea versicolor
c) Tinea manuum
d) Tinea corporis
Question 25 2 / 2 points
The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?
Question options:
a) Recent heat stroke
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment
d) All of the above
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?
Question options:
a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.
b) Pinch the skin taut together.
c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.
d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?
Question options:
a) Diarrhea
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Closed-angle glaucoma
d) Breast cancer
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 29 2 / 2 points
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question options:
a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
b) Josh has red papules on his face.
c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.
d) There are white streaks on his neck.
Question 31 2 / 2 points
The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
Question options:
a) A skin tag
b) Actinic keratosis
c) A melanoma
d) A basal cell lesion
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?
Question options:
a) Telogen effluvium (TE)
b) Trichotillomania
c) Psoriasis
d) Alopecia areata
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
b) Ice pack to the scrotal area
c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
d) All of the above
Question 34 2 / 2 points
A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Lower urinary tract infection
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Candidiasis
d) Pyelonephritis
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?
Question options:
a) Milk
b) Bananas
c) Soy sauce
d) All of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:
Question options:
a) Bulla
b) Scale
c) Excoriation
d) Fissure
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?
Question options:
a) Urethral polyps
b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
c) Anticholinergic medication
d) All of the above
Question 38 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?
Question options:
a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”
b) “What medications are you currently taking?”
c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?
Question options:
a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”
b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”
c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”
d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?
Question options:
a) Warm sitz baths
b) Scrotal elevation
c) Masturbation
d) All of the above
Question 41 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?
Question options:
a) Hypertension
b) Constipation
c) Tubal ligation
d) Diabetes
Question 42 2 / 2 points
A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Psychogenic nocturia
b) Urethral polyp
c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Question 43 0 / 2 points
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?
Question options:
a) Staphylococcal aureus
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) S. pyrogenes
d) Streptococcus
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
c) Cellulitis
d) A diabetic ulcer
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
Question options:
a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.
b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
c) Their skin is thicker.
d) Their immune system is stronger.
Question 47 2 / 2 points
A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
Question options:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 48 2 / 2 points
When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?
Question options:
a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.
b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.
c) Only take short tepid showers.
d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?
Question options:
a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.
b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.
c) Drink more black tea.
d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
Question options:
a) 3 to 7 days
b) 14 to 21 days
c) 3 to 6 weeks
d) 6 to 12 weeks
MN568 Unit 4 Exam
MN568 Unit 4 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?
Question options:
a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.
b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,
c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?
Question options:
a) Very early
b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation
c) Late in inflammation
d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Lactase deficiency
d) All of the above
Question 4 0 / 2 points
If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?
Question options:
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Hiatal hernia
c) Costochondritis
d) Pericarditis
Question 5 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?
Question options:
a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea
b) Wakens at night with diarrhea
c) History of international travel
d) All of the above
Question 6 2 / 2 points
In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
Question options:
a) First-degree AV block
b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
d) Third-degree AV block
Question 7 2 / 2 points
For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
Question options:
a) 6 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 10 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?
Question options:
a) Malabsorption
b) Constipation
c) Rectal bleeding
d) Esophageal ulceration
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?
Question options:
a) CBC with differential
b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Barium enema
d) Computed tomography of the abdomen
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Question options:
a) Greater than 30
b) Greater than 40
c) Greater than 50
d) Greater than 60
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea.Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Feels relief after a bowel movement
b) Sometimes is constipated
c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night
d) All of the above
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
Question options:
a) A physiologic split S2
b) A fixed split S2
c) S3
d) S4
Question 13 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?
Question options:
a) This is a premalignant tissue.
b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
d) All of the above
Question 14 0 / 2 points
A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
Question options:
a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells
b) Inadequate hepatocyte function
c) Biliary obstruction
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
Question options:
a) B-type natriuretic peptide
b) C-reactive protein
c) Serum albumin
d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Your patient with permanent afib asks when he can discontinue his warfarin. You tell him:
Question options:
a) When your internalized normalized ratio reaches 3.0, you can stop taking your warfarin permanently.
b) When you no longer feel ill
c) One month after your symptoms dissipate
d) You’ll probably be on it indefinitely.
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d) Complete blood cell count
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
Question options:
a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
d) None of the statements are true.
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?
Question options:
a) Obtain a complete history.
b) Order a barium enema.
c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.
d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?
Question options:
a) Digital rectal exam
b) Pelvic exam
c) Sexual history
d) All of the above
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?
Question options:
a) Her age
b) Frequent constipation
c) Flatulence
d) Colicky abdominal pain
Question 22 2 / 2 points
Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?
Question options:
a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.
b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
Question 23 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis. The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Question options:
a) Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase
b) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c) Elevated indirect bilirubin
d) Decreased white blood cells
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Bactrim
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?
Question options:
a) Stool culture
b) Liver enzymes
c) Antihepatitis D virus
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Statins are approved for which age group?
Question options:
a) Children over the age of 2
b) Children over the age of 6
c) Children over the age of 10
d) Only adolescents and adults
Question 27 2 / 2 points
When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
Question options:
a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
d) Beta blocker
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?
Question options:
a) Less than 0.25
b) Less than 0.50
c) Less than 0.90
d) Greater than 1
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Which group would most benefit from statins?
Question options:
a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL
b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease
c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%
d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?
Question options:
a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
Question 32 2 / 2 points
The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?
Question options:
a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).
b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.
c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.
d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?
Question options:
a) Multivitamin
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Pepto-Bismol
d) Ibuprofen
Question 34 2 / 2 points
You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?
Question options:
a) Swimming
b) Weight lifting
c) Golfing
d) Walking
Question 36 2 / 2 points
A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
Question options:
a) A high mortality rate
b) An increased chance of recurrence
c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A Delta wave on the ECG may be present in which condition?
Question options:
a) Prinzmetal’s angina
b) Bundle branch block
c) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
d) Aortic stenosis
Question 38 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:
Question options:
a) Maintaining a body mass index of 17
b) Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day
c) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day
d) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?
Question options:
a) Fleeting
b) Moving
c) Diffuse
d) Localized
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
Question options:
a) T-wave inversion
b) ST-segment elevation
c) Significant Q wave
d) U-wave
Question 41 0 / 2 points
A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
Question options:
a) His gender
b) His age
c) His use of Alka-Seltzer
d) His ethnic origin
Question 42 2 / 2 points
Which murmurs are usually ‘watch and wait’?
Question options:
a) Systolic murmurs
b) Diastolic murmurs
c) They both are dangerous and need immediate attention.
d) You can ‘watch and wait’ for both of them.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Endometriosis
b) Colon cancer
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 44 2 / 2 points
George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
Question options:
a) His age
b) His cholesterol level
c) His systolic BP
d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
Question options:
a) Use of NSAIDs
b) Cigarette smoker
c) Ethanol consumption
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the‘A’ stands for:
Question options:
a) Anticoagulation
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Age
d) Antihypertension
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?
Question options:
a) Initially in 6 weeks
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?
Question options:
a) Eliminate coffee.
b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
c) Recline and rest after meals.
d) Limit the amount of antacids.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Question options:
a) Severe asthma
b) A common valvular lesion
c) Severe hypertension
d) A prosthetic heart valve
Question 50 2 / 2 points
You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?
Question options:
a) Her waist is 36 inches.
b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c) Her BP is 128/84.
d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
MN568 Unit 2 Exam
MN568 Unit 2 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
Question options:
a) 0 to 7 mm Hg
b) 8 to 21 mm Hg
c) 22 to 40 mm Hg
d) 40 to 80 mm Hg
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) COPD
Question 3 0 / 2 points
A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
Question options:
a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
Question options:
a) Coxsackievirus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Group A streptococcus
Question 5 2 / 2 points
The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
Question options:
a) HSV type 2
b) HIV
c) Pneumonia
d) Syphilis
Question 6 0 / 2 points
Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:
Question options:
a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL
b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL
d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Question 7 0 / 2 points
African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c) Leukotriene receptor agonists
d) Oral corticosteroids
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?
Question options:
a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
Question options:
a) He should stop smoking today.
b) He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c) His quit date should be in 1 week.
d) He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 10 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:
Question options:
a) Metoprolol
b) Clopidogrel
c) Tadalafil
d) Captopril
Question 12 0 / 2 points
You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b) “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c) “Drive to the emergency room now.”
d) “Call 911.”
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?
Question options:
a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Question 14 0 / 2 points
You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Question options:
a) Baker phenomenon
b) Arnold reflex
c) Cough reflex
d) Tragus reflex
Question 15 0 / 2 points
Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Question options:
a) Glaucoma
b) Increased sperm quality
c) Bladder cancer
d) Eczema
Question 18 0 / 2 points
Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
Question options:
a) African American men
b) Scandinavian men and women
c) Caucasian women
d) Asian men
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?
Question options:
a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.
c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.
d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Sinusitis
c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d) Influenza
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?
Question options:
a) Mild intermittent
b) Mild persistent
c) Moderate persistent
d) Severe persistent
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A chronic cough lasts longer than:
Question options:
a) 3 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 8 weeks
Question 23 0 / 2 points
Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Question options:
a) True
b) False.
Question 24 0 / 2 points
As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:
Question options:
a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions
b) Blood vessel proliferation
c) Venous beading
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Question 25 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?
Question options:
a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Question 27 0 / 2 points
Sam, age 78, presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. His pulmonary function tests are as follows: a normal total lung capacity, a decreased PaO2, and an increased PaCO2. On assessment, you auscultate coarse crackles and forced expiratory wheezes. What is your diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Influenza
Question 28 0 / 2 points
Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?
Question options:
a) Nuclear cataracts
b) Cortical cataracts
c) Posterior cataracts
d) Immature cataracts
Question 29 0 / 2 points
Otitis media is considered chronic when:
Question options:
a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
d) All of the above
Question 30 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Question options:
a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b) Otosclerosis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Presbycusis
Question 31 0 / 2 points
A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Mononucleosis
c) Influenza
d) Herpes zoster
Question 32 0 / 2 points
You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Consider home treatment.
b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.
c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.
d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Question options:
a) Pharyngitis
b) Allergies
c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d) Perforation of the eardrum
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Question options:
a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d) All of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen.Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?
Question options:
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Probiotic
d) Phytonadione
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
Question options:
a) Chronic coughing
b) Hyperinflation
c) Polycythemia
d) Pulmonary hypertension
Question 37 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
Question options:
a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 38 0 / 2 points
Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?
Question options:
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Exudative pharyngitis
d) Rhinorrhea
Question 39 0 / 2 points
Which statement about adenocarcinoma of the lung is accurate?
Question options:
a) It is the least common type of lung cancer, representing approximately 5% to 10% of cases.
b) It is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lungs in both sexes and in nonsmokers, representing 35% to 40% of all tumors.
c) It is more common in men than in women and occurs almost entirely in cigarette smokers.
d) It is aggressive, with rapid growth and early local and distant metastases via the lymphatic and blood vessels.
Question 40 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition?
Question options:
a) Otitis media
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Tinnitus
d) Otitis externa
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?
Question options:
a) 3 to 5 hours
b) 6 to 10 hours
c) 11 to 14 hours
d) 15 to 18 hours
Question 42 0 / 2 points
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?
Question options:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Timolol
c) Brinzolamide
d) Acetazolamide
Question 43 2 / 2 points
You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:
Question options:
a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
d) call 911.
Question 44 2 / 2 points
You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:
Question options:
a) to refer the patient.
b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.
c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.
d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?
Question options:
a) Vasomotor rhinitis
b) Rhinitis medicamentosum
c) Atrophic rhinitis
d) Viral rhinitis
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?
Question options:
a) Recurrent sinusitis
b) Allergic sinusitis
c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
d) All of the above
Question 47 0 / 2 points
The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?
Question options:
a) Weber test
b) Schwabach test
c) Rinne test
d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:
Question options:
a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
Question options:
a) Fungi
b) Viruses
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroid
b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
c) Systemic corticosteroid
d) Methyl xanthenes
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
Question 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall.
She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question.2 In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question.3 Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a.Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b.Elevated T4
c.Elevated TRH
d.All of the above
Question.4 Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepinesb.
Antipsychoticsc.
Anticonvulsantsd.
Antidepressants
Question.5 When may confidentiality be overridden?
When personal information is available on the computer
When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene testX
When a patient has a communicable disease
Question.6 What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question.7 The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
All of the above
Question.8 Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question.9 Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Veracity
Question.10 George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question.11 A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test.
Endometrial biopsy
Pelvic ultrasound
Platelet count
Question.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question.13 During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question.14 Which drug commonly prescribed …. partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver nitratex
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question.15 A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question.16 After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
Send her for acupuncture treatments
All of the above
Question.17 Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
Doxycycline
Question.18 Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
accidental.
caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
not attributed to any reason.
Question.19 Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
Dilute povidone-iodine solutionx
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question.20 A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question.21 What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
A pain that is worse upon awakening
A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question.22 Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
A 40-year-old African American male
A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question.23 If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
The area will be super sensitive.
The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question.24 The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?
Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
Compete eradication of the virus
Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
Complete abstinence
Question.25 The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question.26 The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question.27 In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensusx
Certification
Collaboration
Question.28 Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate painbut should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
All of the above
Question.29 Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question.30 CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and non physician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. Which of the following are part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question.31 Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
x 20%
30%
50%
Question.32 A bulla is:
A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question.33 Clinicians who learn how to code and document Evaluation and Management (E&M) and clinician services will be more successful in gaining timely payment for care delivery. Which or the following Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) practices are designed to financially penalize clinicians who do not bill according to CMS guidelines?
Audits and probes
Add-on codes
Modifier codes
HAC guidelines
Question 34. Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
Impaired attention
Affective changes
Delusions
Question.35 Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question.36 A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question.37 When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question.38 Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
Identifying and managing complications of care
All of the above
Question.39 Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question.40 Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
Topiramate
Question.41 A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question. 42 How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
Every 6 months
Every 3 months
Every visit
Question.43 A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Trichomonas
Bacterial vaginosis
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question.44 After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question.45 The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:
Good liability insurance
A collaborating physician
Good documentation
Open communication skills
Question.46 The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
Question. 47 What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question. 48 Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question.49 Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Anxiolytics
Antidepressants
Atypical antipsychotics
Question.50 Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
a. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
a. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
a. Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
a. Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
a. Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
a. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
a. Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
a. Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
a. Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
a. Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
Walden NURS6501 Week 8
Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:
a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred
Question 2
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?
a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption
Question 3
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:
a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.
Question 4
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery
Question 5
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.
Question 6
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Question 7
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
Question 16
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn
Question 17
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose
Question 18
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender b
because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A.Antianxiety
B.Narcotic Analgesics
C.Barbituates
D.Antitussives
Question 2 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will
A.Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and thenadd the medications ordered during the hospitalization.
B.compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medicationsobtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.
C.explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. D.determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications
Question 3 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a
C-I drug.
C-II drug.
C-III drug.
C-IV drug
Question 4 A nurse works in a private hospital and needs to administer some narcotic drugs to one of her patients. Which of the following should the nurse consider when administering narcotics to patients in a hospital setting?
Narcotics are banned in private settings and cannot be used.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital after obtaining written approval from the Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations(JCAHO).
Narcotics to be used in the hospital are dispensed only with a written prescription.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital according to patient preferences
Question 5 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug
A.Schedule 1
B.Schedule 2
C.Schedule 3
D.Schedule 4
Question 6 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by
A.washing his or her hands before handling the medications.
B.consulting a drug guide for compatibility.
C.identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.
D.questioning the patient concerning allergies.
Question 7 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, whohave the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occurfrom taking an experimental drug
Question 8 Federal legislation dictates a lengthy and rigorous process of testing for new drugs. What is the primary purpose of this testing process?
To protect state and federal departments from legal liability
To maximize autonomy and treatment options for citizens
To facilitate the efficiency of health care delivery
To ensure the safety of the public
Question 9 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 5
Schedule 2
Question 10 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?
A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A 62-year-old male with gout
Question 11 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use.They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Question 12 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess
blood pressure.
body temperature.
fluid intake.
skin changes
Question 13 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.
A.Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?
B.Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?
C.Can the patient take the prescribed drug?
None of the above
Question 14 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a
higher-than-normal dose.
weight-based protocol dose.
lower-than-normal dose.
child’s dose
Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml tid for 10 days? The nurse practitioner would expect the pharmacist to fill the prescription bottle with how many ml?
50 ml
100 ml
120 ml
150 ml
Question 16 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states
Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.
Question 17 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient’s plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?
The drugs’ chemical names
The drugs’ generic names
The drugs’ trade names
The drugs’ biologic names
Question 18 A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old woman who was sponsored to emigrate from Mexico to the United States 6 months ago. Earlier this week, the woman slipped while getting off a bus and fractured her hip. How should the woman’s nurse best exemplify cultural competence in the care of this patient?
Ensure that the woman receives care solely from Spanish-speaking caregivers.
Consider dimensions of the woman’s cultural background when planning care.
Integrate teaching about American culture when interacting with the patient.
Address the woman’s children first when explaining her care and changes in her health status.
Question 19 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation
Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will
Speak loudly
Exaggerate her mouth movements
Use nonverbal language
Speak fast
Question 21 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
National Provider Identification (NPI)
B.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C.Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)
D.None of the above
Question 22 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be
“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.”
“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”
Question 23 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Question 25 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
Constant, burning, and throbbing with an acute onset
Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure
Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint
Begins in the morning and limits continued ambulation
Question 2. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:
Recommending she increase her dietary intake of Calcium and Vitamin D
Ordering once a year bisphosphonate and a proton pump inhibitor
Participate in a fall prevention program
Dual-energy X-ray (DEXA) scan and updating immunizations
Question 3. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:
Green leafy vegetables
Beer, sausage, fried seafood
Sugar
Gluten and bread items
Question 4. A 33-year-old female reports general malaise, fatigue, stiffness, and pain in multiple joints of the body. There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma. On physical examination, the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints. She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected. She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck, both shoulders, hips, and medial regions of the knees. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Fibromyalgia
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Question 5. A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue, general malaise, and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks. She reports that pain, stiffness, and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning. On physical examination, you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. These are common signs of:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
Sarcoidosis
Question 6. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?
It affects primarily weight-bearing joints
It is a systemic inflammatory illness
The metacarpal phalangeal joints are commonly involved
Prolonged morning stiffness is common
Question 7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
Indomethacin 50 mg thrice daily for 2 days; then 25 mg thrice daily for 3 days
Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
Prednisolone 35 mg four times a day for 5 days
Ice therapy
Question 8. A 34-year-old female presents with fever, general malaise, fatigue, arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks. Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies, anti-DNA antibodies, elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:
Fibromyalgia
Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 9. Your 66-year-old male patient has recently started treatment for metabolic syndrome and is currently taking the following medications: an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker for treatment of hypertension. He is also taking a statin medication, simvastatin for hyperlipidemia, and a biguanide, metformin, for type 2 diabetes. The patient complains of myalgias of the legs bilaterally and blood work shows elevated serum creatine kinase. Which of the medications can cause such a side effect?
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Statin medication
Metformin
Question 10. A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain. He complains of right knee pain when kneeling, squatting, or walking up and down stairs. On physical examination, there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee. He is unable to squat due to pain. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Joint infection
Chondromalacia patella
Prepatellar bursitis
All of the above
Question 11. A 17-year-old male complains of severe right knee pain. He was playing football when he heard a “pop” at the moment of being tackled and his knee “gave away” from under him. On physical examination, there is right knee swelling and decreased range of motion. There is a positive anterior drawer sign. These findings indicate:
Knee ligament injury
Osgood-Schlatter disease
Prepatellar bursitis
Chondromalacia patella
Question 12. A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday. He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot. On physical examination, the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?
Straight leg raising sign
Lumbar herniated disc on X-ray
Loss of left sided patellar reflex
Urinary incontinence
Question 13. Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain. On physical examination, there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician’s resistance. These are typical signs of:
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Osteoarthritis of the wrist
Epicondylitis
Cervical osteoarthritis
Question 14. Which of the following describes the pathology of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?
Irritation of a tendon located on the radial side of the wrist, near the thumb
Impingement of the median nerve, causing pain in the palm and fingers
Fluid-filled cyst that typically develops adjacent to a tendon sheath in the wrist
Ulnar nerve compression at the olecranon process
Question 15. What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Trauma due to fall
Trochanteric bursitis
Question 16. A 43-year-old female was in a bicycling accident and complains of severe pain of the right foot. The patient limps into the emergency room. On physical examination, there is no point tenderness over the medial or lateral ankle malleolus. There is no foot tenderness except at the base of the fifth metatarsal bone. According to the Ottawa foot rules, should an X-ray of the feet be ordered?
Yes, there is tenderness over the fifth metatarsal
No, there is not tenderness over the navicular bone
Yes, the patient cannot bear weight on the foot
A and C
Question 17. 38-year-old Asian male, Mr. Chen, with past medical history significant for prehypertension who has recently taken up softball presents with three to five weeks of shoulder pain when throwing overhead. Ice minimally alleviates pain. Medications: Naproxen minimally alleviates shoulder pain. Allergies: Penicillin-associated rash. Family history: Brother has rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following musculoskeletal causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?
Adhesive capsulitis
Septic subacromial bursitis
Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
Calcific tendinopathy
Question 18. If Mr. Chen had restricted passive as well as active ROM of the shoulder, what problems involving the shoulder might you consider?
Adhesive capsulitis
Rotator cuff tear
Tendinopathy of the long head of the biceps
Rotator cuff impingment
Question 19. What is the essential dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
Labrum
Rotator muscle group
Glenohumeral ligaments
Teres major muscle
Question 20. Given Mr. Chen’s repetitive overhead activities, some injury to his rotator cuff muscle group is most likely. Of the following exam findings, which one would not support the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinopathy?
Positive Apley’s Scratch test
Weakness and pain with empty can testing
Limited active ROM
Inability to raise arm above his head
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint, it is important to first:
Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed
Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination
Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion
Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis
Question 2. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella virus?
Tinea versicolor
Seborrheic keratosis
Verruca
Herpes zoster
Question 3. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:
All symptoms should disappear within three days
Oral medications can dramatically reduce the duration and intensity of his symptoms
He has chickenpox and can be contagious to his grandchildren
He has a sexually transmitted disease
Question 4. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?
Ignore the lesion, as it is associated with aging.
Instruct him to use a nonprescription hydrocortisone cream to dry up the lesion.
Perform a biopsy or refer to a dermatologist.
Advise him to use a dandruff shampoo and return in one month if the lesion has not gone away.
Question 5. The appearance of a 2-10 cm. herald patch with subsequent development of parallel oval lesions on the trunk in a christmas tree distribution involving the upper arms and upper legs are common in:
Pityriasis Rosea
Shingles
Psoriasis
Lymes Disease
Question 6. Mr. Fitzgerald is a 68-year-old previously healthy man with a history of significant sun exposure who presents with a progressively enlarging 18 x 16 mm erythematous pruritic oval patch on his left forearm that has been present for three to four years. Your differential would include all of the following EXCEPT:
Fungal skin infection
Eczema
Seborrheic Keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Question 7. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
Scales
Vesicles
Plaques
Urticaria
Question 8. Among the following conditions, which needs to be treated with systemic antifungal agents?
Tinea pedis/tinea magnum
Tinea corporis/tinea cruris
Tinea capitis/Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)
Tinea pedis /tinea faciale
Question 9. Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?
Scabies
Herpes zoster
Tinea
Dyshidrosis
Question 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describes which skin lesion?
Seborrheic keratosis
Malignant melanoma
Herpes zoster
Basal cell carcinoma
Question 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?
Cellulitis is two times more common in women
Facial cellulitis is more common in people >55
There is low incidence of cellulitis in patients with diabetes
Cellulitis is only a disease of the lower extremities of patients with known arterial insufficiency
Question 12. Folliculitis is most commonly due to:
Contact dermatitis
Varicella zoster
Dermatophytes
Staphylococcal infection
Question 13. The anti-inflammatory properties of topical corticosteroids result in part from their ability to induce vasoconstriction to the small blood vessels in the upper dermis. Of the following, which is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
Hydrocortisone 2.5%
Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%
Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%
Alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%
Question 14. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?
Cool, erythematous, shiny hairless extremity with decreased pulse
Scattered, erythematous ring-like lesions with clear centers
Clearly demarcated, raised erythematous area of face
Diffusely inflamed skin that is warm and tender to palpation
Question 15. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Leukoplakia
Senile lentigines
Question 16. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
Circular erythematous patches with papular, scaly annular borders and clear discharge
Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs
Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders
Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases
Question 17. A patient has a tender, firm, nodular cystic lesion on his scalp that produces cheesy discharge with foul odor. This is most likely a:
Bacterial folliculitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Bullous impetigo
Epidermoid cyst
Question 18. Patient presents with complaint of a “swollen node” under his arm. The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days. Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Epidermoid cyst
Furuncle
Both A and C
Question 19. A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago, and today presents with a painful, warm, red swollen region around the area. The laceration has a purulent exudate. The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:
Contact dermatitis
Folliculitis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Cellulitis
Question 20. A woman complains of malaise and arthralgias. You note a butterfly-shaped, macular, erythematous rash across her cheeks and nose. These conditions are common in:
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Erythema nodosum
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Asians
Hispanics
African Americans
American Indians
Question 2.Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?
Every 6 months
Yearly
Every 2 years
Every 2 to 4 years
Question 3. Your 55-year-old male patient presents to your office with complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
Ultrasound of the abdomen
Abdominal X-ray
Digital rectal examination
Spiral CT scan
Question 4. The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:
Ureteral rupture
Hydronephrosis
Kidney mass
Renal artery stenosis
Question 5. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Nephrolithiasis
Hydronephrosis
Pyelonephritis
Question 6. On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
Urinary tract infection
Bladder cancer
Nephrolithiasis
Pyelonephritis
Question 7. On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal urinalysis. The patient’s PSA is within normal limits for the patient’s age. The clinician should:
Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
Obtain an abdominal X-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
Recognize this as a normal finding that requires periodic follow up
Obtain urine culture and sensitivity for prostatitis
Question 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except:
Increased estrogen production’s influence on the bladder and ureter
Decline in bladder outlet function
Decline in ureteral resistance pressure
Laxity of the pelvic muscle
Question 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of this procedure?
Urinary incontinence
Impotence
Dribbling urine
Selected low back pain
Question 10. Your 77-year-old patient complains of frequent urination, hesitation in getting the stream started, and nocturnal frequency of urination that is bothersome. On DRE, there is an enlarged, firm, non-tender, smooth prostate. The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Question 11. Your 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria as well as frequency and urgency of urination that develops the day after she uses her diaphragm. Urine culture reveals a bacterial count of 100 CFU/mL. These signs and symptoms indicate:
Upper urinary tract infection
Normal bacteriuria
Lower urinary tract infection
Urethritis
Question 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/ml. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 ml; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 ml; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?
PSA level of 3.3 ng/ml
Decreased bladder capacity
Involuntary detrusor contradictions
Increased postvoid residual urine volume
Question 13. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?
Examination of her thyroid to rule out thyroid nodules that may contribute to her feeling fatigued.
Auscultation of her abdomen for abnormal bowel sounds to rule out peritonitis.
Thorough abdominal and gynecological exam to rule out masses and identify any tenderness.
A rectal examination to rule out colon cancer as a secondary site for breast cancer.
Question 14. A 27-year-old male comes in to the clinic for symptoms of dysuria, urinary frequency, as well as urgency and perineal pain. Transrectal palpation of the prostate reveals a very tender, boggy, swollen prostate. The clinician should recognize these as signs of:
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Question 15. Which of the following males would be at greatest risk for testicular cancer?
John, a 52-year-old, married African American Attorney who lives in Detroit, MI
Jacob, a 22-year-old, homosexual male, who works as an accountant, resides in Cumming GA, and has a history of cryptorchidism
Andy, a 27-year-old, Caucasian, single male who resides in Waukesha, WI and works as a maintenance mechanic
Ryan, a 34-year-old healthy, married man from Sweden, who works as a Registered Nurse in Boston, MA
Question 16. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Pyelonephritis
Nephrolithiasis
Hydonephrosis
Question 17. Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?
Cystocele
Overactive bladder
Uterine prolapse
All of the above
Question 18. Your 18 year old sexually active patient presents with sudden right sided groin pain that is sharp and constant. Inspection of his genitals reveals a swollen and erythematous right scrotum. His right testicle is exquisitely tender, swollen and has no palpable masses. Elevation of the testis results in no reduction in pain. The left scrotum and the testicle are normal. Epididymis and other scrotal contents were within normal limits. The scrotum does not transilluminate. Cremasteric reflex is present on the left side but absent on the right. There is no penile discharge, inguinal lymphadenopathy, or hernias.
Based on the history and physical exam your immediate concern is for:
Torsion
Infection
Cancer
Rupture
Question 19. The Prehn sign is utilized to distinguish epididymitis from testicular torsion. Epididymitis is considered when the Prehn sign is positive. When is the Prehn sign determined to be positive?
Pain is relieved by lifting of the testicle.
Tenderness is limited to the upper pole of the testis.
Lightly stroking or pinching the superior medial aspect of the thigh causes testicular retraction.
A small bluish discoloration is visible through the skin in the upper pole.
Question 20. Which of the following exam findings makes the diagnosis of testicular tumor more likely?
A scrotal mass that is accompanied by exquisite tenderness.
Testicular swelling is mostly fluid and transilluminates easily
A testicular mass that is non-tender to palpation
Dilated and tortuous veins in the pampiniform plexus
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1: Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?
Bulging tympanic membrane
Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
Increased tympanic membrane mobility
All of the above
Question 2. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 3. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 4. A 56-year-old male complains of anorexia, changes in bowel habits, extreme fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. At times he is constipated and other times he has episodes of diarrhea. His physical examination is unremarkable. It is important for the clinician to recognize the importance of:
CBC with differential
Stool culture and sensitivity
Abdominal X-ray
Colonoscopy
Question 5. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 6. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fracture
Question 7. An 82-year-old female presents to the emergency department with epigastric pain and weakness. She admits to having dark, tarry stools for the last few days. She reports a long history of pain due to osteoarthritis. She self-medicates daily with ibuprofen, naprosyn, and aspirin for joint pain. On physical examination, she has orthostatic hypotension and pallor. Fecal occult blood test is positive. A likely etiology of the patient’s problem is:
Mallory-Weiss tear
Esophageal varices
Gastric ulcer
Question 1. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?
Seasonal allergies
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Question 2. A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be?
Observation and reassurance
Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin
Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate
Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler.
Question 3.Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients?
Asymmetric chest expansion
Increased lateral diameter
Increased anterior-posterior diameter
Pectus excavatum
Question 4. When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction:
No palpable vibration is felt
Decreased fremitus is felt
Increased fremitus is felt
Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe
Question 5. Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma?
Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling
Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy
Clubbing, cyanosis and edema.
Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases
Question 6.Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views
Ultrasound
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Question 7. A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to:
Exercise-induced cough
Bronchiectasis
Alpha-1 deficiency
Pericarditis
Question 8. Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to:
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Question 9. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
Pulmonary edema
Heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Question 10. A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:
2 weeks or more
8 weeks or more
3 months or more
6 months or more
Question 11. Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze?
Chest X-ray
Methacholine challenge test
Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation
Ventilation/perfusion scan
Question 12. In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include:
Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5%
Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5%
Question 13. The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home:
Age over 40
Fever greater than 101
Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute
Productive cough
Question 14. Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is:
High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist
Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate
Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline
Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler
Question 15. A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient:
Can be treated as an outpatient
Requires hospitalization for treatment
Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic
Can be treated with oral antibiotics
Question 16. Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia?
Fever of 102
Infiltrates on chest X-ray
Pleural effusion on chest X-ray
Elevated white blood cell count
Question 17. A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
Barrel-shaped chest
Clubbing
Pectus excavatum
Prolonged capillary refill
Question 18. Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect:
Legionnaires’ disease
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Question 19. A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of:
Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
COPD
Question 20. A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident.Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect:
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Fracture of ribs
NSG6420 Week 2
NSG6420 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:
Acoustic neuroma
Cerumen impaction
Otitis media
Ménière’s disease
Question 2. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fractur
Question 3. A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin?
Amoxicillin
EES (erythromycin)
Bicillin L-A
Dicloxacillin
Question 4. Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:
Physiologic aging
Ménière’s disease
Cerumen impaction
Herpes zoster
Question 5. Epistaxis can be a symptom of:
Over-anticoagulation
Hematologic malignancy
Cocaine abuse
All of the above
Question 6. Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Aphthous ulceration
Behcet’s syndrome
Question 7. A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment?
Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain.
Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion
Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion
Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion
Question 8. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 9. Dizziness that is described as “lightheaded” or, “like I’m going to faint,” is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as?
Presyncope
Disequilibrium
Vertigo
Syncope
Question 10. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected.
Cataract
Macular degeneration
Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Question 11. Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be?
Vestibular neruitis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Vestibular migraine
Benign hypertensive central vertigo
Question 12. Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging?
A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses.
A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive.
A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed.
Question 13.A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with:
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Chemical conjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis
Question 14. In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness?
History of prior red-eye episodes
Grossly visible corneal defect
Exophthalmos
Photophobia
Question 15. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
Bacterium
Allergen
Virus
Fungi
Question 16. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?
Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation
Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation
Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction
Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability
Question 17. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?
Ménière’s disease
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Migraine
Question 18. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?
Fictional keratosis
Keratoacanthoma
Lichen planus
Leukoplakia
Question 19. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?
Epstein-Barr virus
Diphtheria
Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 20. A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?
Mono spot
Strep test
Throat culture
All of the above
NSG6420 Week 1
NSG6420 Week 1 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
Reduced physiological reserve
Reduced homeostatic mechanisms
Impaired immunological response
All of the above
Question 2. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
Less obesity rates than women
Prostate enlargement
Testosterone
Less estrogen than women
Question 3. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 4. Functional abilities are best assessed by:
Self-report of function
Observed assessment of function
A comprehensive head-to-toe examination
Family report of function
Question 5. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data?
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)
Serum ferritin and serum iron
Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation
Question 6. When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased
Question 7. The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:
Depleted iron stores
Impaired ability to use iron stores
Chronic unable bleeding
Reduced intestinal absorption of iron
Question 8. The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is:
Replenishing iron stores
Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron
Management of the underlying disorder
Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections
Question 9. In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?
Serum iron
Total iron binding capacity
Transferrin saturation
Serum ferritin
Question 10. Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except:
Sore throat
Fever
Weight loss
Headache
Question 11. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:
Chief complaint
History of the present illness
Current vital signs
All of the above are essential history components
Question 12.Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients?
Clinical practice guideline
Clinical decision rule
Clinical algorithm
Clinical recommendation
Question 13. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding:
Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease
Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to become carriers
Question 15. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 16. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:
Not be affected by the disorder herself
Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female)
Not transmit the disorder to her daughters
Transmit the disorder to only her daughters
Question 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA):
Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential
NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients
Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information
All of the above
Question 18. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment?
Colon cancer in family member at age 70
Breast cancer in family member at age 75
Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35
All of the above
Question 19. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as:
Variable expressivity related to inherited disease
Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease
De novo mutations of genetic disease
Different penetrant signs of genetic disease
Question 20.In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should:
Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet
Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder
Interview family members regarding genetic disorders
All of the above
NR 511 Week 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Ergotamine
b. Timolol
Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensus
Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
4
8 d
10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound .
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
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Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities
1000-2000words
Production/Operation
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
(TCO 1) Historians and political scientists are different because historians _____ and political scientists _____. (Points : 2)
A) Historians look for generalizations, while political scientists are reluctant to generalize
B) Historians are somewhat more reluctant to generalize, while political scientists look for generalizations
C) Historians are much more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists are
D) Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, while political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations
(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
A) Political scientists often train politicians
B) Politicians often train political scientists
C)Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter
D) Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable
(TCO 1) Voting for someone who is charismatic but whose policies might not benefit you would be considered _____ behavior. (Points : 2)
A) irrational
B) rational
C) legitimate
D) selfish
(TCO 1) _____ is the use of public office for private gain.(Points : 2)
A) Sovereignty
B) Corruption
C) Authority
D) Legitimacy
(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____. (Points : 2)
A) sovereignty
B) authority
C) legitimacy
D) monarchy
(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____
A) scholarship
B) theory
C) power
D) culture
(TCO 1) The term for measuring with numbers is _____. (Points : 2)
A) quantify
B) hypothesis
C) qualify
D) empirical
(TCO 4) The English common law stressed the rights of free and equal men and was developed on the basis of precedent set by earlier judges, known today as _____. (Points : 2)
A) judge-made law
B) judicial precedent
C) example by trial
D) court-generated
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern? (Points : 2)
A) Extortion
B) Theft
C) Divorce
D) Trafficking
(TCO 4) The concept of judicial review falls under which article of the U.S. Constitution?(Points : 2)
A) Article I: The Legislative Branch
B) Article III: The Judicial Branch
C) Article VI: Debts, Supremacy, Oaths
D) Judicial review is not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.
(TCO 4) Who nominates and approves federal judges in the U.S. court system? (Points : 2)
A) The President and the Senate
B) The Senate and the House
C) The President and Speaker of the House
D) The Senate and the Secretary of State
(TCO 4) Which of the following was an argument against granting the U.S. Supreme Court the power of judicial review? (Points : 2)
A) Many feared that such a power would give the Court a double check and compromise its neutrality.
B) Some thought that such power would create untrustworthy judges.
C) The founding fathers argued that judicial review would lead to undue indictments by the Court.
D) Drafters of the Constitution feared that few laws would ever be set in stone.
(TCO 4) Examine the ideal role of American judges. (Points : 2)
A) Judges should intervene frequently, interpreting the law according to their expertise and ensuring a fair trial
B) Judges should act as umpires, passively watching the legal drama and ruling only on disputed points of procedure
C) Judges should not intervene unless attorneys object, at which point they may either overrule or sustain the objection
D) Judges should take an active role, questioning witnesses, eliciting evidence, and commenting on procedure.
(TCO 4) In Lombard v. Louisiana (1963), the Warren Court supported _____, ruling that blacks who had refused to leave a segregated lunch counter could not be prosecuted. (Points : 2)
A) boycotts
B) sit-ins
C) picket lines
D) protests
(TCO 5) Why do the responsibilities of legislative and executive powers often overlap? (Points : 2)
A) Separation of powers is rarely clear-cut
B) Separation of powers is rare among industrialized nations
C) Separation of powers is absolute
D) Separation of powers grants obtuse levels of power to the executive branch.
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
A) Every four years
B) Every six years
C) Every eight years
D) When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executivelegislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States. (Points : 2)
A) cooperation
B) stagnation
C) deadlock
D) insolvency
(TCO 5) Who directly calls forth the leader of the largest party to take office with a cabinet and become the prime minister? (Points : 2)
A) The voters
B) Parliament
C) The monarch
D) The House of Commons
DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 2
(TCO 5) When it comes to electing officials, which factor matters the most to voters in both presidential and parliamentary elections? (Points : 2)
A) Party affiliation
B) Political ideologies
C) Money invested in campaign
D) Personality
(TCO 5) Who receives the most attention in both parliamentary and presidential systems? (Points : 2)
A) Head of state
B) Chief executive
C) The legislature
D) Voting citizens
(TCO 5) Describe how the United States expands its cabinet. (Points : 2)
A) The president can create a new department at his or her will
B) Congress must agree on the new department and provisions for its funds must be made
C) In order for a new department to be developed, a former one must be deleted
D) New departments are no longer developed
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations. (Points : 2)
A) Marxism
B) laissez-faire
C) public-choice
D) Keynesian
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissezfaire policies developed by Adam Smith? (Points : 2)
A) Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, while Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens
B) Laissez-faire policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, while Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach
C) Keynesian policies advocate for increased government control of economics, while traditional laissez-faire economics argues for a hands-free approach
D) The more liberal laissez-faire economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, while Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top one percent
(TCO 7) What event is largely considered responsible for deterring Johnson’s War on Poverty? (Points : 2)
A) Great Society
B) Vietnam War
C) Middle-class entitlements
D) Tax expenditures
(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
A) The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily
B) Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class
C) Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others
D) Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system
(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
A) Many would be left without enough to support them
B) Caps to these program would undermine the welfare state
C) It can cost them votes
D) Both are primary social safety nets
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
A) Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States
B) Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States
C) The United States allocates about the same to welfare
D) Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare
(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points :2)
A) Citizens will default on their mortgages
B) Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest
C) Ultimately, the government will profit
D) Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior
(TCO 9) What is the most common response to serious domestic unrest? (Points : 2)
A) Revolution
B) Coup d’état
C) Military takeover
D) UN diplomatic action
(TCO 9) Riots triggered by police beating youths, protests against globalization, and labor strikes against austerity are all examples of _____. (Points : 2)
A) purely traditional violence
B) issue-oriented violence
C) violence carried out by civilian institutions of government
D) coups
(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
A) They will almost assuredly turn to violence
B) Not much will happen
C) The people will organize themselves, regardless
D) They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness
(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
A) They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
(TCO 2) Which of the following descriptions best depicts a federal system of government?
The central government maintains all the power.
The first-order subdivisions maintain all the power.
Federal systems exist where there are no governments.
Federal systems have divided power between a central government and first-order governments.
Question 4
(TCO 2) In a single-member district election, the winner receives a minimum of _____.
a plurality of the votes
50% of the votes
two-thirds of the votes
three-fourths of the votes
Question 5
(TCO 2) If the Green Party receives 15% of the vote in a proportional system, which of the following is likely to happen?
The Green Party would receive no seats.
The Green Party would try to form a coalition with other parties.
The Green Party would attempt to gerrymander districts to its advantage.
The Green Party would demand a recount of the votes.
Question 6
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
(TCO 2) The concept of basic law originated in which country?
Britain
France
Germany
United States
Question 8
(TCO 2) Which type of regime has a free media, competitive elections, and protected civil liberties?
Democratic
Transitional
Authoritarian
Totalitarian
Question 9
(TCO 2) The mass media in totalitarian states _____.
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, but practice a mildly critical attitude toward the official ideology
question the system, but still push the official ideology
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, and sell the official ideology
question the system only in times of crisis, otherwise selling the official ideology
Question 10
(TCO 2) What are features of an all-encompassing ideology?
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and acceptance of an imperfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and claims of a perfect society
An eclectic sense of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following best characterizes Aristotle?
He explained both what is and what ought to be.
He neither explained what is nor what ought to be.
He only explained what ought to be.
He only explained what is.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Empirical research is important.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) If _____ were alive, he might suggest that poor academic performance in schools could be attributed to a society that does not promote education and provides few resources devoted to schools.
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Thomas Hobbes
John Locke
Niccolo Machiavelli
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following would most likely be supported by the bourgeoisie?
Conflict for economic gain
Minority rights
Equality for all
A revolt by the proletariat
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best applies to Adam Smith?
Marxists promoted his views because of concerns of the proletariat.
His views began as conservative, but are now associated with modern liberalism.
His views were once considered liberal, but are now promoted by conservatives.
His views have always been advocated by liberals.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
Markets regulate themselves.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Modern American conservatism would favor government involvement in what activity?
Regulating markets
A progressive tax system
Religious promotion
Protecting organized labor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Marxists
Liberals
Conservatives
Libertarians
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Fascism existed during the 20th century in what country?
Italy
Iceland
Ireland
France
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2018
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI330 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Which of the following statements best defines feudalism?
A political structure in which power is dispersed evenly
A system of political power dispersed among layers
A political structure in which power rests with church leaders
A system of political power distributed to the working class
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Countries with limits on government have usually had feudal pasts, which suggests what about the dispersion of power?
Equal distribution of power is the only effective political structure.
Power must be distributed by the working class.
Power should be concentrated among the lower classes.
Dispersion of power is good and concentration of power is bad.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system?
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive-legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States.
cooperation
stagnation
deadlock
insolvency
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Describe how the election process in a parliamentary system slightly resembles presidential elections in the United States.
Party chiefs run as candidates for prime minister.
Citizens vote directly for the each new prime minister.
Citizens vote for a party member with the knowledge that the next prime minister will be the head of the largest party.
The prime minister is appointed for a 4-year term and can be reappointed one time.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Distinguish the process that a parliamentary system uses to oust a chief executive from the one available in the U.S. presidential system.
Parliamentary systems rely on impeachment and presidential ones rely on constructive no confidence.
Parliamentary systems use constructive no confidence and presidential systems have the option of impeachment.
The prime minister can dissolve parliament and the president can resign from office.
Parliamentary systems can hold a vote of no confidence and presidential ones have the option of impeachment.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern?
Extortion
Theft
Divorce
Trafficking
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) International law consists of _____ and established customs recognized by most nations.
treaties
ratification
amendments
cease-fires
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges?
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison.
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
POLI330 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term “political economy” instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations.
Marxism
laissez-faire
public choice
Keynesian
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez-faire policies developed by Adam Smith?
Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, and Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens.
Keynesian economics advocates for increased government control of economics, and traditional laissez-faire argues for a hands-free approach.
Smithian policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, and Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach.
The more liberal Smithian economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, and Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top 1%.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) During the 1970s, critics developed this new term to describe inflation with stagnant economic growth.
Growth Slope
Quagmire
Stagflation
Recession
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____.
doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) The _____ administration simplified the Food Stamp program by eliminating the provision that recipients buy the stamps at a discount with their own money.
Kennedy
Johnson
Ford
Carter
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Medical costs consume nearly _____% of the U.S.gross domestic product, most of it paid through government and private health insurance.
11
18
22
26
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Many Americans think the federal budget goes primarily toward welfare, which is _____.
absolutely true
somewhat exaggerated
not at all the case
slightly offensive
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations?
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012?
$14,505
$17,060
$23,050
$26,750
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Investigate what historically happens to conservatives when firms are supposedly “too big to fail.”
Conservatives argue for expensive bail-out packages.
Most conservatives suggest letting the free market run its course.
Most argue against expensive stimulus packages.
They switch parties.
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The issues of politics and administration dichotomy first raised by Woodrow Wilson continue to generate debate among scholars of public administration in modern time. While some think Wilson’s idea was useful, others reject the idea as impossible. In a 2-3 page paper, and in your opinion, is that distinction practical and workable? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using such a dichotomy today as a way to advance that field of study? Support your case with examples.
Korea Unification
Assignment 1-1050 words
How can a culture that produces exquisite art still be at war? Well, I suppose that the two have little to do with each other.
Of course, one has to question whether or not war is really a matter of the Korean Peninsula per se. Rather, Korea seems to have been caught in the global cold war. Right on the front lines of the conflict between the United States and China and the Soviet Union, Korea was pulled apart more by global forces than by internal politics.
After the fall of the Soviet Union, after the money used to support North Korea is gone, we are left with a tense situation on the Korean Peninsula itself.
So what can be done?
Can Korea reunify?
Case Assignment
Please answer the following question:
Given the lessons you learned about German reunification in the last module, what are the most important issues facing efforts towards Korean peninsula reunification?
Please answer this question in three to five pages and turn it in by the end of this module. Do not forget to refer closely to the background information.
Assignment 2-700 word
What role does the United States play in the current Korean conflict?
Review the material in the background information page.
Then write a two to three page paper answering this question:
Why is the United States such an important player in the potential reunification of Korea?
Upload your papers for grading.
The SLP assignments in POL 201 generally call for a detailed analysis of the involvement of US interests in the nation being studied. In addressing SLP questions, such an analysis requires some historical perspective and a balanced and thorough consideration of that involvement
Describe about the organization American Red Cross. At least 300 words!
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:
Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.
Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:
McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
On the Cosmological Argument:
McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
On the Teleological Argument:
McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
On the Problem of Evil:
McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?
McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
On Atheism as Comforting:
In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.
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Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions
You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page. The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations. For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity. Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.
Six Sigma DMAIC
Select a business ( Chick-fil-A ) where you are able to gather data, and for which you can identify processes to improve.
Develop a 3- to 4 -slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation, including detailed speaker notes
Execute the define phase of the Six Sigma DMAIC project including the following:
Identify a project suitable for Six Sigma efforts based on:
Business objectives.
Customer needs and feedback. For example, if the team chooses a fast food chain, they could observe and record defects with preparation and delivery of the food, cleaning of the restaurant inside and out, including the rest rooms
Data Warehouse questions
Describe the original data warehouse designed for Indiana University Health and its limitations. Please describe the new data warehouse and the differences between each?
Type your answer here.
Q2: Identify the major differences between a traditional data warehouse and a data mart? Explain the differences between the traditional data warehousing process compared to newly designed data warehouse in less than 90 days?
Type your answer here.
Q3: While this case study supports a specific data warehouse product, please locate another case study from another data warehousing software company and explain the data warehouse that was designed in that case study?
Type your answer here.
Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health
Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)
In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.
The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.
CIS 500 INFORMATION SYSTEMS
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C-suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive: WRITE A MEMO IN 4 PAGES
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business. 2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured. 3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better. 4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
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Lean Techniques
Assignment Steps
Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains.
Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency.
Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques.
Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean.
Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project.
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Research Paper on a Business
his is a five full page minimum research paper on your chosen industry – the group of companies that compete within the same set of product offerings – and company. You must include a minimum of 10 scholarly sources, use APA formatting, and write in third person.
Sample industry questions:
What are the major companies within the industry?
What are the industry trends?
How is the product or service manufactured?
Distribution….?
Trends…?
Outlook…?
Sample company questions:
The size of a company and the scope of its operations say a great deal about the company’s ambitions and opportunities for advancement. Try to answer the following questions:
Has the company expanded globally?
Is it expanding or downsizing?
What are its divisions and subsidiaries?
How many employees does it have?
How many clients does it serve?
How many locations does it have?
Direction and planning
Answers to questions about the company’s plans may be difficult to find outside of the company’s Web site, annual report, newspaper business pages, business magazines, or the industry’s trade publications. The following information is worth pursuing as it lets you know some of the hot issues to address or avoid:
What are the company’s current priorities?
What is its mission?
What long-term contracts has it established?
What are its prospects?
What are its problems?
Is it initiating any new products or projects?
Products or services
You shouldn’t go into a job interview without at least knowing what products or services are the bedrock of the company’s business. Find the answers to these questions:
What services or products does the company provide?
What are its areas of expertise?
How does it innovate in the industry — by maintaining cutting edge products, cutting costs, or what?
Competitive profile
How the company is positioned within its industry and how hard competitors are nipping at its heels are measures of the company’s long-term health and the relative stability of your prospective job there. Get to the bottom of these issues by asking:
Who are the company’s competitors?
What are the company’s current projects?
What setbacks has it experienced?
What are its greatest accomplishments?
Is the company in a growing industry?
Will technology dim its future?
Does it operate with updated technology?
Culture and reputation
The answers to these questions are likely to be subjective, but they say a great deal about how well you’ll be able to fit into the corporate culture:
Does the company run lean on staffing?
What’s the picture on mergers and acquisitions?
What is the company’s business philosophy?
What is its reputation?
What kind of management structure does it have?
What types of employees does it hire?
Is it family-friendly?
Is it woman-friendly?
What is the buzz on its managers?
How does it treat employees?
Has it pushed out older workers?
Company history
Assess how the company’s future may be influenced by its past. Was the company part of a hostile takeover? Has it been doing the same things the same way for years because its founder would have wanted it that way? Ask the following questions to find out:
When and where was it established?
Is it privately or publicly owned?
Is it a subsidiary or a division?
Has it changed much over time?
How quickly has it grown?
Company financials
Collecting current and accurate information about financials is a long chase, but it’s better to learn a company’s shaky financial picture before you’re hired than after you’re laid off. Dig for the following nuggets:
What are the company’s sales?
What are its earnings?
What are its assets?
How stable is its financial base?
Is its profit trend up or down?
How much of its earnings go to its employees?
How far in debt is the company?
Criminal Justice Ethics #2
Essay, 350 words.
Instructions
Visit https://ucr.fbi.gov/nibrs/2013/the-advantage-of-NIBRS-data for an example of NIBRS data.
Scroll down and open either the Murder and non-negligent manslaughter report.
How does the NIBRS report differ from the UCR collection of murder data?
Read the data thoroughly on both pages. What did you find interesting about the data?
Locate an additional source that supports the item you found interesting and discuss. For example, you may find it interesting that most murders occur between 7PM and 3AM. You could research time as it relates to crime.
Cite your sources.
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Criminal Justice Ethics
Be submitted on time for a grade
2. Contain at least 350 or more words
3. Be written using correct spelling and grammar
4. Include an outside reliable source in addition to the textbook.
5. Outside source must be cited in APA or MLA format.
6. Sources cannot include wikidpedia or other blog/opinion sites. Please seek assistance from school media specialist/librarian for information on reliable and scholarly websites.
7. Word Count must be posted
An undercover police officer was on duty inside a bar conducting surveillance activities on crime suspects. The officer bought a beer to maintain her cover. Unbeknownst to the officer, buying the beer automatically qualified her for a contest sponsored by a beer company. The grand prize winner would win a new car worth $20,000. It was later announced that the undercover officer was the grand prize winner.
Her employer, the New York City Police Department (NYPD), believes the car should be turned over to the department because she bought the beer with department money and was on duty at the time.
The officer argues that the car should be hers because her employer did not require her to buy beer at the bar. She merely had some good luck, and the department wishes to capitalize unfairly on her good fortune. The case was sent to the city’s Board of Ethics to settle the dispute.
As a member of the Board of Ethics, how would you evaluate the competing claims of the officer and the NYPD?
Would your answer be different if the undercover officer walked into the bar and was awarded the new car for being the 10,000th customer inside the bar? Why or why not?
Does this case represent absolute ethics or relative ethics? Support your response with an explanation.
What do you consider the biggest ethical challenge/s for young people today? Explain your answer.
COLLEGE LEVEL WRITING EXPECTED. SOURCES MUST BE CITED. SOURCES MUST BE USED (textbook is suitable source).
BSBREL401 establish network
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Formative assessment
Activity 1.
Identify five question you could ask another person at a networking event to begin to eatablish a relationship with them. 40-80 words
Think about business relationship or friendship you currently have. How do you maintain those relationships? 40-80 words
Activity 2.
Choose an industry ( eg the wedding industry, pet related business, real esate, child-related business) and make a list of the types of business organisations in that industry should network with and pursue to maximise their range of contacts. What opportunities might they have for maximising their contacts? 75-100 words
How would you record, store and categories contact details people you meet at networking events? Why would you use this method? 75-100words
Activity 3.
What do you consider to be the main reasons why you should network? 75-100words
What do you think is the most important benefit? Why? What do you think is the least important benefit? Why?
How might you communicate information regarding new networks and their benefits? 10-25words
To whom should you communicate this information? 10-25 words
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Activity 4.
Locate three professional associations in an industry you are interested in (eg accountancy, advertising). Find out what they offer to members in the way of professional development to maintain knowledge and skills. evaluate the professional development opportunities offered by each association.
Write a report on your findings and explain which association you would choose to become a member and why.
Activity 5.
You have made a new network contact. You have exchanged relevant information and believe that the contact you have made will be useful for a particular client. How will you go about developing a good relationships with your new contact and how will you negotiate the appropriate level of support that can be provided for the client? If possible use an example, from your work, to describe the procedures you would follow. 100-150words
Write one page code of ethnics that could be used to ensure that you maintain relationship that assist you in meeting organisational/ client requirements. The code od ethnics should be also used to maintain trust and confidence of contacts through demonstrations of high standards of business practices. Do not limit your responses to information provided in the text
The code should have two componets:
An inspirational section that outlines the organisation’s aspirations—the ideals to which it hopes to live up
A list of rules or principles, to which members of the organisation will be expected to adhere.
You might need to conduct your own research to complete this task,
Think about a time when you were involved in a negotiation. This might have been a time when you undertook negotiation in the process of buying a house or a car. It might have been a situation in which you negotiated a pay rise. Alternately, it might have been a time when you negotiated what movie to see or what restaurant to go with friend. Describe the situation. What negotiation skills did you use? Was the outcome of the negotiation positive? Why/why not? What would you do differently next time you were involved in a negotiation? 100-150 words
Negotiation is a problem-sloving process. You need to identify the problem, gather data, determine the best problem, make a decision about the problem solution and implement the solution.
Effective collaboration with others is necessary for win-win solutions. Explain what a win-win situation is and how it can be achieved. 100-150 words
Activity 7.
Think about a time you were faced with a problem. How did you solve that problem? How did you/ might you have used collaborative problem-solving techniques to solve that problem? 75-100words
Why is it necessary to use collaboration when negotiating problem solutions? 75-100words
Activity 8.
From whom could you seek specialist advice in the development of contacts? 75-100 words
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Locate a specialist networking organisation. What do they do? What networking specialist advice do they offer? How can you become a member of or join the networking group? Do you think this organisation could provide a valuable role in helping you to develop more contacts? Why/ why not? 100-150words?
Activity 9.
What are the strategies might you utilise to communicate the goals and objectives of a particulars networking relationship to the management of the organisation for which you work? 100-150 words
Activity 10
Use effective writing skills to create an email asking a potential contact for help to grow your business. 50- 75 words
Write a script of a conversation that you might have with a potential contact to establish what they do and how a relationship with them might be mutually beneficial. Assume that English is not a first language for the person that you are speaking to. (100-150words)
Design and develop a written presentation promoting:
An organisation and its products/ service
A particular product or service that this organisation offers.
Put this into email format ready for an electronic mail out to a contact list. 250 -500words
Activity 11.
When making verbal presentations you should, if possible, collect feedback from your audience in order to determine whether you presented the information clearly and whether the presentation material met the needs of the audience. What do you think are the best ways to do this? 100-150 words
Design a set of questions that you might ask your audience to determine what they thought of the presentation (not the product or service being offered). 100-150words
Summative assessment 1.
Question 1.
Explain the strategies you would to establish and maintain business relationship. 200-500words
Question 2.
What networks, organisations, agencies etc could you join to make useful contacts? Explain 100-150words
Question 3.
Describe the principles and techniques needed to negotiate positive outcomes. 150-500 words
Question 4.
Explain how you can use policies and procedures to make sure you comply with an organisation’s expectation in relation to establishing business relationships. 100-150words
Question 5
Outline methods of obtaining feedback on promotional activities. 100-150words
Summative assessment 2.
Project 1.
You have been asked to write a series of short articles for a networking magazine. There are six articles in all
The topics of the articles are:
What networking is and its benefits
How to establish and maintain network contacts/ relationships
Networking ethically.
How to negotiate and get what you want from network contacts/ relationships.
How network contacts can help you solve problems
Identifying your networking goals and finding ways of fulfilling them.
Each articles should be at least 500 words and have:
A suitable headline
Relevant pictures/ diagrams and charts( if applicable)
Real-life examples of successful and unsuccessful networking
Any relevant statistics
The articles should demonstrate an understanding of the learning material provide in this unit of work; however, you will need to conduct some of your own research to complete this project
BSBWHS401 Implement and monitor WHS policies, procedures and programs to meet legislative requirement
Formative assessments
Activity 1.
The impact of workplace injury is wide reaching. Discuss in 50 to 80 words.
How is the integrity (validity) of information ensured? Discuss 50 to 80 words.
List three sources of health and safety information in your state/ territory.
Activity 2.
Why is it important that all workers have access to health and safety information? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.
If a worker had made suggestion to improvement for the design, development and management of health and safety in a comoany in which they worked, how could they go about having them ratified and implemented by senior management? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.
Before submitting strategies for the design , development and management of health and safety to senior management for approval, should the worker consult with the members of their team/ department to get their imput? Why/ why not? Discuss in 100 to 120 words.
Activity 3.
Where might information about hazards and the outcomes of risk assessment and control result from? Discuss in 120 words and 150 words
List five ways that PCBUs can provide clear explanation to work teams about identified hazards about the outcomes of risk assessment and control.
Activity 4.
what types of changes in the workplace would benefit from consultation between PCBUs and workers ( or their representatives)? Discuss in 150 to 180 words.
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What are the benefits of consulting with workers about health and safety issues? Discuss in 120 to 150 words.
Activity 5.
Explain (50-80 words) the role of the HSR in each of these consultation procedures:
Attendance at team meetings.
Early response to work suggestions, requests, reports, and concerns put forward to management.
Requirements as specified in Commonwealth and state/ territory legislation, regulations and codes of practice.
Activity 6.
What strategies can PCBUs use to consult with workers on health and safety issues? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.
Health and safety issues raised through consultation should be dealth with promptly. Why is this? Discuss in 120- 150 words
Activity 7.
Create a meeting agenda template suitable for a HSC
Create a meeting minute template suitable for HSC.
Activity 8.
What is training needs analysis and how can it be conducted? Discuss in 100- 120 words.
What tools can be used to identify the skills a worker needs? Discuss in 100- 120 words.
What are the 6 steps in developing a training program?
Activity 9.
Your team is concerned that they have insufficient knowledge/ understanding of safety procedures and legislative requirement in your workplace. They also feel that the incidence od accident in your section is higher than it should be. They have asked you to submit, to senior management, a proposal for a formal health and safety training program.
1.what information would you include in the proposal and how would you encourage senior management to support this initiative? What procedures would you follow in gathering data and information to support your proposal? How likely is it that this or a similar proposal would be accepted in your workplace? Discuss in 120-150 words
what critical information must be contained in a new worker induction program? Discuss in 50-80 words.
Why is only providing induction training and no follow-on-training unsatisfactory? Discuss in 50- 80 words.
Activity 10.
What are the benefits of evaluating training to both workers and the organisation? Discuss in 80-100 words.
When evaluating health and safety training, how can you determine the appropriateness and effectiveness of the training? Discuss in 80-100 words.
What should be evaluated in relation to a health and safety training program? Discuss in 150- 180 words.
Activity 11.
Your organisation had identified and increase in injuries to workers who use the new plant. You are responsible for training in the area where the injuries occur. Your rate (for the exercise) is $360 per day. A training need analysis concludes a training program will reduce the injury rate.
Consider:
The training needs analysis will take two days. Including reporting to management
It will take you dfive days to develop the training program
You can get a good training video at a cost of $375
You will need to hire a TV/ video for each session, cost $120
Handouts will cost $12 per participant
Management wants you to conduct the training at a venue that cost $195 per day
Catering is available, $25 per participants per day
You will deliever the training
Lost production is costed at $320 per day per participant
You will train 20 workers in fice groups. Each course runs for one day. Administrative support works out at $28 per participant
Calculate the cost of training.
Activity 12.
What is difference between a risk and a hazard? Discuss in 50 -80 words.
Create a 1 page checklist for a managers/ supervisor to assist them with the identification of hazards.
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Activity 13.
Why should organisations have comprehensive risk assessment procedures? Discuss in 50-80 words
A hazard had been assessed as being unlikely, but would have major consequences. Using the risk matrix, identify the risk and what it means to the organisation
Give an example of each of the following types of controls of managing hazards.
Elimination
Substitution
Engineering
Administration
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Activity 15.
You are the safety supervisor at a commercial construction company. The company employs 12 administration personnel, 18 construction personnel and 60 construction subcontractors.
The worker who work on-site face a changing work site each day and are often working with people from other companies. Three months ago you were alarmed at the number of back injuries being reported and introduced new procedures that were aimed at ensuring heavy items were lifted in accordance with the legislative requirements of yours state/ territory and work requiring bending for long periods was minimised. You provided a toolbox meeting to inform the workers of the new procedures and techniques. You now need to evaluate this strategy to determine whether it has met your aim of reducing back injuries.
Information: see attachment
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Using the supplied information, develop a procedures (1 page) for system evaluation that covers:
Inclusion of external data in the evaluation process
External input into the evaluation process, eg stakeholders
Hoe to identified areas for improvement will be documented and actioned
How top management will be involved in the review process
Activity 16.
Why is it important to keep health and safety records? Discuss in 50-80 words.
Name three health and safety records that must be kept by every organisation.
If you were the health and safety representative of a company, how would you ensure that the workers you represent are aware of the recordkeeping requirements? Discuss in 50 -80 words.
Activity 17.
A workplace employs 75 workers, who work a total of 150,000 hours in a year. They have experience eight lost time injuries for the year, resulting in 65 days off.
Calculate the following:
Frequency rate.
Incidence rate.
Average lost time/ severity rate.
Provide your workings.
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You are required to present these statistics to your next senior executive weekly committee meeting. Describe how you will present this information. Include copies of any graphs or tables that might be relevant.
Summative question 1.
Question 1.
What are the key aspects of health and safety legislation? Discuss in 220- 250 words.
Question 2.
What processes or procedures might an organisation use to identify hazards and monitor risk control procedures? Discuss in 220- 250words.
Question 3.
Why is it important to provide information to work teams on the relevant health and safety legislation, the organisation’s health and safety policies, procedures and programs, and any identified hazards and their controls? Discuss in 80 -100 words.
Question 4.
Explain the importance of effective consulatative mechanism in managing health and safety risk and describe what they entail. Discuss in 80-100words.
Question 5.
Explain how the hierarchy of control applies in the work area. Discuss in 220-250 words.
Summative assessment 2
Project 1.
You work in a large department store and are the newly appointed health and safety representative for your work group. The organisation is wanting in its compliance with health and safety compliance.
You have just completed an investigation and have discovered the following:
Workers are unsure of health and safety legislation and codes of practice that relate to them
Works have not received training in the organization’s health and safety policies, procedures and programs for two years and people are unsure which are current and which have been superseded
There is no mechanism to inform workers of hazards (and their assessment) that have been identified in their work area
Historically there has been little encouragement or support for work teams to manage work area hazards
If workers raised issues they were generally ignored
There was little communication back to workers if consultation about health and safety issues did occur
A health and safety training needs analysis has not been conducted for two years
There are some pressing health and safety information gaps that can be addressed by training
Management are reluctant to approve health and safety training as they fear it will cost too much
The workplace hazards assessment has not been updated for the last six months
There are four hazards that were identified in the last hazards assessment that have not been actioned
There is no procedure in place to use data to identify risks, control those risk, or monitor outcomes of reported inadequacies
Management are unsure of what health and safety records must be kept or how to fill them out
Your task is to create a action plan (3-5 pages) for what you will do to address these problems and turn over your workplace into an example of health and safety best practice. Use the template provided as a guide.
The paper must be about the key to an effective resource management system.
The paper will be researching an writing on the following subtopics below.
Resource Planning
Aggregate Planning
Disaggregation
Managing Inventory Resources
Benefits, problems/challenges of managing resources
PSYC 341 Week 6 Essay
Essay Instructions
The essay should be in APA format and should discuss the required prompt. This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations.
Each essay will review a different topic from the text and will also link each topic with Scripture. Each essay should have a word count of at least 500 words.
Using the Jerry Falwell Library, select two full-text, scholarly (peer-reviewed) journal articles that directly relate to the topic for each essay. The textbook may be used, but does not count toward the two required scholarly references.
Essay Topic
Examine McCrae and Costa’s 5-factor model of personality. Pick 1 of the factor’s listed (extraversion, neuroticism, openness, agreeableness, or conscientiousness) and describe 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be high in that area and 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be low in that area. Please use the same factor for both people and support your stance with Scripture.
Selecting Appropriate Journal Articles
If you need assistance finding scholarly journal articles, click here to learn how to navigate through the Jerry Falwell Library.
When searching Liberty University’s online library, from the Jerry Falwell Library home page, select “Advanced Search” and be sure to select the appropriate dates (within the last 7 years). Under Show Only select the following: “Items with full text online”, “Scholarly materials, including peer-reviewed.” Under Exclude from results: select all three options. To find useful articles, narrow the search by selecting, keywords or phrases to use as your search parameters.
The articles researched must be from scholarly journals. It is preferred that the journal have the word “Journal” in the title (Journal of Marriage and Family, etc.). Ideally, each journal that you review should have a Methods section as well as Data, Results, and Conclusion sections, but these sections are not required. Please note: You may not use book reviews, magazine articles, or online articles that have not been published in scholarly journals.
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IST7000 – Data Management – Week 2 ERD Diagram Definition
Name: your name
The entity relationship diagram is crucial to the creation of a successfully implemented application and database. A good understanding of how to identify the components that define the Entity Relationship Diagram is needed. Select one of the following 5 scenarios and design an entity relationship diagram with the following components:
Identify the entities that need to be modeled
Identify the attributes that each entity will include
Identify the relationships as required.
Identify the primary keys (identifier attributes)
Identify any business rules or assumptions that are associated with your data model
Scenario 1 – Online Ordering and Delivery Service for Sandwich Shop
Joe’s Sub Shop is starting an online ordering system that will provide local delivery within five miles of the sub shop. The customer can order a limited menu of the sandwiches the sub shop creates. The online order system will need to track the following information customer, order and product. They shop will need to know the quantity ordered, toppings and other directions for the order. The delivery driver will need to know the address and phone number of the customer.
ANSWER:
ERD Diagram for Definition for Scenario Question 1.
An entity-relationship diagram (ERD) can be defined as a data modeling technique that is design graphically to illustrates an information system’s entities and the relationships between those entities. The ERD is a conceptual and representational model of data used to represent the entire entity framework infrastructure.
Below is my explanation:
Entities: The entities from my scenario and my diagram are; Customers, Address, Orders, Products and Payment.
Orders: Customer_Id, quantity order, prices, payment_Id, and Date
Products: Product_Id, product name, and product type (sandwich)
Payment: Payment_Id, payment type, and card type.
Relationships:
Customer has only one address, therefore, customer is having one to one relation between customer and address.
Customer places many orders, therefore, customers are having many to many relationships between customer and order.
Order has many products; therefore, order is having one to many products between order to the product
Order has one payment; therefore, payment is having one to one payment methods between order to payment.
Primary Keys:
Customer_Id, address_Id, Order_Id, Product_Id, online order_Id, and Payment_Id.
The business rules are stated below:
Joe’s Sub Shop is starting an online ordering system. Joe’s Sub shop would be providing delivery locally to the customers within the range of five miles to the sub shop with the limited menu of the sandwiches.
Any online order system will need to be tracked the customer’s information.
Here is the question.
Assignment Definition:
For this assignment, you are to utilize the data model that was designed from the Week 2 ERD Diagram Definition assignment. This data model will be further reviewed and taken from the conceptual model to logical and physical model status.
Make sure you define the following:
Select a database management system (Oracle, SQL Server, MYSQL, etc.) and identify the data types and sizes for all attributes.
Make sure all relationships have been addressed and corrected.
Review the data model to ensure that it is in at least 3rd normal form (as defined by the normalization process).
Intermediate Accounting
The scheduling manager tells me you have some time available. We have recently been advised that management of Back-I-Up Corporation (BIUC) has received an offer from Ventura Capital partners to sell 100% of all issued an outstanding common shares. I have a meeting with management in two weeks regarding this issue, and I havent had much time to think about this engagement.
I have prepared some background informationon the company for you to review, including background information on the client (Exhibit 1), the company’s most recent internal financial statements (Exhibit11), and the proposed share purchase agreement (Exhibit 111). I have also met with BIUC management earlier this month and made some notes from that meeting (Exhibit 1V). they should all be in your inbox by now.
Can you please prepare a report that I can use for the upcoming meeting?
PSYC 341
ESSAY INSTRUCTIONS
The Essay assignments occur in Module 2, Module 4, Module 6 and Module 8. Each essay should be in APA format and should discuss the required prompt. This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations.
Each essay will review a different topic from the text and will also link each topic with Scripture. Each essay should have a word count of at least 500 words.
Using the Jerry Falwell Library, select two full-text, scholarly (peer-reviewed) journal articles that directly relate to the topic for each essay. The textbook may be used, but does not count toward the two required scholarly references.
Essay Topics
Module 4: Identify Maslow’s 5 basic assumptions regarding motivation as well as Maslow’s Heirarchy of Needs. Discuss each assumption and hierarchy level. Include specific examples from Scripture regarding motivation.
Selecting Appropriate Journal Articles
If you need assistance finding scholarly journal articles, click here to learn how to navigate through the Jerry Falwell Library.
When searching Liberty University’s online library, from the Jerry Falwell Library home page, select “Advanced Search” and be sure to select the appropriate dates (within the last 7 years). Under Show Only select the following: “Items with full text online”, “Scholarly materials, including peer-reviewed.” Under Exclude from results: select all three options. To find useful articles, narrow the search by selecting, keywords or phrases to use as your search parameters.
The articles researched must be from scholarly journals. It is preferred that the journal have the word “Journal” in the title (Journal of Marriage and Family, etc.). Ideally, each journal that you review should have a Methods section as well as Data, Results, and Conclusion sections, but these sections are not required. Please note: You may not use book reviews, magazine articles, or online articles that have not been published in scholarly journals.
Reference
Soni, B., & Soni, R. (2016). Enhancing maslow’s hierarchy of needs for effective leadership. Competition Forum, 14(2), 259-263. Retrieved from http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.ezproxy.liberty.edu/docview/1838503588?accountid=12085
D’Souza, J., & Gurin, M. (2017). Archetypes based on maslow’s need hierarchy.Journal of the Indian Academy of Applied Psychology, 43(2), 183-188. Retrieved from http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.ezproxy.liberty.edu/docview/1964553265?accountid=12085
Leadership strategy
Prior to creating organizational strategies, it is important to thoroughly understand the sector in which the organization operates, along with typical strategies organizations within this sector use to achieve their long-term and short-term goals and objectives. Analyzing the sector includes examining the overall industry, identifying what determines success in that industry, what stimulates growth, and what strategies other successful organizations are implementing to achieve their goals and objectives. Based on a comprehensive sector analysis, executive leaders can begin outlining a strategic plan.
Instructions
Analyze the sector your organization operates in and create a report for the organizational stakeholders. Respond to the following in your report:
Identify the sector that the organization belongs to.
Determine the main goal of that sector in terms of achievement and operational goals. (Examples: increase profits, serve more people, increase revenue, etc.) Identify some of the largest and most successful organizations within the sector.
Explain how your organization specifically fits within the sector in terms of size and success.
Determine the internal and external forces that influence the success or failure of the organizations within this sector.
Support your assignment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.
Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Performance, Legal, and Ethical Issues
The selected company is APPLE INC the product/service were iPad, watches, iPhone, televisions, and computers.
1 – Introduction (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
a – the company,
b – the product,
c – and the elements you will be addressing in your plan,
2 – Incorporate Executive Summary (Week 6)
After researching the components typically included in an Executive Summary, provide such elements. Using numbers, include:
Strategic Objectives (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Products or Services (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Resources Needed (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Projected Outcomes (3 years) (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
b – provide a customer demographic profile (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
c – provide the quantitative demographics for the geographical area (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
d – compute the area market potential for the selected target market (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
4 – Incorporate Promotion and the Product Life Cycle (Week 3)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
Here you discuss how Promotion Strategies change in each one of the five stages – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
a -Introduction,
b – Growth,
c – Maturity, ‘
d – Decline,
e – Termination)
of the PLC
5 – Incorporate Price and Channel Strategy (Week 4)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
Here you provide your Distribution Plan for
a – your product/service,(Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
b – your selected channels (be specific) – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
c – and the pricing (use ‘numbers’) schedules for the selected channels. – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
6 – Incorporate Marketing Communication and Brand Strategy (Week 5)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
Here you describe
a – the message you would use to start your brand and (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
b – to then maintain your brand, (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
c – and describe the 6 marketing elements strategies to build and maintain your product/service brand. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
7 – Legal, Social and Ethical Considerations (Week 6)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
Here you enter:
a – legal, (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
b – social (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
c – and ethical issues related to the marketing of your product and service. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
8 – Develop a process to monitor and control marketing performance (Week 6)
Describe separately in sub-titled sections:
Use specific numbers or
a – expected number ranges and (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
b – describe how you would monitor your marketing implementation. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
9 – Conclusion
Here you conclude your plans.
Please, make sure that your paper contains 9 Titled and numbered Sections to reflect the assignment titles and numbers as they are listed above.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed references.
Include all peer-reviewed references from the previous weeks’ individual assignments in your marketing plan.
ELEMENTS OF MARKETING
THE SIX CORE ELEMENTS OF MARKETING ARE:
1 – Positioning
2 – Targeting
3 – Product strategy
4 – Pricing strategy
5 – Promotion strategy
6 – Distribution strategy
A – Choose a product or service of your choice, and describe its tangible and intangible qualities
B – Identify and define the Key Performance Indicators you would use to monitor your promotion strategy:
B1 – for a television strategy
B2 – for a print strategy
B3 – for a web site strategy
B4 – for a social media strategy
Discussion Board Forum- PSYC 351
opic: Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos- MUST BE OVER 250 words
Read the “Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos” article found in the Reading & Study folder.
In this qualitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the following research question: What are the displacement stages of Latinos immigrating to the United States? Their data analysis concluded 5 distinct stages of displacement for Latino immigrants: 1. Seeking Opportunities, 2. Emotional Reactions, 3. Adjustment, 4. Rationalization, and 5. Acknowledgement.
Assignment: Write 1 theme the authors found for each stage. Although there is more than 1 theme per stage, cite only 1 per stage for this assignment. State how you as a counselor, counseling a Latino client who shares his or her immigration experience with you, would use your client’s disclosure to develop the therapeutic alliance. Connect your response to the article.
ASSIGNMENT 1 BOTTLING COMPANY CASE STUDY
Imagine you are a manager at a major bottling company. Customers have begun to complain that the bottles of the brand of soda produced in your company contain less than the advertised sixteen (16) ounces of product. Your boss wants to solve the problem at hand and has asked you to investigate. You have your employees pull thirty (30) bottles off the line at random from all the shifts at the bottling plant. You ask your employees to measure the amount of soda there is in each bottle. Note: Use the data set provided by your instructor to complete this assignment.
Psychology 355 homework
Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test
Research Scenario: A clinical psychologist is studying the differences in the number of Facebook® friends between identical twins raised apart. She believes that twins raised in different environments will have differences in the number of friends, which would help point to the influence of environmental factors over inherited factors on social outcomes. She divides the twins into two groups (“Twin 1” and “Twin 2”), collects the data and creates the table below.
Using this table, enter the data into a new SPSS data file and run a paired-samples t test to test the claim that the identical twins raised apart will have a different number of Facebook® friends. Create a boxplot to show the difference between the number of friends for each group.
Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test
Research Scenario: A clinical psychologist is studying the differences in the number of Facebook® friends between identical twins raised apart. She believes that twins raised in different environments will have differences in the number of friends, which would help point to the influence of environmental factors over inherited factors on social outcomes. She divides the twins into two groups (“Twin 1” and “Twin 2”), collects the data and creates the table below.
Using this table, enter the data into a new SPSS data file and run a paired-samples t test to test the claim that the identical twins raised apart will have a different number of Facebook® friends. Create a boxplot to show the difference between the number of friends for each group.
Twin 1
254
64
89
78
89
174
47
207
21
93
136
19
40
212
230
58
Twin 2
198
67
119
43
89
180
61
112
100
87
126
52
56
259
70
29
Paste SPSS output.
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation
Who can help me with homework psych 355
Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test
Research Scenario: A clinical psychologist is studying the differences in the number of Facebook® friends between identical twins raised apart. She believes that twins raised in different environments will have differences in the number of friends, which would help point to the influence of environmental factors over inherited factors on social outcomes. She divides the twins into two groups (“Twin 1” and “Twin 2”), collects the data and creates the table below.
Using this table, enter the data into a new SPSS data file and run a paired-samples t test to test the claim that the identical twins raised apart will have a different number of Facebook® friends. Create a boxplot to show the difference between the number of friends for each group.
Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test
Research Scenario: A clinical psychologist is studying the differences in the number of Facebook® friends between identical twins raised apart. She believes that twins raised in different environments will have differences in the number of friends, which would help point to the influence of environmental factors over inherited factors on social outcomes. She divides the twins into two groups (“Twin 1” and “Twin 2”), collects the data and creates the table below.
Using this table, enter the data into a new SPSS data file and run a paired-samples t test to test the claim that the identical twins raised apart will have a different number of Facebook® friends. Create a boxplot to show the difference between the number of friends for each group.
Twin 1
254
64
89
78
89
174
47
207
21
93
136
19
40
212
230
58
Twin 2
198
67
119
43
89
180
61
112
100
87
126
52
56
259
70
29
Paste SPSS output.
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation.
Leadership Theory
Analyze the leadership theories within the organization you chose to research in Week 1. Write a paper addressing the following:
Explain which leadership theories are used most often in the sector in which the organization operates. Provide specific examples within the sector, including other successful organizations as well, to support your findings.
Determine the leadership theories used by each of the specific executive leaders. Provide specific examples for support.
Explain whether the executive leaders of the organization are successful in implementing these leadership theories into their leadership roles.
Support your assignment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.
Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
There are several theories related to leadership, and although there are similarities and overlap in many of the theories, each theory has unique characteristics distinguishing it from the others. All leadership theories can be effective given the right situation and sector. Some industry sectors have different leadership needs; therefore, leadership theories that can best be applied in one sector may differ from the most effective leadership theories in other industry sectors
BSBSUS401 Implement and monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
Project 1
Essay question- write a response to the following quote from unlimited sustainable development solutions
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
‘Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives.’
I use Homework Nest to get college homework help on Philosophy homework and basically that is how college students get Instant College Homework Help On all Subjects at www.homeworknest.com. I just do it to Ace My Homework. Homewoknest offers a study pool of all tutors and resources. You will get course merit assignment help at homework nest. The tutors at Homework Nest will do your HomeworkForYou just same way AceMyHomework Scholars used to do it before the users migrated to Homework Nest. So basically I am a student of Fortune (SoF) and I am a Course Hero when I comes to my grades! Even Chegg cannot handle homework Help Like Tutors at Homework Nest do it for college students for business and finance questions. I get My Homework Help at Homework Nest. The tutors are a Brainy Essay Helpers. College students from USA, CANADA, UK, Australia and Singapore can Ace Their Grades through Homework Nest Today!
Your response should include a discussion of;
Complex environmental issues
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact
1000-2000words
Project 2
You are the supervisor of a group of 15 worker in a business involved in an industry of your choice (forexampke manufacturing, finance, customer service, education, health etc). You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relations to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
1 identify a minimum of three appropriate work group activities and provide an pverview of what is involved in each activity.
2 develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvement for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken bu your work group.
BSBSUS401 Implement and monitor environmentally sustainable work pratices
Project 1
Essay question- write a response to the following quote from unlimited sustainable development solutions
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
‘Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives.’
Your response should include a discussion of;
Complex environmental issues
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact
1000-2000words
Project 2
You are the supervisor of a group of 15 worker in a business involved in an industry of your choice (forexampke manufacturing, finance, customer service, education, health etc). You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relations to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
1 identify a minimum of three appropriate work group activities and provide an pverview of what is involved in each activity.
2 develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvement for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken bu your work group.
One Student Says: I use Homework Nest to get college homework help on Philosophy homework and basically that is how college students get Instant College Homework Help On all Subjects at www.homeworknest.com. I just do it to Ace My Homework. Homewoknest offers a study pool of all tutors and resources. You will get course merit assignment help at homework nest. The tutors at Homework Nest will do your HomeworkForYou just same way AceMyHomework Scholars used to do it before the users migrated to Homework Nest. So basically I am a student of Fortune (SoF) and I am a Course Hero when I comes to my grades! Even Chegg cannot handle homework Help Like Tutors at Homework Nest do it for college students for business and finance questions. I get My Homework Help at Homework Nest. The tutors are a Brainy Essay Helpers. College students from USA, CANADA, UK, Australia and Singapore can Ace Their Grades through Homework Nest Today!
Recently Homework Nest introduced a new and exciting project, Revision Question Segment that allows students to access questions frequently asked in class discussions and examinations. The main idea behind this project was to give students an idea on what to expect and to make exam preparation easier. Our team at Homework Nest partnered with an amazing team of examination experts and we managed to gather questions from different universities around the world ease accessibility to our students. The content has been prepared on slide share and you can access and download them for free here.
Many of you are wondering how we arrived at this decision. After our last interview with our CEO, Tony Craig on his college life, he shared some challenges he experienced. One of the issues he expressed was the lack of enough revision material due to limited access. He shared that along with other students, they would struggle to get these questions online and if they were lucky enough to have students in other institutions, they would exchange past papers and questions shared in class. Tony really wished to have easy access to this content and we sort to inquire why these revision questions were so important to him and other students. Here is what he shared with us.
1. Exposure to a Variety of Questions
Exam questions are set in different ways, depending on the intention of examiner. Tony shared that while he was studying, there were professors who wanted to assess critical thinking, decision making, problem solving and basic knowledge. Basic knowledge questions were mainly definitions and questions that are directly derived from class notes. The teacher mainly wants to assess how well you understand the basic concepts of the subject and whether you can give a few examples from these concepts. Critical thinking, decision making and problem solving questions are often in the form of case studies and analytical questions. They are often looking into how you can apply all the concepts learnt and use them to solve real life problems. Therefore, revision questions are able to expose you to different approaches to answering questions.
2. Helps The Student Understand the Examiner’s Mindset
Most examiners aim at setting exam questions with considerations to changes in the curriculum, job market and external factors such as the influences of technology in learning. In addition to this, the mindset of the examiner is to evaluate critical and analytical abilities of the student. However, it can be challenging to predict what exactly a specific examiner seeks to evaluate as some use different methods in setting different papers. Some examiners can use different terms so as to confuse the student which could mislead how they answer the question. One common example is questions relating to the terms “Compare and Contrast.” Most students confuse these two terms and end up answering the question wrongly by either giving a contrast or similarity instead of both. Revision questions will make it easy for you to understand what exactly the examiner had in mind while they were setting the questions and what they expect of you in delivering the answers. This way you are able to approach questions more accurately without going out of topic.
3. Identify Frequently Asked Topics/Questions
Examiners often apply the method of question or topic repetition for a number of reasons. One is that the questions and topics could be a common challenge among students and they are seeking to gauge their understanding of these topics. In many instances, these questions are mandatory if the exam paper provides the option to select a few number of questions.
Secondly, these questions and topics are key concepts in the subject and they are highly applicable in the job market. The third and most important reason is that most students tend to assume these repeated questions and they do not take time to review them which is often a trap created by the examiner. For the diligent students, repeated revision questions are often considered as free marks as they have practiced them a number of times and they understand the concept making it easier for them to handle these questions even when framed differently.
4. Introduce You to Unfamiliar Territories
“We once exchanged revision question papers with students from another country who were taking the similar course. For a moment, I almost confused the content for another subject because of how these questions were set.” Tony shared this experienced that almost got him thinking that he was not studying extensively and enough. Later on, he realized that the examiner was focused on the same subject but the approach used to frame the question was quite different and with different response expectations. He also stated that he realized that the level of complexity was more advanced than what they were used to in their institution. Revision questions are able to expose you to different and unfamiliar examining approaches that could not be similar with those in your institution.
5. Improves the Quality of Your Study Notes
The chances that you will come across concepts and terms that have not been discussed in class in revision papers are very high. With a variety of revision papers, you will be able to identify what has not been taught, do research on it and build on your class notes. In addition to this, you will be able to stay ahead of your classmates when it comes to having content that some of them might not be bothered to review. Tony states that, at the end of my campus years, “I gathered all the books I used for writing my revision notes and I was surprised at how I had used up so many books in creating extra notes to supplement what was already taught.” These notes were instrumental as at times these concepts were examined and many students claimed to be clueless.
College Textbooks that help me Ace-My-Homework at Homework Nest in fall 2018
Homework Nest found at www.homeworknest.com not only offers instant college homework help but also offers the best study resources. Some of the books within our reach are free resources to students and with special or unlimited access to our customers, we created an amazing list of top college textbooks for fall 2018. In fact, the list comprises of all books used in homework help for Math assignments help at Homework Nest, college Physics homework help, Biology assignments, Lab homework help, English literature in addition to essay writing help at homework nest, Calculus help at Homework Nest and many more!!
List of books for fall 2018
College Homework Help in Math: Available Books At Homework Nest.com, College Homework Help in Physics: Available Books, College Homework Help in Finance: Available Books at HomeworkNest.com. Looking for Nursing Homework Help: All books available at HomeworkNest.com; Essay Writing Homework Help at Homework Nest: Books for referencing are available. We are still accepting students from Study Pool of HomeworkNest.com, Ace – My -Homework is now at Homework Nest although these are totally different companies, We do Homework-For-You at HomeworkNest.com, Study Bay at Homework Nest, Custom Writings at Homework Nest, Etc. Find a Tutor To Ae Your College Assignments. Serving Students from USA, Australia, Canada, UAE and More. Hire a Tutor to Do Homework for PAY at HomeworkNest.com
-Which is the best and most reliable website for assignments help / homework help/ Essay writing/ platform: The answer is HomeworkNest.com – Affordable, Reliable and Professional. Where Can I Pay Someone to do my homework/Essay/Assignment/Capstone assignment/Econ – Shhh at HomeworkNest.com They do it professionally. Students ask: Who can help me Ace My Homework? Worry no more, the answer is a tutor from Homework Nest because adequately equipped with the textbooks required to handle your assignment. AceMyHomework shutdown was a hard experience to reckon with, but the good news is that www.homeworknest.com offers Instant Professional Tutoring by being your ultimate homework help partner. Homework Nest is open to accepting those students formerly wanted AceMyHomework and lack the access to resourceful books for fast homework help. Struggling with last minute assignments such as essay, dissertation, and math homework? Welcome to Homework Nest
– Navigating Human Services Organizations: Essential Information for Thriving and Surviving in Agencies by Rich Furman and Margaret Gibelman; 3rd Edition.
– Proposal Writing, Effective Grantsmanship by Soraya M.Coley and Cynthia A. Scheinberg, 5th Edition.
(BOTH FOR PSYC 212)
– Corey, M. & Corey, G. (2016). Becoming a Helper (7th edition). Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning.
– Slattery, J. & Park, C. (2011). Empathic Counseling: Meaning, Context, Ethics, and Skill. Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning
(BOTH FOR PSYC 215)
– Principles of Marketing, Kotler and Armstrong, 17E
– The Enjoyment of Theatre *America; The Essential Learning Edition
– ISO Precalculus by Sullivan 4th Edition
– The Future of Nature by Barry Lopez – SCI-120SC- OL02 (9781571313065)
– Democracy in America by Alexis de Tocqueville – POL-110HA- OL01 (9780312463304)
– Spirituals to Rock and Roll (CUSTOM) by Selph – MUS-110CL-OL10 (9781308678207)
– Reading Literature and Writing Arguments (Sixth Edition) By Missy James – ENG-122-OL01 (9780134120133)
– Why Evolution is True by Jerry Coyne – SCI-115SC-OL05 (9780143116646)
– Your Inner Fish by Neil Shubin -SCI-115SC-OL05 (9780307277459)
– ISO The Blitzer college algebra textbook the 7th edition (978-0134178943
– REREADING AMERICA: CULTURAL CONTEXTS FOR CRITICAL THINKING AND WRITING (10th edition is preferred)
– ESSENTIAL STATISTICS PLUS NEW MYSTATLAB WITH PEARSON ETEXT — ACCESS CARD PACKAGE
– Discovering the life span 4th edition
– ECEA textbook 5th edition,
– Healthy Foundations in Early Childhood Settings
– Nutrition: concepts and controversies 14th edition by Sizer & Whitney
Grassroots with reading 12th edition
Wondering which is the best and most reliable website for assignments help / homework help/ Essay writing/ platform: The answer is HomeworkNest.com – Affordable, Reliable and Professional. Where Can I Pay Someone to do my homework/Essay/Assignment/Capstone assignment/Econ – Shhh at HomeworkNest.com They do it professionally
Students ask: Who can help me Ace My Homework? Worry no more, the answer is a tutor from Homework Nest because adequately equipped with the textbooks required to handle your assignment. AceMyHomework shutdown was a hard experience to reckon with, but the good news is that www.homeworknest.com offers Instant Professional Tutoring by being your ultimate homework help partner. Homework Nest is open to accepting those students formerly affiliated with AceMyHomework and lack the access to resourceful books for fast homework help. Struggling with last minute assignments such as essay, dissertation, and math homework? Welcome to Homework Nest
– “Mathematical Ideas” A 2nd Custom Edition for Bergen Community College by Charles D. Miller, Vern E. Heeren, and John Hornsby
– BIOETHICS second edition
– English 101 / 102 / 271 Books
– “Blind Willow, Sleeping Woman.” By Haruki Murakami.
– “The Murder of Roger Ackroyd.” By Agatha Christie.
– “Murder on the Orient Express.” By Agatha Christie.
English 271:
– #1 – The Norton Anthology of Western Literature. (9th Edition) Volume 1
– A Patriot’s History of the United States
– Gregg College Keyboarding & Doc. processing 11E
– Accounting 1080 book used for 1 week. Accounting 1090
Wondering which is the best and most reliable website for assignments help / homework help/ Essay writing/ platform: The answer is HomeworkNest.com – Affordable, Reliable and Professional. Where Can I Pay Someone to do my homework/Essay/Assignment/Capstone assignment/Econ – Shhh at HomeworkNest.com They do it professionally
Students ask: Who can help me Ace My Homework? Worry no more, the answer is a tutor from Homework Nest because adequately equipped with the textbooks required to handle your assignment. AceMyHomework shutdown was a hard experience to reckon with, but the good news is that www.homeworknest.com offers Instant Professional Tutoring by being your ultimate homework help partner. Homework Nest is open to accepting those students formerly affiliated with AceMyHomework and lack the access to resourceful books for fast homework help. Struggling with last minute assignments such as essay, dissertation, and math homework? Welcome to Homework Nest
– Essential calculus edition 2
– Material from essentials of biology edition 5
– Custom create lab manual edition 5 (new or in mint condition)
– Plato to Darwin to dna
– Eaton industrial hydraulics manual 6th edition
– Human Resources Management 11th Edition by Rue, Ibrahim, and Byars
– Radiologic Science for Technologists Tenth Edition PDF Version
– Music Appreciation Book- Understanding Music 8th Edition
– Thanatology Book- Handbook of Thanatology 2nd Edition
– Death and Dying Book- The Last Dance 10th Edition
– Introduction to Sociology- 2e
– English Comp 1&2- Arguments and Researching and Writing
– Introduction to Business- Business Essentials
– Abnormal Psychology- seventeenth Edition
– Introduction to Computers- Computer Concepts and Applications- Access Code included
– Principles of Economics (6th Edition). Does have some writing in it, but other than that it is in very good condition.
– The Economics of Macro Issues
– These books were used for one quarter for Economics 100 class.
– English Composition (Bundle), Cleveland, Hawkes Learning, 2017. ISBN# 9781946158284
– Successful College Writing & Making connections textbooks
– Research strategies! 5th edition
– Writing Compilers and Interpreters: A Software Engineering Approach (ISE)
– Psychology: experience psychology 3rd edition
– Ethnic: 240 4th edition fundamentals of ethics!
– Psychology: experience psychology 3rd edition
– Wondering which is the best and most reliable website for assignments help / homework help/ Essay writing/ platform: The answer is HomeworkNest.com – Affordable, Reliable and Professional. Where Can I Pay Someone to do my homework/Essay/Assignment/Capstone assignment/Econ – Shhh at HomeworkNest.com They do it professionally
– Students ask: Who can help me Ace My Homework? Worry no more, the answer is a tutor from Homework Nest because adequately equipped with the textbooks required to handle your assignment. AceMyHomework shutdown was a hard experience to reckon with, but the good news is that www.homeworknest.com offers Instant Professional Tutoring by being your ultimate homework help partner. Homework Nest is open to accepting those students formerly affiliated with AceMyHomework and lack the access to resourceful books for fast homework help. Struggling with last minute assignments such as essay, dissertation, and math homework? Welcome to Homework Nest
– Ethnic: 240 4th edition fundamentals of ethics!
– Principals of Macroeconomics 7th Edition
– Single Variable Calculus: Early Transcendentals (7th ed, James Stewart)
– Structure and Properties (1st ed, Nivaldo Tro)
– Field-Programmable Gate Arrays : Reconfigurable Logic for Rapid Prototyping and Implementation
– The Pocket Wadsworth Handbook – 6th Edition and Steps to Writing Well with Additional Readings- 9th Edition
– The Norton’s field guide to Writing with Readings – 3rd Edition and The Little Seagull Handbook- 2nd Edition (Unopened)
– Of The People- A History of the United States, Vol. 1 : To 1877 – 2nd Edition
– Financial Accounting For Undergraduates 3rd edition
– Essential Environment text book by Withgott and Laposata. 5th Editio
– Abnormal Child Psychology (Mash)
– Abnormal Psychology (Davidson)
– Abnormal Psychology an integrated Approach (Barlow)
– Abnormal Psychology In A Changing World (Nevid)
– Abnormal Psychology (Hooley)…
– Adolescence (Santrock)
– Advertising An Integrated Marketing Communication Perspective (Belch)
– Adult Development And Aging (Whitbourne)
– American Government and Politics( Joseph Bessette)
– Anatomy from science to life (Jenkins )
– Anatomy And Physiology an integrated approach (Mckinley)
– Anatomy Physiology The unity of form and function (SALADIN)
– An Introduction To Psychological Science (Krauss)
– An Introduction To Brain and Behaviour (Kolb)
– An Introduction to Drugs and the Neuroscience of Behaviour (Prus)
– Animal Physiology (Hill, Anderson)
– APA Publication Manual
– Astronomy Today (Chaisson)
– Basic Biomechanics (Hall)
– Basic Chemistry (Timberlake)
– Basic Technical Mathematics –(Allyn Washington)
– Behaviour Modification What it is and how to do it (Martin)
– Becker World Of The Cell (Hardin)
– Berne & Levy Physiology (Koeppen)
– Biochemistry (Garrett)
– Biology How Life Works (Morris)
– Biology Today And Tomorrow (Starr)
– Biological Psychology (Kalat)
– Biomechanics Basic of Human Movement (Hamill)
– BioPsychology (Pinel)
– Botany An Introduction to Plant Biology (Mauseth)
– Brock Biology Of Micro-Organisms (Madigan)
– C++ how to program (Deitel)
– Campbell Biology (Reece)
– Chemistry A Molecular Approach (Nivaldo tro)
– Chemical Principles (Zumdahl)
– Chemistry (Olmsted)
– Chemistry (Mcmurry)
– Chemistry And Chemical Reactivity (Kotz)
– Chemistry The Central Science (Brown)
– Child Development (laura Berk)
– Children And their Development (Kail)
– Cogntion (Sinnett, Smilek)
– Cognition (Reisberg)
– Cognition (Matlin)
– Cognitive Psychology (Goldstein)
– Cognitive Psychology And Its Implications (Anderson)
– Cognitive Neuroscience Biology of the Mind (Gazzaniga)
– College Physics (Serway)
– Concepts Of Genetics (Klug)
– Consumer Behaviour Buying, Having, Being (Solomon)
– Contemporary Linguistic Analysis (Grady)
– Counselling and Psychotherapy Theories in Context and Practice(Sommers Flanagan)
– Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach (bartol)
– Criminalists An Introduction To Forensic Science (Saferstein)
– Cultural Psychology (Heine)
– Culture and Psychology (Matsumoto)
– David Myers Social Psychology
– Discovering Human Sexuality (Levin)
Discrete mathematics with Applications
Earth -An Introduction to physical geology (Tarbuck, Lutgens)
Ecology (Bowman)
Economic Development (Todaro)
Elementary Differential Equations (Boyce)
Elementary Linear Algebra (Anton)
Environment The Science Behind The Stories (Whitgott)
Essential Calculus Early Transcendentals (Stewart)
Essential Cell Biology (Alberts)
Essentials of Epidemiology (penny Webb)
Essentials Of Geology (Marshak)
Essentials Of Human Anatomy and Physiology (Marieb)
Essentials Of Statistics For The Behavioral Sciences (Gravetter)
Evolutionary Analysis (Heron)
Evolutionary Psychology (BUSS)
Evolution (Futuyma)
Exercise Physiology (Mcardle)
Exploring Sociology (ravelli)
Exploring Biological Anthropology (Allen)
Financial Accounting Tools For Business Decision Making (Kimmel)
Forensic Psychology (Pozzulo)
Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology (Martini)
Fundamentals Of Corporate Finance (Ross)
Fundamentals Of Human Neuropsychology (Kolb)
Fundamentals Of Physics (Halliday)
Fundamental Statistics For The Behavioral Sciences (Howell)
General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry Structures of Life(Karen C. Timberlake)
Genetics From Genes To Genomes (Hartwell)
Geosystems (Christopherson)
Health Psychology (Richard Straub)
Health Psychology (Sarafino)
Health Psychology (Taylor)
How Children Develop (Siegler)
Human Anatomy (Martini)
Human Anatomy and Physiology (marieb)
Human Osteology (White)
Human Physiology an integrated approach (Silverthorne)
I never knew I had a choice (Corey)
Intermediate Microeconomics (Varian)
Intimate Relationships (Miller)
Introduction to Genetic Analysis (Griffiths)
Introduction To Learning And Behaviour (Powell)
Introduction To Programming Using Python (Liang)
Introduction To Programming With C++ (Liang)
Introductory Statistics (Neil weiss)
James Stewart Multivariate Calculus
James Stewart Single Variable Calculus
Java How to Program (Deitel)
Karps Cell and Molecular Biology (Iwasa)
Language Development (Hoff)
Linear Algebra And Its Applications (Lay)
Life In the Universe (Bennett)
Lifespan Development (Boyd)
Learning and Behaviour (Paul chance)
Lehringer Principles Of Biochemistry (Nelson)
The globalization of world politics
Macroeconomics (Mankiw)
Macroeconomics (Ragan)
Majoring in Psychology Achieving Your Educational and Career Goals ( Helms)
Marketing real people real choice (solomon)
Media & Culture (Campbell)
Memory (Baddeley)
Methods In Behavioral Research (Cozby)
Microeconomics and Macroeconomics (Krugman)
Microeconomics (Ragan)
Modern Principles of Economics ( Tyler Cowen )
Molecular Biology Principles and Practice (Cox)
Molecular Biology Of The Cell (Alberts)
Motivation Theory Research and Practice (Petri)
Negotiation Reading Exercises and Cases (Lewicki)
NeuroPsychological Assessment (Lezak, Howieson)
Neuroscience Exploring The Brain (Bear)
Nutrition Concepts And Controversies (Sizer)
Organic Chemistry (Paula Yurkanis)
Organizational Behaviour Concepts, Controversies, Applications (Langton)
Pathophysiology (Banasik)
Personality Psychology (Larsen, Buss)
Personality Theory and Research (Corvine)
Perspectives On Personality (Carver)
Physical Chemistry Thermodynamics, Structure And Change (Atkins)
Physical Geology (Plummer)
Physics for Scientists and Engineers (Knight)
Physics for Scientists and Engineers (Serway)
Physics Principles With Applications (Giancoli)
Physiology of Behaviour (Carlson)
Project Management Achieving Competitive Advantage (Pinto)
Principles Of Anatomy And Physiology (Tortora)
Principles Of Animal Behaviour (Dugatkin)
Principles Of Corporate Finance (Brealey)
Principles Of Genetics (Snustad)
Principles Of Human Anatomy (Tortora)
Principles of Neuropsychology (Eric A. Zillmer)
Psychology (Myers, DeWall)
Psychological Testing (Kaplan, Saccuzzo)
Psychology From Inquiring To Understanding (Lilienfield)
Psychology Themes And Variations (Weiten)
Ravens Biology Of Plants (Evert)
Research methods A Process of Inquiry (Graziano)
Research Methods For the Behavioural Sciences (Gravetter)
Research Methods In Psychology (Morling)
Seeley’s Essentials Of Anatomy & Physiology (VanPutte)
Sensation & Perception (Wolfe)
Sensation & Perception (Goldstein)
SOC + (Brym)
Social Psychology (michael Hogg)
Social Psychology (Gilovich)
Social Psychology And Human Nature (Baumeister)
Sports medicine for sports trainers
Sports psychology Concepts & Applications (Richard Cox)
Starting Out With C++ (Gaddis)
Starting Out With Python (Gaddis)
Statistical Methods For The Social Sciences (Alan Agresti)
Statistics (James mclave)
Stats Data and Models (Deveaux)
Statistics for psychology (aron, coups)
Statistical Methods for Psychology (Howell)
Strategic Management Theory (Charles Hill)
The Earth Through Time (Levin)
The economics Of Money, Banking and Financial Markets (Mishkin)
The Globalization Of World Politics (Baylis)
These are books aimed for Online Homework Help Services • High School & College …or call it Professional College Homework Help for Students. Order all your homework assignments from a truly remarkable online service. Our professional writers provide you with best solutions for USA , CANADA, AUSTRALIA >>>> college and university assignments.
– The immune system (parham)
– Theory and practice of Counseling and Psychotherapy (Corey)
– The Personality Puzzle (Funder)
– The Psychology Of Language (Ludden)
– They Say I say (Graff)
– Understanding Emotions (Keltner, Oatley)
– Understanding Humans (Barry Lewis)
– Understanding Homicide (Brookman)
– Understanding Motivation and Emotion (reeve)
– Understanding Political Science Research Methods (Barakso)
– Understanding Statistics In The Behavioural Sciences (Pagano)
– Vector Calculus (Marsden)
– Vertebrates (Kenneth Kardong)
– VISUAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (Martini)
– World Prehistory and Archaeology (Chazan)
BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activities
Exam questions are set in different ways, depending on the intention of examiner. Tony shared that while he was studying, there were professors who wanted to assess critical thinking, decision making, problem solving and basic knowledge. Basic knowledge questions were mainly definitions and questions that are directly derived from class notes. The teacher mainly wants to assess how well you understand the basic concepts of the subject and whether you can give a few examples from these concepts. Critical thinking, decision making and problem solving questions are often in the form of case studies and analytical questions. They are often looking into how you can apply all the concepts learnt and use them to solve real life problems. Therefore, revision questions are able to expose you to different approaches to answering questions.
Most examiners aim at setting exam questions with considerations to changes in the curriculum, job market and external factors such as the influences of technology in learning. In addition to this, the mindset of the examiner is to evaluate critical and analytical abilities of the student. However, it can be challenging to predict what exactly a specific examiner seeks to evaluate as some use different methods in setting different papers. Some examiners can use different terms so as to confuse the student which could mislead how they answer the question. One common example is questions relating to the terms “Compare and Contrast.” Most students confuse these two terms and end up answering the question wrongly by either giving a contrast or similarity instead of both. Revision questions will make it easy for you to understand what exactly the examiner had in mind while they were setting the questions and what they expect of you in delivering the answers. This way you are able to approach questions more accurately without going out of topic.
Secondly, these questions and topics are key concepts in the subject and they are highly applicable in the job market. The third and most important reason is that most students tend to assume these repeated questions and they do not take time to review them which is often a trap created by the examiner. For the diligent students, repeated revision questions are often considered as free marks as they have practiced them a number of times and they understand the concept making it easier for them to handle these questions even when framed differently.
“We once exchanged revision question papers with students from another country who were taking the similar course. For a moment, I almost confused the content for another subject because of how these questions were set.” Tony shared this experienced that almost got him thinking that he was not studying extensively and enough. Later on, he realized that the examiner was focused on the same subject but the approach used to frame the question was quite different and with different response expectations. He also stated that he realized that the level of complexity was more advanced than what they were used to in their institution. Revision questions are able to expose you to different and unfamiliar examining approaches that could not be similar with those in your institution.
