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Quiz 1.
Administrative assistant
The appraisee is the administrative assistant in the marketing department of a large university business
school. The marketing department is responsible for the preparation of marketing plans, production of marketing information and materials and the arrangement of open days and ‘drop in’ events for potential students. In order to keep informed of what is happening in the sector there is a need to amass a variety of information from a range of sources to ensure that they can keep the business school on track in filling its courses. The administrative assistant is responsible for collecting articles and press comments on the particular business school, as well as relevant business education articles and information from competitors in the a meaningful assessment. Organisations structured in teams may be more able to introduce effective peer assessment and this can be formalised through an open discussion forum. Upward appraisal includes the views of those employees who report to the appraise and can be an important dimension of management development. It operates by inviting assessment by the manager’s employees as part of the performance management process. The assessment can relate to managerial style and effectiveness, rather than the achievement of organisational objectives and is most commonly undertaken through the completion and submission of appraisal process documents or, alternatively, as part of an employee attitude survey. These results are analysed and returned to the manager and can provide a forum for discussion as well as encourage a problemsolving approach to management development. Upward appraisal may be threatening for a manager and uncomfortable for subordinate appraisers. Although comments may or may not be individually identifiable, upward appraisal may be effective in an organisation which has an open and supportive culture and which encourages participation as a legitimate element in employee and management development.
Multi-rater appraisal or 360-degree feedback is a way of limiting the effect of the one-dimensional approach of the top-down schemes and building on the positive aspects of peer and upward appraisal. Multi-rater appraisers include peers, subordinates, internal and external customers and the manager. The aim is to achieve a broader view of employee performance. It can dilute subjectivity, increase customer focus, support team initiatives, decrease the hierarchical approach and provide greater employee involvement. The use of 360-degree feedback may be more suited to contemporary organisational structures, especially flatter structures, where the span of control may be such that it is difficult for managers to appraise the increased number of employees reporting directly to them. An important dimension of 360-degree feedback is it can improve validity and encourage self-awareness, thereby providing the basis for improved performance (Leopold, 2002; Fletcher, 2004; Marchington and Wilkinson, 2008). HE sector. Therefore, she keeps an eye on everything that could be of interest to senior management of the school. The appraisee has to check local and national press as well as keeping a watchful eye on relevant international press. She has to collect these articles and circulate them to senior managers, compile statistics in response to queries from the dean and heads of departments and compile a pack of information for the monthly executive board meeting.
The appraisee, who has been in post for 9 months, began well but recently her manager has the feeling that she is not progressing as expected. The initial enthusiasm that she showed when she joined the
department from university is no longer apparent, although her work rate and the hours she puts into the job are generally above average. She has missed some important articles in the past three months and she has required help from others in the department twice in the past three months, to ensure that the pack was not late for the executive board. However, she has received increasing praise from the dean and the heads of departments who are impressed with the accuracy and timeliness of the statistical reports she produces for them. Assess the performance of the administrative assistant using for following ratings:
1 Outstanding – significantly exceeds the requirements for the job
2 Very Good – above the requirements for the job in all key areas
3 Acceptable – performance in key areas in an acceptable range
4 Improvement needed – performance in some key areas below the acceptable range and needs to improve to meet the job requirements
5 Poor – significantly below the job requirements.
Questions
1 Record your rating and justify your decision by providing supporting evidence. You may make assumptions that are reasonable within the context of this case and your assumptions must also be recorded.
2 What actions must the administrative assistant take to improve her rating? Translate these actions into SMART or CASE objectives.
Quiz 2.
Do some research on male versus female conflict handling styles. Provide a two- to three-page summary of what you’ve found. Here are two guiding questions: Do women and men handle conflict differently? If so, what are the implications of your findings for supervisors? 2.Develop a paper arguing the pros and cons of the employment-at-will doctrine from the
supervisor’s perspective. After presenting both sides of the issue, select the side you support and describe why.
How can conflict benefit an organization? 2. What is conflict management? 3. When should you avoid conflict? When should you seek compromise? 4. What is a devil’s advocate? How does a devil’s advocate produce conflict in a department? 5. Can an organization be free of politics? Explain. 6. How do you assess another person’s power in an organization?
Identify and describe the characteristics of intercultural conflict. 2. Define interpersonal conflict and its characteristics. 3. Identify five different types of conflict. 4. List the basic principles of nonviolence. 5. Suggest some ways in which cultures differ in their views
toward conflict. 6. Understand how people come by their conflict strategies.
1.Explain the importance of “nonmainstream” histories and their relation to cultural identities. Explain why it is necessary to recover nonmainstream histories. 2. Understand the role of narratives in understanding various histories. 3. Understand the importance of history in contemporary intercultural relations. 4. Explain how diasporic histories influence intercultural
interactions.
Quiz 3.
Evaluate the role of financial benefits within total reward strategies.
Contribute to the development of a flexible benefits approach.
Appreciate the complexity of pensions and explain the principal characteristics of state, occupational and personal pensions.
Analyze emerging and declining reward trends.
1.“Supervisors should be concerned with helping their employees cope with both job-related stress and off-the-job stress.” Do you agree or disagree? Discuss.2.Visit OSHA’s website (www.osha.gov). Go to a page that discusses a news release on something OSHA is doing. Provide a two- to three-page summary of the news release, focusing on what OSHA
is intending to do, its effect on workers, and its effect on supervisors.
1.As supervisor, what should Cliff have done when it became apparent Sonja was overstepping her authority during the meeting with Cindy? 2. What steps do you believe Heather should take with Sonja? With Cliff? With Cindy? 3. What are the limitations, if any, to work specialization? 4. How might wider spans of control lead to cost reductions for an organization?
Quiz 4.
Based on your own personal experience and perceptions of individual performance related pay (PRP),
complete the activity below, by circling a number for each statement. If practical, aggregate the results with a sample of students or work colleagues. In any event discuss your responses and findings in small groups – does a consensus emerge?
Conduct an Internet search for articles providing data on the pros and cons of using a 360-degree performance appraisal in an organization. Summarize the articles and end the paper with your beliefs on whether 360-degree evaluations should be used in all organizations. 2. Many supervisors say that evaluating an employee’s performance is one of their most difficult
tasks. Why do you think they feel that way?
In this study, Buslig and Ocaña found that conflicts that involved one or more of Galician’s prescriptions took longer to resolve than conflicts involving only myths. Why
do you think this is? 2. Buslig and Ocaña also found that female characters are more likely to initiate conflict with their partners than male characters, which is consistent with research in actual interpersonal relationships. Do you think the differences in conflict initiation are due to
gender, or are there other factors that might explain the difference in conflict initiation.
Your managing director wishes to establish closer integration between business strategy and reward strategy and she wants you to prepare a concise briefing paper in which you articulate the organisational conditions necessary for performancerelated pay to be effective. What would be the content of your briefing?
If you are a consumer of your own company’s products, what jobs do you use them to get done? Where do you see them falling short of perfectly nailing your jobs, and why? Who is not consuming your products today? How do their jobs differ from those of your current customers?
What is the purpose of the uninoculated control tubes used in this test? Because only one uninoculated tube is sufficient to show the green color unchanged, why is it necessary to use two controls? Be specific.
Some microbiologists recommend inoculating a pair of O–F basal media (without carbohydrate) along with the carbohydrate media. Why do you think this is done?
Quiz 6.
1.What are global money management methods that reduce corporate transaction costs and taxes?
How was the deal between Bucyrus and Reliance threatened by a government agency? 2. What do you think of how Bucyrus’s CEO handled the situation? 3. Do you think governmental agencies will become more involved in business matters? Why or why not? 4. What is the purpose of accounting?
Consider Williams’ three organising principles of social policy – family, nation and work (1989). In what ways did the social evils identified by Beverage undermine the interests of the family, the nation and the workforce? How are they supported by the five outcomes of the Children Act 2004?
Assume you are a nurse manager on a unit where a new nursing documentation system is to be implemented
Quiz 7.
Getting the Project Team Back on Track
Jesse Cruz looked forward to leading his project team in his senior entrepreneurship capstone class. Professor Williams chose Jesse and four other team leaders from among those who applied for the positions. The teams are to create a plan for a new small business. Members may not change teams, though leaders can “fire” one member if that person seriously undermines the group’s efforts. At the end of the semester, each group will present its plan to a panel of business alumni who will determine which has the best chance of success and deserves the highest grade. Jesse’s team is made up of seven members (including himself). The group performed well on the first teambuilding exercises and case studies Professor Williams assigned in class. Team members were friendly with one another and willing to share their ideas, though Jesse was concerned that one member, Ralph, seemed to dominate group discussions. That initial good will dissipated quickly when the team sat down to figure out which kind of business it wants to create. Ralph and two other group members (Rose and Isaiah) are pushing to create a plan for a recreational marijuana store. They want to take advantage of the fact that voters in their state recently legalized recreational pot sales. Megan, Joyce, and Bernie have serious doubts about the proposal. They point out that the group would be selling a product banned by their university and still in violation of federal law. They worry that this type of business may be too controversial for the alumni evaluators and would lower the group’s grade. Joyce voted against the change in the marijuana law and believes that selling pot is unethical. Megan, Joyce, and Bernie have proposed a variety of alternatives, including a smartphone repair shop and bakery, but can’t seem to agree on one option. Tensions are rising as the group continues to discuss which business to pursue. Jesse’s concerns about Ralph have proven to be well founded. He comes across as a know-it-all. He declared on one occasion that those who disagreed with him were “clueless” because they didn’t understand how profitable a marijuana business could be. Ralph, Rose, and Isaiah appear more interested in having their way than in listening to their counterparts. They don’t seem to recognize how frustrated Megan, Joyce, and Bernie are. In fact, Megan appears to have given up and rarely speaks, checking her cell phone instead. Joyce hasn’t helped matters by accusing the marijuana store supporters (whom she referred to as “potheads”) of being immoral. Up to this point, Jesse has tried to remain neutral, though he has serious doubts about the marijuana business plan. He has focused on summarizing major points from both sides and encouraging members to listen to one another. He brought donuts to the last meeting in hopes of encouraging a warmer atmosphere. Jesse realizes that the group is stuck and that the entire project (as well as the semester grade in this senior-level class) is in danger. Even he as team leader doesn’t want to come to the group’s meetings anymore. While tempted to side with the marijuana business subgroup just to break the deadlock, he recognizes that members of the other subgroup may not complete their parts of the project if this plan is adopted. He needs to determine what to do before the team meets again. Time is running out.
Discussion Probes
What has Jesse done right so far as a leader? What mistakes has he made?
Should Jesse break the deadlock by supporting the marijuana store proposal? Why or why not?
What problems do you note in the interaction between group members?
What skills do members need to develop? What procedures or guidelines should they adopt?
What steps should Jesse take to foster cooperation and address the unproductive and unethical communication patterns in the group?
Should Jesse fire Ralph?
What should be Jesse’s agenda for the next team meeting?
Quiz 8.
Stewart Brand is credited with saying in the very early days of internet development that “Information wants to be free.” What is your interpretation of this saying? Think about it in both monetary and philosophical terms. How is the current digital environment fulfilling Brand’s statement? How is it not?
Freemium-based payment models are becoming more prevalent. What do you think of freemiums? What arguments can consumers make in favor of and against freemium payments? What advantages and disadvantages do they have for the companies that use that payment model?
Most, if not all, “print legacy” media companies have fully embraced digital delivery. Mobile devices provide access to the internet, but they also run apps that have specific functions or provide information for publications. Think about the difference between, for example, reading the New York Times in print form, on its website, and browsing it through its mobile app. What is different about these ways to access the New York Times’s content?
Quiz 9.
Analyse the skills and competencies that managers need in order to manage the individual redundancy encounter effectively. How can the skills be acquired in this sensitive area of managerial action? Evaluate the effectiveness of the support your organisation offers to employees who are being made redundant.
Advise on the termination of a contract of employment in line with relevant legislation. Contribute to the avoidance of successful claims for unfair dismissal. Describe the employment tribunal process in relation to dismissal. Critically review the redundancy policy of your organisation. How fair, effective and workable are the selection criteria identified in the policy?
Analyse the effectiveness of alternative selection methods for compulsory redundancy. Contribute to the development of policies for the effective management of redundancy, including the development of the managerial skills needed to handle redundancy effectively. Examine the concept of survivor syndrome and consider action necessary to rebalance the organisation post-redundancy.
Periodic surveys of unfair dismissal applications have identified the following characteristics of claims: The largest source of claims was in the distribution and hotel and catering industries. Most of the claims were from private sector employees, although the public sector share increased significantly between the surveys.
Attend an employment tribunal which is hearing a claim of unfair dismissal. Write up your experience with reference to the legal framework of dismissal, commenting on whether:
(a) a proper procedure was followed;
(b) the employer acted reasonably in the circumstances;
(c) the employee contributed to the dismissal.
Present an executive summary of the main points to your class.
Read Exhibit 18.3 and discuss why the burden of proof is different under criminal and employment law. What implications does this have for the way that dismissals are handled by managers? Are there any cases of condoned dishonest acts in your organisation? How did they come into being? Do they warrant dismissal? How could they be prevented or stopped?
Quiz 11.
Critically evaluate the role of the HR specialist in matters of employee discipline in several organisations and explain any similarities or differences. What are the arguments for having a grievance procedure and what are the key professional and ethical characteristics of an effective grievance procedure?
Identify the employee involvement practices used in your organisation. For what reasons do you believe they have been introduced? Are they effective? Should the legal requirement for employers to recognise a trade union if a majority of employees are in favour be retained, abolished or amended? Give reasons for your view.
Undertake an analysis of the way in which pay increases are determined within your organisation. If trade unions are recognised, the analysis should cover the levels at which agreements are made, the different bargaining units and agents that are involved, and how the pay of non-union employees is determined. If the organisation is non-union, the analysis should focus on the criteria and means that are used to decide the level of pay increases and the extent to which employees are able to individually negotiate their pay increases.
Quiz 12.
What would you look for in your organisation (or one with which you are familiar) to identify whether it has a well-being strategy? How might this strategy be operationalised and how might its effectiveness be monitored? Using the HSE stress management standards, discuss the main sources of stress for particular jobs in your organisation. What are the implications of these organisational stressors for the individual and for organisational effectiveness and how can management respond effectively?
How can the impact of strategic HRD be evaluated? Giving organisational examples explain what information is required and how data should be analysed and findings communicated. Compare and contrast knowledge management and human capital management. What are the similarities and what are the differences?
For your organisation (or an organisation where you are able to get access) use the HSE four-stage process to critically review the management of violence in the workplace. What conclusions can you draw from your review and what recommendations would you make to ensure compliance with the legislative responsibilities?
Quiz 13.
Central Bar: workplace violence
Central Bar is an independent bar located in the centre of a large university city in the UK. It is a popular bar with students and is always full and very busy on Friday, Saturday and Sunday nights. Isabella has been working there for three months and despite always being very busy she generally enjoys the work. A couple of weeks ago she felt very threatened when a male customer started to shout abuse at her because he had to wait to get his drinks. She reported this to her manager and told him that she felt frightened by the incident. A few days later another incident happened when a customer pulled her around when she was walking back to the bar, to complain because he had been waiting a long time. Again, she reported this to her manager, expressing her concerns about the situation. The manager said that this was bound to happen in a busy bar and that she should learn to deal with it. Isabella has had little training except on the range of drinks sold, taking and handling money and issues such as time-keeping and general duties. She speaks to her manager and at this meeting she asks to see the risk assessment and the procedures which are in place for the protection of the employees. The manager brings out a health and safety policy which was written two years previously and he talks this through with her. There has been no risk assessment done for over a year and there is no mention of harassment by customers. The manager agrees to review the policy and to meet with employees within two weeks. Two weeks later he shows employees the actions he recommends. These include:
A policy on barring customers who threaten employees
Clear employee guidelines on refusing drinks to customers who are considered to be a threat
The introduction of door staff at certain times of the year when they are very busy
CCTV cameras will be installed to allow better visibility of all areas of the bar
Questions
1 Do these actions fulfil the legal requirements of the bar owner?
2 Analyse the actions recommended by the Health and Safety Executive in Managing work-related violence in licensed and retail premises (2008b, www.hse.gov.uk/pubns/indg423.pdf) to manage work related violence and detail the further actions you recommend should be taken to provide a safe and healthy workplace for the Central Bar employees.
United Biscuits and the stress management standards
United Biscuits decided to manage stress using the management standards in order:
To address the increase in reported ‘stress’ cases during the period 2003–2005.
To introduce preventive measures to tackle work-related stress with a view to reducing litigation.
To take responsibility and care for the well-being of employees.
Apply the legislative framework, and in particular the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 and the Health and Safety Regulations 1992 (consolidated in ERA 1996 and MHSW Regulations 1999), which implemented EU Directives. Contribute to the creation of an active and positive health and safety Culture.
Assess the significance of human resource development (HRD) for individual and organisational performance and change. Evaluate the systematic approach for identifying and responding to learning and development needs. Assess different approaches to HRD strategy formulation
Quiz 15.
Health and safety in Cobras department store
A year ago you were appointed by the store director as the competent person responsible for assisting with health and safety in the Cobras department store. The store has a turnover of £30 million per annum and a staffing establishment of around 400. This case relates to the general services, warehousing and maintenance (GSWM) department. There are 50 staff in the GSWM department who undertake work associated with cleaning, general maintenance and repairs, transport and storage of goods and store security. The GSWM working environment contains many hazards and is characterised by significant risks to health and safety.
The GSWM department has traditionally had a poor health and safety record. The demands of supporting customer-focused sales departments have resulted in health and safety concerns being subordinated to operational demands. There is a carefree and fatalistic attitude towards health and safety among the staff, which is evident from high accident, injury and absence rates. Other problems include:
unsafe manual handling
irregular use of personal protective equipment
untidy working areas
poor storage of goods.
Quiz 16.
Critically evaluate the impact of the following national initiatives as a way of redressing the UK’s skills gap: Train to Gain, Skills Pledge, apprenticeships, raising of the education leaving age.
Recognise that prescriptive legislative approaches have been found wanting and the health and safety focus has shifted to ascribing employee and employer duties and responsibilities.
What is the distinction between manager training, manager development and management development? What are the challenges of integrating work-based and off-the-job forms of management development and what can be done to meet the challenges? Explain the perceived tension between the performance imperative and employee health and safety at work.
Critically discuss the extent to which the processes in the systematic training cycle are carried out in your organisation. Which stages in the cycle receive most attention and which receive least? What are the limitations of the systematic training cycle as a framework for practice?
Quiz 17.
SPS Research: HRD strategy of ‘build not buy’
SPS Research is a leading provider of independent credit ratings, indices, risk evaluation, investment research, data and valuations services. As part of an organisational refocusing process a ‘people strategy’ was launched that gave more responsibility to line managers for HRM and HRD processes. The HR strategy comprised three main strands: a ‘build not buy’ approach to recruitment and development; performance management, and rewards; all of which were linked to the wider business strategy and to a number of organisational performance outcome targets. A number of interrelated policies were needed to achieve these requirements. First, the HR strategy targeted inexperienced yet skilled staff in recruitment and selection processes. Line managers were then encouraged to be actively involved in providing opportunities for their ‘fast track’ development through work-based learning opportunities such as job placement, job design and job rotation of team members and identifying where attendance at formal training courses was necessary. Individual employees were also expected to be responsible for the self-management of their own development and to ensure that they gained maximum benefit from the work-based development opportunities that were provided for them. In this way a ‘build not buy’ HRD approach was adopted. Training, learning and development throughout the organisation was also seen as a fundamental part of HR strategy. A highly experienced HR director led the functional team with the remit of ensuring that line managers’ development was prioritised as a key feature of the support of HRD processes. The incentive for everyone involved in the HR strategy was success in a highly competitive business environment; the perpetuation of an enviable reputation for excellence and the development of hard to copy ‘people capabilities’ able to sustain the competitive advantage that SPS had built up over the years.
Questions
Discuss the extent to which the ‘build not buy’ approach would be effective in your organisation.
LSC Clothing is a manufacturer of leading brand casual wear employing almost 4000 people across 25 countries with products that can be found in retail outlets across the world. In 2005 concerns were raised by senior managers about inconsistent sales performance within the sales division. It was recognised and accepted within the division that a step change in effectiveness was needed but opinions differed about the nature of the current performance problems. The learning and development team set out to undertake a detailed learning needs analysis process relating to the sales process which incorporated a range of different forms of information from different stakeholders. The use of a systematic diagnostic process meant that the organisation could get a consistent view of the current capability gap. The learning needs analysis process provided the foundation for the learning and development team to develop a tailored training and development programme for the salesforce focused on the basic principles of good selling within the LSC Clothing business model. Four ‘Sales in LSC’ training modules were developed in partnership with sales executives over a period of 12 months. Each module focused on one ‘phase’ of the LSC sales cycle. The initial courses were delivered by a specialist sales training organisation in collaboration with local sales directors from the different country groups. Those who had participated were then responsible for cascading the modules in their own locations. Each of the different modules was scheduled to occur at times when they would be most relevant to the LSC sales cycle to ensure that what had been learned could be applied directly and so become embedded into ongoing sales practices. Effective learning programmes rely on the involvement and support of top managers at all stages of the systematic learning cycle and the learning and development team ensured top level management involvement by asking sales directors to devise and introduce a ‘dashboard of key metrics’; figures that would assess sales effectiveness and sales skills and would feed directly into the training evaluation process. In addition senior managers (not learning and development specialists) conducted a series of telephone interviews with a sample of the sales staff to find out what participants had found useful about the training, which of the tools they were using and how the training process might be improved.
Questions
1 Critically comment on the effectiveness of the LSC Clothing approach.
2 How could the effectiveness of the sales training be evaluated?
Quiz 19.
The CIPD survey (2008a) of management practice in dealing with employee absence reported the finding that around 27 per cent cite ‘other absences not due to genuine ill health’ as a cause of short-term absence. Clearly, this is a perception and the reality is difficult to verify, but the implication is that a substantial proportion of sick absence is not genuine. Make your own assessment of this finding – is it the case that 27 per cent of absence involves dishonest intent? What does this mean? What can be done about it?
In small groups critically review examples of individual performance objectives; what objective measures would you use to assess performance against these objectives? Critically examine the process for collecting sick absence information in your organisation. How effective is it in capturing accurate, timely and reliable data?
The directorate of your organisation is considering the introduction of flexible benefits for all employees and is seeking your advice. What advice would you give, first, about the added-value business advantages of flexible benefits and, second, about the feasibility, design and implementation of an
Managing absence and attendance: comparative strategies
Reducing unplanned leave of absence at a major supermarket
Each employee is to be given three extra days of paid leave each year, but sick pay will not be paid for the first three days of any illness, regardless of whether the illness is genuine or not. Shopping voucher
incentives will be given to employees who have zero unplanned absence in a year. The HR manager has
stated that ‘the aim of the scheme is to reduce absence which affects the level of customer service and increases the pressure on the employees who have to cover extra work. The aim is to encourage employees to plan absence and although we do not want to penalise genuinely ill employees, we do want to discourage employees from taking regular days off.’ The HR manager provides reassurance that the organisation will be sympathetic to reasonable employee requests for time off for family or domestic matters to avoid employees feeling they have to claim to be sick to attend to pressing personal matters. The scheme has the tentative support of USDAW, although they are less happy about the lack of sick pay for the first three days of sick absence.
Managing absence at a UK train operator
Managers are reluctant to appear heavy-handed and want to maintain good relations with the recognized trade union. It was recognised that there were deficits in accurate sick absence data and in management capability to manage sick absence. In particular there was a lack of understanding of the purpose of return-to-work interviews and therefore they were rarely undertaken. Absence management was perceived by line managers, who were intensely financially focused, as not their problem and expected HR to deal with it. The response of the organisation was to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the data, to produce a league table which was made available to managers and employees and to introduce a ‘One of our team is missing’ training programme to raise individual awareness of the impact of sick absence on the rest of the team. Other initiatives included enabling easier access to occupational health professionals, setting up a joint management and trade union ‘Sickness and release group’ to focus on preventive measures and setting targets of a reduction in sick absence from 9 to 7 per cent for on-train employees and from 5 to 4 per cent for station-based employees.
Questions
1 Discuss these two approaches to managing absence and attendance and identify the management challenges associated with them.
2 Evaluate the extent to which each approach is likely to reduce the frequency and/or volume of sick absence.
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Question 1: Statistics
It is estimated that 3.5% of the general population will live past their 90th birthday. In a graduating class of 754 high school seniors, find the following probabilities. (Round your answers to four decimal places.)
(a) 15 or more will live beyond their 90th birthday
(b) 30 or more will live beyond their 90th birthday
(c) between 25 and 35 will live beyond their 90th birthday
(d) more than 40 will live beyond their 90th birthday
Question 2: Human Resources
Assessment 2
Written or Oral Questions
What is human resource strategic planning? What may the objectives and
targets of the plan relate to? (5 marks)
In order to identify emerging practices and trends, you may need to
undertake environmental analysis. How can you do this? What is involved in
the process? (5 marks)
Give examples of the different options for sourcing labour supply. (3 marks)
When considering the impact of new technology, what should you think
about? (5 marks)
You should be aware of recent and potential changes to industrial and legal
requirements. Give two examples of changes that you are aware of.
(2 marks)
When consulting with relevant managers, what methods can be used?
What should you inform them about? (4 marks)
What are human resource philosophies and values? (1 mark)
What should the objectives and targets of your plan set out? What will this
enable? (3 marks)
Give two examples of the different options for the provisions of human
resource services. (4 marks)
What may technology be used to support? (2 marks)
What are the key ingredients of a strategic HR plan? (2 marks)
When developing a risk management plan, what should you ask yourself?
(4 marks)
In order to see that the plan is implemented, you will need to work with
others. Who may these be? (5 marks)
Why should you monitor and review the plan? What questions will you need
to answer in order to this? (10 marks)
15.Give two examples of changes in circumstances that may result in your plan
needing to be adapted. (4 marks)
What does an evaluation of performance enable you to do? (5 marks)
Assessment 2 Total Marks :64
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Question 3: Human Resources
There are two assignments that will need to be completed below, please complete both assignments according to the instructions listed below for both assignments.
Assignment 1: WEEK 7 Management and Unions
Write a paper in which you describe three pieces of legislation that have been critical in defining the rights of management and unions.
In your paper answer the following question:
Why are the laws you chose important and what role did they play in shaping today’s management-union relationship?
The requirements below must be met for your paper to be accepted and graded:
Write between 750 – 1,250 words (approximately 3 – 5 pages) using Microsoft Word in APA style, see example below.
Use font size 12 and 1” margins.
Include cover page and reference page.
At least 80% of your paper must be original content/writing.
No more than 20% of your content/information may come from references.
Use at least three references from outside the course material, one reference must be from EBSCOhost. Text book, lectures, and other materials in the course may be used, but are not counted toward the three reference requirement.
Cite all reference material (data, dates, graphs, quotes, paraphrased words, values, etc.) in the paper and list on a reference page in APA style.
References must come from sources such as, scholarly journals found in EBSCOhost, CNN, online newspapers such as, The Wall Street Journal, government websites, etc. Sources such as, Wikis, Yahoo Answers, eHow, blogs, etc. are not acceptable for academic writing.
Assignment 2: WEEK 8 Teamwork
Twenty years from now, the typical large business will have half the levels of management and one-third the managers of its counterpart today.
Work will be done by specialists brought together in task forces (teams) that cut across traditional departments. Coordination and control will depend largely on employees’ willingness to discipline themselves—not by Human Resources.
Please write a word paper on the importance of Teams in the Organization.
Explain how (you as a manager) would hire, manage, compensate and motivate teams working under your leadership in order to meet the goals of the organization and Human Resource Management.
The requirements below must be met for your paper to be accepted and graded:
Write between 750 – 1,250 words (approximately 3 – 5 pages) using Microsoft Word in APA style, see example below.
Use font size 12 and 1” margins.
Include cover page and reference page.
At least 80% of your paper must be original content/writing.
No more than 20% of your content/information may come from references.
Use at least three references from outside the course material, one reference must be from EBSCOhost. Text book, lectures, and other materials in the course may be used, but are not counted toward the three reference requirement.
Cite all reference material (data, dates, graphs, quotes, paraphrased words, values, etc.) in the paper and list on a reference page in APA style.
References must come from sources such as, scholarly journals found in EBSCOhost, CNN, online newspapers such as, The Wall Street Journal, government websites, etc. Sources such as, Wikis, Yahoo Answers, eHow, blogs, etc. are not acceptable for academic writing.
Question 4: Human Resources
discuss how resources, technology and costs compare to each other in the world of health care economics.
Write a 750-word paper that is a comprehensive comparison of these terms.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
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Question 5: Anthropology
You will write a typed, double-spaced 5-6 page paper on a subject of your choice that is pertinent to one of the subfields of anthropology: physical, cultural, linguistic, or archaeology. Potential topics include the peopling of the Americas, the history of stone tools, the Egyptian Book of the Dead, genocides, religious revitalization movements, Kennewick Man, ethnic acculturation or diasporas, gender rules, the history of evolutionary theory in anthropology, Maya hieroglyphs, and the like. A topic with a big question is great, provided you are able to find a body of concrete materials to work through. Do not rely on Wikipedia; it is not an acceptable citation and will be automatically marked down per citation. I will expect a one page typed topic proposal with a tentative bibliography (at least 10 sources). A well-conceived proposal has (1) a thesis statement, contextualized and made significant by the introduction; (2) a connected sequence of arguments supporting the thesis that ideally considers evidence contrary to your point of view; and (3) a conclusion that summarizes what your argument and evidence supports or disproves. Your paper does not have to “solve” one of life’s mysteries; coherent demonstration of a complete understanding of the theory and data behind both sides of a particular debate or controversy is the goal. Remember, clarity is essential; linking comparative evidence and ideas in a concise manner will improve your grade. Simple, but well-structured and thorough papers will earn high marks. Please note that the email confirmation of topic is worth 5 points. The written proposal itself will be worth 10 points. Papers that lack an email confirmation will be docked 15 points off their paper grade. Papers which do not come with a proposal will be eligible for a maximum of85 points. In other words, each student starts with 100 points and will be deducted based on what corresponding work is (or is not) turned in.
Question 6: Business Finance
Suppose you need $1 million dollars to start your Dream Business. Research ways to get the money for such a business. Compare two (2) sources of financing you might obtain. (e.g., Small Business Administration (SBA), private investors, private loans, personal assets, and / or personal credit cards.) Identify the risks and benefits of your two (2) choices.
Question 7: Business Finance
Why do we say money has time value?
Why is it important for business managers to be familiar with time value of money concepts?
Define Present Value.
Define Future Value.
What are present value and future value interest factors? (as in PVIF and FVIF)
(calculating future value) You buy a 6 year, 8% CD for $1,000. Interest is compounded annually. How much is it worth at maturity?
(calculating present value) What’s the present value of $1,000 to be received in 8 years? (Your required rate of return is 7% a year.)
(calculating the rate of return) A friend promises to pay you $600 two years from now if you loan him $500 today. What interest rate is your friend offering you?
(calculating the future value of an annuity) If you invest $100 a year for 20 years at 7% annual interest, how much will you have at the end of the 20th year?
(calculating the present value of an annuity) How much would you be willing to pay today for an investment that pays $800 a year at the end of the next 6 years? (Your required rate of return is 5% a year.
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Question 8: Business Finance
1A. Analyze the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Using the course text and an article from ProQuest as references, address the following:
Explain how the CAPM assists in measuring both risk and return.
Explain how the CAPM assists in calculating the weighted average costs of capital (WACC) and its components.
Illustrate why some managers have difficulty applying the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) in financial decision making.
Identify the benefits and drawbacks of using the CAPM.
Develop a (300 word) answer supporting your position.
1B.Using the annual report from the company that you have selected for your Final Project, discuss the risks the company faces and the actions they take to mitigate those risks. Refer to the Management Discussion and Analysis section of the annual report for this information.
As part of your response consider whether you think the risk mitigation techniques are reasonable. Discuss what others concerns or advice you would offer if you had the opportunity.
Include in your post a calculation for the probability of one of the risks identified by your company. This information may not be available in the annual report, therefore you will likely need to conduct research and critical thinking to complete this calculation.
Develop a (300 word) explanation supporting your position.
2.This video introduces the concept of business risk and risk management. It notes that business risks can generally be classified into four categories: property, market, employee, and customer.
Using each of the four categories of risk, develop an analysis of how financial management techniques or policies can be used to mitigate each of the risks. To supplement your risk analysis, you must use at least one article for each of your risk mitigation techniques or policies from the Ashford University Library database.
Summarize your findings in a three- to five-page paper (excluding the title and reference pages) that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. Be sure to properly cite at least four scholarly sources using APA style.
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Question 9: Business Finance
Respond to the questions using the lessons and vocabulary found in the reading.
Support your answers with examples and research and cite your research using the APA format.
Start reviewing and responding to the postings of your classmates as early in the week as possible.
Tasks:
Answer the following questions:
To determine how well an investment is doing, it is important to take into account its return and risk. Rational investors seek to obtain the highest amount of return from an investment with the least amount of risk. The CAPM and the arbitrage pricing theory are alternative methods of identifying the risk and return relationship in an investment or groups of investments. What are the similarities and differences between the two models? In your opinion, which model would be most appropriate for evaluation of a portfolio of investments? Why? Which method would you recommend for a single investment project? Why? Provide your rationale using examples.
When a firm uses debt in its capital structure, it is referred to as a leveraged firm and this concept is referred to as financial leverage. Operating leverage refers to a firm’s fixed costs of production. The higher the fixed costs, the greater the degree of operating leverage that is being employed. How does the degree of operating and financial leverage affect the beta of a firm? For a firm just beginning operations, what recommendations would you make about the use of debt in the capital structure? How would these recommendations affect the company’s beta coefficient and the investors’ required rate of return? Would your recommendations change if the firm were a long-established operation? Why or why not?
Comment on the postings of two of your classmates. Do you agree with their position? Why or why not?
Question 10: Business Management
Determine the top five IT assets to include in a risk assessment for a typical manufacturing facility. Justify your selection.
Question 11: Business Management
Discuss the philosophy of house arrest and electronic monitoring. Explain what house arrest is and how it works. Explain what electronic monitoring is. Describe what type of offenders may be sentenced in these ways.
Question 12: Mathematics
Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line whose equation is y = 4x + 2 and whose
y-intercept is 3
Question 13: Mathematics
A student chose a number, multiplied it by 2, then subtracted 138 from the result and got 102. What was the number he chose?
Question 14: Mathematics
solve the Area, circumference using radius of 7cm. please ensure accuracy. APA . No plagiarism
Question 15: Psychology
Professor Markus is a brilliant mathematician who is 70 years old and still enjoys teaching. Over the past few years, she has found it increasingly difficult to remember the names of her students. Suggest several possible explanations for the professor’s memory problems.
(100% original. Turtin Checked. 350 words min)
Question 16: Psychology
Part 1
Perform a web search on the drug Heroin and locate additional resources that will help you answer the following:
Briefly describe why you chose this drug and how many people are estimated to be using/abusing it.
Explain how the drug influences both the brain and behavior.
Discuss what you think (if anything) needs to be done to combat addiction to this substance and provide a rationale for your position.
Your initial post must be a minimum of 200 words and utilize at least two scholarly source (e.g., the course textbook, a peer-reviewed article from the Ashford University Library, or a professional web source), cited according to APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Part 2
Explain the processes involved in how one senses the world around them (sight, touch, hearing, etc). If you had to give up one, which would it be? Why? What in your life (think about home, work, school) would be impacted by this lack of sense? How does perception influence your sensory systems?
Your initial post must be a minimum of 200 words and utilize at least one scholarly source (e.g., the course textbook, a peer reviewed article from the Ashford University Library, or a professional web source), cited according to APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
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Question 17: Psychology
Part 1
Dave Fletcher excels in his job. However, he wants more for himself and his family and feels education can help him move forward in his career. Having made the decision to finish his education, he has enrolled at Ashford University. As he comes to the end of his first year in college, Dave is a 4.0 student, but his performance at work is suffering. Dave has been informed that if his performance does not improve, his job is in danger. He wants to keep his job and at the same time continue to do well in school. Over the next six months Dave is once again excelling in his job and continuing to do well in school.
Address each of the following criteria as you respond:
Identify a theory of motivation from this week’s reading that you feel best helps us to understand the change in Dave’s behavior.
Briefly describe this theory of motivation and discuss how you think it can help us understand Dave’s change in behavior.
In what ways was emotion tied to Dave’s change in behavior?
How might this same theory of motivation help you to understand your own school and work related behavior?
Will you change anything in your own life as a result of what you have studied in this scenario?
Your initial post must be a minimum of 200 words and utilize at least one scholarly source (e.g., the course textbook, a peer reviewed article from the Ashford University Library, or a professional web source), cited according to APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Part 2
Select one character, past or present, from a television show, movie, book, comic, game, etc.
Briefly describe this character, including:
What medium (television, movie, book, etc.) is he or she from?
Why did you select him or her?
What is his or her personality as depicted?
Identify one approach (e.g., common-sense, psychodynamic, humanistic, etc.) that you feel is most accurate and useful in understanding this character’s personality.
Discuss this selected theory. Why did you select it? How might this theory help us understand your character’s personality?
Your initial post must be a minimum of 200 words and utilize at least one scholarly source (e.g., the course textbook, a peer-reviewed article from the Ashford University Library, or a professional web source), cited according to APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
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Question 18: Psychology
Critiquing Internet Sources
Today, the Internet provides an unprecedented amount of information by way of blogs, videos, and podcasts. Conduct a critique of one blog, one video, and one podcast, which provide information that addresses the topic of your Final Research Paper. Assess the authors’ use of bias, validity, and applicability of information. Examine the influence of web-based information on global citizenship and multicultural understanding. Then, compile a list of three factors you believe should be considered when evaluating Internet sources for use in researching information.
The paper must be three to four pages in length (excluding the title and reference pages) and formatted according to APA style. In addition to the three multimedia sources you are analyzing, support your points with at least two scholarly sources. One of the scholarly sources must be from the Ashford Online Library. Cite your sources within the text of your paper and on the reference page. For information regarding APA, including samples and tutorials, visit the Ashford Writing Center within the Learning Resources tab on the left navigation toolbar.
Question 19: Psychology
What were some misconceptions you had about animals’ ability to time? What are some personal experiences you’ve had with timing in animals (i.e., noticing bees or hummingbirds feeding at a certain time in your garden every day, your dog anticipating the arrival of a family member after a work day, etc.)?
Question 20: Psychology
Assume you are employed as a counselor at your local high school. You need to conduct a 30-minute interview with a student who has suddenly had a dramatic decline in her grades. Prior to conducting any interview, it is extremely important to plan its structure, the type of information you hope to acquire, the timing and sequencing of the interview, and the types of questions you might want to ask. To prepare for the interview, analyze the structure of the interview and present a summary including the following reasons for your choices:
Purpose of your interview
Discuss the topics you plan to cover and the sequence in which you will cover them
Questions you will use to obtain the information
Opening techniques to build rapport with the volunteer
Types and examples of questions you want to avoid
In your discussion, please be sure you cite, at a minimum, the online course and the text book for the course. Your paper should be 2–3 pages (not counting the cover and reference pages), be APA formatted, and include a reference page.
Interviewing in Action in a Multicultural World
FOURTH EDITION
Bianca Cody Murphy
Wheaton College
Carolyn Dillon
Boston University
1133086713
Question 21: Marketing
This assignment is about Hello Fresh
No more than 5 pages plus attachments
You may use format of your choice – be creative – make it professional!
Write as a consult to me as an executive trying to understand Hello Fresh and the meal deliver service market
Use the business model canvass and any other tools from class or otherwise. Four quadrant charts are great.
Do your best to find the info online and be creative in your research
Summarize the Meal Delivery Service Market
Who are the main competitors – how may they be different? Who is leading competitor? How are they positioned?
What are the competitive alternatives (not just meal service)
What makes Hello Fresh unique or differentiated (is it?)
Consider the whole business model – use the canvass and map the business model
What are the strengths and weaknesses of the model?
Do they have a sustainable competitive advantage? Can they be easily copied?
What is / could be the benefit of being global from a business market perspective?
Who do you think they are and should be targeting and what is / are their core value propositions
Describe their brand promise and personality?
Do you recommend investing in them and why?
Provide a 2-page PowerPoint summary and the written report.
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(Times New Roman 12 point font) 5pages
Choose ONE of the following questions. Be sure to have a compelling thesis statement and strong supporting evidence. You are writing an argument, and you should be attempting to convince your reader of your contention. Your paper should be in five-paragraph essay format (which means you may have more than five paragraphs but not fewer than five paragraphs). You will need to provide evidence for your argument. That evidence can be offered in one of three ways: quotations of dialogue [which you will either have to transcribe yourself or find from a third party (if you go this route, you will need to provide citations), still images from the film, or a relevant clip.
You should also provide a bibliography. The bibliography does not apply to your word count.
Do NOT include the prompt to which you are responding. We should be able to know that from context.
Alphaville in 1965. How does the film reinforce or subvert contemporary portrayals of members of one or more traditionally marginalized communities? How does that portrayal affect that film’s vision of the future? Can science fiction, as exemplified by your film, imagine a truly different future? Why or why not?
Alphaville in 1965. Select a five-minute (approximately) sequence from this film (e.g. Ripley trying to stop the self-destruct sequence). Break that scene down and analyze how such technical aspects as cinematography, sound, editing, etc. came together in a successful collaboration between the different departments.
Two Ridley Scott films Blade Runnerand Alien. Taken together, what is Scott’s vision of the future? What mark has he left on the genre of science fiction?
Consider Alfonso Cuarón’s Children of Men. In the making of that film, there was a close collaboration between all of the departments to craft a dark vision of the future. What is that vision of the future? Is it successful? What did the different departments add to that portrait of the future? Why is that collaboration successful?
Consider Close Encounters of the Third Kind. Did Steven Spielberg find an innovative and imaginative enough possible means of communicating with an alien species? Does his choice successfully contribute to the narrative? Why or why not?
Attachments area
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4pages
For the book
Ashby, LeRoy
2012 With Amusement for All: A History of American Popular Culture since 1830 Lexington: University of Kentucky Press
Pick two chapters from chapters 1-9
(if you want to do chapter 8 or 9, I recommend that you do them both)
Summarize and analyze the main points in the chapters.
Be sure to consider:
How may the examples of popular culture have been used to advance the interest of the United States?
How may the examples of popular culture have been used to create the middle class of the United States?
What might it say about racial issues in the USA? (be sure to consider these things within the time frame that they happened….dont project “today” onto 1812)
Do the issues of popular culture affect us today? Or exist today?
These are not questions for you to answer like a list. You may not be able to answer all of them. DO not write those questions like headings and answer them. Write an actual essay
DO NOT UTILIZE ANY QUOTE WHAT SO EVER THAT IS LONGER THAN THIS SENTENCE
DO NOT DO NOT DO NOT DO NOT DO NOT DO NOT DONT use a quote to make your point!!!!!!
DON’T DO THAT! I WILL TAKE OFF POINTS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! NEVER EVER FOR ANYTHING FOR ANY CLASS ANYWHERE SHOULD YOU DO THAT. It is bad writing.
DO NOT end a sentence or a paragraph with a quote.
Your absolutely welcomed to make no quotations at all
@4-5 pages. By Friday November 22
Please remember how to write an essay
Make a short introductory paragraph that tells me what your paper is going to be about. Don’t analyze anything in this paragraph. Don’t start summarizing the book in this chapter
Then write a few paragraphs analyzing and summarizing. If an entire page (or more) is one paragraph, you are probably doing something wrong.
Add a short conclusion which summarizes your paper
Here is where you an download the book- https://b-ok.cc/book/9…e9c23
. Project 2
A reminder is that PROJECT 2’s PAGE LENGTH IS 15 – 20 PAGES. The Situation Audit Template discussed above is designed for a paper in this page range.
Step 2 required a fact sheet that is described in Step 2. Essentially the fact sheet requests the following information: when it was established; by whom; its legal form (corporation, publicly traded; privately held, non-profit, government, military); its current CEO (or head); its industry or industries; its size (employees and assets); and its purpose. Some students presented this information as a narrative; others presented it in outline format. Either method is fine. See the APA heading below.
Step 3 requires a definition and analysis of the following: mission; vision; values; goals. Keep in mind the application of MVVG (sometimes seen as MVVO — where O = Objectives) can pertain to your organization or your unit or a department within your organization — public, private, non-profit, or military. At times, depending on the focus of your Project, you could be dealing with MVVG’s at the organizational level as they affect or are adapted to the unit or department level. See APA heading below.
For Step 3, some key questions to think about for addressing the issues Step 3 follow:
Is the mission well understood? Does management communicate the mission with publications, employee meetings, and so forth? Is mission discussed in initial training for new employees.
Does your organization’s mission affect the key decisions of the organization? Can you (or employees in your unit or department or across the organization) see and understand how decisions are in alignment with mission? In general, the mission would need to be known and understood among employees to analyze this question from a “yes” perspective.
Are vision and core values well understood as they relate to mission? If so, how do they affect what is done? Here again mission, vision, and values would need to be understood to analyze this question from a “yes” perspective.
The information for Step 2 and 3 of Project 2 should be readily available for large public sector or private sector entities, as published on their websites, detailed in their publications, or reported in various government reports, including stock related tax filings. For smaller entities, some or all of the above information may need to be created. Step 3 has many aids embedded as links in Step 3 to guide you in developing the information requested. See APA heading below.
APA Citation Requirement:
The inability to meet the Graduate School’s Writing Skills Requirement, as specified in the Syllabus Grading Section, can prevent a project from passing. That matter was discussed in Weekly Update 1.
The point I want to emphasize here is that proper APA citation is a critical part of effective writing in the MBA program (and that holds for most graduate schools nationally). Proper APA citation is expected and required before a paper can be accepted for a passing grade.
The number one issue I see in reviewing student work to date on the Situation Audit for Project 2 is the failure to cite both in-text, as needed, and to show the relevant References in APA format. When facts or statements (e.g., mission, vision, values) are cited in a paper an in-text citation is required. The in-text citation directs the reader to the Reference so that the reader, if so desired, can find the exact location of the information used in the paper. Both in-text citations and references have precise APA formats specified for them.
Choose EITHER A or B. 50 points (including points for the responses to your classmates)
Select ONE of the assigned stories and analyze setting in the story. How does the author use setting? What aspects of setting –physical, geographical, historical — are important in the story you chose to write about? Be specific and provide examples for support from the story. Don’t forget to fulfill all of the requirements listed in the previous discussion (including THOUGHTFULLY responding to classmates’ discussions).
OR
Choose one of the assigned short stories and explain how the theme of escape figures into the story. Does escaping create the conflict or solve the conflict? Be specific–use examples from the story for support. Don’t forget to fulfill all of the requirements listed in the previous discussion (including THOUGHTFULLY responding to classmates’ discussions).
Your discussion must be at least 350 Observe all of the rules for posting discussions noted in the general instructions above. For the peer response, respond to a DIFFERENT story from the one you posted for your own discussion.
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In this short (2 page) writing assignment, we ask you to summarize concisely the content of a scientific paper from the evolutionary literature that is related to your intended term project. This is intended to help train you to read such articles with comprehension, and then to create a carefully structured written description of the article, in your own words.
Your paper should describe:
The major question, and why it is important.
The data collected.
How the data was analyzed.
The major conclusions, and their implications.
Be sure to include the complete citation for this scientific paper in your report.Option: You may wish to write about the scientific process that led to the development of the paper. By scientific process, we mean that almost all of the ideas in the paper were based on ideas already proposed, studied, and analyzed by other scientists. Likely, these ideas were incrementally supported or refuted by gathering some additional evidence, proposing a modification to a theory, or evaluating old evidence in some new way. When you read through the paper, pay attention to when and why the authors cite other works. This could be in parentheses with the authors name and year (Smith 2012), or a bracket with a number [3]. Either way these citations refer to a full reference provided in the literature cited section. Consider one or two papers that clearly demonstrate how the paper you read was built upon previous findings. How exactly was this paper built upon previous work? For example, was it a major leap, or an incremental advance? Is it novel in comparison to the previous works, does it do little difference?
Consider developing a thesis statement. For whatever your thesis is, include in your thesis statement a summary of what evidence supports your ideas. The rest of your essay will carefully lay out the evidence supports your thesis.
In writing your paper, you should:
Organize it logically. Work from an outline.
Attend carefully to your use of good English (including grammar, spelling, punctuation, proper organization of paragraphs, etc.) Refer to sources on style or usage for punctuation and grammar, and to a dictionary for the proper use of words. Be especially careful and precise in your choice of words: your vocabulary should say exactly what you mean to say. Remember that written expression and spoken expression are not the same,because you can’t clarify your meaning for a reader by seeing the puzzled expression on her/his face. Moreover, remember that words are often used in a specialized discipline with very precise meanings that differ from the uses of the same word in everyday speech. (For example, correlation, linked, genetic, animal, fruit, and randomall have special, precise meanings in biology.) Ambiguity is one of the most common faults in writing, due to poor choice of words. Overall, work on developing a smooth, clear style, and produce a product you are proud of.
The classic guide to good writing is The Elements of Style, by Strunk and White (latest edition 2000, published by Allyn and Bacon). This is short, pithy, and delightful; everyone should own and learn from it. Other useful sources might be Writing Papers in the Biological Sciences, by V. E. McMillan (Bedford/St. Martin’s, 2001) and Successful Scientific Writing, by J. R. Mathews et al. (Cambridge University Press, 2000).
Finish your paper before it is due. Let it sit a few days, and then polish it. Proofread it at least once for typographical errors, spelling, punctuation, style. Does every sentence say exactly what you mean? Is every word necessary and precise? Can you be more concise? Does each paragraph constitute a coherent whole, or does one of the sentences belong elsewhere? Perhaps you can get friends to read it and give you feedback.
For the purposes of this paper, do not include any direct quotes.
All phrases and sentences should be your own.
A note on plagiarism, submitting work that is not your own: If you submit a paper written by someone else, or include in your work, without citing the source, a passage (even a single sentence) written by someone else, you are plagiarizing. This is true whether the original author was another student or the author of a published article or book. Citations must be provided for paraphrased material. The University considers plagiarism a very serious, inexcusable kind of academic dishonesty, and describes the nature of academic dishonesty and the procedures faculty are obliged to follow in cases of academic dishonesty, in “Policies and Procedures Governing Undergraduate Academic Dishonesty” (http://naples.cc.stonybrook.edu/CAS/ajc.nsf/pages/info). As stated there, “intellectual honesty is a cornerstone of all academic and scholarly work.”
Cite any references inline using the following format: (Author Year)
Include a Literature Cited section with citations that follow the format used in the literature cited format at the end of our textbook. For example:
Sereno, P.C. 1999. The evolution of dinosaurs. Science 284: 2137-2147.
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In the special case here where a single citation is the major topic of your paper, explicitly describe early on that the work will be your major topic, and provide the inline citation. Thereafter, you may refer to it more informally (i.e. The next topic that Sereno addressed is…).
– WRONG WAY: “A study by Columbus and colleagues entitled ‘Temporal Alteration of Mogwai Feeding Regimes Leads to Increased Gremlin Production’ found that feeding Mogwai after midnight results in increased Gremlin production.”
– CORRECT WAY: “A previous study (Columbus et al. 1984) suggests that feeding Mogwai…”
– ANOTHER CORRECT WAY: “Columbus et al. (1984) have shown that feeding Mogwai…”
Know where the period goes:
– WRONG WAY: Columbus et al 1984
– ANOTHER WRONG WAY : Columbus et. al. 1984
– YET ANOTHER WRONG WAY: Columbus et. al 1984
– STILL ANOTHER WRONG WAY: Columbus et. al
– CORRECT WAY: Columbus et al. 1984
Literature Cited Section
If you cite, an article in the body of your paper, you mustinclude the full citation in your Literature Cited Use the same format as is used in the literature cited section of our textbook.
4. Scientific Names
Latin (binomial) names should always be italicized, with the first part (genus) capitalized and the second part (specific epithet) not capitalized.*
WRONG WAY: Homo sapiens
ANOTHER WRONG WAY: Homo Sapiens
CORRECT WAY: Homo sapiens
*If you have a sub-species, the “ssp” is notitalicized
S= Stenghths
W= Weaknesses
O= Oppertunities
T= Threats
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Managers use many tools to assist in decision making. The SWOT analysis is used across industries and can be particularly useful to the health care administrator. It provides administrators with a clear and concise deliverable of the internal and external factors that could affect their initiative by listing and organizing a project’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (Minnesota Department of Health, n.d.).
For this Assignment, you continue to develop your Community Needs Assessment by preparing a SWOT analysis for the initiative you proposed in Week 3.
To prepare for this Assignment, review your proposed initiative from DATA COLLECTION DOCUMENT ATTACHED BELOW
The Assignment
Watch youtube Videos below to get a better understanding
Develop an 8- to 10-slide PowerPoint SWOT analysis presentation based on your proposed initiative from DATA COLLECTION DOCUMENT. In addition, include detailed speaker notes on each slide or a 2-page executive summary, submitted as a Word document.
Your presentation should include the following:
An analysis of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of your proposed population health initiative
An analysis of the role of social and economic determinants in assessing your selected community’s needs
An assessment of the direct and indirect financial consequences for your proposed initiative
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everything outside an organization’s boundaries that might affect it
General – affect all orgs
specific – unique to each org
external environment
with 2 kinds
everything outside an organization’s boundaries that might affect it
General – affect all orgs
specific – unique to each org
stable environment
SLOW rate of change
dynamic environment
FAST rate of change
Incremental changes
long period of stability
fundamental changes
short periods of dynamic change
resource scarcity
the abundance or shortage of critical organizational resources in an organization’s EXTERNAL environment
uncertainty
managers do not have sufficient information about environmental factors to understand and predict environmental needs and changes
High uncertainty when: 3 things
rapid environmental change
2. complexity in the environment
3. scarce resources
environmental scanning
careful monitoring of an organization’s internal and external environments to detect early signs of opportunities and threats that may influence the firm’s plans
cognitive maps
graphic depictions of how managers believe environmental factors relate to possible organizational actions
Company founders
create organizations image and prints them with their beliefs, attitudes, and values
Behavioural addition, behavioural substitution, new visible artifacts, new leaders, selecting new employees
Ethics
moral principles of right and wrong that guide an individual in making decisions
ethical behavior
behaviour that follows principles
workplace deviance
unethical behaviour that violates organizational norms about right and wrong
4 types of workplace deviance
Product
2. Property
3. Political
4. Personal aggression
Productuction Deviance
(minor & organizational) leave early, take excessive breaks,
intentionally working slowly, wasting resources
ORGANIZATIONAL
property devance
unethical behaviour aimed at the organization’s property or products
stealing, sabotage
ORGANIZATIONAL
political deviance
using one’s influence to harm others in the company
favouritism, rumours
INTERPERSONAL
personal aggression
hostile or aggressive behaviour toward others
harassment, violence
INTERPERSONAL
overt integrity test
A type of honesty test that is DIRECT asks questions about applicants’ attitudes toward theft & punishment for unethical behaviour
ex. a questionnaire
Personality-based integrity test
INDIRECT test asses honesty, messaure psychological traits related to unethical behaviour
Steps in ethical decision making
Select ethical employees
2. Establish a specific code of ethics
3. train employees to make ethical decisions
4. create ethical climate
Whistle-blowers
Employees who report unethical or illegal actions of their employers, who are protected by law for doing so to encourage good morals
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
provides sweeping new legal protection for employees who report corporate misconduct
CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility)
a business’s obligation to pursue policies, decisions, and actions that align with the objectives and values of society
shareholder model
MILTON FREIDMAN
theory of corporate social responsibility that holds that organizations overriding goal should be shareholders whose primary objective is to maximize profits (not legally binding)
Stakeholder model
a theory of corporate responsibility that holds that management’s most important responsibility, long-term survival, is achieved by satisfying the interests of multiple corporate stakeholders
reactive strategy
h a company does less than society expects, and holds out for as long as possible
defensive strategy
a company admits responsibility for a problem but does the least required to meet societal expectations
accommodative strategy
a company accepts responsibility for a problem and does all that society expects to solve that problem
proactive strategy
a company anticipates a problem before it occurs and does more than society expects to take responsibility for and address the problem
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Long-term strategic plans
2. unifies effort by company
3. mission statement
middle management responsibilities
Carry out. Tactical plans. 6 months-2years
Management by Objectives (MBO)
a four-step process where managers and employees discuss selecting goals, tactical plans, and meet regularly to review progress
lower level management responsibilties
Operational plans – day to day 30-60 days
2. organize and create
single-use plans
plans that cover unique, one-time-only events
standing plans
plans used repeatedly to handle frequently recurring events
Policies
general course of action
procedures
standing plans with specific steps
rules and regulations
standing plans that describe how a particular action should be performed
Operational planning types
single use
2. standing
3. budgeting
Herbert Simons Administrative model
Decision makers in organizational settings often chose the most “satisficing” choice
Satisificing
choosing a “good enough” alternative
Behavioural economics
blend of economics, psychology and neuroscience to find out why individuals don’t always behave in their own best interest
loss aversion
avoiding losses is more important than achieving comparable gains
Risk Repensive
people who are more willing to take risks
Framing
the way an issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions
influences on decision making
bounded rationality, satisficing, coalitions, intuition, escalation of commitment, risk propensity
Groupthink
a barrier to good decision making caused by pressure within the group for members to agree with each other
C-type conflict (cognitive conflict)
disagreement that focuses on problem and issue related differences of opinion
A-type conflict (affective conflict)
disagreement that focuses on individuals or personal issues
devil’s advocate
a person who has the job of criticizing ideas to ensure that their downsides are fully explored
dialectical inquiry
a decision-making method in which decision makers state the assumptions of a proposed solution (a thesis) and generate a solution that is the opposite (antithesis) of that solution
Delphi Technique
a decision-making method in which members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until reaching agreement on an issue
strategy
a comprehensive plan guiding resource allocation to achieve long-term organization goals
competitive advantage
providing greater value for customers than competitors can
VIRO Framework
Value, Rarity, Imitability, Organization
Strategy Making Process
assess need for strategic change
2. conduct situational analysis
3. choose strategic alternatives
competitive inertia
a reluctance to change strategies or competitive practices that have been successful in the past
strategic dissonance
a discrepancy between a company’s intended strategy and the strategic actions managers take when implementing that strategy
SWOT analysis
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
distinctive competence
Tangibles what a company can make, do, or perform better than its competitors
core capabilities
Intangibles internal decision making routines, problem solving, and organizational cultures
Shadow-strategy task force
a committee within a company that analyzes the company’s own weaknesses to determine how competitors could exploit them for competitive advantage
industry-level strategies that seek to adapt to organization’s external environment
4 types of adaptive strategies
defenders
2. prospectors
3. analyzers
4. reactors
Adaptive strategy – Defenders
seek moderation, steady growth, offer limited range of products/services
Adaptive strategy – prospectors
seek fast growth, search for new markets by taking risks
Adaptive strategy – analyzers
seek to minimize risk and maximize profit by imitating success of prospectors
Adaptive strategy – reactors
react to changes in external environment after they occur, don’t follow consistent strategy
Strategic Moves of Direct Competition
attack and response
organizational process
the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value
Departmentalization
subdividing work and workers into separate organizational units responsible for completing particular tasks
star
a company with a LARGE share of a FAST-growing market
question mark
a company with a SMALL share of a FAST-growing market
Cash cow
a company with a LARGE share of a SLOW-growing market
dog
a company with a SMALL share of a SLOW-growing market
Matrix
hybrid organizational structure, typically product and function
has 2 bosses
cross functional interactions
unity of command principle
specifies that each employee should report to only one boss
JCM (Job Characteristics Model)
an approach to job redesign that seeks to formulate jobs in ways that motivate workers and lead to positive work outcomes
internal motivation
motivation that comes from the job itself rather than from outside rewards
job enlargement (horizontal loading)
increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation
job enrichment (vertical loading)
increasing number of tasks and giving workers authority and control to make meaningful decisions about their work
Fredrick Taylor
father of “scientific management” – financial incentive
Growth needs strength is defined as
an employee’s need and desire for personal growth and development on the job
mechanistic organization
specialized jobs, centralized authority and vertical communication
organic organization
an organization characterized by broadly defined jobs and decentralized authority and horizontal communication based on task knowledge
bureaucracy
control of basis of knowledge expertise or experience
NOT personal connections
MAX WEBBER fairness > favoritism
Reengineering the Corporation
book written by Michael Hammer and James Champy that recommends seven principles for BPR
from vertical to horizontal
take orders from customers not top managers
Business Process Reengineering
rethinking design of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements
Pool Interdependence
group members complete their work assignments independently, and then their work is simply added together to represent the group’s output.
ex my group project
sequential interdependence
work completed in succession, with one group’s or job’s outputs becoming the inputs for the next group or job
ex. baseball or relay race
Reciprical Interdependence
work completed by different jobs or groups working together in a back-and-forth manner
hectic af. ex emergency room
Employee Empowerment
giving employees responsibility and authority to make effective decisions
modular organization
an organization that outsources noncore business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants
virtual organization
an organization that is part of a network in which many companies share skills, costs, capabilities, markets, and customers to collectively solve customer problems or provide specific products or services
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An expectation that team members are responsible for their activities and must report outcomes transparently
Accountability
The implicit and explicit power that a manager or employee has to fulfill an organizational function or role
Authority
The level of individual discretion that an employee has to make decisions
Autonomy
A trusted intermediary that facilitates mutually agreed upon outcomes for two or more parties
Broker
A design structure that relies on senior-level managers to collect information broadly, in order to make decisions on behalf of the entire company
Centralized Organization
A predefined structure order of authority that determines how decisions are made and communicated
Chain of Command
The synchronization of an organization’s functions to ensure efficient use of resources in pursuit of goals and objectives
Coordination
A compendium of policies intended to ensure transparency and fulfillment of duties to stakeholders
Corporate Governance
A design structure that relies on all employees to collect and communicate information, in order to make decisions and recommend changes
Decentralized Structure
When a manager grants power and authority to another team member
Delegation
A design structure that groups together processes and jobs based on functions, products, or customers
Departmentalization
The process through which managers divide labor based on tasks and functions
Differentiation
A design structure that groups processes and jobs based on clearly defined market segments or geography
Divisional Organization
The degree of which policies and procedures determine specific jobs and functions
Formalization
Independent workers that supply organizations with talent for projects or time-bound objectives
Free Agents
A hierarchical structure where employees are managed through clear levels of authority
Functional Organization
A vertically organized structure of power relationships, where the top level holds clear levels of authority.
Unites the different parts of the company, brings units in tune w/ company’s underlying principles, core purposes, goals, and objectives
Hierarchy
Horizontal coordination between functions, departments, and organizational activities
Integration
A design structure that facilitates horizontal integration and collaboration
Matrix Organization
A group of independent companies that organize themselves to appear as a larger entity
Network Organization
A visual document that communicates how a company is organized
Organizational Chart
A highly adaptive structure defined by horizontal integration, distributed decision making, and employees with a high degree of generalization
Organic Organization
The optimum number of direct reports that a person can manage effectively
Span of Control
Focusing a group or individual’s activities based on strengths, aptitudes, or skills
Specialization
A performance context where policies and procedures seek to create uniform results
Standardization
A work arrangement in which an employee is given flexibility in terms of work location; and often hours as well
Telecommuting
A philosophy that each employee is given reports to and is accountable to only one manager
Unity-of-Command Principle
A structure, characterized by hierarchical authority and communication channels
Vertical Organization Structure
A group of employees who work across barriers consisting of time, distance, and organizational boundaries, while being linked together by information and communication technologies
Virtual Team
*What is the opposite of ORGANIC?
Mechanistic
*Example of Vertical Approach
Chief of Police–>Captain–>branches off into three different divisions–>each division branches off into more specific roles
*Authority, Chain of Command, Corporate Governance, Broker, Organization Chart, Network Organization, Unity-of-Command Principle—>These all relate to what approach???
*Vertical approach
*Decentralized Structure, Departmentalization, Functional Organization, Autonomy, Divisional Organization, Matrix Organization—>These are relate to what approach??
*Horizontal approach
*____________ is a system of tasks, reporting relationships, and communication that links people and positions within an organization
Organizational Structure
*____________ describes the ___________ __________ of how an org should ideally work as designed
Organizational chart, formal structure
*1. Division of work
2. Supervisory relationships
3. Span of control
4. Communication channels
5. Major sub units
6. Staff positions
7. Levels of management
7 Parts of an Organizational Chart
*______________ _____________ group people with similar skills into the same department. (Also known as departmentalization)
Functional Structures
*________________ _______________ group together people who work on similar products, work in same geographical region, serve same customers, or perform same process.
Divisional Structures
*Focus/purpose of Functional Structures?
Cost EFFICIENCY
*Focus/purpose of Divisional Structures?
EFFECTIVENESS
*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of–>
1. Expertise focused on division (products, customers, regions, process)
2. Coordination across functions within divisions
3. Problem solving for product or service delivery
Advantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES
*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of—>
1. Expertise focused functional skills (accounting, HR, etc.)
2. Training within functions promotes skill development
3. Efficient use of human resources
Advantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES
*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Inefficiencies from duplication of resources
2. Poor communication across divisions
3. Achieve divisional goals instead of organizational goals
Disadvantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES
*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Poor communication across departments
2. Poor problem solving for product or service delivery
Disadvantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES
*What type of decision making is characterized by top management keeping strong control w/ formal authority and formal rules?
Centralized Decision-Making
*What type of decision making is characterized by being distributed throughout the organization using informal authority and informal rules?
Decentralized Decision-Making
*What type of org is characterized by formal authority and mechanistic design?
Vertical/Rigid Organization
*What type of org is characterized by informal authority and organic design?
Horizontal/Adaptive Organization
^Traditionally, organizational power structures were…. democratic, horizontal, autocratic, or collaborative?
Autocratic
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^Why must orgs strike a balance between differentiation and integration in creating an org structure…… to ensure managers have absolute control/responsibility, to allow the organization to adapt to changing environments, to spread responsibility among all employees regardless of rank, or to facilitate positive relations between workers/managers?
To allow the organization to adapt to changing environments
^The degree of integration in an org structure directly corresponds to the degree of ___________ in it. Efficiency, unity, autonomy, or coordination?
Coordination
^As a company grows/branches into divisions, what should be ensured for a successful transition of its org structure to compensate for continued unity?….. Delegation of power and authority to staff, formalization of specific jobs/functions, coordination of a company’s functions/operations, or standardization of policies and procedures?
Standardization of policies and procedures
^A managers span of control concerns…. their hierarchical rank within the org, the number of subordinates that report to a manager, the duties a manager is delegated, or the overall time the manager has been at the company?
The number of subordinates that report to a manager
^Which describes a vertical org structure…. Balanced, decentralized, diffuse, hierarchical?
Hierarchical
^Good corporate governance…. promotes good relations w/ management and subordinates, prevents power from being too centralized, ensures the chain of command is respected, or ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled?
Ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled
^What the Unity-of-Command Principle prevent…. accountability/transparency, disorganization/confusion, centralization of authority, or ethical breakdowns/lapses?
Disorganization and confusion
^Network organizations allow for…
Independent companies to more easily work with each other
^How does a decentralized structure differ from a centralized structure?…. There are no chains of command for employees to follow, all employees are expected to collect/communicate info, org structures change frequently to meet emerging needs, or all employees share equal power and authority in decision making?
All employees are expected to collect/communicate info
^Departmentalization aims to group processes and jobs based most on…. efficiency, authority, similarity, or productivity?
Similarity
^What type of organization would benefit a company that seeks high levels of collaboration between departments but w/ clear chains of command?…. Bureaucratic, divisional, matrix, or functional?
Matrix
^In a divisional org, decision-making authority is typically ___________ than in a function organization. Less autonomous, more diffuse, more centralized, or less shared?
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More diffuse
^What benefit do adaptive approaches provide organizations?… They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works,
they allow for considerable autonomy among diff divisions while providing high levels of accountability,
they provide significant centralization of authority while diffusing responsibility,
or they provide orgs w/ the ability to rapidly transform their chain of command while retaining high degree of authority?
They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works
^Accountability depends on ___________. Leadership, transparency, skill, or autonomy?
Transparency
^Primary benefit of a company that allows employee telecommuting?… Prevents ethical breakdowns, provides high degree of flexibility, reinforces transparency, or increases profits by reducing worker costs?
Telecommuting provides a high degree of flexibility
^Free agents are _________ workers. Salaried, permanent, contract, or part-time?
Contract
^Which of these should the manager of a virtual team do to reduce barriers?…. Carefully select team members that are social and extroverted, organize team by setting defined goals for each member and allowing them to work autonomously, use information and communication technology, or plan face-to-face team-building meetings?
Use information and communication technology
V
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Question 22: History
Visit the UIW Heritage Center on campus: https://www.ccviheritage.org/ Upload a one page reflection on how UIW history relates to this course. Include a selfie in front of your favorite exhibit.
By submitting this paper, you agree: (1) that you are submitting your paper to be used and stored as part of the SafeAssign™ services in accordance with the Blackboard Privacy Policy; (2) that your institution may use your paper in accordance with your institution’s policies; and (3) that your use of SafeAssign will be without recourse against Blackboard Inc. and its affiliates.
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Question 23: Political Science
Please answer the following ten questions using only your text and lecture notes as sources. Cite your answers, and be specific in your examples. Use your own word for all the answers
Define the term “politics”.
Explain your understanding of the term “office politics” and why it is important to acknowledge its existence. This is covered in the lecture notes.
Define “federalism”. Give an example of something in your wallet that comes from the federal, state and special district levels of government.
Define the terms “block grant” and “matching grant”. What is the difference between them?
Explain the Ninth (IX) Amendment. Who benefits from it?
What are the “checks and balances” indicated in the Constitution? List and explain at least two.
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
Define “direct democracy”. Do we practice this in California? If so, explain how we implement this.
What are “collective goods”? Explain the concept and illustrate it with an example.
Question 24: Political Science
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
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Question 25: Political Science
Required Resources
Read/review the following resources for this activity:
Minimum of 1 scholarly source
Instructions
One role of government is to ensure that policies benefit the people within their jurisdiction.
For local governments, it would be the townspeople or city dwellers.
For the state governments, it would be the people living within the state.
For the federal government, it would be everyone within the borders of the country.
Using an ideology discussed in the textbook, construct an argument explaining how this ideology upholds the public good by examining power, order, and justice.
Select an ideology discussed in the textbook. In an essay, examine how power, order, and justice as it relates to the ideology you choose promotes the public good.
Writing Requirements (APA format)
Length: 1.5-2 pages (not including title page or references page)
1-inch margins
Double spaced
12-point Times New Roman font
Title page
References page (minimum of 1 scholarly source and textbook/lesson)
Question 26: Political Science
Provide a brief discussion on your Founding Father’s position on the electoral college and its place in the presidential election process.
What was your state delegate’s view on the Supremacy Clause?
What your Founding Father a crusader for or against slavery? What was his reason for his position?
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Question 27: Economics
Question 1
Assume that there are two categories of goods: protein shakes and all other products.
Show using diagrams how a consumer’s demand curve for protein shakes can be derived from
an indifference map and a budget constraint diagram. Make sure you explain your answer in
detail.
Using a different set of diagram/s deconstruct the price effect into the substitution effect and
the income effect. Take note to define each effect.
Question 2
Assume the production of coal involves the generation of a negative externality.
Explain how the equilibrium level of output would be determined in the market for coal,
assuming no attempt is made to internalize the externality. Is that equilibrium efficient?
Use a diagram(s) as part of your explanation.
What is a Pigovian Tax? Explain how the imposition of a Pigovian Tax could alter the
equilibrium in this market. How does the tax impact on the efficiency of this market? Use
a diagram(s) as part of your answer. You are free to augment the diagram you used in (a)
in your answer to (b).
iii. What other solutions could be used to remedy this negative externality? You do not need
to describe these remedies in detail.
Question 28: Economics
You have been hired by Nobody State University (NSU) as a consultant to help the university with how to increase their total revenue. The university has been struggling in recent years, so they have hired you to help them in their last attempt to find an appropriate solution so that the university can survive.
Raise or Lower Tuition? Suppose that, in an attempt to raise more revenue, Nobody State University increases its tuition.
Assess a raise in tuition and if it will necessarily result in more revenue.
Describe the conditions under which revenue will (a) rise, (b) fall, or (c) remain the same.
Explain the process of revenue at NSU, focusing on the relationship between the increased revenue from students enrolling at NSU despite the higher tuition and the lost revenue from possible lower enrollment.
If the true price elasticity were (-1.2), discuss what you would suggest the university do to expand revenue.
Using what you have learned in this course, explain how you would resolve this problem if you were the President of NSU.
In a three- to five-page paper (not including title and reference pages), provide subheadings or separate paragraphs for each of the questions listed to help focus your paper for the executives that have requested it. Support your paper with at least two academic sources.
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Question 29: Economics
write 200-300 words per question no plagiarism
1.1 Analyze the effect of externalities on market outcomes.
1.2 Differentiate among horizontal, vertical, and conglomerate mergers.
4.3 Analyze the effect of government interventions, taxation, and regulations on economic behavior.
Question 30: English
Assignment: The key to a good descriptive essay are the details; the images that help the reader understand the event or situation described. The more information provided, the clearer the picture becomes. One method to create a picture for the reader is to provide descriptions using the 5 senses (sight, sound, taste, touch, smell.)
For this assignment u will create a 5 paragraph descriptive essay on ONE of the following topics:
Describe a memorable event in your childhood.
2.Describe your favorite pet or animal.
Describe your dream house or car.
Directions to complete assignment:
The essay criteria checklist.
2.Select a topic
Create an outline for 5 paragraph (introductory paragraph, 3 body paragraph and 1 concluding paragraph).
Write the paragraphs to create a draft of the descriptive essay.
Use the criteria checklist to revise the descriptive.
Grading: To receive full participation points, u must meet the following criteria:
Grading Criteria: essay meets criteria listed on checklist.
Essay Structure:
There are 5 paragraph in this essay.
The essay begins with an introduction paragraph which includes a thesis statement.
The essay has 3 body paragraphs that provide details/supporting information.
The essay has a conclusion paragraph.
Paragraph Structure:
Each paragraph has at least 5 sentences.
Every paragraph begins with atopic sentence.
There are a least 3 middle sentences that provide details to support the topic sentence.
The last sentence concludes the paragraph.
Sentences in the Essay:\All sentences are complete (include noun and verb; no fragments etc.)
All sentences are complex(in addition to the noun and verb includes adjectives/adverb etc.)
Sentences include details using the 5 senses (when applicable).
Select details to intentionally point toward the mood or feeling u intend to create.
Punctuation/Spelling:
The first letter of each sentence is capitalized.
Each sentence ends with a period, question mark, or exclamation mark.
Sentences include commas, semi-colons, and/or colons within the sentences to connect ideas within a sentence and to separate clauses in a sentence.
The essay is free of spelling errors.
Format:
The essay is double-spaced.
The first sentence of each paragraph is indented.
The font is Arial 12 point.
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Question 31: English
Write a compare and contrast Introduction and Thesis statement on Muhammad Ali Vs Sugar Ray Leonard.
Question 32: Social Science
A Day in the Life as a Social Scientist
This is a written Assignment in which you will address the following topic:
Imagine that you are a social scientist. Choose a medical event that could impact the life of someone you know and explore it from one of the social science professions as listed below. For privacy reasons, do not disclose any real medical event or the name of an actual person.
Part 1: Choose a profession
The list of professions on page five in your text includes:
Geographer
Sociologist
Anthropologist
Political Scientist
Psychologist
Part 2: Choose a medical event, such as cancer. Remember, for privacy reasons, do not connect the event to the name of an actual person.
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Part 3: Assume the role
Chapter one in your text describes the methods that social science professionals use in the field. Use the following outline to explore the medical event as a social science professional. Refer to pp.14 -15 in your text, Social Science: An Introduction to the Study of Society, Fourteenth Edition, for more details.
Observe.
Define the problem.
Review the literature and research. Use the Kaplan Library to familiarize yourself with the way other professionals have discussed the event.
Formulate a hypothesis.
Imagine how you would solve the problem from the viewpoint of your chosen profession for this Assignment.
Whenever you are doing your research, it is helpful to jot down notes as you read. This way you remember the important points and do not have to go back and reread. When taking notes, make sure you are careful to mark any word-for-word excerpts with quotation marks. This will remind you that these are exact quotes from the reading and so will either need to be correctly quoted and cited or paraphrased and cited. This will help you avoid plagiarism when you go to write your paper because you will know where all your information came from!
Kaplan University Writing Center. (2011). Writing a thesis statement. Retrieved from https://kucampus.kaplan.edu/MyStudies/AcademicSupportCenter/WritingCenter/WritingReferenceLibrary/WritingTypesAndTools/WritingAThesisstatement.aspx
Be sure to get a full APA formatted citations for your reference page while you are reading the articles in the Kaplan Library. Simply click “Cite” and choose APA format for the citation.
Part 4: Write your paper
When you are ready to compose your paper, gather your findings in an organized fashion. Write your paper in APA manuscript format. Be sure to use proper citation for your research.
Your project should be 750-1000 words in length and adhere to the following standards:
Double spaced
Written in size 12 font – Times New Roman
1 “ margins on all sides
Separate cover page and reference page
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Question 1: Health Care
Create a performance data scorecard you could use to focus on outcome measures in your healthcare organization in which you do the following: 1. Identify the patient population being addressed. 2. Identify at least one outcome measure related to the population identified in part A1 for each of the following indicators: • performance • quality • patient safety • employee engagement B. Discuss the necessary processes that drive each outcome measure. 1. Discuss at least one additional indicator that would be important for a nurse leader to monitor on a regular basis to drive outcomes as part of the performance data scorecard. C. Discuss at least three advantages of the performance data scorecard created in part A. D. Analyze at least two current trends in healthcare that are related specifically to employee engagement. 1. Explain the relationship between employee engagement and healthcare quality. 2. Discuss whether current tools in your organization adequately provide nurse leadership with data regarding employee engagement. E. Create a plan to improve employee engagement based on the performance data scorecard. Note: This plan may include but is not limited to goals, strategies, evaluation, timeline, etc. 1. Discuss leadership best practices that improve employee engagement. F. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format. Note: When using sources to support ideas and elements in an assessment, the submission MUST include APA formatted in-text citations with a corresponding reference list for any direct quotes or paraphrasing. It is not necessary to list sources that were consulted if they have not been quoted or paraphrased in the text of the assessment.
Graded Discussion #4: Do you think that crimes should be distinguished by the motivations of the perpetrator? For example, in a murder, is hate a more heinous motivation than revenge, greed, or anger – why or why not? Should someone who kills a stranger be punished more severely than someone who kills a spouse or a child – why or why not and by how much? What criminal motivations should be punished most severely and how do we guarantee that the motivation of a perpetrator was in fact their real motivation? Discuss one or all questions in your response (200 words minimum)
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Question 3: Other
You are writing up a research proposal (plan) to convince readers (your thesis advisor) how are you going to conduct a study. You will introduce the issue (why is this issue important and needs to be studied further), what the past research has done that were related to the issue and how they can help inform and guide the current interested topic. Then introduce your chosen research methods (many to choose from the textbooks) and your justification of the choice. What results you are looking for and what are potential challenges to have the study completed (challenges and solution in every step)? Of course, if you find a scholarly journal publication, it show these components plus the results (your proposal has NO results since the study has not started yet. You may foresee the possible results according to your literature review). How long will the proposal be? It (main text only) can range from 7 to 15 pages, depending how thoughtful your research proposal intends to reach and the size of your chosen topic). The longer is NOT the better. A good proposal should exhaustively consider all important variables and practical, with comprehensive literature review (showing your sufficient knowledge on the topic). The first thing you should think of is your research questions. What questions do you intend to answer from your research (results)? For example, if you want to know why some victims of domestic violence stay as returning clients to family protection services. You may study the causes of why they stay in an abusive relationship and why cannot they leave. Their family environments, relationships, available social networks, may all need to be collected as parts of your data. Do not think about if you are capable of conducting the study because this is just a proposal assignment. What you need to think about is how to design a research project that can be done and the results the study will receive are correct and able to answer your research questions. Almost all the research journal papers are a study, and they can be models of your research, except they completed their study and have research results, while yours is a proposal, there will be no results presented but some expected results (could be predicted according to your literature reviews which include the past studies and their findings in the related issues may help you infer your research findings.) Avoid topics on a particular criminal case but the similar crime type is fine. The literature is free of your choices but should be academic based such as scholarly journal publications and books, while governmental reports are considered a good sources for the literature too. Additional common topics may include “causes of domestic violence”, “The relationship between early childhood attachment and being a delinquent,” etc. The research review asks you to read a research journal paper and then answer a list of questions I provide regarding the adopted methods in the study. You will evaluate the quality of the research design of the research. This probably takes you a day to complete. So, there is no need to worry about it now. The research paper takes a long time to complete. You should review many journal papers to confirm your ideas, and there are lots of decisions to make while deciding research design details. After those two, writing will be another challenging job. These tasks will make you busy enough. It is a better idea to worry about the Research Review later. As far as data, you will not analyze the data yet but formulate what variables you are going to include in your research and explain how the data you know could provide such variables for your research analysis. Again, you should first think of the research questions you intend to answer from your research results (if the project is carried out). Additional examples of research questions may be something like “why drug offenses more in certain zip codes than others?” “What social-economic backgrounds suggest a greater commitment to drug offenses?” “What life incidents are more frequently observed in drug users (or dealers)?” After you are sure what research questions you are going to respond to, you should know what variables will be included in your research and if your data can provide these variables. At the same time, you should review some literature conducted in the area of drug offenses (which may inspire your consideration of certain research questions).
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Question 4: Health Care
SWOT Analysis In this assignment, you will conduct a SWOT analysis on a healthcare organization. If possible, it will be more beneficial to use an organization with which you are familiar or where you are currently employed. If you are unable to obtain the necessary permissions, you may use the Internet and Saudi Digital Library to identify an organization to complete this assignment. Analyze the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats in terms of the financial concepts of this course such as revenue payment methods, financial risk, debt, equity, capital acquisition, financial forecasting, and the revenue cycle. You are to also discuss the financial plan and the financial control system of the organization. Be sure to analyze competitors, demographics, Ministry of Health initiatives, and anything else you believe is relevant. Your paper should meet the following structural requirements: The paper should be 5-6 pages in length, not including the cover sheet and reference page. Include any financial statements, graphs, and charts used in your analysis as appendices at the end of your paper. Format the paper according to APA and Saudi Electronic University writing standards. Include a SWOT analysis diagram showing your findings in each quadrant of the diagram. This SWOT analysis diagram should be included in the appendix section of your paper. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Three of these sources may be from the class readings and the textbook, but three must be external and come from peer-reviewed journals. The Saudi Digital Library is a good place to find these references.
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Question 5: English
Essay about similarities between apple and Microsoft with three different in text citations
Question 6: Music
Research paper for History of music technology, construct 5 pages based on the guideline topic proposal not include a title page
History of Technology in Hip-Hop Music
Projected Outline
Abstract – This section will describe the research paper, explaining what the paper will be all about. It will contain the scope, purpose, results, and contents of the research paper.
Introduction – Herein, the topic, history of Technology in Music, will be defined in detail. This part will contain a hook, the audience will be defined, and the thesis statement for the research will be formulated. The hook will be interesting to ensure the reader reads the paper to the end. The thesis will state what will be discussed in the paper and the reasons the topic is important.
Body – This section will have different parts, including literature review, research methods, analysis, and results. The literature review will include previous research findings on the topic. Research methods will consist of the methods that will be used to conduct the research paper. The findings will then be analyzed using the relevant analysis tools. Then results will be formulated from the analysis.
Conclusion – This part will summarize the arguments of the paper and formulate the prospect for future research.
Works Cited – All the references that have been used in the paper will be listed in this section.
Crooke, Alexander Hew Dale. “Music technology and the Hip Hop beat making tradition: A history and typology of equipment for music therapy.” (2018).
Flores, Lucien J. “Hip-hop is for everybody: Examining the roots and growth of hip-hop.” Inquiries Journal 4.05 (2012).
King, Andrew. “The student prince: music-making with technology.” Creativities, Technologies, and Media in Music Learning and Teaching: An Oxford Handbook of Music Education 5 (2018): 162.
Mantie, Roger. “Thinking about music and technology.” The Oxford Handbook of Technology and Music Education (2017): 15.
Sirois, Andr. Hip Hop DJs and the Evolution of Technology: Cultural Exchange, Innovation, and Democratization. Peter Lang International Academic Publishers, 2016.
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Question7: General Question
NR 508 Week 3 Quiz / NR508 Week 3 Quiz (Latest): Camberlian University (Already graded A)
NR 508 Week 3 Quiz / NR508 Week 3 Quiz (Latest): Camberlian University (Already graded A)
Question 8: Mathematics
Min-Jun and Min-Sub want to contribute $120,000 to a 529 plan for the benefit of their new grandchild. If done shortly after the birth of the child, with a 14.00 percent annual return and no other contributions, what will the account be worth when the child is 18 and ready to enter college?
When the child is 18 and ready to enter college, the account will be worth?
Question 9: English
You must complete the required textbook readings in preparation for the Poetry Essay. This will equip you to objectively respond to the readings by compiling information from a variety of sources in order to compose a persuasive analysis of a literary work. You will also learn to follow standard usage in English grammar and sentence structure; identify the theme and structure of each literary selection and the significant characteristics or elements of each genre studied; and evaluate the literary merit of a work.
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Liberty University
English 102
Analyze 1 poem from the Poetry unit
In Module/Week 5, you will write a 750-word (3–4 pages) essay that analyzes 1 poem from the Poetry Unit.
You must complete the required textbook readings in preparation for the Poetry Essay. This will equip you to objectively respond to the readings by compiling information from a variety of sources in order to compose a persuasive analysis of a literary work. You will also learn to follow standard usage in English grammar and sentence structure; identify the theme and structure of each literary selection and the significant characteristics or elements of each genre studied; and evaluate the literary merit of a work.
(Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, F, G and Module/Week 5 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7).
Guidelines for Developing your Paper Topic
The “Writing about Literature” section of your Perrine’s Literature textbook (pp. 1–54) and the “Writing” section of Harbrace Essentials (pp. 1–12, 18–21, 22–28) provide pointers which will be helpful for academic writing in general, and more specifically for your literary essay. Be sure that you read this section before doing any further work for this assignment. Take particular notice of the examples of poetry essays on pp. 43–48 of Perrine’s Literature.
biobioleelee@gmail.com
POETRY ESSAY INSTRUCTIONS
In Module/Week 5, you will write a 750-word (approximately 3 pages) essay that analyzes 1 poem from the Poetry Unit.
Before you begin writing the essay, carefully read the below guidelines for developing your paper topic and review the Poetry Essay Grading Rubric to see how your submission will be graded. Gather all of your information, plan the direction of your essay, and organize your ideas by developing a 1-page thesis statement and outline for your essay as you did for your Fiction Essay.
Format the thesis statement and the outline in a single Microsoft Word document using current MLA, APA, or Turabian style, whichever corresponds to your degree program; check your Perrine’s Literature textbook, the Harbrace Essentials Handbook, and/or its companion website, MindTap, to ensure the correct citation format is used.
Poetry Essay Requirements
The Poetry Essay should include:
Title page (see the sample)
Thesis & Outline page
Poetry Essay itself followed by a
Works Cited / References / Bibliography page of the poem & any other sources used in the essay
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Poetry Essay choices:
Choose 1 of these poems from the list below to address in your essay:
Not all of the poems from the course are listed for consideration for this essay.
Ø Matthew Arnold
o Dover Beach
Ø William Blake
o The Lamb
o The Tiger
o The Chimney Sweeper
Ø Robert Browning
o My Last Duchess
Ø Samuel Taylor Coleridge
o Kublai Khan
Ø Emily Dickinson
o It Sifts from Leaden Sieves
o There’s No Frigate Like a Book
Ø John Donne
o Batter my Heart, Three-Personed God
o Death Be Not Proud
Ø T. S. Eliot
o Journey of the Magi
Ø Robert Frost
o Design
o Nothing Gold can Stay
o Out, Out—
o The Road Not Taken
o Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening
Poetry Essay choices (cont.):
Choose 1 of these poems from the list below to address in your essay:
Not all of the poems from the course are listed for consideration for this essay.
Ø George Herbert
o Virtue
Ø Gerard Manley Hopkins
o The Caged Skylark
o God’s Grandeur
o Spring
Ø A. E. Housman
o Eight-O-Clock
Ø John Keats
o Ode to a Nightingale
Ø William Shakespeare
o That Time of Year (Sonnet 73)
Ø Percy Bysshe Shelley
o Ozymandias
Ø Alfred, Lord Tennyson
o I Envy not in any Moods
o In Memoriam
o I Sing to him who Rests Below
o Ulysses
Ø Dylan Thomas
o Fern Hill
Ø William Butler Yeats
o Sailing to Byzantium
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Consider some (not all) of the following questions for the poem that you have chosen:
Ø What is or are the theme(s) of the poem?
Ø Is there a literal setting or situation in the poem?
o What lines from the poem tell the reader this information?
§ What details does the author include?
Ø Is the setting symbolic?
Ø How would you describe the mood of the poem?
o What elements contribute to this mood?
Ø Is the title significant to the poem’s content or meaning? How?
Ø What major literary devices and figures of speech does the poet use to communicate the theme(s)?
Ø How are rhyme and other metrical devices used in the poem?
o Do they support the poem’s overall meaning? Why or why not?
Ø Is the identity of the poem’s narrator clear?
o How would you describe this person?
o What information, if any, does the author provide about him or her?
Ø Does the narrator seem to have a certain opinion of or attitude (tone) about the poem’s subject matter? How can you tell?
NOTE: These questions are a means of getting your thoughts in order when you are collecting information for your essay. You do not need to include the answers to all of these questions in your essay: only include those answers that directly support your thesis statement.
Question 10: English
Thinking skills are the mental activities you use to process information, make connections, make decisions, and create new ideas. You use your thinking skills when you try to make sense of experiences, solve problems, make decisions, ask questions, make plans, or organize information.
In approximately 300-450 words, give an example from your life experience to explain how you meet these qualities.
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Question 11: Business
Decision-Making Case Using Spreadsheet: Purchasing Analysis
Kayo Computer assembles and sells personal computers. Each computer needs one custom-designed printed circuit board (PCB). Kayo has contracted to buy the PCBs from an outside PCB manufacturer, Apex Manufacturing. The long-term contract stipulates that Kayo pays $200 per board to Apex for up to 2,000 PCBs. If the annual order quantity exceeds 2,000 PCBs, then Apex is obligated to give a discount of $40 per board for the portion beyond 2,000, thus selling them at $160.
Kayo can also buy the same PCBs from another manufacturer, TCI Electronics, that offers a lower price of $120 per PCB but asks a onetime payment of $100,000 as a nonrefundable design and engineering fee. Kayo’s engineers have determined that Kayo may use PCBs from either of the two manufacturers, or from both in any mixture without any manufacturing cost or compatibility problems.
The PCB along with other components are assembled by Kayo into its personal computer. The variable assembly cost of the Kayo personal computer is $450 each with an annual fixed cost of $1,500,000. Kayo sells the assembled computer for $1,000 each. At the moment no one is sure how many Kayo computers the company can sell for the next year. You, as VP of Finance at Kayo Computer, know that this model of Kayo computer will be discontinued after next year and so any one-time fee that might be paid to TCI must be justified based on next year’s sales alone. You will evaluate certain economic and legal issue as part of your financial plan for the next year.
Use Excel to build spreadsheet analysis models that captures the profitability of the Kayo personal computer for next year. It is not allowed to use Solver to solve this problem. You should build your own analysis models in spreadsheet. You will analyze the following scenarios:
Build a spreadsheet model that captures the profitability of the Kayo personal computer for next year. As a start, assume that 5,000 computers can be sold next year and only 1,000 of the PCBs are purchased from Apex (the balance being supplied by TCI). Name this worksheet as Scenario 1.
If total sales were 5,000 units, how many PCBs would you buy from Apex and how many from TCI to maximize next year’s profits? Use another worksheet to create a data table that shows several different combinations of the number of PCBs from Apex and the number of PCBs from TCI and then identify the combination that will bring maximum profit. Name this worksheet as Scenario 2.
In reviewing the Apex contract, you note that it is requires Kayo to purchase at least 20% of the PCBs used in the Kayo computers sold (and not less than 1,000 PCBs) from Apex. The contract also contains a liquidated damages clause in the event of Kayo’s default in the amount of $1,000,000. What would be the economic effect if unforeseen changes caused Kayo to default on the 20%/1000 minimum contracted purchase provision by substituting more TCI boards in the event that 5,000 Kayo computers can be sold next year? Use a new worksheet to exhibits the effect. Name this worksheet as Scenario 3.
(Optional, 10 extra points if you complete this part correctly) A market analysis reveals that unit sales will depend on the price of the computer. At the price of $1,000, about 5,000 units will be sold, but for every increase (or decrease) of $100, sales will decrease (or increase, respectively) by 1,000 units. On a new worksheet, create a data table to maximize Kayo’s profit next year, by finding (a) the optimal price, and (b) the optimal number of boards to buy from Apex while still honoring the original contract. Name this worksheet as Scenario 4.
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Question 12: Business
QUIZ 4 BUSI 300
A short update on a current project requested during a meeting without advance notice is an example of a(n) _____.
oral briefing
systematic briefing
manuscript presentation
memorized presentation
Danny, a manager at Westport Inc., is in charge of creating and presenting a report of a plan for building a new office in a city. He plans to make the presentation interesting by gaining the attention of the entire audience effectively. Which of the following is an attention-getting technique he can use?
Avoiding personal references
Using inappropriate jokes
Avoiding shocking statements
Using quotations by experts
Which of the following is true of the closing of a presentation?
It provides unity to the presentation.
It should not be tied to the introduction.
It should always include a “thank you.”
It is not remembered by the audience
A(n) _____ is a presentation in which a speaker plans, prepares, and rehearses but does not write everything down.
impromptu presentation
memorized presentation
manuscript presentation
extemporaneous presentation
The speed at which words are spoken is called _____.
tone
volume
pitch
rate
Which of the following guidelines should you follow when speaking to culturally diverse audiences?
Enunciate each word precisely.
Use sophisticated vocabulary.
Use jargon and figurative expressions.
Jot ideas on a flip chart
As a general rule, audiences do not want to be in tune with a speaker during a presentation.
True
False
Which of the following guidelines should be followed by an organization during a crisis briefing?
It should try to be friendly, helpful, and patient.
It should use language with which only those in its industry are familiar.
It should speculate and make predictions.
It should keep the statement at least five minutes long.
Tying the closing to the introduction weakens the unity of a presentation.
True
False
Rules of business etiquette remain the same with people of different cultures.
True
False
Which of the following specializes in placing a candidate in a position on a temporary basis until he or shefinds a full-time job?
Professional organizations
Employment contractors
Printed sources
Career services centers
Which of the following is the first step of the process of applying for a job?
Conducting research and analysis of self, career, and job
Supplementing a résumé with a portfolio (print or electronic) or video recording
Identifying job listings using traditional and electronic sources
Interviewing with companies
While applying for a job, you have conducted an analysis of yourself, career, and job; identified a job; prepared a targeted résumé and application message; and have supplemented your résumé with a video recording. Which of the following should you do next to complete the process of applying for a job?
Rehearse answers for standard interview questions
Upload your résumé on a job website.
Register with a career services center.
Interview with companies.
To avoid a tone of egotism in a résumé, _____.
summarize information that is relevant but does not merit several separate lines
divide the list of activities into appropriate divisions and then select an appropriate label
do not use action verbs that provide emphasis
do not use too many adjectives or adverbs that seem overly strong
The chronological résumé is a less effective format for applicants who
are entering the job market with lots of experience.
are seeking jobs different from the job currently held.
have a consistent career history with no gaps.
have progressed up a clearly defined career ladder.
A functional résumé could be best for you when:
you have progressed up a clearly defined career ladder.
your education or experience is scant.
you have a gap in your work history.
you are underqualified for a job.
Which of the following résumés is becoming the preferred choice as fear of computer viruses and daily email overload prevent employers from opening attachments?
A beamable résumé
A scannable résumé
An inline résumé
A text résumé
Which of the following is a collection of artifacts that demonstrate your communication, people, and technical skills?
A professional portfolio
An electronic résumé
A print résumé
A beamer
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An application message:
decreases a person’s chances of locating potential openings.
is persuasive and thus written deductively.
is designed to convince an employer that qualifications are adequate.
decreases the efficiency of the job selection process for a company and the applicant.
In a functional résumé, points of primary interest to employers—transferable skills—appear in major headings.
True
False
Which of the following is true of phone interviews?
They screen candidates in order to narrow the pool of applicants who will be invited for in-person interviews.
They maximize the expenses involved in interviewing out-of-town candidates.
They are designed to place interviewees in an anxiety-producing situation.
They allow candidates to meet individually with a number of different interviewers.
Pre-interview planning on the part of an interviewee involves:
presenting his or her qualifications in a clear and persuasive manner.
making sure your appearance and mannerisms will not detract from the impression you hope to make.
sending a sincere, original thank-you message after a position has been accepted.
following a predetermined agenda designed to elicit necessary information from the interviewer.
According to a UNESCO report of employer views, _____ are hard skills that are essential for workers in today’s business climate.
social sensitivities
entrepreneurial abilities
technical skills
communication skills
Questions designed to understand why an interviewee wants to work for a particular organization are known as _____.
competency questions
standard interview questions
technical interview questions
behavioral questions
Which of the following should an interviewee focus on while asking questions to the interviewer?
Information about the job
The company’s products or services
New developments of the company
The company’s scope
Which of the following must the last line of a job-acceptance message contain?
The salary you expect.
The main idea of job-acceptance
Personal details
The report-for-work date
Danielle is offered a job in a company due to which she decides to quit her current job. She decides to write a letter to the concerned authorities about her decision. In this scenario, Danielle should write a _____.
a resignation message
a thank-you message
a follow-up message
a job-refusal message
A particular type of structured interview is the behavior-based interview, in which you are asked to give specific examples of occasions in which you demonstrated particular behaviors or skills.
True
False
The goal of many unstructured interviews is to explore unknown areas to determine an applicant’s ability to speak comfortably about a wide range of topics.
True
False
In a series interview, multiple candidates meet with an interviewer at the same time.
True
False
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Question 13: Business
Assignment Steps
Create a balance sheet by doing the following:
Conduct an internet search or use a balance sheet from an assignment, or use an example of a balance sheet located in the textbook and locate a balance sheet.
Review and discuss in 350 words the assets, liabilities and stockholder’s equity items found on the balance sheet.
Create a balance sheet using the account names and balances below. Make assumptions about the dollar values of each account so that the balance sheet balances. Remember that assets will equal liabilities plus stockholders’ equity
Format assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Cash 32,800
Accounts Payable 49,000
Property and equipment 98,000
Marketable Securities 3,000
Common Stock 10,000
Prepaid Rent 1,000
Inventories 39,800
Accounts Receivable 300
Long Term Debt 99,500
Retained Earnings 11,950
Current Portion of Long Term Debt 4,450
Goodwill 2,000
Accumulated Depreciation 2,000
Format essay part of assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Resources
Center for Writing Excellence
Reference and Citation Generator
Grammar and Writing Guides
Learning Team Toolkit
Question 14: Economics
The members of the United Nations found great value in the analysis you provided on the effects of global warming that result from population growth. They are now asking you write an additional analysis to include further issues related to population growth. Here is the issue they have asked you to consider:
The member states of the United Nations seek to build food systems that can provide global food security which will feed everyone, everywhere, every day by improving food quality though the promotion of effective and nutritional agricultural practices. The crucial issue is not the lack of food in the world but the access to that food. In many developing countries, food shortages are due to governmental control over food distribution. These governments maintain control of the population and their power by limiting access to nutritious food to certain groups. In this practice, they thereby “weaponize” food.
Your second project as a consultant for the United Nations is to develop an analysis that addresses three issues related to global food insecurity caused by global population growth and poverty, and to explore these issues in a developing country of your choosing.
The UN has given you the following guidelines.
Content
The UN has asked that your paper contain three sections. Each section should be one page (or approximately 300 words) in length and answer specific questions, identified in the outline below. It also asks that you use examples from your developing country when answering the questions.
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The members of the United Nations found great value in the analysis you provided on the effects of global warming that result from population growth. They are now asking you write an additional analysis to include further issues related to population growth. Here is the issue they have asked you to consider:
The member states of the United Nations seek to build food systems that can provide global food security which will feed everyone, everywhere, every day by improving food quality though the promotion of effective and nutritional agricultural practices. The crucial issue is not the lack of food in the world but the access to that food. In many developing countries, food shortages are due to governmental control over food distribution. These governments maintain control of the population and their power by limiting access to nutritious food to certain groups. In this practice, they thereby “weaponize” food.
Your second project as a consultant for the United Nations is to develop an analysis that addresses three issues related to global food insecurity caused by global population growth and poverty, and to explore these issues in a developing country of your choosing.
The UN has given you the following guidelines.
Content
The UN has asked that your paper contain three sections. Each section should be one page (or approximately 300 words) in length and answer specific questions, identified in the outline below. It also asks that you use examples from your developing country when answering the questions.
Introduction
Provide an introduction of half a page minimum that addresses points a-e below.
Explains the problem the UN has asked you to address in your own words;
Identifies the three sections your paper will cover;
Identifies the developing country you will consider;
Tells the UN the causes of food insecurity; and
Provides a one-sentence statement of your solutions at the end of your introduction paragraph.
Section I. Background
What is food insecurity?
What role does population growth play in food security?
Section II. Technologies That Can Reduce Hunger and Improve Food Security
What forms of technology can be used to reduce hunger and improve food security?
How would these technological solutions work?
What causes of food insecurity do these technologies address?
Section III. Specific Factors in Chosen Developing Country
Considering the causes of food insecurity, what factors interrupt the flow of food from the source to the people in the developing country you selected?
Conclusion
Provide a conclusion of half a page minimum that includes a summary of your findings that the United Nations can use to inform future policy decisions.
Success Tips
In answering each question, use examples from your developing country to illustrate your points.
The UN needs facts and objective analysis on which to base future policy decisions; avoid personal opinion and make sure your answers are based on information you find through research.
Formatting Requirements
Make sure your paper consists of four to six pages of content (or 1,200 words minimum, not including the cover or reference pages).
Create headings for each section of your paper as follows:
Section I. Background
Section II. Technologies That Can Reduce Hunger and Improve Food Security
Section III. Specific Factors in Chosen Developing Country
Use and cite at least five credible sources in your research. A list of potential resources is available below.
Make sure your paper contains both in-text citations and a source list.
Include a cover page with your name, the country you selected, the date you submitted the paper, and your instructor’s name.
The specific course learning outcome associated with this assignment is as follows:
Propose a plan to address the issue of global food security in underdeveloped countries that considers the impact of prior solutions.
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Question 15: Education
Do you think “multiple intelligences” is a valid construct? In other words, do multiple intelligences exist? (Be sure to include connections to the textbook/research when building your argument.)
Do you think that the test you took in Module 5 gave a valid picture of your intellectual abilities? In other words, do you think that test accurately measured what it is supposed to measure?
Provide at least one recommendation about how the developers of this multiple intelligences test could demonstrate evidence for the validity of the test. Your recommendation should focus on one of the types of validity described in the textbook [i.e., content-related validity, predictive validity, concurrent validity, or construct validity (using convergent or discriminant evidence)].
Finally, make a Biblical argument either for or against the existence of multiple intelligences. Whichever stance you take, be sure to back it up with meaningful and relevant scripture references.
Question 16: Health Care
a) Write a policy (one page) for this organisation, clearly outlining the organisation’s commitment to WHS and those responsible for ensuring compliance.
BSBWHS501: Assessment 2 What you have to do
The focus of the first assessment was an establishment of a WHS/OHS management
system. In this assessment you will research implementation of Health and Safety
management system in an organisation. Please answer the questions in full and where
appropriate place the document in Appendix.
Your answer should be around 2000 words in length not counting Bibliography and
Appendices.
. Task
Case Study
A major insurance company has merged with another companyâ™s Call Centre employing 120
personnel on a rotating three shift basis. The Call Centre is located in the CBD of a major
city. The Call Centre has been run down in terms of equipment and support facilities before
the merger.
a) Write a policy (one page) for this organisation, clearly outlining the organisationâ™s
commitment to WHS and those responsible for ensuring compliance.
b) Describe the structure of WHS management system most appropriate for this
organisation.
c) Describe what financial and human resources would be necessary to support and
maintain a viable WHS system covering the three shifts.
d) Explain the suitable method for consultation to comply with legislation.
e) Attach a flowchart for issue resolution as per relevant legislation
f) Explain three (3) possible indicators which could be used to measure and evaluate
WHS performance g) Develop a WHS induction checklist for all workers in the company.
h) Develop an outline of WHS training for managers/supervisors/team leaders and
employees. LA019818 Assessment 2 BSBWHS501 Ed 2
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Question 17: Health Care
Question 1 (1 point) What should a cultural assessment of the family and child include? Question 1 options: An assessment of a patient’s dominant culture including the accompanying health beliefs, and beliefs about birth, illness, and deaths. An assessment of potential biologic variations that occur in people of a particular race An assessment of whether the child and family have sought care from a traditional healer, and advise them to avoid such healers Question 2 (1 point) What is an example of a question regarding internal structure of the family? Question 2 options: Has anyone recently moved in or out? If so, how has this move affected the family? Do both parents of the family live at home? If not, where do they live? How often do the children have contact with the parent or parents who do not live at home? How often is there contact with the extended family (e.g. aunts, uncles)? Question 3 (1 point) “Culture is a social construction of the relationships within and among groups of human beings. . .” Which of the following is not a part of the products of culture? Question 3 options: race religion class geography none of the above Question 4 (1 point) Exposure to which of the following during childhood can be associated with increased aggressive behavior, emotional problems such as depression and anxiety, and poorer school performance? Question 4 options: mumps second-hand smoke domestic violence immunizations immigrants Question 5 (1 point) Which of the following delineates the role of the APN in Health Care most accurately? Question 5 options: code all of the primary and differential diagnoses order labs and diagnostics for every patient provide continuity of care for underserved populations at greater risk for ambulatory care make sure that every chart has a growth chart Whatever the doctor tells her/him to do
Question 18: Computer Science
This chapter is about Error Prevention, Error Detection, and Error control.
With those 3 points in mind, describe 2 situations in which error-free transmission is crucial to communication.
1 page report
Question 19: Physics
Two gears of module 4mm have 24 and 33 teeth. The pressure angle is 20° and each gear has a standard addendum of one module. Find the length of arc of contact and the maximum velocity of sliding if the pinion rotates at 120 r.p.m
Question 20: Business
Collecting Nos
In all settings, there comes a time when we need something from someone else. It might be an approval, it might be resources, or it might be some form of assistance. Whatever it might be, it is virtually impossible for us to go through life without the cooperation of others. And the best way to get what you want from others is to ask them for it. Yet many people would rather do it themselves than ask someone else. One reason people are hesitant to ask for things is because they do not want to get a “no”.
A similar problem exists in negotiations. On the one hand, inexperienced negotiators often are afraid to ask for what they want or need because they are afraid to get a no. On the other hand those who are asked frequently will not say no, in spite of their strong dislike of the request or having to fulfill it. Therefore, many negotiations are incomplete because the requester did not ask for enough. Or the respondent actually gave more than he or she wanted to. Several negotiation experts have argued that negotiation only begins when the other party says no—if you do not get a no you have probably not asked for enough.
The purpose of this exercise is to give you experience making requests and dealing with others objections. Your task in this exercise is to collect nos.
Part A
Make requests until you have collected 10 nos. Keep a written record of each request made and the response you receive to each request and what meaning or interpretation you gave to the response.
Part B
Pick at least one of the requests for which you received a no and ask the person who said no, “What would have to happen for you to say yes to my request”? Write down what the person says.
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Question 21: Mathematics
Find Mobius function for a partially sorted set P = {0; a; b; c; d; 1}, where 0 is the smallest element, 1 is the largest element, and the only non-trivial comparison between other elements is that a<=b.
Question 22: Other
Unit VIII Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.
Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.
Option 1: Red Bull (pp. 581–582)
What are Red Bull’s greatest strengths as more companies (like Coca-Cola, Pepsi, and Monster) enter the energy drink category and gain market share? What are the risks to their brand equity of competing against such powerhouses?
Discuss the pros and cons of Red Bull’s nontraditional marketing tactics. Should the company do more traditional advertising? Why, or why not?
Discuss the effectiveness of Red Bull’s sponsorships, advertisements, personal selling strategies, promotion, events, and public relations. Where should the company draw the line in terms of risk?
Recommend the next steps for Red Bull with respect to their marketing and advertising strategies.
Option 2: Gillette (pp. 612–613)
Gillette has successfully convinced the world that more is better in terms of number of blades and other razor features. How did they do it? Why has that worked in the past? Will it continue to work in the future? Why, or why not? Will Gillette ever become as successful at marketing to women as to men? Why, or why not?
Why have Gillette’s sports marketing partnerships been so successful in developing their brand equity?
Some of Gillette’s spokespeople such as Derek Jeter and Tiger Woods have run into controversy after becoming endorsers for the brand. Does this hurt Gillette’s brand equity or marketing message? Explain.
Discuss the effectiveness of their overall marketing campaign including advertising, personal selling, promotion, events, and public relations strategies.
Recommend next steps for Gillette with respect to their marketing and advertising strategies.
Option 3: Unilever (Axe and Dove) (pp. 632–633)
What makes personal marketing work? Why are Dove and Axe so successful at developing their brand equity?
Discuss the effectiveness of the overall marketing campaigns including advertising, personal selling, promotion, events, and public relations strategies.
Is there a conflict of interest in the way Unilever markets to women and young men? Is it undoing all the good that might be done in the “Campaign for Real Beauty” by making women sex symbols in Axe ads? Discuss.
Recommend next steps for Unilever with respect to their marketing and advertising strategies.
In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.
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Unit 8
Top of Form
Imagine that you are the owner of a new company in your community. What are the key aspects in managing advertising, sales, promotion, events, and public relations? Which do you prioritize as the owner?
Bottom of Form
Question 23: Other
Compare and Contrast Assignment
Create a table using Excel, Word, or whichever program you choose in which you compare:
Eligibility
Coverage
Benefits
Drawbacks
of TRICARE and CHAMPVA.
Include information on:
Who pays the premiums for each
Limitations of coverage
Other factors that vary among the three.
Question 24: Psychology
Respond to one of the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Option A· Pick a topic you would like to research. Explain one variable you could measure in each of the four scales of measurement. These may all be demographic information if that fits your topic.
Option B· Explain what significance tells you in a way a that anyone could understand. What are the levels of significance most commonly seen? What is the most common level of significance used in psychological research?
Question 25: Health Care
Claims Assignment
Write a 2 page paper about the CMS1500 claim form and the claims submission process.
Include the following:
An explanation of what the CMS1500 is and what it is used for.
Important dates and events in the creation and revision of the form.
What version of the CMS-1500 became effective 1 October 2014?
What were the major revisions on the CMS-1500 (08-05) version?
A description of the organization that developed the form.
A brief explanation of the claims process.
Definitions of the following terms, along with an example of each.
Clean claim
Rejected claim
Pending claim
Incomplete claim
Invalid claim
Dirty claim
Deleted claim
A short description of the necessary components of a successful claim. Include discussion of demographics, authorizations, and clinical documentation.
Provide citations for any resources used to find information for your paper.
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Question 26: Business
My project about : Toyota company .
The question : give me 4 cross cultural training programs provided to the employees by the organization.
Please provide sources for each one . Half page is enough
Question 27: Health Care
What are the causes of arteriosclerosis?
Question 28: Physics
a 80 kg man jumps out a window into a fire net 10 m below the net stretches 2.0 m before bringing him to rest and tossing him back into the air. What is the potential energy of the stretched net if nonconservative forces dissipate no energy?
Question 29: Education
5-page paper on steps to become president
Question 30: Education
Social Attitudes Action Research Value: Purpose: To assess and discuss current views on different areas directly impacting children’s behaviour and the way we potentially support and guide them in developing socially acceptable skills and abilities for regulating their own behaviour
Instruction
Components of Assignment: Decide on an area of discipline or behavior to collect data on ex. perspectives on use of physical punishment, attitudes on risk taking in young children, over protection of children by parents, etc. Generate appropriate questions to gather data relevant to the selected research topic. Questions should generate information on demographics like age range, gender and family status as well as questions on specific attitudes and beliefs on the behaviour topic selected. Chose a site for data collection to access a relevant research population. Establish a date and time to collect the required information that will maximize population base. Submit a report that summarizes your findings from the data collected Compare your findings to the established research on the topic selected looking for commonalities and potential differences in your data as it related to established research outcomes.
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Question 31: Health Care
Technology benefit in hospital. Has to be a persuasive paper 6-8 pages APA style
Question 32: General
3-5 page essay that evaluates the Federal Emergency Management Agency’s (FEMA) organizational effectiveness across three eras using the competing value approach. The historical periods of interest are symbolized by the following disasters: the Great Flood of 1993, Hurricane Katrina in 2005, and Hurricane Harvey in 2017. FEMA’s effectiveness is to be evaluated during each era using the competing value model, which has four components. The findings for each benchmark event are to be evaluated individually and then comprehensively for the overall time period specified. Lessons learned are to be noted. APA format with with sources included. No plagiarism.
Question 33: Health Care
Module 13: Critical Thinking Critical Thinking Assignment (115 points) As you know, healthcare in Saudi Arabia is changing drastically. Analyze the policy plans developed by the Ministry of Health. Evaluate measures that can assist the Ministry of Health in preventing the spread of outbreaks of disease. In your paper be sure to address: Specific KSA policies and regulations preventing disease outbreaks Metrics that can be utilized in limiting infectious disease outbreaks Trends that might impact policies and regulations in controlling infectious disease and How policy should be modified Conclusions References Your paper should meet the following structural requirements: Be three or four pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages. Be formatted according to Saudi Electronic University and APA writing guidelines. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of four scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but two must be external. Utilize headings to organize the content in your work. You are strongly encouraged to submit all assignments to the Turnitin Originality Check prior to submitting them to your instructor for grading. If you are unsure how to submit an assignment to the Originality Check tool, review the Turnitin Originality Check Student Guide.
Question 34: Communications
2-Respond to each of the 3 end-of-case discussion questions with at least 300 words for each question. Each question must be answered thoroughly and responses must be supported by the concepts introduced in the reading/study materials. Provide a brief description of the concepts and the significance of the concepts to practice in general, as well as what problems might be resolved through successful implementation of the concepts. Support your thread by citing at least 4 peer-reviewed journal articles. Your thread must be in current APA format and must include a reference list, and each question/answer must be delineated under an APA heading. This assignment requires a brief introduction and a brief conclusion. Simchi-Levi, D., Kaminsky, P., & Simchi-Levi, E. (2009). Designing and managing the supply chain: concepts, strategies, and case studies. Boston: McGraw-Hill/Irwin.
Question 35: Health Care
(1) How do you develop a culture of continuous change? -Please make sure discussion is at least 250-300 words with citations. (2) To be successful as a population health manager, what strategies does a healthcare system need in place? Consider the increasing patient volume and potential increase of high-risk patients entering the health care delivery system. -Please make sure discussion is at least 250-300 words with citations. (3)The age of Big Data is allowing for robust predictive modeling that can influence a variety of cost and quality improvement factors. Discuss the challenges of implementing and utilizing predictive modeling and the financial benefits that it offers. –Please make sure discussion is at least 250-300 words with citations. (4)As high-deductible health plans gain popularity, it becomes crucial for providers to collect patient obligations to be financially viable. Discuss two techniques that can improve revenue capture for providers. -Please make sure discussion is at least 250-300 words with citations.
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Respond to one from each of the three categories below.Category: Operating Activities
1. What amount(s) is reported for depreciation and or amortization?
Category: Investing and Financing Activities
1. Discuss any investment(s) (type and amount) purchased, sold, or retired during the current period?
Category: Analysis
1. Calculate the following ratio for the most current year and comment on the results of your ratio analysis.
a. Free cash flow
Question 3: Health Care
a) Write a policy (one page) for this organisation, clearly outlining the organisation’s commitment to WHS and those responsible for ensuring compliance.
BSBWHS501: Assessment 2 What you have to do
The focus of the first assessment was an establishment of a WHS/OHS management
system. In this assessment you will research implementation of Health and Safety
management system in an organisation. Please answer the questions in full and where
appropriate place the document in Appendix.
Your answer should be around 2000 words in length not counting Bibliography and
Appendices.
. Task
Case Study
A major insurance company has merged with another companyâ™s Call Centre employing 120
personnel on a rotating three shift basis. The Call Centre is located in the CBD of a major
city. The Call Centre has been run down in terms of equipment and support facilities before
the merger.
a) Write a policy (one page) for this organisation, clearly outlining the organisationâ™s
commitment to WHS and those responsible for ensuring compliance.
b) Describe the structure of WHS management system most appropriate for this
organisation.
c) Describe what financial and human resources would be necessary to support and
maintain a viable WHS system covering the three shifts.
d) Explain the suitable method for consultation to comply with legislation.
e) Attach a flowchart for issue resolution as per relevant legislation
f) Explain three (3) possible indicators which could be used to measure and evaluate
WHS performance g) Develop a WHS induction checklist for all workers in the company.
h) Develop an outline of WHS training for managers/supervisors/team leaders and
employees. LA019818 Assessment 2 BSBWHS501 Ed 2
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Question 4: Business
Sources and Uses of Business Financing
In order for an entrepreneur to startup a business, he or she should be well-informed about the stages of financing, the lifecycle of a company, and in what way the business will be financed in every part of those business stages. Different from a traditional business, a new business does not have assets for security and it does not have a formal assurance or promise cash flow. All business projects, research, growth, and planning are obligated to assure prosperity. Concentrating on the early stages of the business is essential to ensure a firm is ready for each stage of financing, their capability to attain each stage of the business’ lifecycle, and in what ways the business will be financed. Through the three different stages of financing, numerous financing alternatives are accessible to the entrepreneur contingent on the business stage, the financial well-being of the company, and the explanation of why the capital is needed. Additionally the likelihood of obtaining a loan, a business should also decide on a course of action to investor’s equity ownership of the business.
Question 5: Business
Chinese Culture and the New York Stock Exchange
This report outlines a brief description of China’s geographical location, history, and population and how they are likely to affect the management of the New York Stock Exchange.
Question 6: Business
Investment Methods
The challenges fund managers and/or investors encounter in this century and into the future.
Question 7: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss the importance of training evaluations.
Question 8: Business
Project Deliverable 6: Final Project Plan
Worth 200 points
This assignment consists of four (4) sections: a written project plan, a revised business requirements document, a project plan PowerPoint presentation, and the finalized project plan. You must submit the four (4) sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
While taking all business and project parameters into consideration, make quality assumptions to support the following requirements.
Section 1: Written Project Plan
You are now in the final stage of the project plan development. All previous documentation should be combined into one (1) document that will serve as the statement of work for the project. Your goal is to have the project approved by the executive team. The project plan should be very detailed, which is appropriate to accomplish the monumental task of implementation; however, the executive team is only interested in a thirty (30) minute summation. Therefore, you also must create a compelling executive summary that is supported by your detail that convinces the executive team that it should move forward with your solution.
Develop a thirty to forty (30-40) page project plan in which you:
Write a five to ten (5-10) page executive summary in which you provide a high-level technical overview of your project where you address the following:
Describe the scope of the project and control measures.
Describe the goals and objectives of the project.
Give a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including technical resources (human capital) that may be needed to complete the project.
Relate the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
Provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Recommend solution providers who can assist with development and implementation. Include a cost analysis of at least three (3) providers.
Combine all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you:
Provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio and MS Project as appendix of the Word document. Make reference of these files in the body of the Word document.
Section 2: Revised Business Requirements Document
Document all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements. Note: This documentation must outline the revisions made to the previous deliverables required in Section 1: Written Project Plan.
Section 3: Project Plan PowerPoint Presentation
Additional to your detailed executive summary you must present your findings to the executive team and the venture capital group that along with the executive summary will convince the group that your solution is optimal.
Create a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you:
Illustrate the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
Create bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint. Note: You may create or assume any fictitious names, data, or scenarios that have not been established in this assignment for a realistic flow of communication.
Use a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Section 4: Finalized Project Plan
Use Microsoft project to:
Finalize your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Describe the methods and best practices in implementing process change in IT organizations.
Describe the role and methods of technology-induced process improvement in organizations.
Develop an integrative technology project plan to address and solve a proposed business problem.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems.
Write clearly and concisely about leadership issues and strategic insight of the Information systems domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills
Click here to access the rubric for this assignment. Click here to review the Capstone Project Overview.
Points: 200
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Points: 200
Project Deliverable 6: Final Project Plan
Criteria
Unacceptable
Below 70% F
Fair
70-79% C
Proficient
80-89% B
Exemplary
90-100% A
Section 1: Written Project Plan
1ai. Describe the scope of the project and control measures.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely described the scope of the project and control measures.
Partially described the scope of the project and control measures.
Satisfactorily described the scope of the project and control measures.
Thoroughly described the scope of the project and control measures.
1aii. Describe the goals and objectives of the project.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely described the goals and objectives of the project.
Partially described the goals and objectives of the project.
Satisfactorily described the goals and objectives of the project.
Thoroughly described the goals and objectives of the project.
1aii. Give a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including human capital.
Weight: 10%
Did not submit or incompletely gave a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including human capital.
Partially gave a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including human capital.
Satisfactorily gave a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including human capital.
Thoroughly gave a detailed, realistically estimated cost analysis of the entire project, including human capital.
1aiv. Relate the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely related the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
Partially related the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
Satisfactorily related the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
Thoroughly related the value of the project plan solution to the competitive advantage that information technology will afford the organization.
1av. Provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely provided all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Partially provided all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Satisfactorily provided all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Thoroughly provided all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
1avi. Recommend solution providers who can assist with development and implementation.
Weight: 10%
Did not submit or incompletely recommended solution providers who can assist with development and implementation.
Partially recommended solution providers who can assist with development and implementation.
Satisfactorily recommended solution providers who can assist with development and implementation.
Thoroughly recommended solution providers who can assist with development and implementation.
1bi. Combine all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely combined all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Partially all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Satisfactorily all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
Thoroughly all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you provide all aspects of the information technology implementation into the project plan.
1bii. Combine all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely combined all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
Partially all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
Satisfactorily all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
Thoroughly all previous documentation for Project Deliverables 1-5 in which you revise the documentation based on feedback from the earlier evaluation of the deliverable.
1c. 5 references
Weight: 5%
No references provided
Does not meet the required number of references; some references poor quality choices.
Meets number of required references; all references high quality choices.
Exceeds number of required references; all references high quality choices.
Section 2: Revised Business Requirements Document
Document all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely documented all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements.
Partially documented all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements.
Satisfactorily documented all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements.
Thoroughly documented all revisions made to the written project plan in the Document Control section of the business requirements document from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements.
Section 3: Project Plan PowerPoint Presentation
3a. Create a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you illustrate the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely created a ten to fifteen (ten to fifteen (10-15)) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you illustrated the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
Partially created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you illustrated the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
Satisfactorily created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you illustrated the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
Thoroughly created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you illustrated the concepts from the executive summary in Section 1 of this assignment.
3b. Create a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you create bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you created bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint.
Partially created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you created bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint.
Satisfactorily created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you created bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint.
Thoroughly created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you created bulleted speaking notes for your presentation to the executive board in the Notes section of the PowerPoint.
3c. Create a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you use a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Weight: 5%
Did not submit or incompletely created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you used a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Partially created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you used a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Satisfactorily created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you used a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Thoroughly created a ten to fifteen (10-15) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you used a professional technically written style to graphically convey the information.
Section 4: Finalized Project Plan
Finalize your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
Weight: 15%
Did not submit or incompletely finalized your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
Partially finalized your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
Satisfactorily finalized your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
Thoroughly finalized your project plan from Project Deliverable 5: Network Infrastructure and Security to include all necessary changes in assumptions, tasks, and / or subtasks.
Clarity, writing mechanics, and formatting requirements
Weight: 10%
More than 6 errors present
5-6 errors present
3-4 errors present
0-2 errors present
Capstone Project Overview
The purpose of this capstone project is for students to assume a senior management approach and apply project management techniques to create an integrative information technology solution to address organizational issues in order to satisfy an executive team and venture capital group. Students will critically assess existing information systems infrastructures, emerging technologies, and how enabling technologies affect organizational strategy. Deliverables 1 through 6 focus on preparing students toward the final capstone project. Skills, experience, and knowledge gained through the completion of prerequisite courses will be used throughout each deliverable. The project contents to be addressed are as follows:
Project Deliverable 1: Project Plan Inception. In this deliverable, you will create a project introduction that includes background information of the company, the type of business that the company is involved in, and a description of the integrative information systems that the company should have to support the business. You will also be asked to create a project plan to record tasks, subtasks, and resources, and identify the schedule of the project. Additionally, the plan will outline the planning, analysis, design, and implementation phases of your project.
Submission Requirements:
Project Introduction (MS Word)
Project Plan (MS Project)
Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements. In this deliverable, you will create an original business requirements document for the project plan using the template provided. You will be asked to describe the detailed project including the scope, possible risks, constraints, assumptions, integration with other systems and infrastructure, and relevant terms that will be used throughout the project. You will also need to update the project plan.
Submission Requirements:
Business Requirements Document (MS Word)
Project Plan (MS Project)
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Data Warehousing Design. In this deliverable, you will create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes, explain and support the database schema, create database tables, normalize the database tables, create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram, and create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD). You will also be asked to create sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs, and screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize. You will need to update the project plan.
Submission Requirements:
Design Document (MS Word)
Revised Project Plan (MS Project)
Project Deliverable 4: Cloud Technology and Virtualization. In this deliverable, you will support the need for the use of cloud technology and virtualization within your company, speculate on expected cost savings in hardware infrastructure, speculate on the possible reductions of human capital that can be realized from implementing cloud and virtualization technologies, create a diagram to illustrate how cloud and virtualization technology could align with the company’s business processes and assist with attainment of organizational goals, provide a compelling recommendation for solution providers and partners that could help your company secure a firm competitive advantage by using cloud and virtualization technologies, and update the project plan.
Submission Requirements:
Design Document (MS Word)
Revised Project Plan (MS Project)
Project Deliverable 4: Network Infrastructure and Security. In this deliverable, you will design a logical and physical topographical layout of the network, illustrate the possible placement of servers, explain rationale for the logical and physical topographical layout of the planned network, create and describe the comprehensive security policy for the organization, and update the project plan.
Submission Requirements:
Infrastructure Document (MS Word)
Revised Project Plan (MS Project)
Final Project: Final Project Plan. In the final project, you will provide a high-level technical overview of the project. This includes the five (5) previous deliverables with revisions surrounding instructor feedback. All documentation will be recorded on the business requirements document revised from an earlier submission in this course. Additionally, you will submit the final project plan and create a comprehensive PowerPoint presentation for the executive team and the venture capital group. The PowerPoint presentation, along with the executive summary, will convince the group that your solution is optimal.
Submission Requirements:
Written Project Plan (MS Word)
Revised Business Requirements Document (MS Word)
Project Plan PowerPoint Presentation (MS PowerPoint)
Finalized Project Plan (MS Project)
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Question 9: Humanities
Since the end of WWII, international relations have been framed by the conflict between liberal governments and communist ideals. Compare and contrast the features of these systems and assess their continued impact on the global community. Please be certain to explain classical and modern liberalism, socialism, and communism within your responses and provide examples to support your points.
Question 10: Business Finance
Congratulations! You have been appointed as a new product manager with Samsung and have been tasked to introduce the latest smartphone in a new country. Choose and research a country other than the United States, and then formulate a plan to effectively integrate this product from a global and social standpoint. Speculate on the major challenges and opportunities you anticipate facing in this role.
Question 11: Humanities
British perspective: According to the documents that support the British position (Declaratory Act, Soame Jenyns and Samuel Johnson), what is the relationship of the colonies to Great Britain? What rights and authority does Great Britain have over the colonies?
Question 12: Humanities
The United Nations is an international organization that promotes the idea of using diplomacy as a means of preventing war. Investigate the role of diplomacy in maintaining peace between nations. What actions might a diplomat take to encourage peace? What are some factors that may cause diplomacy to fail? Please be sure to provide specific examples in your response.
Question 13: Mathematics
How is the rejection region defined and how is that related to the z-score and the p value? When do you reject or fail to reject the null hypothesis? Why do you think statisticians are asked to complete hypothesis testing? Can you think of examples in courts, in medicine, or in your area?
Question 14: Humanities
Ronald Reagan gave a speech in 1984 declaring “my dream is to see the day when nuclear weapons will be banished from the face of the Earth.”
Common knowledge
Needs citation
Question 15: Business Finance
Identify 2 ways in which human service practice is different in the mental health setting versus the criminal justice setting (you may use any venue in the criminal justice setting for comparison, such as prison, jail, juvenile detention, pretrial diversion, parole, probation, etc.)?
Question 16: Science
Explain where in the Citric Acid Cycle a hypothetical defect of an enzyme could occur that would decrease the overall ATP production.
Pick a specific enzyme in the citric acid cycle and discuss what would happen if it could not do its job – focusing on atp production. If this enzyme is defective, what happens to the levels of that enzyme’s product(s)? How does this impact the cycle as a whole? Can the cycle continue or does it stop? What happens to etc and at production.
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Question 17: Business Finance
Complete the Process Design Matrix. Write an executive summary identifying appropriate design approaches for a selected product and service. • Pick one service with which you are familiar. Complete three to five line items such as production line, self-service, or personal attention approach, on the Process Design Matrix. • Pick one product with which you are familiar. Complete three to five line items such as Job shop, batch, assembly line, or continuous flow approach, on the Process Design Matrix. Required Elements: • No more than 700 words • Consistent with APA format
Question 18: Health Care
Post a 250- 350 comprehensive word response to the following: Briefly describe the local level public health policy that you selected. Explain its significance for the local community and the field of public health. Explain two potential impacts of your selected public health policy on healthcare and your community.
Discussion: Local Concerns and Local Health Policy
Health in All Policies (HiAP) is a strategy that uses a “collaborative approach that integrates and articulates health considerations into policymaking across sectors to improve the health of all communities and people” (CDC, 2016, para.1). HiAP attempts to create policies at all levels that help to improve the health of populations. While local policies might have the greatest influence on your daily life, policies enacted at the state and federal levels are also significant. For instance, the Americans with Disabilities Act that requires wheelchair accessible entrances comes from the federal government, a law that mandates stopping at crosswalks originates at the state level, and a smoke free ordinance might be enacted by a local government. While all of these policies are set by different agencies and organizations, they are all designed to protect the public.
Local public health policies have likely impacted you, your family, and/or your friends in some way. Maybe a new policy encouraged you to change a health behavior. For instance, a law prohibiting smoking in public buildings might have encouraged you to stop smoking completely. Perhaps there is a policy, such as the Americans with Disabilities Act that assisted you or a family member with a health challenge. Can you think of public health policies that have impacted your community in a positive way? Are there any public health policies that have had a negative impact in your community?
References Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2016). Health in all policies. Retrieved from https://www.cdc.gov/policy/hiap/index.html
To prepare for this Discussion:
Review the Marchildon et al. (2018) article (located in this week’s Learning Resources). Think about how public health issues have been addressed through the use of policy.
View the media “Shaping Public Health Policy.” Reflect on the importance of public health policy.
Research public health policies in your community.
Select a local level public health policy in your community and consider its significance for the local community and the field of public health.
Determine the impact of your selected public health policy on healthcare and public health.
By Day 4
Post a comprehensive response to the following:
Briefly describe the local level public health policy that you selected.
Explain its significance for the local community and the field of public health.
Explain two potential impacts of your selected public health policy on healthcare and your community.
Bottom of Form
Question 19: Business
It was the tenant’s responsibility to ensure their insurance was on
Questions that could be asked
It was the companies’ responsibility to ensure there were no open flames.
CLR 1: Compare strategies used to manage risks in an organization’s business activities
CLR 2: Synthesize substantive laws that may impact businesses
CLR 3: Apply business law to resolve simple legal issues arising from day to day business operations
CLR 4: Explain the relevance of internal controls in a business that could mitigate business and legal risks and promote compliance with laws
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Question 20: History
Explain in a two page letter, (double spaced, 12 point Arial or Times New Roman font, one inch margins) to your Congressional Representative about a current national issue that impacts your community locally and why you feel this issue needs to be addressed by your Congressional representative in timely manner. Sources of information about the national issue and the impact on your community need to be cited using footnotes, with professional fully grammatically correct sentences, proper spelling, and correction of typos are needed.
Question 21: Psychology
3 separate journals in a word document – APA format please for each journals! – There is no page limit or word limit, but being thorough and elaborate as possible is highly encouraged! – Behaviors that you witnessed during class are also a huge plus as it would be more relatable to the given assignment but nonetheless if that is not case any personal and professional issues that you stumbled across life are also encouraged, in other words whatever is easier with you!!! – No references are required unless stated further Please use this idea for for 1 out of the 3 journals and expand this: During class(PSY 332 Group Interview Relations and Interview Techniques) when we were gathered in a circle. There were 8 people in the class(not including professor). And each of us had to explain our experiences when we went to visit a group therapy. Mine was anger management. The paper for the topic I choose (anger management)is attached. As I was presenting I noticed one individual mocking directly at me. I was aghast by this. Especially considering a major where the goal is to help people it was very immature. When you’re presenting I feel as though you’re not looking at everyone. I actually accidentally caught her in the act unintentionally as I happen to look right at her. She was sitting next to a person (girl as well) and as I was explaining my experience the individual smiled(not an innocent smile) right at her). I’m not the best at public speaking and at times I do stutter or mispronounce words because I am so nervous of public speaking just in general. When I get nervous my words also trip and I fail to evaluate my point at times, but because I am forced to speak the words don’t come out right. Quite a different story when I’m talking to somebody one on one and with friends. The other 2 out of 3 journals I will leave it up to your creativity anything fascinating would be a plus especially human behavior.
Question 22: Nursing
Hourigan, Settipani, Southam-Gerow, & Kendall (2012) explain, “Childhood anxiety disorders are among the most common childhood disorders” (p.104). Review the case example of Evan in Chapter 7 and based on Evan’s Fear Ladder, what plans would you make to involve Evan’s teachers. What strategies could be used in an educational setting to help Evan overcome his disorder? What instructional or classroom management practices might the teacher need to modify to accommodate Evan’s need?
Question 23: Nursing
Question 1 (4 points)
According to the National Institute for Health Care Management: Understanding U.S. Health Care Spending article, which of the following are correlated with the rising obesity rates in the U.S.? (Select all that apply)
Question 1 options:
Increase in other chronic health conditions
Increase in the determinants of health
Increase in health spending
Decrease in provider visits
Question 2 (4 points)
As of 2009, national health expenditures in the U.S. were approximately what percentage of the Gross Domestic Product?
Question 2 options:
14.9%
16.0%
17.6%
19.2%
Question 3 (4 points)
According to figures from the National Health Expenditure Accounts (NHEA), how much was spent on health care in the U.S. in 2009?
Question 3 options:
$1.25 trillion
$2.5 trillion
$3.75 trillion
$5.0 trillion
Question 4 (4 points)
Which of the following have contributed to the increases in the cost of health care? (select all that apply)
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Question 5 (4 points)
Comorbidities require less sophisticated coordination of care.
Question 5 options:
True
False
Question 6 (4 points)
According to “Crossing the Quality Chasm,” redesigning the healthcare system involves which of the following:
Question 6 options:
Evidence-based care
Effective use of information technology
Paying higher salaries to clinicians
All of the above
None of the above
Both a and b
Question 7 (4 points)
The Institute of Medicine Committee specified a blueprint for a health care delivery systems in the 21st century that will result in an ideal system if followed.
Question 7 options:
True
False
Question 8 (4 points)
According to the Institute of Medicine, Coverage Matters: Insurance and Health Care article, historically, some of the factors that influenced whether someone was uninsured included:
Question 8 options:
Gender
Ethnicity
Marriage status
All of the above
None of the above
Both a and b
Question 9 (4 points)
Historically, most of the uninsured in the U.S. have been illegal immigrants.
Question 9 options:
True
False
Question 10 (4 points)
Medicaid fills in the gaps in the availability of health insurance by:
Question 10 options:
Covering all people below the poverty line
Covering just low-income children
Covering certain groups of low-income people
All of the above
Question 11 (4 points)
According to the Kaiser Family Foundation, which group accounts for the most Medicaid spending?
Question 11 options:
Children under the age of 19
Unemployed adults
Elderly and disabled adults
Dual-eligibles over the age of 65
Question 12 (4 points)
Meaningful Use sets the specific objectives that eligible professionals and hospitals must achieve to participate in the EHR Incentive Programs.
Question 12 options:
True
False
Question 13 (4 points)
Providers who prove compliant with meaningful use regulations will receive what tangible benefit?
Question 13 options:
A meaningful use compliance certification
Decreased government regulation
Government incentive payments
Acceptance onto the stage 3 rules committee
Question 14 (4 points)
In comparison to the general population, patients receiving Long-Term and Post-Acute Care services typically:
Question 14 options:
Have a smaller range of conditions
Have less complex conditions
Have a wider range of conditions that are more complex
Have less complex conditions that are wider in range
Question 15 (4 points)
According to the Long-Term and Post-Acute Care (LTPAC) Roundtable Summary Report of Findings (Anderson), what are the two ways to capture data discussed in the article?
Question 15 options:
ERH and HIE
EHR and IHE
HER and HEI
EHR and HIE
Question 16 (4 points)
The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that there are eight barriers to adoption of Electronic Health Records. Specifically, the article mentions the barrier of “Time” and stated that productivity is initially reduced when caregivers start using the EHR’s. This is due to:
Question 16 options:
The Lack Curve
The Learning Curve
The Boonstra Effect
The Interconnect Effect
Question 17 (4 points)
The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” discusses government incentives related to reform to adopt information technology in meaningful ways. The ____________ Act includes spending to create a network of Electronic Health Records.
Question 17 options:
HIPAA
HITECH
TECH-Health
Health Outcomes
Question 18 (4 points)
The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that in order to be considered multifunctional, Electronic Health Records need to have at least two of the following capabilities:
Question 18 options:
Generation of patient information, generation of patience, order exit management, decision support
Generation of patient registry, generation of healthy outcomes, order entry management and character support
Generation of patient information, generation of patient registry and panel information, order entry management and decision support
Generation of patient information, generation of registry and panel information, order entry management and healthy outcomes
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Question 19 (4 points)
The Chief Medical Information Officer is a physician who bridges the process of information management and medical practice. This position is usually seen as:
Question 19 options:
More administrative than clinical
Equally administrative and clinical
More clinical than administrative
All clinical and no administrative responsibilities–it’s a symbolic position
Question 20 (4 points)
The initiation of the electronic medical record is a new strategy in today’s healthcare environment but actually began as far back as:
Question 20 options:
1970’s
1990’s
1960’s
2009
Question 21 (4 points)
As described in the Health Affairs article, “Strategic Action in Health Information Technology: Why the Obvious has Taken So Long,” we have come a long way in healthcare IT over the past thirty-five years. However, observers have expressed repeated concerns since it’s inception. Of those concerns the most prevalent is:
Question 21 options:
The amount of data being collected
The effects on the physician/patient relationship
The accuracy of the patient data being collected
The ability to train users to be proficient in data management
Question 22 (4 points)
The National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics (NCVHS) was established by Congress more than fifty years ago to serve as a public advisory body to HHS on health data, statistics, and national health information policy. They have been extremely influential over the years in establishing standards for health data, health data systems and patient record systems. One of the most important and influential pieces of legislation the NCVHS developed is:
Question 22 options:
The Affordable Care Act
The Social Security Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
None of the above
Question 23 (4 points)
States have the flexibility to design their own Medicaid programs within federal guidelines.
Question 23 options:
True
False
Question 24: Nursing
Case Study 1
John and Susan are both prone to being overweight. They are concerned that their infant son, Steven will also have weight problems. They are referred to you when Steven is 5 months old. Steven’s growth data are as follows:
Age
Weight
Length
Birth
8 lb
20 inches
1 week
8 lb 1 oz
20 inches
1 months
11 lb
21.5 inches
2 months
12 lb 8 oz
23 inches
3 months
14 lb 8 oz
23.5 inches
4 months
16 lb
25.5
5 months
18 lb
26.5
Steven breastfeeds six times daily for about 20-25 minutes at each feeding. He is not presently receiving any other sources of nourishment. Answer the following questions for John and Susan:
Their pediatrician told them that Steven’s weight is above average. Is he gaining too much weight?
Should they delay adding solid foods or add something now? If they should add something, what would recommend? At what point would you begin adding solid foods and in what order would you recommend?
What developmental changes occur between 5 months to a year that demonstrate readiness for solids foods?
Should they give Steven juice in a bottle?
A neighbor has suggested that Steven could be given skim milk instead of breast milk. Do you recommend this?
Submitting your Assignment
This project is a CLA and must be minimum 2 pages not including title and reference page (APA format). Put your case study in a Word document.
Question 25: Health Care
Josephine is a 20 year old female who is present for an eating disorder not otherwise specified. She currently teaches salsa lessons at the community college and is in her last semester of college. She reports she is living at home and the food her mom prepares is not the healthiest because her mom is from Honduras and her father is from Guatemala, so the food is prepared differently. She indicates she has been thin all her life, but as soon as puberty hit, she has struggled to maintain her weight and since she is a salsa instructor, she has to remain fit. She reports she feels very guilty if she has consumed fried foods during the day, but since that is the way her mom primarily cooks, she feels awful to tell her mom to stop cooking that way. She reports if she does consume too much fried foods or junk food, she will run at least 2-3 miles that day or else force herself to vomit, but all the food does not come out. She reports sometimes if she has a later class, she will not eat dinner or only eat 1 meal per day. She has tried counting calories, but then she gets so mad at herself for having more than 1200 calories it causes her to exercise more, which then leads her to feeling exhausted. She indicates she is on no medication, but does take a multivitamin when she remembers. She indicates she has gone from 110 pounds to 125 pounds over 5 years and wants to be back down to 110 or even less. She also had gone to the doctor and he was quite concerned with her lab values. She has provided you a 24 hour meal record:
Breakfast:
1-6” corn tortilla
½ cup fried beans cooked with peppers, onions and oil
½ cup rice
1 cup no sugar added orange juice
Lunch:
1 slice of whole wheat bread
2 slices turkey
1 small apple
Dinner:
2- 6” tortillas
Beef with onions, peppers cooked in oil
Tomato, onion, pepper salad (made with oil and lime juice)
2 cups of rice
Height: 5’2” Weight: 117 pounds (based on your scale in the office)
Labs:
Test
Result
Reference Units
Albumin (visceral protein stores)
3.3 g/dL
3.5-4.8 g/dL
Sodium
133 mEq/L
136-145 mEq/L
Potassium
3.8 mEq/L
3.5-5.2 mEq/L
Iron
0.4 mg/dL
0.6-1.1 mg/dL
Vitamin B12
185 pg/mL
200-835 pg/mL
Questions for Unit 3:
What stage of change do you believe Josephine is in? In the above paragraph, what makes you determine she is in that stage of change?
For this situation, how would you establish a rapport with the client?
What personal boundaries would you establish for this seminar session?
What cultural considerations do you have to keep in mind?
What other physical or psychosocial questions would you ask this client?
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Question 26: Business Finance
Identify 2 ways in which human service practice is different in the mental health setting versus the criminal justice setting (you may use any venue in the criminal justice setting for comparison, such as prison, jail, juvenile detention, pretrial diversion, parole, probation, etc.)?
Question 27: Accounting
Part One: Problem (14 points)
At December 31 the cash balance per books of Heinisch Company was $12,485.20, and the cash balance per the bank statement was $20,154.30. The bank did not make any errors, but two errors were made by Heinisch Company.
The December bank statement for Heinisch Company showed the following checks and deposits.
Bank Statement
Checks Deposits
DateNumberAmountDateAmount
12-7 3472 1,426.80 12-4 1,211.60
12-4 3474 1,640.70 12-16 2,672.70
12-8 3475 1,300.00 12-21 2,954.00
12-31 3479 450.80 12-30 1,025.00
The cash records per books for December showed the following cash payments and receipts.
Cash Payments Cash deposited
DateCheck NumberAmountDateAmount
12-1 3471 720.10 12-3 $1,211.60
12-1 3472 1,426.80 12-15 2,672.70
12-1 3473 1,050.00 12-20 2,945.00
12-1 3474 1,640.70 12-30 1,025.00
12-2 3475 1,300.00 12-31 1,190.40
12-4 3476 621.30
12-17 3477 807.40
12-23 3478 798.00
12-24 3479 540.80
12-30 3480 1,889.50
In addition, the bank statement contains the following items:
The collection of a $3,500 note and $145 of interest less a collection fee of $20 from a customer of Heinisch Company.
A NSF check of $725.80 written by D. Chagnon, a customer. At December 31, the check had not been redeposited in the bank.
Bank service charge of $25.
Required:
Prepare bank reconciliation at December 31.
Prepare the required journal entries based on the reconciliation. Omit explanations.
Date
Accounts Title and Explanation
Ref.
Debit
Credit
Part Two: Problem (10 points)
On February 1, 2019, Norton Company factored accounts receivables with a carrying amount of $500,000 to Koch Bank. Koch Bank assesses a finance charge of 3% of the receivables and reserve 5% of the receivables.
Assume the Norton factors the receivable on a without recourse basis. What is the loss on sale to be reported in the income statement of Norton Company for February?
Assume the Norton factors the receivable on a with recourse basis. The recourse obligation has a fair value of $2,500.
What conditions must be met for a factoring of receivables with recourse be accounted for as a sale?
What is the loss on sale to be reported in the income statement of Norton Company for February assuming that all the conditions above are met?
Prepare the required journal entry on Norton Company on February 1, 2019 assuming Norton factors the receivable on a with recourse basis. Omit explanation.
Date
Accounts Title and Explanation
Ref.
Debit
Credit
Part Three: Problem (8 points)
On January 1, 2019, Jason Company assigned $1,000,000 of accounts receivable to Easy Finance Corporation as security for a loan of $840,000. Easy Finance Corporation charged a 2% finance charge on the amount of the loan; the interest rate on the loan was 10%. During the month of January, Jason collected $220,000 on assigned accounts receivable. Jason Company made the first partial payment of the loan on January 31, 2019.
Required: Prepare the required journal entries for Jason Company when (a) the loan was made and (b) during the month for collection of accounts receivable and the partial payment of the loan. Omit explanations.
Date
Accounts Title and Explanation
Ref.
Debit
Credit
Part Four: Problem (15 points)
HCH Corporation sells copying machines and replacement toners. HCH Corporation sells two models – Model A and Model B. HCH Corporation provided the following information regarding inventory at the end of the current year.
Item
Number of Units
Replacement Cost
Selling Price
Cost of Completion and Disposal
Normal Profit
Cost
Model A
Copying Machine
2,000
$155
$210
$20
$35
$170
Replacement Toner
1,500
40
55
10
16
48
Model B
Copying Machine
3,400
215
235
25
20
185
Replacement Toner
2,750
65
145
15
25
55
Instructions:
Calculate the ceiling and floor for each model for the lower of cost or market rule.
Item
Ceiling
Floor
Model A
Copying Machine
Replacement Toner
Model B
Copying Machine
Replacement Toner
HCH Corporation is pricing its ending inventory using the lower of cost or market but want to know the difference with the standard of lower of cost or net realizable value. Fill the following table with the unit values that HCH Corporation should use for each model under each rule.
Item
Inventory at lower of cost or market
Inventory at lower of cost or net realizable value
Model A
Copying Machine
Replacement Toner
Model B
Copying Machine
Replacement Toner
Part Five: Problem (6 points)
Belgium Corporation manufactures and distributes beds. The Corporation uses the dollar-value LIFO method. Information for the last three years is presented in the following table.
Year
Inventory
2018
$356,000
2019
379,700
2020
390,100
The price indices for 2018, 2019 and 2020 are 1.000, 1.023, and 1.0637, respectively.
Instructions:
Compute the corporation’s ending inventory using dollar-value LIFO for each year and fill the following table.
Year
Calculations
Dollar-value LIFO ending inventory
2018
2019
2020
Part Six: Problem (7 points)
In 2019, Puppy Specialties experienced a major loss due to a fire in the warehouse. The fire destroyed its entire inventory. The company began the year with inventory of $598. It made purchases of $2,400 but returned $24 worth of merchandise. Sales prior to the fire were $3,945. Puppy Specialties must use the gross profit method to determine inventory on hand on the date of the fire. Below is an excerpt of its income statement for the last year.
2018
Net Sales
$3,735
Cost of Goods Sold
1,494
Selling and Administrative Expenses
461
Income from Operations
$1,729
Instructions:
Assume that Puppy Specialties uses the most recent year to determine the gross profit percentage, calculate the following amounts for the year 2019.
Estimated Cost of Goods Sold
Estimated Gross Profit
Estimated Ending Inventory destroyed by the fire
Part Seven: Problem (10 points)
Noa Corporations uses the retail inventory method to estimate its ending inventory. The following information relates to Noa Corporation’s inventory at both cost and retail for the current year.
Description
Cost
Retail
Beginning Inventory
$55,000
$78,500
Purchases
250,000
325,000
Purchase discount
10,000
Freight-In
5,000
Additional markups
24,000
Markup cancellations
7,000
Markdowns
12,000
Markdown cancellations
3,500
Sales
400,000
Instructions: Answer each of the following questions.
What is the ending inventory at retail?
If the ending inventory is to be valued at conventional retail method, the calculation of the cost to retail ratio should be based on what cost and retail?
Using the conventional retail method, calculate the approximate cost of ending inventory.
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Question 28: Health Care
you are going to compare depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens. You are to
identify one drug from each category and write a 4 page paper that analyzes and
evaluates the differences between the drugs and their physical and psychological
effects on the human body.
Choose particular drugs of abuse that are of scholarly interest to
you. All of the drugs listed in the categories below have sufficient academic
research materials available for adequate study and development.
Through your exploration of the drugs you have chosen, you should
demonstrate critical thinking as well as a depth of knowledge gained on each
drug and how each physically and psychologically affects the human body. A
sample of drugs listed in the three categories is shown below, but you may also
choose a drug not on the list. Although this paper is on a topic of your
choosing, it is recommended that if you identify and choose a drug not on the
list below, you have it approved by the instructor prior to beginning the
assignment.
Depressants
Stimulants
Hallucinogens
Alcohol
Amphetamines
Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
Barbiturates
Caffeine
Ecstasy (MDMA)
Benzodiazepines
Cocaine
Ketamine (Special K)
Fentanyl
Crack Cocaine
Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD)
Heroin
Herbal Stimulants
Mescaline
Methaqualone
Methamphetamines
Phencyclidine (PCP)
Morphine
Nicotine
Psilocybin & Psilocyn
Opium
Oxycodone
Please be sure to include a reference page…
Question 29: Accounting
Write a 1,225-word paper to summarize the main points in this class. Include information on the following:
The different media you used.
How you used the text and the effectiveness of it.
Your ability to feel confident moving on to more Accounting classes.
List References
Use Kimmel, P.D., Weygandt, J.J., & Kieso, D.E. (2013). Financial Accounting Tools for Business Decision Making (7th ed.). Retrieved from The University of Phoenix eBook Collection If possible.
A few topics to cover
Use Elements of Accounting Environment
Internal and external users of Financial Statements
Liquidity and long-term Solvency
Fraud Triangle
Internal Controls
Question30: Accounting
What is the amount of the payments that Ned Winslow must make at the end of each of 8 years to accumulate a fund of $90,000 by the end of the 8th?
Question 31: Business Finance
Write a 350- to 700-word summary in which you do
the following:
Identify the four basic financial statements.
Describe the purpose of each of the four financial statements.
Discuss how the financial statements would be useful to internal users such as managers and employees.
Discuss how the financial statements would be useful to external users such as investors and creditors.
Format the summary consistent with APA guidelines.
Question 32: Business Finance
need about 100-200 words for each.
You have been asked to join a new merchandising company as an accountant or bookkeeper. Because of your knowledge of accounting, the others starting up this business ask you for your advice on which inventory method would be best for them.
Explain why you would choose periodic over perpetual inventory
Give us your reason(s) behind picking the perpetual inventory system over the periodic
Tom is preparing for a quiz on merchandise accounting and is confused about one particular thing. He doesn’t understand the difference between an expense and contra-revenue account. Help him out by defining it and explaining exactly how the two are different, if in fact, they really are.
chapter five 10 question
quiz coving chapter 1-4 27 question
Question 33: Business-Human Resource
Write a plan for the orientation and training of a new employee. The paper should be approximately 750 words in length and follow these directions:
Decide the position for your plan.
Find a real job description for this position (e.g., from your experience, the Internet, etc.).
Determine which information should be included in the orientation.
Create a separate section in your plan to discuss each concept included in the orientation.
Identify the training objectives for each section.
Prepare the training schedule.
In an opening section directed toward the supervisor, explain the supervisor’s role in the orientation and training process. Minimum of two sources
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Question 34: Business-Human Resource
You have just started work as the new Human Resources Manager for Acme Manufacturing, a Fortune 1,000 company. The job has been vacant for six months now. You have been wondering about this, especially since reading about employee harassment incidents and fights recently in the news.
The General Manager (GM) calls you into his office the minute you arrive. He shuts the door after saying a quick word of welcome, and begins to tell you about an incident that happened last week that needs your immediate attention. The company’s manufacturing operations runs three shifts of production workers so the plant is operating 24/7. Over the past six months hostilities have arisen between employees on the third and first shifts. What started out as jeering and criticisms by the first shift, claiming they have to clean up the mess and complete all of the work left undone by the third shift, has escalated to physical confrontations and altercations. Although the GM said that aggressive bantering back-and-forth is common for shift workers in manufacturing, he admitted he was worried after seeing a gun on one of the employees last week that was concealed, or so the employee thought, in a shoulder holster under this jacket. The GM said he needs your help. Specifically, he asked that you:
Determine and explain the appropriate disciplinary action for the employees involved in this situation and identify motivational alternatives that can help turn the situation around;
Draft policies and procedures that could be used in the guidance and performance management of the shift workers; and
Develop performance standards for the shift workers, identify appropriate methods of performance appraisal, and develop appropriate training to help get them back on track.
Feeling overwhelmed by the enormity of the situation, you go back to your office and begin devising a plan to help get employee relations back on track, realizing that human resource policies and practices may help avert potentially dangerous situations in the future if implemented correctly.
Write a 8-10 page memo to the GM responding to the three concerns listed above. Be sure to cite any references used in proper APA format.
Question 35: Business-Human Resource
What can an organization do to help prevent workplace violence?
***answer with references***
Question 36: Business-Human Resource
Identify ways to make performance evaluations more effective. Do you believe one of your suggestions is of higher priority than the others? Explain
Question 37: Business-Human Resource
Please respond to the following:
Why is it important to look at both the manager and the employee point of view when engaging in human resource planning, and how can this information be used as a source of strategy?
Please respond to the following:
Watch the video titled “Scripps,” located in Week 5 of your Blackboard course. From the video, isolate one (1) of the many aspects of the Scripps recruitment and interview process that could be most attributable to Scripps’ ample supply of registered nurses when there is a nursing shortage across the country. State how you could apply this aspect at your current (or former) place of work.
For the paper, you will apply the concepts learned in class to an analysis of a company using data from its annual report. Using the concepts from this course, you will analyze the strengths and weaknesses of the company. You will then write a report either recommending or not recommending purchase of the company stock.
The completed report should include:
An introduction to the company, including background information.
A complete and thorough financial statement review.
Pro Forma financial statements (balance sheet and income statement) for the next fiscal year, assuming a 10% growth rate in sales and cost of goods sold (COGS) for the next year.
Complete ratio analysis for the last fiscal year using at least two ratios from each of the following categories:
Liquidity
Financial leverage
Asset management
Profitability
Market value
Calculate return on equity (ROE) using the DuPont system.
Calculate economic value added.
A synopsis of your findings, including your recommendations and rationale for whether or not to purchase stock from this company.
This report should be eight to ten pages long excluding title page and reference page(s). Use APA 6th edition formatting guidelines as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. Support your findings and recommendations with evidence from at least five scholarly resources; such as the textbook, industry reports, and articles from the Ashford University Library. PLEASE COMPLETE ALL WORK AND SHOW ALL NECESSARY CALCULATIONS AND CITE ALL REFERENCES!!
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Question 39: Finance
You are given the following information for Lightning Power Co. Assume the company’s tax rate is 35 percent.
Debt:
8,000 6.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 25 years to maturity, selling for 106 percent of par; the bonds make semiannual payments.
Common stock:
310,000 shares outstanding, selling for $57 per share; the beta is 1.05.
Preferred stock:
15,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, currently selling for $72 per share.
Market:
7 percent market risk premium and 4.5 percent risk-free rate.
What is the company’s WACC? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to
2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
WACC
%
Question 40: Finance
You wrote a piece of software that does a better job of allowing
computers to network than any other program designed for this purpose. A
large networking company wants to incorporate your software into their
systems and is offering to pay you $524,000 today, plus $524,000 at the
end of each of the following six years for permission to do this. If
the appropriate interest rate is 7 percent, what is the present value
of the cash flow stream that the company is offering you? (Round answer to the nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)
Question 41: Business
Create an organizational chart of Incident Command (IC) and a table to identify the roles of each IC role and the responsibilities. Answer each of the following questions in at least 350 words: •Which of the core homeland security concepts do you best understand? Which could be removed? •How do private security professionals contribute to the nation’s homeland security posture? Provide examples to suppose your position
Question 42: Business
1.What is the basic difference between absorption costing and variable costing?
2.Explain how fixed manufacturing overhead costs are shifted from one period to another under absorption costing.
3.If the units produced exceed unit sales, which method would you expect to show the higher net operating income, variable costing or absorption costing? Why?
4.Distinguish between a traceable cost and a common cost. Give two examples of each.
100 words each
Question 43: Business
For each of the following payroll-related taxes, indicate whether they generally apply to (a) employees only, (b) employers only, (c) both employees and employers:
Social security tax2. Medicare tax3. Federal income tax4. Federal unemployment compensation tax5. State unemployment compensation tax
Question 44: Business
Identify the federal taxes that most employers are required to withhold from employees.
1 page
Question 45: Nursing
Sometimes grief is not always caused from death. It can also come from the loss of status, employment, relationship, or health. Please list the specific five stages of loss and grief. What questions would you ask a patient or family member to determine which stage they are experiencing at the moment?
Question 46: Nursing
Describe one innovative health care delivery model that incorporates an interdisciplinary care delivery team. How is this advantageous to patient outcomes?
Question 47: Nursing
In a formal paper of 1,000-1,250 words you will discuss the work of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Committee Initiative on the Future of Nursing and the Institute of Medicine research that led to the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.” Identify the importance of the IOM “Future of Nursing” report related to nursing practice, nursing education and nursing workforce development. What is the role of state-based action coalitions and how do they advance goals of the Future of Nursing: Campaign for Action?
Explore the Campaign for Action webpage (you may need to research your state’s website independently if it is not active on this site): http://campaignforaction.org/states
Review your state’s progress report by locating your state and clicking on one of the six progress icons for: education, leadership, practice, interpersonal collaboration, diversity, and data. You can also download a full progress report for your state by clicking on the box located at the bottom of the webpage.
In a paper of 1,000-1,250 words:
Discuss the work of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Committee Initiative on the Future of Nursing and the Institute of Medicine research that led to the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.”
Identify the importance of the IOM “Future of Nursing” report related to nursing practice, nursing education and nursing workforce development.
What is the role of state-based action coalitions and how do they advance goals of the Future of Nursing: Campaign for Action?
Summarize two initiatives spearheaded by your state’s action coalition. In what ways do these initiatives advance the nursing profession? What barriers to advancement currently exist in your state? How can nursing advocates in your state overcome these barriers?
A minimum of three scholarly references are required for this assignment.
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Question 48: Nursing
Health has evolved over time becoming comprehensive and patient-informed. The idea of a healthy individual has transitioned from the simple aspect of disease-free to a much more complex and holistic lifestyle choice. The World Health Organization or WHO was formed in response to a growing need for health education. ‘As prevention of illness took center stage, the definition of health evolved into more than being disease-free, and in 1948, the World Health Organization (WHO) was formed. The WHO’s focus was, and continues to be, health promotion for populations worldwide’ (Falkner, 2018). Because of the increase in education and prevention/screening of individuals the bar has been raised in health care delivery. Now there is an active presence of the informed patient that is willing and able to fully participate in their health care. The inclusion of patients in the health care delivery system in itself proves the evolution of the perception of good health today. It is the nurses duty to be the information hub for the patient, so to speak. Helping a patient navigate their health care plan is an example of how nurses advocate and promote wellness on a continuous basis. ‘Nurses must utilize the power of advocacy in order to identify and address patients’ specific needs’ (Falkner,2018). Evidence based practice is considered the gold standard when it comes to patient care and health promotion, it can be defined as using the most up to date and clinically relevant information in providing care the health care continuum. Although there are standards set in place for disease management it is important the nurse uses evidence based practice because of the constantly changing needs of the individual patient. Many health care providers know that each patient has specific health concerns and many times there is a balancing act that must be established to achieve a positive patient outcome.
References
Falkner, A. (2018). Chapter 2: Health Promotion in Nursing Care. Health Promotion: Health and Wellness Across the Continuum.
Retrieved from https://www.gcumedia.com/digital-resources/grand-canyon-university/2018/health-promotion_health-and-
wellness-across-the-continuum_1e.php
******please respond to the discussion above with a paragraph add citation and references 🙂 ********
Question 49: Finance
In this assignment, you will compare and evaluate risk management techniques from experts in the field.
Find one article by James Kallman. Dr. Kallman, an expert in the field of risk management, has written many articles on managing financial risk. Find a second article in the Library from another credible author of your choice who also provides recommendations for risk management.
Develop a three- to four-page analysis, excluding title and reference page(s), of the techniques Dr. Kallman has identified for managing risks. In this analysis, compare Dr. Kallman’s techniques to the techniques recommended in the second article you researched. Explain why you either agree or disagree with each authors’ recommendations. Identify other factors you believe should be considered in risk management. The assignment should be comprehensive and include specific examples. The paper should be formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
You must cite at least two scholarly sources from the Ashford University Library, one being an article by Dr. Kallman. NO RUSHING PROVIDE SOURCES!!
Question 50: Finance
Please I need 200 words for each question, use scholarly articles.
What are the basic methods of payment for healthcare firms? If you were asked to represent a hospital in negotiating a contract with a health plan, what would be the top 5 considerations?
What are the tools available to a healthcare administrator to manage receivables? Describe the use of each.
Admission to discharge (5 days)
Discharge to bill completion (10 days)
Bill completion to receipt by payer (2 days)
Receipt by payer to mailing of payment (35days)
Payment mailed to receipt by hospital (2 days)
Receipt by hospital to deposit in bank (1 or more days)
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Question 1: Statistics
The diameter of a cylindrical shaft door hinge is normally distributed with a population mean of 12.8 mm and standard deviation of 0.35mm. The specifications on the shaft are 13+- 0.15 mm. What proportion of shafts conforms to the specification?
Question 2: English
Topic: Eros and Thanatos are more powerful fused together rather than separated. This fusion is the reason why people love romantic vampires.
Research the connection between these two concepts and romantic vampires.
– Evaluate the effectiveness of the arguments presented by comparing or contrasting, and synthesize this into an essay. In the evaluation or analysis of the argument you will employ classical rhetoric, the 5As, tone diction, style, syntax, organization and literary devices. Additionally, social and historical context and definition of terminology may be needed. Your opinion, contradiction or agreement of the topic is relevant but must be supported with credible evidence from a peer-reviewed journal article.
– Identify Rhetorical Techniques
– Think about what is being stated (metacognition, examination how thing come together to support claims
Question 3: Economics
Suppose there are only two goods, x and y, and y is an inferior good. The demand curve for good x cannot be vertical. True or false. Explain your answer graphically and intuitively.
Question 4: Physics
Consider a pendulum made of a spring with a mass m on the end. The spring is arranged to lie in a straight line. The equilibrium length of the spring is denoted by the constant l. Let the spring length be l + x(t), and let its angle with the vertical line be ?(t). Assuming that the motion takes place in a vertical plane, find the equations of motions using the Euler-Lagrange approach. There is no external torque at the pivot
Question 5: Business
A 2 – 3-page memo providing insight into the industry you are working in, the company you are working for, the prospect you wish to sell to (including five business customer needs of the business you will be calling on), the product you are selling, and your competition.
Question 6: Business
For each of the following payroll-related taxes, indicate whether they generally apply to (a) employees only, (b) employers only, (c) both employees and employers:
Social security tax2. Medicare tax3. Federal income tax4. Federal unemployment compensation tax5. State unemployment compensation tax
Question 7: Humanities
In APA format with 1100 words or more, answer the following with three scholarly resources
-What were the major stages in the political and military development of the Roman Republic?
-What were the most important aspects of the Roman ethos?
-How did Golden Age and Silver Age literature differ?
Question 8: Humanities
Choose one (1) of the topics below and develop a three to four (3-4) paragraph essay (of at least 250-500 words) which adequately address the topic you have chosen.
Topic Choices:
There have been many theories regarding how the pyramids at Giza were constructed. Most experts agree that they were constructed as burial monuments for pharaohs, but “how” these ancient people constructed monuments of such great size without modern machinery is a mystery which is still being debated.
No one can say for certain what happened to the Mayan people, but theories abound and include varied possible alternatives to explain the abrupt and mysterious disappearance of the Mayan civilization.
Tutankhamen died young, at around 18 years of age. However, his cause of death has not been confirmed. Did he die of an injury, of illness, or was he murdered?
Considered the “Mummy’s Curse,” a series of unexplainable, unfortunate, or tragic events that happened to the people who were present at the opening of Tutankhamen’s tomb.
There has always been debate about the identity of the poet Homer, the presumed author of The Illiad and The Odyssey. Was he a real person or not?
The monumental size and complexity of the Tomb of Shihuangdi is astounding. It is believed that the workers were forced to remain inside the tomb when it was walled shut so they would not reveal the secrets of its construction. What was the emperor’s purpose for such an elaborate burial place?
Other topic choice recommended and approved by the professor and supported by the grading rubric
Write a 3-4 paragraph paper in which you:
Clearly state the “mystery” and provide a brief summary of at least two (2) reasonable and scholarly theories which could explain the mystery. Because some theories may sound far-fetched, include the source or promoter of each theory – such as a scientist, a historian, a theologian, etc.
Identify one (1) of the theories as the most plausible and provide at least two (2) convincing reasons why the theory you have chosen is the best one to explain the mystery.
Use at least two (2) sources besides the textbook. Note: Wikipedia and other similar Websites do not qualify as academic resources. You are highly encouraged to use the Resource Center tab at the top of your Blackboard page.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA Style format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. (Note: Students can find APA style materials located in the course shell for reference)
Include a cover page containing the tile of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Explain how key social, cultural, and artistic contributions contribute to historical changes.
Explain the importance of situating a society’s cultural and artistic expressions within a historical context.
Examine the influences of intellectual, religious, political, and socio-economic forces on social, cultural, and artistic expressions.
Identify major historical developments in world cultures during the eras of antiquity to the Renaissance
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the study of world cultures.
Write clearly and concisely about world cultures using proper writing mechanics
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Question 9: Humanties
Over the course of the last 40 years, American education has changed.
Whether we are discussing K-12 or high education, emphasis used to be placed upon:
– ethics
– critical thinking
– literacy
– being a good citizen and informed voter
– understanding of American culture and world cultures
– cultivating the complete person.
This is no longer the case.
In modern America, education is primarily designed to provide narrowly defined job training.
Courses like Intro to the Humanities survive from the previous form of education in the modern system, and are clear outliers. This is why opinion is surprisingly – almost artificially – uniform in opposition to its existence.
Teachers still attached to the notion of educating the complete person – not merely the future employee – see courses such as this as essential to maintaining a society of thinking people capable of self-awareness and empathy. They see the rise in cyberbullying, ideological radicalization, rage, fear, and chronic depression as symptomatic of a society that does not value the humanities – or even know what the humanities are.
In a few years, this course may not exist.
If this course goes, what is lost?
What did you learn this term?
Draw upon specific moments from the course (touching upon work we did throughout) to inform your answer.
You may write using the pronoun “I” and offer subjective opinions that still cite specific cultural artifacts from the class, or you might discuss “students” broadly and leave yourself out of the equation if you are not comfortable using “I.”
Write in 12-point, Times New Roman font, double-spaced, with 1 inch margins. Essays less than a page long will be considered too short to adequately answer this question. 3-4 pages seems in the right range.
Please submit as a .doc, .docx, or PDF, but not in Pages or phone photos.
Question 10: Accounting
Write a 1,225-word paper to summarize the main points in this class. Include information on the following:
The different media you used.
How you used the text and the effectiveness of it.
Your ability to feel confident moving on to more Accounting classes.
List References
Use Kimmel, P.D., Weygandt, J.J., & Kieso, D.E.(2013). Financial Accounting Tools for Business Decision Making(7th ed.). Retrieved from The University of Phoenix eBook Collection If possible.
A few topics to cover
Use Elements of Accounting Environment
Internal and external users of Financial Statements
Liquidity and long-term Solvency
Fraud Triangle
Internal Controls
Question 11: Engineering
Find normal depth in a 20.0-foot-wide concrete rectangular channel having a slope of 0.020 ft/ft and carrying a flow of 700 cfs. Use trial and Error method. n=0.014
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Question 12: General Question
Walden NURS6660 Midterm 2019
Walden NURS6660 Midterm 2019
Question 13: General Question
FIN 419 Final Exam New 2019
FIN 419 Final Exam New 2019
Question 14: History
Why is America a superpower?
Question 15: Business
Write a 175- to 200-word response to the following:
List and briefly discuss four management development methods.
Discuss the pros and cons of at least eight performance appraisal methods.
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Question 16: Business
Prepare a 2- to 3 slide presentation of your team’s strategic approach to performance management that addresses the following:
NO Intro or Conclusion. Just answer the Bullet
Evaluate the differences between performance management and disciplinary issues. Provide one example of each and describe the possible outcomes. Why does it make a difference in managing performance?
Include detailed speak notes
Question 17: Business
Create a 525- to 700-word industry overview.
Include the following:
Explain your design, manufacturing, distribution, and sales chain for a product, or your planned customer experience for a service-oriented business.
Detail your inventory and cash flow systems.
Create detailed pricing and sales strategies.
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
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Question 18: Health Care
NSG 6435 Week 5 Quiz / NSG6435 Week 5 Quiz (Latest) : South University 1. The signs and symptoms of bacterial sepsis in children beyond the neonatal period has a common presentation. Which of the following would be the most typical?
Cough, fever, abdominal pain
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting
Irritability, fever, lethargy
Vesicular rash, pruritus, fever
A 11-year-old child presents with fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. The abdominal exam reveals a spleen tip that is palpable. A throat culture and monospot test results are negative. What would be the next step in the plan of care?
Repeat throat culture
Bone marrow biopsy
Chest radiograph
Epstein-Barr titer
The nurse practitioner has a differential diagnosis of Lyme disease. Which of the following skin lesion would confirm the diagnosis?
Erythema migrans
Koplik spots
Pustules
Scales
Which of the following would best reflect the physical presentation in a newborn with Down’s syndrome?
Lymphadenopathy, coarctation of the aorta, webbed neck
What is an expected finding in young infants with cerebral palsy (CP)?
a. Weight gain and increased appetite
Reactions to initial vaccines
Hypotonia in the first weeks of life
Hepatosplenomegaly
Question 19: Communication
Analyze three (3) signs in the segment (you can use the entire segment, not just the minute you transcribed). Discuss the meanings of the signs and indicate the type of each sign and its modality. Use as diverse types of signs for this answer as possible. Name (correctly) the different types and the different modalities for each sign you discuss. (6%). Do NOT explain what a sign is, what a specific type of sign is, or what a modality of a sign is or you lose up to 2%. Giving a wrong explanation to what a sign is or what a specific type of sign is will cause you to lose up to 10%. UNDERLINE and CAPITALIZE the signs you discuss, underline their type, and their modality. Not underlining these elements may cause you to lose points. No more than a page. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ysxTvrXLvZY
Question 20: Health Care
A statement of goals (double-spaced, 1500 word maximum, using current APA guidelines) describing the following: ◦Your academic expectations of the program. ◦How the DNP will affect your future career. ◦The experiences that you feel have best prepared you for doctoral study (e.g., clinical, educational, or leadership experiences). ◦A clinical problem or area of interest in which you might be interested in developing your final project. ◦What are the most difficult issues that you anticipate while in the DNP program and you plan to handle them? The Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) degree is a practice-focused doctorate designed to prepare expert nurses in specialized advanced practice roles. The focus of the DNP program is on innovative and evidence-based practice. The DNP prepares advanced practice nurses with the knowledge, skills and abilities needed in today’s and tomorrow’s complex health care environment. This degree provides the advanced practice nurse with an educational background comparable to health care practitioners in other fields. Upon completion of the doctoral program, the graduate will be able to: 1.Evaluate scientific bases from extant and emerging areas of knowledge for advanced nursing practice. 2.Evaluate decision support systems to solve clinical problems for individuals, aggregates and systems. 3.Develop advanced leadership and collaborative skills to mobilize interdisciplinary teams to solve highly complex clinical problems. 4.Develop expertise to formulate health policy and provide leadership in establishing clinical excellence and creating new models of cost-effective health care delivery. 5.Critically assess, plan, intervene and evaluate the health experiences of individuals, aggregates and systems to provide safe, evidence-based care. 6.Synthesize knowledge of cultural diversity and global perspectives in delivering health care and in critiquing nursing systems. Once you hold a DNP degree, you can become employed across the full spectrum of health care organizations, from community health centers to hospitals and from private clinics to universities. Obtaining your DNP opens up many opportunities for growth.
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Question 21: Political Science
Final Exam Take Home Question Answer should be between 2 and 3 pages long At least 2 pages…. In an essay, please answer the following four questions: What are the formal powers of the governor of New York state? What advantages do they give to the governor? What are the informal powers of the governor of New York State? What advantages do they give to the governor? How does the unusual relationship of the political parties in New York state give the New York state governor an additional informal but important advantage? What accomplishments has Governor Cuomo accomplished so far? How do the qualities (answered above) prepare or equip New York state to maintain its status as both a sanctuary state and its unique place as a national leader.
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Question 23: Literary Studies
I need a 4 page interpretation of the novel of the death of a salesman by Arthur Miller. Only apply if you have read this book. There are two acts and an analysis/ interpretation must be made. There should be no story telling but analysis of the novel.
Write a one page summary which includes your results (if you agree or disagree) and describing your buying behavior as a consumer.
Using this information, how might a marketer effectively target you as a consumer? If you are an international student you will see that the survey indicates that it might not be completely accurate for you. In the past, my international students have said it is about 80% correct.
Part 2:
Look up the zipcode you live in (can be your current zipcode if you have been there for a while or it could be your last zipcode if that is where you have lived most) on the MyBestSegments website. Determine if any of the five categories reflects you/household. Access: Claritas MyBestSegments(Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. (zipcode link is second tab on the top of this page).
Write up which category fits you best and why. This data is based on the 2010 Census so if you did not fill out the census because you were living with parents or others, please look for characteristics that fit them. If you have recently moved, use the zipcode you lived at previously. If no category fits you, why do you think that is? Does it fit your neighbors?
If you are an international student, use the zipcode you live in or the Temple zipcode if in a dorm (19122) and look at the people that live in your neighborhood. Do the results reflect your neighbors? Both of these assignments should be combined and submitted on one document on this link.
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Write a 1,225-word paper to summarize the main points in this class. Include information on the following:
The different media you used.
How you used the text and the effectiveness of it.
Your ability to feel confident moving on to more Accounting classes.
List References
Use Kimmel, P.D., Weygandt, J.J., & Kieso, D.E.(2013). Financial Accounting Tools for Business Decision Making(7th ed.). Retrieved from The University of Phoenix eBook Collection If possible.
A few topics to cover
Use Elements of Accounting Enviroment
Internal and external users of Financial Statements
Liquidity and longterm Solvency
Fraud Triangle
Internal Controls
Question 27: English
ESSAY QUESTION
Write an essay comparing three to five poems from the below, in their references to the seasons. What images of nature does each poet you choose to use and how do they use those images? What meaning do they give to those images and what role do those images play in their poems. You may choose any poems and/or poets from the below list.
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700 to 900 words, roughly 2 to 3 pages
No sources are required except quoting from the book
No works cited page necessary
Use MLA style in your quoting and paraphrasing.
Have a workable thesis statement
The format is Times New Roman, Double-space, 12 pt. font type.
Graded on the following:
Answering the question satisfactorily
Good use of grammar, syntax, and punctuation
Organization (topic sentences and logical format to the essay)
Thesis statement
Question 28: Political science
Please answer the following ten questions using only your text and lecture notes as sources. Cite your answers, and be specific in your examples. Use your own word for all the answers
Define the term “politics”.
Explain your understanding of the term “office politics” and why it is important to acknowledge its existence. This is covered in the lecture notes.
Define “federalism”. Give an example of something in your wallet that comes from the federal, state and special district levels of government.
Define the terms “block grant” and “matching grant”. What is the difference between them?
Explain the Ninth (IX) Amendment. Who benefits from it?
What are the “checks and balances” indicated in the Constitution? List and explain at least two.
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
Define “direct democracy”. Do we practice this in California? If so, explain how we implement this.
What are “collective goods”? Explain the concept and illustrate it with an example.
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Question 29: Political science
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
Question 30: Political Science
Explain the “right of privacy” listing the amendments involved, and what specific issues caused this right to be developed. Explain one of these cases.
Explain why Miranda rights are important. Which amendments are comprise the Miranda Rights?
Name and explain the types of committees used in the Congress of the United States.
One of the President’s special powers is the use of the Executive Order. What is an executive Order, why is it used, and is an Executive order legal? Is this found in the Constitution?
What is the Pendleton Act of 1883? What does it do, and why is it important? Is it still in effect?
What are the reasons that case would be considered for the Supreme Court? List and explain two (2) reasons why a case is considered for a hearing before the Supreme Court.
What is public opinion? What are its uses in politics?
What is a political party? What is its purpose? Did Madison like the idea of political parties (See Federalist No. 10)? What is Madison’s view of “factions”?
What is the relationship between Congress and the two major political parties?
Explain the use of independent regulatory commissions. List and explain one such commission- what does it do, why is it independent, what does it regulate.
Please answer these questions concisely in a short answer format.
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Question 1: Business
Part A
Select 8 recruitment methods and decide the following for each, and present the material in a Microsoft® Word table:
Pros and Cons
Legal/Employment Law Considerations
HR Analytics: Forecasting Tool
Rationale for using this recruitment method
Part B
Write a 350- to 700-word summary of your findings that include:
5 recommendations for recruiting methods you might present to an organization and utilize the findings from Part A to support the recommendations
3 traits/skills essential to the HR professional and create a straightforward test to screen candidates for these traits/skills
Question 2: Business
Write a 175- to 265-word response to the following:
Explain the main techniques used in employment planning and forecasting.
List and briefly describe the basic categories of selection tests, with examples.
Question 3: Business
Analyze your data and draft for findings for your industry, market, and customer research.
Develop a 525- to 700-word analysis considering your research and the following:
Explain the selection of your business model.
Explain what people will be your key contacts as you research your industry and market and why.
Analyze your research data and draft for findings for your industry, market, and customer research.
Justify the research methods you used to acquire your data.
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Resources
Center for Writing Excellence
Reference and Citation Generator
Grammar and Writing Guides
Learning Team Toolkit
Question 4: Health Care
HCR 230 Week 9 Capstone Checkpoint
Resource: Appendix A, pp. 449–477 in Ch. 14 of Medical Insurance. Refer to Ch. 14 of Medical Insurance and previous assignments from that chapter as a resource.
Create a flow chart using Microsoft® Word illustrating the five steps of the claims adjudication process from the time of initial processing through final payment. Include a brief 250- to 300-word explanation for the following:
Identify the purpose for each step in claim adjudication process.
Explain the relationship between each of the different steps.
Provide a one-sentence summary describing how claims adjudication is important to the medical billing process.
Post your flow chart and explanation as an attachment.
Question 5: Health Care
HCR 230 Week 8 CheckPoint Inpatient and Outpatient Hospital Services
Resource: pp. 513–514, 523–526 in Ch. 16 of Medical Insurance
Post a 250- to 300-word response to the following: What are the major differences between inpatient and outpatient hospital services? Describe how these differences affect the coding process and provide examples.
Question 6: Health Care
HCR 230 Week 7 Individual Understanding the Collection Process
You are working in a medical office and are helping train a new billing specialist about collections. You decide that a job aid in the form of a flow chart would be a useful tool. Resources: pp. 494–505 in Ch. 15 of Medical Insurance and Microsoft® Help website Refer to Microsoft® Help website at http://support.microsoft.com/ for questions related to creating a flow chart in Microsoft® Word. Create a flow chart, using Microsoft® Word, illustrating the sequence of basic steps in the collection process.
Write a 350- to 500-word script, below your flow chart, for a short instructional video to be used along with the flow chart. The script must provide an overview of how to use the flow chart when dealing with a collections account. Include details about what to do at each step in the flow chart. The audience for the job aid and video is a medical office billing trainee.
Post your paper as an attachment.
Question 7: Health Care
HCR 230 Week 5 CheckPoint Characteristics of Workers Compensation Plans
Resources: pp. 423–424 in Ch. 13 of Medical Insurance and the U.S. Department of Labor website
Refer to pp. 423–424 in Ch. 13 of your textbook and the U.S. Department of Labor website at: http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/workcomp/index.htm
Post a 250- to 300-word response to the following: In your own words, briefly describe the features of the four federal workers compensation plans and the two types of state workers compensation benefits. Why is it necessary to have both federal and state compensation plans?
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Question 8: Health Care
HCR 230 Week 4 CheckPoint Describing TRICARE
Resources: Appendix B and pp. 399–404, 409–411 in Ch. 12 of Medical Insurance Create a 5- to 8-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that describes features of the TRICARE program and its four subsidiaries. Include detailed speaker notes to explain the following topics in your presentation:
Eligibility requirements
Covered and noncovered services
Network and nonnetwork providers
Participating and nonparticipating provider charges
Reimbursement
Use a minimum of one reference. You may use your text as a reference.
Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.
Post your presentation as an attachment.
Question 9: Economics
Semiconductor manufacturing involves taking a flat disc of silicon, called a wafer, and depositing many layers of material on top of it. Each layer has a pattern on it that, upon completion, defines the electric circuits of the finished microprocessor.
Each 8-inch wafer has up to 100 microprocessors on it.
However, the typical average yield of the production line is 75% good microprocessors per wafer.
At one local company, the process engineers responsible for the chemical-vapor-deposition (CVD) tool (i.e., process equipment) that deposits one of the many layers have an idea for improving overall yield. They propose to improve this tool’s vacuum with a redesign of one of its major components.
The engineers believe the Project will result in a 2% increase in the average production yield of nondefective microprocessors per wafer.
This company has only one CVD tool, and it can process 10 wafers per hour.
The process engineers have determined that the CVD tool has an average utilization rate (i.e., «time running») of 80%.
A wafer costs €5,000 to manufacture, and a good microprocessor can be sold for €100.
These semiconductor fabrication plants («fabs») operate 168 hours per week, and all good microprocessors produced can be sold.
The capital investment required for the Project is €250,000, and maintenance and support expenses are expected to be €25,000 per month.The lifetime of the modified tool will be five years, and the company uses a 12% MARR per year (compounded monthly) as its «hurdle rate».
Before implementing the proposed engineering solution, top management has posed the following questions to you (hired as an independent consultant) to evaluate the merits of the proposal:
— Based on the PW method, should the project be approved?
— If the achievable improvement in production yield has been overestimated by the process engineers, at what percent yield improvement would the Project breakeven?
Question 10: Health Care
ACA Paper Assignment
Write a 3-4-page paper about the Affordable Care Act. Explain why it was created (e.g. the problems it is attempting to address), potential issues related to its implementation, and the effects it may have on the provision of health services.
Do you feel the United States Government adequately prepared to fully implement the mandatory components of the ACA?
How would you improve the implementation process of the Affordable Care Act?
Does the new law adequately address your concerns about obtaining health insurance?
Should the private insurance industry do more to support this legislation for the general welfare of the public? Justify your answer.
Use in-text citations as appropriate and include a References page at the end
Points Possible:40
Level 3
32 Points for content which meets the requirements above
8 points for writing guidelines
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Question 11: Biology
In tulips, red flowers (R) are dominant to yellow flowers (r) and broad leaves (L) are dominant to
slender leaves (I). A gardener crosses a RrLI plant with a rrll plant. Seeds from this cross produce 52
red, broad-leaf tulips and 48 yellow, slender-leaf plants. Explain these results.
Question 12: Biology
Dwarfism is a recessive trait in Hereford cattle. A rancher in western Texas discovers
that several of the calves in his herd me dwarfs, and he wants to eliminate this
undesirable trait from the herd as rapidly as possible. Suppose that the rancher hires
you as a genetic consultant to advise him on how to breed the dwarfism trait out of the
herd. What crosses would you advise the rancher to conduct to ensure that the gene
causing dwarfism is eliminated from the herd?
Question 13: Engineering
find rms speed of argon atoms at 313k with molar mass 39.9 g/mole
Question 14: Other
Topic: Is it ever moral to break a promise? A rational analysis and conclusion. Thread: The Reading & Study materials this module/week discuss the complex issue of poverty, and the moral imperative of promise-keeping is mentioned several times. After reviewing the Reading & Study materials, compose a 500-600 word argument that is objective, carefully-constructed, and free of emotion (and hence it should not contain any exclamation points) in support of your opinion on each of the following questions. Why is promise-keeping morally important? Is it ever morally permissible to break a promise? If you answer “yes” to #2, then what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally acceptable? If you answer “no” to #2, then explain why you believe it is never permissible. How would you handle difficult scenarios wherein someone has made a promise the keeping of which would have significant undesirable consequences? Is it ever morally obligatory to break a promise? If you answer “yes” to #5, what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally obligatory? Be sure to carefully define your terms. You are encouraged to support your position with rational arguments, fitting examples, and expert sources. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count. You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. This is a university-level writing assignment and therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).
Question 15: Law
FINAL EXAM
Minority Rights and Protections
PART I – Short Answer (30 points)
Answer the following in approximately 2-3 sentences:
Reflecting back over the entire course, offer your own definition of what constitutes a minority group. (10 points)
Why are minority rights an international rather than (or in addition to) a domestic issue? (10 points)
How does international law become domestic law? (10 points)
PART II – ‘Mini’ Essay (60 points)
Answer the following in approximately 6-8 sentences:
What is the difference between positive and negative rights? Why does this distinction matter? Give examples of each. (20 points)
Briefly explain the differences between classification, stereotyping, prejudice, and discrimination and give examples of each. (20 points)
Assume that Country X has not signed on to the Genocide Convention. Can it still be held accountable for committing genocide against its citizens? Why or why not? (20 points)
PART III – Essay Questions (210 points)
Choose three of the following topics and answer them below. Make sure that you have addressed all of the questions asked. Essays should be written in a concise and coherent way and targeted toward an intelligent but uninformed reader. While there is no minimum word length as such, all parts of the question must be addressed for full credit. I would anticipate this taking at least 500 words per question.
In the context of our course, what is intersectionality and why is it important? How might we adapt our legal mechanisms to better account for this complexity? In answering these questions, you should reference at least two of the case studies we looked at this semester. (70 points)
Many have argued that minority rights (as legal phenomena) are unnecessary or redundant because all human beings are guaranteed their rights and access them as individuals. For example, all Ecuadorians are guaranteed the rights and protections set forth in the country’s constitution regardless of minority or non-minority status. Several authors and speakers that we have interacted with this semester, however, argue that this individual rights approach is inadequate. Referencing Kymlicka, Brunner and Küpper, and any other relevant texts or talks, make a case for the relevance of minority rights. In doing so, you should at least touch on individual and group rights. (70 points)
Rabbit Proof Fence depicts, at best, the problems of assimilationist policies at their worst. Many have also posited that the story is one of genocide. How does the film relate to both of these things? In answering, please refer to specific examples / moments in the film. (70 points)
Throughout the semester, we have discussed many issues relating to Roma rights, from housing to discrimination to forced sterilization to trafficking. Discuss one example that you found to be particularly disturbing and propose a policy, law, or program that could address it. (70 points)
Explain what is meant by strategic litigation. Why is it a controversial practice? Discuss and evaluate two cases from Validity or in relation to Roma rights. What was gained by the use of strategic litigation? What, if anything, were the unintended consequences? In the case in question, do you believe another approach would have been better? (70 points)
What sort of policies or programming would follow in shifting from a medical model to a social model in the understanding of mental disability and impairment? This question involves more of a thought experiment than a reference to course materials but be sure to give concrete examples/ideas. (70 points)
PART IV – Extra Credit
Of classification, stereotyping, prejudice, and discrimination, which can be legislated? Why is this the case? (10 points)
Why are cases at the European Court of Human Rights always brought against the state? (10 points)
What is the difference between an EU directive and an EU resolution? (10 points)
Question 16: Business
Identify an effective health care organization that utilizes information technology. Analyze the components and requirements of its information systems technology program. Explain the requirements for health care information technology systems to comply with federal, state, and local laws governing patient information security. Assess the risks and affected stakeholders in the event of a system breach or failure, and recommend approaches that can be used to safeguard confidential information.
APA paper formatted Unit: Information Technology in Health Care 5-7 pages; minimum 5 academic/professional references published in last 5 yrs. Paper is to be written in 3rd person with grammatical check and plagiarism report attached
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Question 17: Business
BUSINESS FRENCH PRESENTATION 11 Slides: with written notes (1-2 pages) to show the extent of your research. CHOOSE ANY OF THE FOLLOWING TOPICS: Famous characters in French history (La Fayette, Napoleon, Charles de Gaulle, Joan of Arc…) Art (Monet, Picasso, Rodin, Street Art…) Visit local museums here: Cantor Museum at Stanford, Palace of the Legion of Honor SF… They have great French exhibits. Literature Music/ Dance Philosophy and philosophers (Descartes, Voltaire, Camus, Sartre, Foucault, Michel Onfray, Bernard Henry Levy…) Education in France Government structure /politics Cultural policies French NGOs example: Doctors without borders/ Médecins sans Frontières Medicine and research French inventions Gastronomy/ Cuisine High Technology (and start ups) Any French region (target the presentation on the culture and economy of the region and the main industries.) The movie industry/ Animation/ Media The music industry in France and French speaking countries. Publishing
Question 18: Philosophy
What is Descartes’s purpose in Meditation 1? And what, in general terms, is the method that he employs to fulfill this purpose. What are the three stages of doubt that Descartes utilizes in order to execute this method? (It is best to present each stage of doubt in terms of how the “hypothesis” of each stage is deployed as a skeptical challenge to belief.) What are two kinds of response that one might make to the evil demon doubt? Of what kind is Descartes’s response? And what, in particular, is Descartes’s response to the evil demon doubt?
Question 19: Accounting
need about 100-200 words for each.
You have been asked to join a new merchandising company as an accountant or bookkeeper. Because of your knowledge of accounting, the others starting up this business ask you for your advice on which inventory method would be best for them.
Explain why you would choose periodic over perpetual inventory
Give us your reason(s) behind picking the perpetual inventory system over the periodic
Tom is preparing for a quiz on merchandise accounting and is confused about one particular thing. He doesn’t understand the difference between an expense and contra-revenue account. Help him out by defining it and explaining exactly how the two are different, if in fact, they really are.
chapter five 10 question
quiz coving chapter 1-4 27 question
Question 20: Accounting
Adjusting entries. You have been retained to examine the records of Mary’s Day Care Center as of December 31, 20X3, the close of the current reporting period. In the course of your examination, you discover the following: • On January 1, 20X3, the Supplies account had a balance of $1,350. During the year, $5,520 worth of supplies was purchased, and a balance of $1,620 remained unused on December 31. • Unrecorded interest owed to the center totaled $275 as of December 31. • All clients pay tuition in advance, and their payments are credited to the Unearned Tuition Revenue account. The account was credited for $65,500 on August 31. With the exception of $15,500 all amounts were for the current semester ending on December 31. • Depreciation on the school’s van was $3,000 for the year. • On August 1, the center began to pay rent in 6-month installments of $24,000. Mary wrote a check to the owner of the building and recorded the check in Pre¬paid Rent, a new account. • Two salaried employees earn $400 each for a 5-day week. The employees are paid every Friday, and December 31 falls on a Thursday. • Mary’s Day Care paid insurance premiums as follows, each time debiting Pre¬paid Insurance: Date Paid Policy No. Length of Policy Amount Feb. 1, 20X2 1033MCM19 1 year $540 Jan. 1, 20X3 7952789HP 1 year 912 Aug. 1, 20X3 XQ943675ST 2 years 840 Instructions The center’s accounts were last adjusted on December 31, 20X2. Prepare the adjusting entries necessary under the accrual basis of accounting. 5. Bank reconciliation and entries. The following information was taken from the accounting records of Palmetto Company for the month of January: Balance per bank $6,150 Balance per company records 3,580 Bank service charge for January 20 Deposits in transit 940 Interest on note collected by bank 100 Note collected by bank 1,000 NSF check returned by the bank with the bank statement 650 Outstanding checks 3,080 Instructions: a. Prepare Palmetto’s January bank reconciliation. b. Prepare any necessary journal entries for Palmetto.
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Question 21: Accounting
Part 1
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use this Web site to determine the form(s) required to file income taxes for the following business entities:
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
S Corporation
Download the current form and instructions (you will refer to these in later assignments).
Use the instructions for each form to prepare a tax guide that you will use during tax season. The tax guide should have the following information for each business entity:
Tax form or schedule used to report the profit or loss from a business
When the tax form must be filed
Where the tax form must be filed based on the state
An IRS publication that will provide supplemental federal income tax information about the business entity
Part 2
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use the following Web site to prepare a memo for your file regarding the new regulations for paid preparers for future reference:
As the course textbook states, “the arts give form to what is imagined, express human beliefs and emotions” (xv) and “for the majority of their history, artists have expressed the dominant beliefs of a culture” (xv). When studying the humanities, you can examine written works, musical works, works of art, and architecture to get a sense of what the creators of those works and the cultures from which those creators came believed. Much of this involves placing these artifacts into the context of what is known from other sources about the creators and cultures. A major part also involves looking at just the artifacts themselves to examine and interpret what their form and content reflect. This assignment asks you to follow this process of looking at the artifact itself. With that in mind, select one of the following artifacts from the textbook and answer the questions that follow:
Pharoah Mycerinus and Queen Khamerernebty (Figure 1.19, page 23)
Musicians and Dancers (Figure 1.27, page 30)
Describe the artifact in your own words. What do you see when you look at the artifact? What is depicted and how is it depicted?
Identify and explain some beliefs that this artifact reflects. What might this artifact and the way in which it portrays its subject matter suggest about what the author (and her or his culture) believed and how they saw the world?
Provide specific examples from the artifact that you have chosen and clearly explain how these specific details illustrate your points in response to the questions above. Do not simply rely on the discussion of the artifact that the textbook provides. While you may refer to the points in the textbook or use them as a starting point, you must build your paper upon your own observations and the conclusions that you draw from those observations. This assignment is asking you to develop your own interpretations from what you see when you look at the picture of the artifact in the textbook. You will not be graded on whether your interpretation is “correct” or not. Rather, you will be graded on how well you state what beliefs the artifact reflects, how well you explain how the artifact reflects those beliefs, and how well you show what specifically about the artifact provides the basis for your conclusions.
If you do use the textbook, be sure to cite it appropriately. See Step 8 of the “General Instructions for Papers” in this lesson for directions on how to cite the textbook properly.
Create a fitting, descriptive title for your paper. You can summarize the content to follow in the title, or you can devise a clever title that connects to what you discuss in the body of your paper.
Be sure to have a clear introduction and a clear conclusion to your paper. At the end of your introduction, you should provide a statement that gives the reader a specific sense of what your overall conclusion(s) in the paper will be. In this sentence, summarize the specific beliefs that you will suggest that the artifact reflects.
Paper Length: 3 word-processed pages, double spaced
Question 23: Science
If you were 25 pounds overweigh,exlain why you would or wouldn’t follow a weight-loss diet that supplied less than 15 percent of supplied less than calories from carbohydrate.
2.Consider the fiber content of your diet, Do you consume enough fiber
each day? If your fiber intake is adequate, what foods do you eat
regularly that contribute soluble and insoluble fiber to your diet? If
your fiber intake is low, list foods you would consume to increase your
intake of both types of fiber
Question 24: Science
Write 100 words within the Discussion Board responding to the following questions. Create a substantive and clear post expressing your research, thoughts, and ideas:
Have you ever experienced living in a socialist or communist society?
If so, explain your experience.
If not, share how do you view or imagine a socialist or communist society? Would you want to live there? Why or why not
Question 25: Mathematics
Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line whose equation is y = 4x + 2 and whose
y-intercept is 3
Question 26: Programming
write 300 words why computers is still the best in terms of man labor
Question 27: Finance
You wrote a piece of software that does a better job of allowing
computers to network than any other program designed for this purpose. A
large networking company wants to incorporate your software into their
systems and is offering to pay you $524,000 today, plus $524,000 at the
end of each of the following six years for permission to do this. If
the appropriate interest rate is 7 percent, what is the present value
of the cash flow stream that the company is offering you? (Round answer to the nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)
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Question 21: Accounting
Part 1
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use this Web site to determine the form(s) required to file income taxes for the following business entities:
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
S Corporation
Download the current form and instructions (you will refer to these in later assignments).
Use the instructions for each form to prepare a tax guide that you will use during tax season. The tax guide should have the following information for each business entity:
Tax form or schedule used to report the profit or loss from a business
When the tax form must be filed
Where the tax form must be filed based on the state
An IRS publication that will provide supplemental federal income tax information about the business entity
Part 2
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use the following Web site to prepare a memo for your file regarding the new regulations for paid preparers for future reference:
As the course textbook states, “the arts give form to what is imagined, express human beliefs and emotions” (xv) and “for the majority of their history, artists have expressed the dominant beliefs of a culture” (xv). When studying the humanities, you can examine written works, musical works, works of art, and architecture to get a sense of what the creators of those works and the cultures from which those creators came believed. Much of this involves placing these artifacts into the context of what is known from other sources about the creators and cultures. A major part also involves looking at just the artifacts themselves to examine and interpret what their form and content reflect. This assignment asks you to follow this process of looking at the artifact itself. With that in mind, select one of the following artifacts from the textbook and answer the questions that follow:
Pharoah Mycerinus and Queen Khamerernebty (Figure 1.19, page 23)
Musicians and Dancers (Figure 1.27, page 30)
Describe the artifact in your own words. What do you see when you look at the artifact? What is depicted and how is it depicted?
Identify and explain some beliefs that this artifact reflects. What might this artifact and the way in which it portrays its subject matter suggest about what the author (and her or his culture) believed and how they saw the world?
Provide specific examples from the artifact that you have chosen and clearly explain how these specific details illustrate your points in response to the questions above. Do not simply rely on the discussion of the artifact that the textbook provides. While you may refer to the points in the textbook or use them as a starting point, you must build your paper upon your own observations and the conclusions that you draw from those observations. This assignment is asking you to develop your own interpretations from what you see when you look at the picture of the artifact in the textbook. You will not be graded on whether your interpretation is “correct” or not. Rather, you will be graded on how well you state what beliefs the artifact reflects, how well you explain how the artifact reflects those beliefs, and how well you show what specifically about the artifact provides the basis for your conclusions.
If you do use the textbook, be sure to cite it appropriately. See Step 8 of the “General Instructions for Papers” in this lesson for directions on how to cite the textbook properly.
Create a fitting, descriptive title for your paper. You can summarize the content to follow in the title, or you can devise a clever title that connects to what you discuss in the body of your paper.
Be sure to have a clear introduction and a clear conclusion to your paper. At the end of your introduction, you should provide a statement that gives the reader a specific sense of what your overall conclusion(s) in the paper will be. In this sentence, summarize the specific beliefs that you will suggest that the artifact reflects.
Paper Length: 3 word-processed pages, double spaced
Question 23: Science
If you were 25 pounds overweigh,exlain why you would or wouldn’t follow a weight-loss diet that supplied less than 15 percent of supplied less than calories from carbohydrate.
2.Consider the fiber content of your diet, Do you consume enough fiber
each day? If your fiber intake is adequate, what foods do you eat
regularly that contribute soluble and insoluble fiber to your diet? If
your fiber intake is low, list foods you would consume to increase your
intake of both types of fiber
Question 24: Science
Write 100 words within the Discussion Board responding to the following questions. Create a substantive and clear post expressing your research, thoughts, and ideas:
Have you ever experienced living in a socialist or communist society?
If so, explain your experience.
If not, share how do you view or imagine a socialist or communist society? Would you want to live there? Why or why not
Question 25: Mathematics
Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line whose equation is y = 4x + 2 and whose
y-intercept is 3
Question 26: Programming
write 300 words why computers is still the best in terms of man labor
Question 27: Finance
You wrote a piece of software that does a better job of allowing
computers to network than any other program designed for this purpose. A
large networking company wants to incorporate your software into their
systems and is offering to pay you $524,000 today, plus $524,000 at the
end of each of the following six years for permission to do this. If
the appropriate interest rate is 7 percent, what is the present value
of the cash flow stream that the company is offering you? (Round answer to the nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)
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Question 28: Finance
Assume that you can borrow $175,000 for one year from a local commercial bank. a. The bank loan officer offers you the loan if you agree to pay $16000 in interest plus repay the $175,000 at the end of one year. What is the percent interest rate or effective cost? b. As an alternative you can get a one year, $175,000 discount loan at 9 percent interest. What is the percent interest rate or effective cost? c. Which one of the two loans would you prefer? d. At what discount loan interest rate would you be indifferent between the two loans?
Following are selected balance sheet accounts for Third State Bank: Vault Cash = $2 million; US government securities = $5 million; demand deposits = $13 million; non transactional accounts = $20 million; cash items in process of collection = $4million; loans to individuals = $7 million; loans secured by real estate = $9 million; federal funds purchased = $4 million; and bank premises = $11 million. a.From these accounts, select only the asset accounts and calculate the bank’s total assets. calculate the total liabilities for Third Bank State. c.Based on the totals for assets and liabilities, determine the amount in the owner’s capital account.
Question 29: Human Resources
Write a plan for the orientation and training of a new employee. The paper should be approximately 750 words in length and follow these directions:
Decide the position for your plan.
Find a real job description for this position (e.g., from your experience, the Internet, etc.).
Determine which information should be included in the orientation.
Create a separate section in your plan to discuss each concept included in the orientation.
Identify the training objectives for each section.
Prepare the training schedule.
In an opening section directed toward the supervisor, explain the supervisor’s role in the orientation and training process. Minimum of two sources
Question 30: Human Resources
You have just started work as the new Human Resources Manager for Acme Manufacturing, a Fortune 1,000 company. The job has been vacant for six months now. You have been wondering about this, especially since reading about employee harassment incidents and fights recently in the news.
The General Manager (GM) calls you into his office the minute you arrive. He shuts the door after saying a quick word of welcome, and begins to tell you about an incident that happened last week that needs your immediate attention. The company’s manufacturing operations runs three shifts of production workers so the plant is operating 24/7. Over the past six months hostilities have arisen between employees on the third and first shifts. What started out as jeering and criticisms by the first shift, claiming they have to clean up the mess and complete all of the work left undone by the third shift, has escalated to physical confrontations and altercations. Although the GM said that aggressive bantering back-and-forth is common for shift workers in manufacturing, he admitted he was worried after seeing a gun on one of the employees last week that was concealed, or so the employee thought, in a shoulder holster under this jacket. The GM said he needs your help. Specifically, he asked that you:
Determine and explain the appropriate disciplinary action for the employees involved in this situation and identify motivational alternatives that can help turn the situation around;
Draft policies and procedures that could be used in the guidance and performance management of the shift workers; and
Develop performance standards for the shift workers, identify appropriate methods of performance appraisal, and develop appropriate training to help get them back on track.
Feeling overwhelmed by the enormity of the situation, you go back to your office and begin devising a plan to help get employee relations back on track, realizing that human resource policies and practices may help avert potentially dangerous situations in the future if implemented correctly.
Write a 8-10 page memo to the GM responding to the three concerns listed above. Be sure to cite any references used in proper APA format.
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Question 31: Human Resources
You have just been hired as the human resources (HR) manager by your company’s chief executive officer (CEO). During your interview process, the CEO indicated that in the last 2 decades, the workforce demographics of her company have changed dramatically. Although this had been occurring, both the previous HR manager as well as all of the company’s front-line supervisors have remained as they had been for years: primarily white males, now in their 50s and early 60s, from a Judeo-Christian background. The CEO indicated that at a frequent rate, workplace strife had been increasing, and it seemed to be related to the changing demographics of the workforce itself. The CEO asked you to compile a training manual that consists of sections targeted at the training of the existing front-line supervisors. Later on, there will be sensitivity training as well as to help all employees understand the changing workforce and what it might mean for them.
Diversity Training Manual: Overview
The content of the final complete manual will need to cover diversity issues, specifically the following forms of discrimination:
Religious
Ethnic
Gender
Age
There also must be information regarding the following information:
Recent trends
Forecasts about the changing general population
Legislation covering these type issues
There will need to be subsections that deal with the following information:
Customs and values of each group
The need for sensitivity to differing values and customs
Legislation affecting supervisor regulations
Diversity Training Manual: Part I
Given that the training manual will be dealing with several diversity issues, prepare the table of contents and write the first part of the manual, which should deal with some useful background for the company’s supervisors and managers.
The first parts that the CEO wants completed are as follows:
A preliminary outline of the entire manual (this may change as you work on the project)
The table of contents
The following sections regarding the demographics of the U.S. population should be included:
o Current statistics
o Recent trends
o Forecasted trends
Using the Web sites listed, present information about trends in the U.S. populations regarding the following information:
As the new human resources manager, you are now ready to complete the next section of a diversity training manual that is targeted at making your workforce supervisors more aware of current racial diversity issues (e.g., the dramatic increase in the Hispanic percentage of the workforce) and how the supervisors should address them. The goal is to reduce potential tensions in the workplace among employees of different races.
Part II is to be titled, Historical Issues of Different Races in the Workplace and How to Handle Them.
This section should discuss the following:
Different races now or likely to be in the workforce of the future, based on the U.S. populations racial demographic changes
Particular issues that create tensions among the different groups
How supervisors need to address these issues that could potentially cause tension
Diversity Training Manual: Part III
As a continuation of the diversity training manual, you (as the new manager of human resources) should now create portions that specifically address gender issues and are targeted at training and raising the sensitivity of all supervisors regarding potential gender issues. It should include a section on how the supervisor should or should not handle certain gender-based workplace issues. For example, can the supervisor hand out work assignments that he or she feels are better suited to different genders? Can he or she write a job requirement that only one gender can meet, such as a strength requirement?
This section of the manual must, at a minimum, address the following information:
A few general facts about the U.S. population’s gender mix and the gender mix found in notable segments of the workforce should be included. Make sure to include all sources of information.
The essence and applicability of the landmark Griggs v. Duke Power case dealing with stated job requirements should be addressed.Click here to read the Griggs v. Duke Power case.
Describe how the supervisor should state minimum job requirements when he or she requests new employees to be hired into the department.
Explain how the supervisor might communicate to his or her department (of all male employees) when a female is about to become part of the work team.
Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
TITLE PAGE. Remember the Running head: AND TITLE IN ALL CAPITALS
ABSTRACT. A summary of your paper…not an introduction. Begin writing in third person voice.
BODY. The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 4-6 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
REFERENCE PAGE. References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper and lower case usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.
Individual Project will be graded based upon the rubric provided here
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Question 1: Nursing
TWO PARTS TO THE ASSIGNMENT** Create a 1- to 2-slide presentation in which you: Compare health systems of various countries. Identify future trends in public health. Include at least 3 references. Create a conclusion to accompany your presentation. Format your summary according to APA guidelines.
Instruction
For the next newsletter, you have been asked to write a 700- to 1,050-word article about the spectrum of health care facilities. In your article: Analyze the spectrum of health care facilities that exist in the United States. Analyze the purpose and goals of each of the different types of health care facilities in the United States. Analyze how the different types of facilities work together. Analyze who is responsible for the oversight of the facilities. Analyze the similarities and differences of the health care facilities. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Question 2: Health Care
Instruction
You work for a small community hospital that has recently updated its health record system to a modern electronic health record (EHR) system. As a health care manager, you have been asked to meet with the health information manager (HIM) and analyze the efficiency, security, and privacy of your current health records system. Your organization has very high standards and a culture of keeping up with current trends. After your analysis, you have been asked to provide a detailed report to the hospital’s chief operating officer (COO) detailing the following: Examine the emergence of technology and electronic health systems in health care since the passage of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Provide an analysis of the current trends in health care record keeping and charting as they relate to advancements in technology. Assess ways in which contemporary patient records systems can support health care operations including privacy, quality patient care delivery, insurance and cost administration, and records access and retention. Present your findings in an executive summary of 5–7 pages.
Question 3: Business
Assignment Content
Scenario: You are the HR consultant to a small business employing about 40 people. Currently, the business offers only 5 days of vacation, 5 paid holidays, and legally mandated benefits such as unemployment insurance payments.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word consultation report on compensation and benefits, including the following:
Discuss with the business three job evaluation methods utilized to determine the compensation strategy. Include the advantages and disadvantages of each method.
Recommend to the business one job evaluation method to determine the compensation strategy. Include your rationale for the recommendation.
Recommend a minimum of seven benefits the business should offer. Include your rationale for the recommendations.
Explain what signs the company might look for to know if employees are engaged.
More than one references
Question 4: Business
Write a 175-word response to the following:
Describe the importance of total rewards for improving employee engagement.
Explain how to use benefits to improve engagement, productivity, and performance.
Question 5: Business
Capstone Final Examination Part 1
1
Advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing are marketing communications alternatives that make up a firm’s __________.
2
The study of similarities and differences among consumers in two or more nations or societies is referred to as __________.
3
Lori is using secondary research to develop a business report. How can she write her report in a way that demonstrates originality in thought?
4
A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
5
Under the regulations of interstate commerce:
6
If a population is known to be normally distributed, what can be said of the sample distribution of the sample mean drawn from this population?
7
In order to summarize qualitative data, a useful tool is a____________.
8
Which of the following is useful advice on conducting business across cultures with those who have limited English ability?
9
Jay stops at the shopping mall to purchase a new pair of jeans from the Diesel store. He is the ultimate consumer in a pipeline from the producer through intermediaries, including the clothing store. This pipeline is actually a__________.
10
Which of the following is typically included in the drafting stage of writing an effective business message?
11
Article 6 of the Treaty on European Union, called the Maastricht Treaty, states the EU is “founded” on:
12
According to the Ajzen model, the strongest predictor of an employee’s behavior is/are__________.
13
In order to focus your presentation on people, you should______.
14
What is the main drawback to the Negotiation & Agreement strategy for overcoming resistance to change?
.
15
Joyce finds that the members of the project team to which she has been assigned in her management class are all athletes on the college’s football and basketball teams. She immediately considers dropping the class because she thinks her experience with that team will be negative. Joyce is likely reacting to a__________.
16
Annie, an employee who often attributes her team failures to bad luck, attributes other teams’ failures to personal shortcomings. Which of the following cognitive biases do Annie’s attributions exemplify?
17
In the context of developing persuasive messages, which of the following is most likely to help you demonstrate a voice of competence?
18
Your résumé should tell a story of______.
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19
Which of the following types of unemployment is considered to be the most controllable through demand-side macroeconomic policy?
20
Marketing research refers to__________.
21
Fred takes Betty to dinner at a very expensive and exclusive restaurant. The menu does not mention prices. The server takes their order, and both Betty and Fred enjoyed the meal immensely. When the bill comes, Fred refuses to pay because the menu had no prices and because he and the server never engaged in language indicating an offer and acceptance. The server said, “Are you ready to order?” and when Fred said “Yes,” the server merely asked, “What may I get you tonight?”
22
A receptive developmental network is__________.
23
How many parameters are needed to fully describe any normal distribution?
24
Marketing refers to__________.
25
The interdisciplinary field dedicated to understanding and managing people at work is called:
26
Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
27
According to the Classical growth model, an economy that increases its saving will grow:
28
Frequent, abusive, threatening phone calls by creditors are most likely to provoke the basis for a claim of _____________.
29
In which of the following situations is a budget surplus most likely to occur?
30
Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly wage of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
31
The distinction between flexible and fixed individual differences__________.
32
Identify an example of spontaneous creativity.
33
The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
34
When does the straw man fallacy occur?
35
Federal law and business leaders alike favor ____________ as a means of governing private business ethics.
36
A 911 emergency response service needs operators who are bilingual in English and Spanish. A few applicants of Spanish origin are rejected due to poor English-speaking skills. They file a complaint on the grounds of discrimination based on nationality. Their complaint is squashed. Here, the defense of the federal government is on the grounds of:
37
Suppose farmers can use their land to grown either wheat or corn. The law of supply predicts that an increase in the market price of wheat will cause:
38
The depreciation of currency will:
39
Which of the following can be represented by a discrete random variable?
40
When two regression models applied on the same data set have the same response variable but a different number of explanatory variables, the model that would evidently provide the better fit is the one with a__________.
41
The product life cycle refers to __________.
42
Identify the statement that accurately describes the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
43
Which of the following statements is true of the WARN Act?
44
Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
45
Which of the following is the path through which contractionary monetary policy works?
46
Regarding using personality testing as part of the hiring process, experts have concluded that:
47
Sam, a marketing manager, often makes ethical decisions based on what others feel about those decisions. He often considers opinions from other managers and employees. Which of the following ethical systems do Sam’s decisions follow?
.
48
What is true of the features used to judge a person’s credibility?
49
_____ is the process of converting meaning into messages composed of words and nonverbal signals.
50
Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Question 6: Business
Assignment Week 2 Apply Internal and External Environmental Analysis (Hoosier Media Inc.)
You work for a consulting firm whose primary objective is to help businesses improve their strategic operations. Your firm recently was hired by a newspaper company named Hoosier Media Inc. The client’s print newspaper circulation and subscriptions have declined, resulting in 30% lower revenues over the last five years. Online ad revenues have increased but currently account for just 5% of the company’s revenue. You have been tasked with providing a comprehensive internal and external analysis to help the firm improve its business operations.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word analysis that includes the following:
Identify economic, legal, and regulatory forces and trends.
Critique how well the organization adapts to change.
Discuss the primary internal organizational considerations.
Discuss the primary external organization considerations.
Identify the major issues and/or opportunities the company faces based on your analysis.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
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Question 7: Psychology
Developmental Analysis: Part 1Instructions
Childhood – Adolescence
You will use developmental theories and concepts to analyze your own developmental processes focusing on childhood and adolescence. Use a variety in your sentence structure and wording. You should not use direct quotes, but rather summarize and paraphrase insight from your sources. You will use your textbook and at least 3 other scholarly sources (no less than 4 sources total) to create your developmental analysis. Your paper must be at least 8 pages, including a title page, 6 pages in the body, and a reference page. Note: You may have up to 8 pages in the body of your paper.
Title Page – Use current APA format. https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/
Use these headings to organize your content:
Personal Introduction of Childhood – Adolescence
Provide a concise introduction to significant personal characteristics, family dynamics and support structures, and meaningful events or occurrences. This section must no more than 1 page.
Theoretical Perspectives of Development
Stage of Development According to Freud
Examine the portion of your textbook or outside references that detail(s) Freuds’ psychosexual stages of development. Explain how they are relevant to your own childhood and adolescent developmental processes. Identify specific concepts from the psychosexual stages and make relevant parallels to your own infancy and childhood developmental history. You may need to ask your parent(s) or family to help you identify any challenges related to this perspective. (Approx. one-half page).
Stage of Development According to Erikson
Examine the portion of your textbook or outside references that detail(s) Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development. Explain how these are relevant to your own childhood and adolescent developmental processes. You must identify specific stages, characteristics of those stages, and parallels to your own developmental processes. What challenges or strengths related to psychosocial development did you exhibit that either hindered or helped your progression through these developmental crises during childhood and adolescence? Use examples to illustrate application of these to your development history. (Approx. 1 page).
Stage of Development According to Piaget
Examine the portion of your textbook or outside references that detail(s) Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Explain how these stages are relevant to your own childhood and adolescent developmental processes. You must identify specific stages, characteristics of that stage and offer explanation and examples that parallel to your own developmental processes. (Approx. one-half page).
Nature versus Nurture
Examine the portion of your textbook or outside references that detail(s) elements of the nature versus nurture influences. This section of the paper must analyze how you have been impacted from a nature versus nurture standpoint in your childhood and adolescent developmental processes. Provide explanation and examples. (Aprox. one-half page).
Bowlby’s Attachment
Examine the portion of your textbook or outside references that detail(s) attachment theory. Explain the parallels between attachment theory and your childhood and adolescent experiences with a care provider. Specify a specific attachment style, characteristics of the style, and behavioral consequences and outcomes. Then, make relevant connections between the theoretical concepts and your own experiences. (Approx. 1 page).
Faith Development
Using Fowler’s Stages of Faith and Identity (found in the Module/Week 5 Reading & Study folder), explain how the stages are relevant to your own childhood and adolescent developmental processes. You must identify specific stages and demonstrate how they are relevant and applicable to your own development history. You may also extend your dialogue to integrate Christian principles and biblical themes as appropriate. (Approx. 1 page).
Challenges and Success
In this section mention any challenges or successes that you think were relevant to your development that have not been mentioned thus far in your paper. This may include people, places, events, and things that were meaningful and that you feel were significant to your childhood and adolescent development. (Approx. one-half page).
Reference Page
Provide a complete list of references in current APA format. At least 3 scholarly resources, in addition to your textbook, are required.
Writing Guidelines:
Your references can include peer-reviewed journal articles found in Liberty’s library or credible web resources; if you are not sure of the credibility of your web resource, please ask your instructor before using it. Provide appropriate in-text citations and references for any information you use in this paper. Write the paper using professional writing etiquette and consult the Liberty Writing Center if you have questions about grammar or format. Remember that all work must be your own and plagiarism is not tolerated. Be sure to review the plagiarism policy in your syllabus. Anything that is not common knowledge or is not an original thought must be cited or it is considered plagiarism. Citations should be rephrased into your own words. In-text citations must be in current APA format (Author, Year).
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Question 8: Science
If you were 25 pounds overweight, explain why you would or wouldn’t follow a weight-loss diet that supplied less than 15 percent of supplied less than calories from carbohydrate.
2.Consider the fiber content of your diet, Do you consume enough fiber
each day? If your fiber intake is adequate, what foods do you eat
regularly that contribute soluble and insoluble fiber to your diet? If
your fiber intake is low, list foods you would consume to increase your
intake of both types of fiber
Question 9: Science
Most of the sand on tropical islands is made up of what substance?
Question 10: Science
Write 100 words within the Discussion Board responding to the following questions. Create a substantive and clear post expressing your research, thoughts, and ideas:
Have you ever experienced living in a socialist or communist society?
If so, explain your experience.
If not, share how do you view or imagine a socialist or communist society? Would you want to live there? Why or why not?
Question 11: Computer Science
write 300 words why computers is still the best in terms of man labor
Question 12: Business Finance
Write a one page, approximately 275 words on the characteristics of a good Human Resource Information System.
Question 13: Mathematics
In your own words…
Explain the difference between the solution to a system of equations and the solutions to a system of inequalities?
Is it possible to have a solution to a system of inequalities when the lines corresponding to the inequalities are independent and parallel? Explain.
Question 14: Others
Submit an approx. 1000 (+/-100) word essay on what ethical/social responsibilities you think a computer professional should or should not have to follow. You may want to review some of the ethical codes from technical organizations (ISC2 or ACM, IEEE) to help you frame your response.
Question 15: Heath Care
Kindly make PowerPoint notes on neonatal jaundice
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Question 16: Biology
Huntington’s disease, an often fatal disease of the central nervous system, is inherited from a dominant allele. Furthermore, a person may not show symptoms of the disease until 30 – 50 years of age. Jack and Jill have been married for 40 years and have two children, Joe and Jane. Jack has recently been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. Assuming that Jane does not have the disease, determine the probability that one of the children will eventually have Huntington’s. What is the probability that both Joe and Jane will inherit the disease?
Explain how females with the chromosome constitution XXX are often fertile with normal intelligence and lead normal lives.
Question 17: Biology
Discuss the roles of prime movers, antagonists, synergists, and fixators in movement? (Chp 10) Describe the possible ways in which sympathetic preganglionic neurons may connect with postganglionic neurons? What organs, tissues, or structures are control only by the sympathetic nervous systemand not the parasympathetic nervous system? What are the various types of autonomic neurons and receptors?
Question 18: Accounting
Adjusting entries. You have been retained to examine the records of Mary’s Day Care Center as of December 31, 20X3, the close of the current reporting period. In the course of your examination, you discover the following: • On January 1, 20X3, the Supplies account had a balance of $1,350. During the year, $5,520 worth of supplies was purchased, and a balance of $1,620 remained unused on December 31. • Unrecorded interest owed to the center totaled $275 as of December 31. • All clients pay tuition in advance, and their payments are credited to the Unearned Tuition Revenue account. The account was credited for $65,500 on August 31. With the exception of $15,500 all amounts were for the current semester ending on December 31. • Depreciation on the school’s van was $3,000 for the year. • On August 1, the center began to pay rent in 6-month installments of $24,000. Mary wrote a check to the owner of the building and recorded the check in Prepaid Rent, a new account. • Two salaried employees earn $400 each for a 5-day week. The employees are paid every Friday, and December 31 falls on a Thursday. • Mary’s Day Care paid insurance premiums as follows, each time debiting Prepaid Insurance: Date Paid Policy No. Length of Policy Amount Feb. 1, 20X2 1033MCM19 1 year $540 Jan. 1, 20X3 7952789HP 1 year 912 Aug. 1, 20X3 XQ943675ST 2 years 840 Instructions The center’s accounts were last adjusted on December 31, 20X2. Prepare the adjusting entries necessary under the accrual basis of accounting. 5. Bank reconciliation and entries. The following information was taken from the accounting records of Palmetto Company for the month of January: Balance per bank $6,150 Balance per company records 3,580 Bank service charge for January 20 Deposits in transit 940 Interest on note collected by bank 100 Note collected by bank 1,000 NSF check returned by the bank with the bank statement 650 Outstanding checks 3,080 Instructions: a. Prepare Palmetto’s January bank reconciliation. b. Prepare any necessary journal entries for Palmetto.
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Question 19: Business Finance
Part 1
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use this Web site to determine the form(s) required to file income taxes for the following business entities:
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
S Corporation
Download the current form and instructions (you will refer to these in later assignments).
Use the instructions for each form to prepare a tax guide that you will use during tax season. The tax guide should have the following information for each business entity:
Tax form or schedule used to report the profit or loss from a business
When the tax form must be filed
Where the tax form must be filed based on the state
An IRS publication that will provide supplemental federal income tax information about the business entity
Part 2
Deliverable Length: 250–300 words
Use the following Web site to prepare a memo for your file regarding the new regulations for paid preparers for future reference:
Identify the ideal target market for Pepsi (bear in mind, current customer base, buyer behavior,
demographics, lifestyle, geographic area, benefit segmentation, and user segmentation.
– Provide a specific description of the target market, which should be measurable, accessible,
sustainable, differentiable, and actionable.
– Include the total marketing budget. This is when the cost of acquisition is not greater than 10%
of the product retail price or one month of an annual service.
– Estimate the size of the market and estimated penetration percentage
– Provide justification for your answers
Minimum 1100 words. MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE!!!
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Assume that there are two categories of goods: protein shakes and all other products.
Show using diagrams how a consumer’s demand curve for protein shakes can be derived from
an indifference map and a budget constraint diagram. Make sure you explain your answer in
detail.
Using a different set of diagram/s deconstruct the price effect into the substitution effect and
the income effect. Take note to define each effect.
Question 2
Assume the production of coal involves the generation of a negative externality.
Explain how the equilibrium level of output would be determined in the market for coal,
assuming no attempt is made to internalise the externality. Is that equilibrium efficient?
Use a diagram(s) as part of your explanation.
What is a Pigovian Tax? Explain how the imposition of a Pigovian Tax could alter the
equilibrium in this market. How does the tax impact on the efficiency of this market? Use
a diagram(s) as part of your answer. You are free to augment the diagram you used in (a)
in your answer to (b).
iii. What other solutions could be used to remedy this negative externality? You do not need
to describe these remedies in detail.
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Question 1: Other.
Read Chapters 35, 36 and skip over to 39
Answer the following questions
Following your interests and talents, you plan to start a small business after graduation. Compare the advantages and disadvantages of running a sole proprietorship with a small partnership or franchise. Which option seems best to you?
We read that writing a partnership agreement is not required but highly recommended. Two friends agree to partner cleaning offices at night as a startup business. What should be included in their partnership agreement to maintain profit and keep their friendship?
Describe the benefits and disadvantages of investing as a limited investor or in a Limited Liability Company. We read in Case 36.3 p 800 Moseley v Commercial State Bank how Mr. Mosely was held personally liable for debts to a company in which he was a general partner. How could he have better shielded his personal assets as an investor?
Carrie Burkle appealed a lower court decision that denied her claim to financial rewards from her partnership in an LLC set up by her art collecting father. She believed she was a 1 percent partner in the 8.5 million firm but found her father liquidated her shares and reclaimed her investment with interest! Her father’s contention was that Carrie’s investment shares were only a loan.
On what facts should Carrie’s appeal for a new trial be granted or denied?
What should be included in limited company operating agreements to prevent disputes between family members?
Consideration of taxes is an important factor in business organization. Compare how taxes are assessed in general partnerships, as a business filing under Subchapter S and as an LLC. Which provides the greatest advantage to the investor?
PART TWO
Case 36.2 p.794 Moren (for minor Remington) v Jax Restaurant
General partnerships are generally held to indemnify their agents. We read how Nichole Moren, who was a partner in the Jax Restaurant establishment, exposed her son to danger in the kitchen resulting in injury to the boy’s hand. The boy’s father sued the partnership for neglect although his own wife allowed the accident.
You be the judge:
How does the case illustrate the tort liability of partnerships when incurring unpaid debts or lawsuits for neglect?
Did Nichole and her husband have a greater obligation for trust and loyalty to the company in which Nicole was a general partner?
Question 2: Business
Introduction
Your goal in Assignment 2 is to identify two or three countries for further analysis.
In Module 2, you explored economic and socioeconomic, physical and environmental, socio-cultural, political, and legal forces and their influence on business. These are important forces to consider when expanding or establishing operations in a foreign country or investigating opportunities to target new markets in the global economy.
In Assignment 2, you will refer back to the learning activities you completed in Module 2, and use the lists and information you compiled in those activities to help you conduct research on the appropriate country/countries in which to establish your new business venture.
Instructions
Part A: Assessing Environmental Forces (30 marks)
Write a 4–6-page report (1,000 to 1,500 words, double-spaced) with the following:
Conduct a preliminary assessment of geographic, social-cultural, political, legal, and economic factors that create international business opportunities or constraints facing the product or service that you have identified for your new international business.
Using the information you have collected above, identify five countries that you believe are potential targets for location of your business venture and briefly defend your selections.
Part B: Applying the SMART Model (30 marks)
Apply the Simple Multiple-Attribute Rating Technique (SMART) model for the five countries that you have selected as potential locations for your new international business venture. This model requires you to determine key factors that will influence your decision, to assign values for each criteria for each country, and to compare them in a numerical matrix to indicate the “best fit” for your product or service.
Read the material in Appendix D: The SMART Model for Decision Making in Business.
Create a table and apply the SMART model. Select at least five important criteria that you identified in Part A of this assignment for the location of your international business venture. You should have a minimum of five criteria to apply the SMART model for each of the five to seven countries you identified.
Using the results of application of the SMART model and based on the above criteria, select two countries that you believe are good potential host countries for your international business and clearly explain why these countries have the best potential.
Part C: Selecting Two Countries for Review (25 marks)
Write a 1-page proposal (250 words, double-spaced) to:
Select two countries for review. Explain your rationale.
Note
At this time, you are required to select two countries that you believe are appropriate for the location of your international business venture. For the remainder of the assignments (and in your Final Project), you will investigate these countries as part of the research and analysis for your international business venture. You may identify additional countries but will earn no extra marks for investigating more than two countries. If you feel you cannot limit your selection to two countries, you may discuss this with your Open Learning Faculty Member. Bear in mind that one of these countries will become the focus of the in-depth country profile you develop for your Final Project.
Part D: Assessing the Opportunities and Challenges (15 marks)
Write a 2-page report (500 words, double-spaced) to:
Summarize the information gathered in this assignment as it relates to forces influencing global business; briefly highlight the opportunities, challenges, and constraints for the potential success of internationalizing your product or service as they relate to the environmental forces in these countries.
Question 3: Psychology
Instruction
Please take a look at the following topics below and choose one. Please conduct your research using the BARUCH LIBRARY DATABASE, being that it is a credible source. Please do not use other online platforms. Being that you are a CUNY student, you all have access to your library’s database. You can access it through the Baruch Website. Type in the keywords in the search engine and narrow done your search to only include research done in the past 10 years. Your research paper should be in APA format: 12pt Times New Roman Style font, double spaced, including a cover page, reference page, and references cited within the paper. Please be mindful that most information will be cited. If you did not coin a term or definition, it should be cited. Even if you are paraphrasing/ summarizing, the facts should be cited. There should be a minimum of 3-5 references and your paper should be 3-5 pages (not including the cover and reference page.) Please make sure to look up APA formatting. Your paper should also include a topic sentence, a minimum of 3 pieces of evidence, 2-3 supporting sentences minimum for each evidence, a paragraph on limitations and direction for future study. Topics to Choose from: 1. Are Personality Traits Stable? 2. Can Adult Attachment Styles Change? 3. Passionate Relationships Verse Companion Relationships, and Relationship Stability Outcomes 4. Methods to increase Self-Esteem 5. Methods to increase Self-Motivation
Question 4: Nursing
Title: Nursing!
Introduction, Thesis Statement, Three body paragraph, Conclusion, In total five paragraph.
Question 5: Nursing
How do you react when you experience headaches, indigestion and other symptoms? Do you quickly try to eliminate them with medications or do you first take time to understand the underlying causes so that you can prevent them in the future?
Question 6: Health Care
Nursing & Health-Care-Policy Analyze the history, structure, and process of health-care-policy and politics in nursing and the health care delivery systems in the United States.
Instruction
Work should be at least 600 words, formatted and cited in current APA style with support from at least 2 academic sources.
Question 7: Business
Include a cover page and 1-2 pages of reflection regarding ideas, concepts, or strategies that you have learned so far in this simulation that you would be able to transfer to a current or a future role. Be specific about how these items can help you as you progress in your career. In the Week 4 Journal, consider how the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats from Week 1 are now impacting the performance of the company. Also, consider how keeping track of the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats of the company that you work for can help you to improve your performance on an ongoing basis.
Question 8: Business Finance
Suppose you need $1 million dollars to start your Dream Business. Research ways to get the money for such a business. Compare two (2) sources of financing you might obtain. (e.g., Small Business Administration (SBA), private investors, private loans, personal assets, and / or personal credit cards.) Identify the risks and benefits of your two (2) choices.
Question 9: Business Finance
Why do we say money has time value?
Why is it important for business managers to be familiar with time value of money concepts?
Define Present Value.
Define Future Value.
What are present value and future value interest factors? (as in PVIF and FVIF)
(calculating future value) You buy a 6 year, 8% CD for $1,000. Interest is compounded annually. How much is it worth at maturity?
(calculating present value) What’s the present value of $1,000 to be received in 8 years? (Your required rate of return is 7% a year.)
(calculating the rate of return) A friend promises to pay you $600 two years from now if you loan him $500 today. What interest rate is your friend offering you?
(calculating the future value of an annuity) If you invest $100 a year for 20 years at 7% annual interest, how much will you have at the end of the 20th year?
(calculating the present value of an annuity) How much would you be willing to pay today for an investment that pays $800 a year at the end of the next 6 years? (Your required rate of return is 5% a year.
Explain how the CAPM assists in measuring both risk and return.
Explain how the CAPM assists in calculating the weighted average costs of capital (WACC) and its components.
Illustrate why some managers have difficulty applying the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) in financial decision making.
Identify the benefits and drawbacks of using the CAPM.
Develop a (300 word) answer supporting your position.
1B. Using the annual report from the company that you have selected for your Final Project, discuss the risks the company faces and the actions they take to mitigate those risks. Refer to the Management Discussion and Analysis section of the annual report for this information.
As part of your response consider whether you think the risk mitigation techniques are reasonable. Discuss what others concerns or advice you would offer if you had the opportunity.
Include in your post a calculation for the probability of one of the risks identified by your company. This information may not be available in the annual report, therefore you will likely need to conduct research and critical thinking to complete this calculation.
Develop a (300 word) explanation supporting your position.
2.This video introduces the concept of business risk and risk management. It notes that business risks can generally be classified into four categories: property, market, employee, and customer.
Using each of the four categories of risk, develop an analysis of how financial management techniques or policies can be used to mitigate each of the risks. To supplement your risk analysis, you must use at least one article for each of your risk mitigation techniques or policies from the Ashford University Library database.
Summarize your findings in a three- to five-page paper (excluding the title and reference pages) that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. Be sure to properly cite at least four scholarly sources using APA style.
APA guidelines, correct grammar and spelling, if needed use in text citation. Must be 750 words for all 3 question together. Must use reference and the book is Schmalleger, F., & Pittaro, M. (2009). Crimes of the Internet (1st ed.). Upper Saddle River, N.J.: Prentice Hall. Must used as a reference also. Make sure you number each question with their own reference, example question 1 and then references, and so on with the rest of the questions
Identity theft is one of the fastest growing crimes in the United States today, and its numbers do not appear to be diminishing. Simply defined, identity theft is committed by obtaining unique personal information and then using that information to impersonate one or more victims, in one or more locations, across a period spanning hours to years.In chapter 12, the author applies the lifestyle exposure theory to explain how one’s personal lifestyle can contribute to being the victim of identity theft.Describe the demographic information of victims of Internet Identity Theft using the Lifestyle Exposure theory. Explain how identity theft victims are emotionally harmed?
Business opportunities advertised as “Work at Home” schemes are one of the leading forms of Internet fraud. How is this online scam conducted and why, in your opinion, do you think this scam is so successful?
In Chapter 20, the author suggests that Internet crime has contributed to the decline in traditional “street crime” in part because the daily routines of people have shifted in that most business and personal communication are conducted from home or work. Do you agree or disagree? Explain.
Question 12: Communication
This is the Book that must be use for a reference and use other reference also. The assignment is 750-word count or more, correct English and grammar, in text citation if needed. No cover sheet. APA guidelines. Every part of the question must be answered. Cardon, P. (2013). Business Communication: Developing Leaders for a Networked World.
McGraw-Hill.
Assume you are planning to open an ice cream shop on campus. There are currently no ice cream shops within three miles of your campus. You are deciding between leasing space in the student center or opening a stand-alone shop on the outskirts of campus. You recently surveyed just over 400 university students to identify their preferences. The table on page 413 contains the results Write a marketing report that includes your survey objectives, methodology, findings, and conclusions. Also, provide your related marketing recommendations
What is your communicator style (senser, feeler, thinker, or intuitor)? What is your learning style (visual, auditory, or kinesthetic)? Why do you identify with these? Cite examples from the text.
For each of the following items, respond with one or two paragraphs.
Discuss how you can establish and build credibility before, during, and after your presentations.
B. Describe the importance of authenticity for presentations. Discuss how you can plan and rehearse for presentations and also maintain authenticity.
C. Discuss some strategies for overcoming nervousness and fear before and during presentations. Describe the three strategies you believe are most effective for you.
D. Explain the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication.
Compare chronological and functional resumes. What are the drawbacks of each? The benefits of each?
Select oneof the following interview questions and answer it using the STAR method:
A. Can you tell me about a challenge you overcame at work?
B. Can you give me an example of how you showed leadership at work? or
C. Can you tell me about one of your recent successes at work? You can substitute school experiences for work experiences if you’d like.
Question 13: Communication
Part 1
Everyone Has a Culture Some students think that they do not have much of a cultural background because they were not born outside of the United States or because they do not speak another language. The truth is that everyone has a culture! Prepare: As you prepare to write your discussion for this topic, take time to do the following:
Read the writing prompt below in its entirety. Note that there are three tasks.
Define culture and explain its importance in communication.
Describe your own culture.
Explain how your culture shapes how you communicate with others.
Review Chapter 3 of your text and identify at least one point about culture and communication to discuss in your post.
Develop a definition of culture and explain its importance in communication.
Review the grading rubric and note that 25% of your grade is based on your application of course material (Content/Subject Knowledge) and 25% is based on your ability to demonstrate you are thinking critically and presenting original ideas.
Reflect: Based on what you’ve learned in Chapter 3, think about key elements of your own culture and how it influences both the style and content of your communication. Think about how your culture shapes how you communicate with others, especially those who are from other cultures. Why is culture important in understanding effective communication? How can knowing about your own culture help you build bonds and/or bridge cultural divides? Write: Based on what you’ve learned in class this week:
Define culture and explain why it is important to understanding communication.
Take some time to write about your own culture and share with us what makes you who you are. Your culture can be related to your race, ethnicity, gender, age, nationality, religion, sexual orientation, hobbies, religion, etc. Try not to focus on just one of these aspects of yourself, but instead utilize as many cultural elements as possible.
How does your culture affect your communication with those in your own culture and those from other cultures?
Thoroughly respond to the discussion elements by writing at least one to two sentences on your definition and then two to three sentences on each of the remaining two elements. Use the course readings, with full APA citations, at least once to help you make your points. Consider copying and pasting all three tasks into a word file and addressing each of them separately.
Part 2
The “Self” and Communication
In Chapter 2 of your text, Bevan & Sole (2014) lay out many psychological concepts concerning the “self.” These key elements of human psychology are central to how we communicate with ourselves (intrapersonal communication) and others (interpersonal communication).Prepare: As you prepare to write your discussion for this topic, take a few moments to do the following:
Read the writing prompt below in its entirety. Note that there are four tasks to complete.
Define self-concept.
Define self-image.
Define self-esteem.
Reflect on how one of these has impacted your interpersonal communication.
Review Chapter 2 in your text.
Focus on the segments of the book on self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem.
Review the grading rubric and note that 25% of your grade is based on your application of course material (Content/Subject Knowledge) and 25% is based on your ability to demonstrate you are thinking critically and presenting original ideas.
Reflect: Take time to reflect on how your self-concept, self-image, or self-esteem have affected the way you communicate with others and, perhaps, how you believe others respond to you. Write: Based on the information in Chapter 2:
Define self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem. Write at least two sentences on each term.
Provide an example of how your “self-concept,” “self-image,” or “self-esteem” has affected your interpersonal communication.
Use specific examples to illustrate your point.
Use the text to support your points about the relationship between psychology and communication and for your definitions of the three key terms.
Thoroughly address all four elements of this prompt. Consider copying and pasting these tasks into a word file and addressing each of them separately.
Question 14: Political Science
Please answer the following ten questions using only your text and lecture notes as sources. Cite your answers, and be specific in your examples. Use your own word for all the answers
Define the term “politics”.
Explain your understanding of the term “office politics” and why it is important to acknowledge its existence. This is covered in the lecture notes.
Define “federalism”. Give an example of something in your wallet that comes from the federal, state and special district levels of government.
Define the terms “block grant” and “matching grant”. What is the difference between them?
Explain the Ninth (IX) Amendment. Who benefits from it?
What are the “checks and balances” indicated in the Constitution? List and explain at least two.
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
Define “direct democracy”. Do we practice this in California? If so, explain how we implement this.
What are “collective goods”? Explain the concept and illustrate it with an example.
Question 15: Political Science
Explain why Article II of the Constitution is so vague as to the specific duties of the President?
Explain the Supreme Court decision in District of Columbia vs. Heller. Which amendment is affected by this decision? Does this decision apply to the states?
Question 16: Political Science
Explain the “right of privacy” listing the amendments involved, and what specific issues caused this right to be developed. Explain one of these cases.
Explain why Miranda rights are important. Which amendments are comprise the Miranda Rights?
Name and explain the types of committees used in the Congress of the United States.
One of the President’s special powers is the use of the Executive Order. What is an executive Order, why is it used, and is an Executive order legal? Is this found in the Constitution?
What is the Pendleton Act of 1883? What does it do, and why is it important? Is it still in effect?
What are the reasons that case would be considered for the Supreme Court? List and explain two (2) reasons why a case is considered for a hearing before the Supreme Court.
What is public opinion? What are its uses in politics?
What is a political party? What is its purpose? Did Madison like the idea of political parties (See Federalist No. 10)? What is Madison’s view of “factions”?
What is the relationship between Congress and the two major political parties?
Explain the use of independent regulatory commissions. List and explain one such commission- what does it do, why is it independent, what does it regulate.
Please answer these questions concisely in a short answer format.
Question 17: Political Science
Provide a brief discussion on your Founding Father’s position on the electoral college and its place in the presidential election process.
What was your state delegate’s view on the Supremacy Clause?
What your Founding Father a crusader for or against slavery? What was his reason for his position?
Question 18: History
what are you views of Machiavelli’s theory on political leadership?
Question 19: Environmental science
Climate change is one of the most serious environmental issues facing society. It is discussed throughout our entire textbook, within this week’s class discussion, and is defined as a very controversial topic. For this week’s individual work, write a 1-2 page paper (counting body text only, not title or reference pages) in double-spaced, one-inch margins on all sides. Complete the following:
Defend both sides of this debate. Give at least three scientifically sound pieces of evidence that support the idea that humans are causing global climate change and three that support the scientists who claim we are in a usual cycle, not perpetuated by human activity.
Include at least one full page of text to the body of your essay.
Include one-inch margins on all sides.
Include a reference list at the end of your essay. That includes all websites, journals, articles, etc., you used.
Please make sure you have not copied and pasted any information directly from any source; that is considered plagiarism. There is no need to copy, or quote, anyone for this assignment. It is to be a written summary reflecting your own thoughts of your reading and research on this topic. However, you should include in your reference list the source of your reading and research.
Question 20: Environmental Science
What is natural gas and how does it differ from other fossil fuel?
What is the purpose of hydraulic fracturing or fracking?
List at least three pros of fracking.
List at least three cons of fracking.
Considering the pros and cons of fracking, do you think that fracking should be legal in your state? Explain why.
What are sinkholes and how do they occur?
What do you think happens to the water supply in an area where fracking occurs?
Hydraulic fracturing is believed to be the cause of earthquakes in different areas of the United States. Do you agree with this statement after reviewing the information presented? You should use the Internet as well in helping form your opinion. Please use reference(s) to support your argument.
On the website above, find where the nearest well is to your home and give the pertinent details of the well. You can find this information by going to “Find a Well” on the homepage of the website. If there isn’t a well in your county, find one in your state.
Requirements:Please make sure all of your assignments:
Are written in paragraph form.
Are double-spaced.
Use 12 point, Times New Roman font.
Include title & reference pages.
Include at least one full page of text to the body of your essay.
Include one-inch margins on all sides.
Include a reference list at the end of your essay. That includes all websites, journals, articles, etc., you used.
Please make sure you have not copied and pasted any information directly from any source; that is considered plagiarism. There is no need to copy, or quote, anyone for this assignment. It is to be a written summary reflecting your own thoughts of your reading and research on this topic. However, you should include in your reference list the source of your reading and research
Question 21: Environmental Science
Illustrate how you change form/state of matter as you complete this cycle and enter the bodies of living organisms. Wherever you start your journey is where you should also end. Apply the following processes to your essay: evaporation and transpiration, precipitation, infiltration, runoff, and condensation. This essay is required to be scientifically accurate. You can read more about the water and the water cycle in Chapter 10.
Question 22: Environmental Science
Must have a minimum of 1100 words and 3 references
Describe the primary differences between subsistence, capitalistic, and centrally planned economies. Explain how capitalistic and centrally planned economic societies tend to have greater effects on the environment than subsistence economies.
Define renewable and nonrenewable resources in your own words. Give two examples of each in your answer.
3.Describe the main differences between a cap and trade approach, and a carbon tax as methods to decrease industrial emissions of carbon dioxide.
4.List the seven steps of the environmental policy process in order. Among the steps, where would you put most efforts to establish new policy? Why?
How do birth rates and death rates affect population dynamics specifically? When do you see stable populations with regard to birth and death rates? What about growing and shrinking populations?
Use your own words to describe an age-class diagram. What can you predict about the future for a population that has a triangular shaped age-class diagram?
7.Explain how poverty affects the environment.
8.Describe the role of women’s rights in population growth.
Question 23: Computer Science
General knowledge suggests that pseudocode or flowcharts can include clear and obvious logic errors. Give your opinion as to whether you believe it is worth time and effort to include possible logic errors that may arise during the development of an application or whether the focus should be on the end result of the application. Provide at least one (1) situation or scenario to support your position.
Suppose you work as a programmer and need to create a shopping Website for an online store. Your coworkers are convinced that developing pseudocode or a flowchart before developing software is extremely unnecessary and a waste of time. Determine whether you agree or disagree with your coworkers, and provide support for your rationale. Provide an example to which your hypothetical coworkers could relate in supporting your position.
Question 24: Business management
assignment 1
You have just been promoted from front-line supervisor to be one of the firm’s senior managers. During your business education, you learned that the primary role of a manager is to make good decisions. As a supervisor, you had frequently been making routine decisions, but you realize that decision making for the overall company can and will have far greater impact on the company and its employees.
Your boss, the chief executive officer (CEO), realizes that you do not have much practice in this higher level, decision-making process and has asked you to write a memo describing your understanding of how to make important decisions.
Your memo should address the following questions:
Describe at least 3 criteria that would determine whether the manager is making good decisions. What should be done to better assure that you are making a good decision?
In the realm of decision making, what are assumptions? Rather than use a dictionary definition, cite several specific assumptions that would go with any real-life decision you have made or have seen made at a company at which you have worked. Given the importance of proper assumptions, your boss asked you
to assess the accuracy of certain business assumptions and what could
you do to test or confirm the credibility of them. The following were
major assumptions for each firm:
An automobile manufacturer’s assumption that the demand for SUVs would continue because gas prices would continue to rise An airline’s assumption that there was a need for an airline that provided no added amenities
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Assignment 2
Using your current work organization (or an organization of interest) and a second organization in the same industry as the subject matter, research the elements of business, compare and contrast the two selected organizations, and prepare an APA formatted paper that:
Analyzes the basic legal, social, and economic environment in which the organizations operate
Analyzes the managerial, operational, and financial issues impacting the organizations including:
Company Culture and Performance
Promotion Policies
Strategic Decisions Making
Decision-Making Style
Management Style
Leadership Style
Communication Style
Use of SWOT Tool
Operations Strategy Framework
Assesses how the overall management teams perform in terms of the four functions of management.
Identifies and explains the strong points of the managers.
Identifies and explains areas in which improvements are needed.
Be sure to use a minimum of 5 external sources to support your analysis.
Title page: Remember the running head and title in all capital letters.
Abstract: This is a summary of your paper, not an introduction. Begin writing in third-person voice.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page, and it must be double-spaced between paragraphs. The typeface should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 3–4 pages. In-text academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-text academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lower-case usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the reference page is not a bibliography, but it is a further listing of the abbreviated in-text citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-text citation.
Question 25: Business Management
What is Path-goal theory?
What is “Art” and :Science” of Leadership?
What do you know about “five basis of power”?
As a leader, what does empowerment mean to you?
What power does a leader have in leadership?
Who is a transformational leader?
What is Relational Leadership Theory?
8. How do you manage for collective creativity?
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Question 26: Business management
In Part A, each response must be written as an academic paragraph of at least 150 words. Be clear and concise, and explain your answers. If you cite any sources, use APA format. For Part B, answer each statement with a specific example and explanation in a couple of sentences.
Part A
1.What are mass media
2.What are the different types of Mass Media
3.Why are the mass media important
4.What are the most significant issues and trends in the Mass Media today
Part B
1.Provide an example of when your opinion, attitude, or activity was directly affected by a book, magazine, or newspaper
2.Provide an example of when your opinion, attitude, or activity was directly affected by movie
3.Provide an example of when your opinion, attitude, or activity was directly affected by a television program
4.Provide an example of when your opinion, attitude, or activity was directly affected by a radio program
5.Provide an example of when your opinion, attitude, or activity was directly affected by something you assessed on the internet
Question 27: Psychology
Some people use others to commit their crimes, all the while pretending to be law-abiding citizens or untouchable by law enforcement. We see them at all levels of societies: political leaders like Adolph Hitler, who order ethnic cleansing, and those like Charles Manson, who use others to perform nefarious deeds for them. Should these persons be held to a different standard than those who willingly carried out the crimes? Should crimes against women and/or children be considered more serious than crimes against men? The last crime to be added to the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR) by the Department of Justice was arson. Are there other crimes that you would add to the UCR? Why? In this Discussion, you are asked to examine criminal behavior in terms of its depravity. Which crimes appear to be the most serious? Is shooting someone less depraved than stabbing and beating a person to death? Why? Do you believe that punishments should fit the crimes committed?
Instruction
APA. Few paragraphs Post by Day 3 a response to the following: In what ways have the types of crimes evolved? Should sentencing of offenders be based on the relative depravity of their crime? What are potential problems in collecting and/or incorporating such findings in sentencing laws?
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Question 28: Science
Choose a current issue/trend topic from the following list: 1. Collective bargaining 2. The impaired nurse 3. The global nurse workforce 4. Mentoring and coaching in nursing 5. The trim odal model of 21st-century effective nurse leaders 6. Other instructor-approved topic Create a 6- to 8-page paper in APA format including a minimum of 4 to 5 references. Explain how you would lobby your legislators or local government for funds to support your issue or trend. Include the following elements in your paper: share why you chose the specific topic, the current relevance of material, how it is integrated into clinical practice, and how the information is used in clinical setting.
Question 29: Sociology
According to the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF), over one billion people in the world today are caught in the poverty trap. Identify key economic, social, or political reasons why some people within the developing world live on $1 a day. Next, determine at least three (3) possible economic, social, or political steps that developing countries overall can take to extricate their poor citizens from this dilemma.
Question 30: Business
1.What is the basic difference between absorption costing and variable costing?
2.Explain how fixed manufacturing overhead costs are shifted from one period to another under absorption costing.
3.If the units produced exceed unit sales, which method would you expect to show the higher net operating income, variable costing or absorption costing? Why?
4.Distinguish between a traceable cost and a common cost. Give two examples of each.
100 words each
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Q1. Workforce Planning
Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.
Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.
Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:
specific job skills and competencies
employee qualifications
the breadth of training offered and available
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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document
Q2. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:
How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.
Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS
Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)
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This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.
Instructions
Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.
Write an Introduction describing your topic.
Write the Statement of the Problem section.
Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
Describe your method of sampling.
Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?
Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.
Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes
Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.
Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q12. Wk 2 Discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q13. Original Work Only
Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
Industry and Market Feasibility
Product or Service Feasibility
Financial Feasibility
Entrepreneurial Readiness
Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?
Q14. Discussion question
Respond to thefollowing in a minimum of 175 words each:
What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q16.Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse
Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.
Important Concepts from Chapter 3:
Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.
Assignment:
Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.
Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?
Q17.Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.
Q18.The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem
Details:
The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.
Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.
Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.
Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.
The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).
Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.
Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.
Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:
Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.
To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.
Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q20.week 5 Starbucks
Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.
Organization (Starbucks)
Assess the organization’s current status:
o Leadership
o Board members
o Structure
o Number of employees
Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.
Q21.role of sport in education
role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
Q22.Strategic Choice and Evaluation
Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…
What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources
Q24.Mini-Strategy Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations(Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.
Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
Q26.MGT 279 Assignment 4
In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?
Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.
Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.
Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:
What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Q28.New hire for job position
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
Q29.Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
Hi,
I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization” So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process
Course textbook:
Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice(4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.
Q30.For Contemporary Decision Making.
Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.
Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?
Provide an example of empirical probability ?
BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;
Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.
ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions
When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)
Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.
Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,
Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end
Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
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Question 2
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According to the excerpt, __________.
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.
Question 3
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In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
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.
Question 4
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Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
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Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
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Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
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Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points
Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
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Question 10
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According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
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Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points
Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
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Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
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Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
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Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which is not one of the Three Unities?
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Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
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Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
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Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
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Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points
The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
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Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
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Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
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Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
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Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
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Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
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Question 24
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A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
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Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek play began with the parados.
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Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
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Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
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Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
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Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
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Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
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Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
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Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
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Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
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The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
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Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
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Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
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Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
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Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dionysus was the god of dance.
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Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
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Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
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Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
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Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points
According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
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Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
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Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
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Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
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.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
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Question 48
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Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
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Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
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Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
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Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.
Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab
Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****
Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
Assignment
In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.
Proposal Argument Prompt
Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
As you compose your essay, be sure to:
• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.
IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Q7. Thinking Critically 1
For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.
Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.
Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE
ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument
In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.
Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)
Ethical Essay Prompt
Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
Instructions
After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”
When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.
Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.
Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.
Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself
Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.
Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.
Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)
Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.
HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200
Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.
Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)
RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1
• Question 1
This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2
When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3
Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4
When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5
Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7
Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8
When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9
The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10
According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11
Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12
In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13
Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14
A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15
According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16
Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17
One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18
According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19
When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20
According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.
Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5
According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.
1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?
2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?
3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?
4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?
5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?
6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?
7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?
8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was
Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as
Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.
Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.
Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.
1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.
1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?
1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was
2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find
3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:
4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.
5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.
6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because
7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.
9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.
10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?
11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?
Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?
Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University
1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by
2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because
3.
Hidalgos were
4.
Convertible husbandry
5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT
6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by
7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by
8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when
9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was
10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of
11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by
12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of
13.
Francisco Pizarro was
14.
The European traffic in African slaves
15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from
16.
Enclosure was the process by which
17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it
18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain
19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period
20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that
Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University
1.
With respect to religiosity and women
2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that
3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526
4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as
5.
Catherine de’ Medici
6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT
7.
The Council of Trent met to
8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT
9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a
10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli
11.
The millenarians believed that
12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by
13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that
14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because
15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to
16.
The Huguenots
17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation
18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists
19.
The Jesuits were a
20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by
Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were
2.
In the Late Middle Ages
3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when
4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)
5.
Unam Santa (1302)
6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua
7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when
8.
The Conciliar Movement
9.
The Lollards were
10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to
11.
Feudal traditions
12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because
13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?
14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT
15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France
16.
The Great Schism came to an end
17.
Wycliffe and Hus
18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason
19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that
20.
Which of the following events occurred last?
Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?
1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that
2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at
3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?
4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:
5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?
6. The Crusades were
7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except
8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire
9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the
GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.
•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.
Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.
Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.
Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.
Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points
This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm
Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.
Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.
Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.
Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?
Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.
Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System
Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic
URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
ART
Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review
For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.
Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?
Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.
Our Case Study:
The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.
Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.
Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:
Classic Interpretations:
For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:
Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?
Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.
Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report
This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?
Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.
• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?
Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)
Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.
Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned
Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.
Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?
Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics
Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.
Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.
ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).
Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.
***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)
Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.
Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)
Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries
Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.
Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4
Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)
Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )
Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)
FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity
Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.
Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:
Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?
Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:
1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:
• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:
• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?
Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics
Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.
Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.
Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.
Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers
Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?
Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.
book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.
citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal
Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?
Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust
Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50
Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.
Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA
Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?
How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?
LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 5
1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.
with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.
Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma
Warp
Ship
Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense
back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:
2
5
3
none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.
They are all velar
They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar
They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.
rounded
tense
high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:
voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.
voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.
none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.
True
False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.
True
False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?
Voiceless velar oral stop
Voiceless velar nasal stop
Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.
True
False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?
Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.
None of these are false.
There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.
In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.
True
False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?
none of these answers
China
Cute
Bamboo
Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:
An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.
A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.
None of these answers.
The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers
alveolar
approximant
lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.
The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.
None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.
The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.
True
False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.
True
False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?
None of these answers.
The nasal system.
The vocal tract system.
The respiratory system.
The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:
none of these answers.
/θ/
/ð/
/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.
An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.
how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.
the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:
the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.
none of these answers
fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.
True
False
Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form
Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.
If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at
Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…
PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE
, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.
Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals
Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity
Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed
Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo
The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.
Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s
Double Indmnity market scene
50:20
LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s
Kiss me deadly beach scene
Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies
Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.
PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.
Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.
Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median
Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine
8
10
5
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS
Less likely to support No change More likely to support
25
12
9
7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30
1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers
Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers
Result A+
Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers
Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.
ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account
Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.
Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.
a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))
Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity
b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI
Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.
Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?
Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do
Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?
Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.
Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.
Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.
EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
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contains 50 Questions
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result
Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?
Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work
CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points
This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.
Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.
Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.
REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.
Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed
This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional
social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.
Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau
2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18
Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+
BIBL 104 – Quiz 7
• Question 1
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
• Question 2
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
• Question 3
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
• Question 4
In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.
• Question 5
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
• Question 6
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
• Question 7
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
• Question 8
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
• Question 9
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
• Question 10
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
• Question 11
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
• Question 12
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
• Question 13
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
• Question 14
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
• Question 15
2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
• Question 16
In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”
• Question 17
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
• Question 18
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
• Question 19
Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.
• Question 20
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
• Question 21
In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.
• Question 22
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
• Question 23
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
• Question 24
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
• Question 25
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
• Question 26
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
• Question 27
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
• Question 28
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
• Question 29
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
• Question 30
1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.
• Question 31
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
• Question 32
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
• Question 33
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
• Question 34
In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.
• Question 35
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
• Question 36
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.
• Question 37
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
• Question 38
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
• Question 39
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
• Question 40
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
• Question 41
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
• Question 42
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
• Question 43
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
• Question 44
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
• Question 45
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
• Question 46
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
• Question 47
Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.
• Question 48
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
• Question 49
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
• Question 50
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than
one large church.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by
Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual
building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 22
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 26
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Question 27
0 out of 1 points
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
Question 28
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.
Question 29
0 out of 1 points
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by
having the young man circumcised.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
Question 33
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Question 37
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise
of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.
Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim
belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Question 46
0 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Question 47
0 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 49
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in
the flesh.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He
then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that
we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first
generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when
He hung on the cross.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he
reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.
Question 44
0 out of 1 points
_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly
arrangement of the local church.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days
____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff
____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium
____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain
____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease
____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone
____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics
____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness
____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe
____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home
____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam
____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships
____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one
____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support
____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea
____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia
Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
• Question 23
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
• Question 26
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
• Question 41
0 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Question 6
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
Question 7
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Question 17
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Question 20
0 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Question 42
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT
GENDER STUDIES.
Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.
Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.
Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below
THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.
View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
Q5. Discussion Board Forum:
pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below
DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.
Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.
Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.
Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.
Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.
Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA
Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse
Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient
CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)
1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?
Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.
HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
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Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
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At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
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An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
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Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
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A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
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When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
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An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who
Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?
Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.
____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement
____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.
____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory
____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease
____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin
____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement
____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.
____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria
____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).
____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis
____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)
____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease
____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation
____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease
____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.
____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta
____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.
____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.
____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)
____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.
____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.
____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells
____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave
____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4
____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal
____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute
____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate
____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node
____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.
____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention
____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.
____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.
____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation
____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis
____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.
____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.
____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin
____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.
____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance
____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule
____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.
____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.
____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.
____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure
____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air
____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.
____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure
____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis
____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation
____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)
____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)
____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)
____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25
____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal
____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30
____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.
____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)
____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.
____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis
____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory
____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic
____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated
____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic
____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion
____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease
____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency
____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.
____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation
____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure
____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.
____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload
Matching
Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity
____ 198. Proto-oncogene
____ 199. Pleomorphic
____ 200. Anaplasia
____ 201. Caretaker gene
____ 202. Autocrine stimulation
Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent
____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins
____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle
____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction
____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles
____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole
Match th
Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]
Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1
Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive
Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer
Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.
Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support
Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in
Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few
Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)
NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –
Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy
____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners
____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing
____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level
Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney
____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin
____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues
____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects
____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues
____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range
____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range
____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long
____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action
____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists
____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow
____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed
____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual
____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.
____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.
____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion
____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above
____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins
____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above
____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive
____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs
____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time
____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor
____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug
____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”
____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration
____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose
____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.
____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally
____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration
____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response
Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form
____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug
____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders
____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment
____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy
____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above
____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated
____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English
____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective
____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration
____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.
Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings
____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure
____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity
____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin
____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state
____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed
____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above
____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them
____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy
____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above
Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male
____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution
____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function
____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D
____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen
____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E
____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response
____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F
____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer
____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication
____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants
____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G
____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives
____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction
____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F
Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices
____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations
____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds
____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders
____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting
____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.
____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.
____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above
____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms
____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.
____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance
____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence
____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above
Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption
____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities
____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization
____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care
____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction
____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy
____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States
Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers
____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism
____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin
____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine
____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic
____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug
____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify
Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University
An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:
A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure
Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?
A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:
A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
The DEA:
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:
A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:
A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI
The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:
A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:
A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:
A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?
A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:
A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes
First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium
Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:
A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:
A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:
A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker
Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:
A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:
A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Infants with reflux are initially treated with:
A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:
A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:
A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:
A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:
A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:
A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?
A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:
A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:
A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:
A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.
A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
Off-Label prescribing is:
A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
One goal of asthma management in children is:
A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:
A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation
A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.
A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:
A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:
A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A. True
B. False
B. False
A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:
A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:
A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:
A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis
Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:
A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:
A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:
A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:
A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
Sitagliptin has been approved for:
A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):
A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:
A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?
A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:
A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:
A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine
The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.
A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days
A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E
The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:
A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?
A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin
What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:
A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:
A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.
A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?
A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:
A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?
A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker
Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?
A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.
Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?
A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?
A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?
A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
A woman who has migraine with aura:
A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:
A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
…
Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…
LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948
article title
volume and issue information
journal title
author
Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?
paraphrase
hanging quote
direct quote
Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.
Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score
Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%
Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%
PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions
Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:
Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules
Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms
Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.
Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)
Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:
1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.
Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:
1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?
b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.
Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.
In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.
In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.
In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.
While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.
A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.
Questions to Consider
1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?
2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?
3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.
4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.
Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59
Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.
RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:
Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:
Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5
42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:
Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:
Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
CHEMISTRY.
Q1. Citric Acid Cycle
Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2
According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?
Solvent
Precipitate
Base
Acid
Salt
According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?
A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
A substance that has an H in its formula.
An electron pair donor.
An electron pair acceptor.
Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?
H2O()
NH4+ion
Cl–ion
HNO3(aq)
H2PO4–(aq)
Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
HCO3–(aq)
HOH()
NH3(g)
CO32–(aq)
CH3OH()
Consider the following generalized reaction.
For this reaction, which of the following is correct?
A is proton source.
B is a proton remover.
A is an electron pair donor.
B is an electron pair acceptor.
This a Lewis acid-base reaction.
Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
OH–
HPO42–
HCl
NH4+
Fe3+
Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?
H3PO4 / HPO42-
H2O / OH–
HBr / Br–
NO3– / HNO3
HClO2 / ClO2–
Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.
CH3CO2H / CH3CO2–
H3O+ / H2O
HSO4– / SO42-
H3PO4 / HPO42-
None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.
Which one of the following is a strong acid?
nitric acid, HNO3
phosphoric acid, H3PO4
hypobromous acid, HOBr
bromic acid, HBrO3
carbonic acid, H2CO3
Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3– < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?
CO32–< NO3–< Br–
Br–< CO32–< NO3–
NO3–< Br–< CO32–
Br–< NO3–< CO32–
CO32–< Br–< NO3–
Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?
HNO2+ HS–H2NO2+ + S2–
HNO2+ HS–NO2– + H2S
HNO2+ HSO4–H2NO2+ + SO42–
HNO2+ HSO4–NO2– + H2SO4
HNO3+ HSO4–NO3– + H2SO4
Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4– and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4–.)
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4– + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–
Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?
2 HClO42 ClO4– + H2
HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4–
HClO4 + OH– H2O + ClO4–
3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4–
HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH–
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.
The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH–] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH–] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH–] > [H+] is acidic.
i and ii
iii and iv
ii, iii, and iv
All statements are correct.
All statements are incorrect.
At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is
4.384
7.000
3.804
4.484
None of these choices are correct.
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?
2.7 × 10-6M
6.0 × 10-5M
5.6 × 10-3M
2.1 × 10–4M
2.5 × 10-4M
What is the [ OH– ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?
1.41×10-4 M
0.213 M
1.41×10-5 M
7.08×10-10 M
7.08×10-11 M
Which of the following is true for a basic solution?
[ H+ ] < [ OH– ]
Kw = [ H+ ]
[ OH– ] = [ H+ ]
[ H+ ][ OH– ] = 1
[ OH– ] < [ H+ ]
What is the pH of a solution when [OH–] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?
12.70
7.00
13.70
0.30
1.30
What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?
4.27×106
2.34×10-7
4.27×10-8
2.34×107
Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?
Producing a solution with a pH less than 7
Tasting sour
Producing hydrogen ions in solution
Turning red litmus blue
If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.
basic
amphoteric
neutral
acidic
The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH–].
[OH–] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
[OH–] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
[OH–] = 5.33 molar
A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?
13.50
13.19
11.74
0.81
0.31
The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.
HNO3(aq) + CN–(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3–(aq)
HCN(aq) + OH–(aq) H2O(l) + CN–(aq)
H2O(l) + CH3CH2O–(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH–(aq)
Identify the strongest base.
CH3CH2O–
NO3–
CN–
CH3CH2OH
H2O
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?
7.4 × 10-6M
1.7 × 10-4M
2.1 × 10–4M
6.9 × 10-4M
1.5 × 10-2M
As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that
the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.
the water has a lower [OH–] than cooler water.
the Kw value is decreasing.
the water is no longer neutral.
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).
11.94
2.06
5.97
3.15
8.03
At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is
3.727
7.000
4.307
4.407
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.
3.0*10^-14 M
7.0*10^-13 M
1.0*10^-7 M
3.4*10^-15 M
3.0*10^14 M
Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions
Chapter 16
Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.
Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?
KBr – solute and water – solvent.
Saturated solution.
Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
A heterogeneous mixture.
All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.
2.
Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?
heterogeneous mixture
variable composition
constant properties
dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
exist only in the liquid and gas state
3.
A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.
unsaturated
oversaturated
dilute
supersaturated
concentrated
4.
Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?
concentrated
supersaturated
unsaturated
static
saturated
5.
Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?
CH4
NaCl
Mg3(PO4)2
CH2Cl2
O2
6.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.
7.
“Like dissolves like” essentially means:
Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.
Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.
Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.
Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.
8.
In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.
solute, solution
solvent, solute
solute, solvent
solution, solute
9.
dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.
The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.
10.
When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …
the solution separates into layers.
dissolving and crystallization stop.
the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
the concentration of the solution remains constant.
the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.
Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–OH
CH3–OH
I < III < IV < II
I < II < IV < III
III < IV < II < I
I < II < III < IV
None of these is correct.
13.
The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.
cyclohexane
benzene
It is logical to expect that these liquids are…
miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
immiscible because both molecules have ring structures
14.
Consider the graph shown below.
Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?
A
B
C
D
E
15.
To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?
Mass of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and volume of solution
Mass of solute and volume of solution
16.
Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.
2.66%
16.7%
1.77%
83.3%
None of these choices are correct.
17.
If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?
11.6 M
1.16×10-2M
7.09×10-2M
25.1 M
0.114 M
18.
What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?
6.7×10-2 M
0.80 M
0.60 M
0.20 M
0.40 M
19.
What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?
mass fraction of solvent
molarity of solute
mole fraction of solvent
molality of solvent
mole fraction of solute
20.
75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?
1.70 M
1.45 M
0.0581 M
0.0430 M
0.0367 M
21.
What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?
0.531 L
1.06 L
2.12 L
0.0474 L
0.0237 L
22.
Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.
45.0 mL
7.01 mL
21.0 mL
63.1 mL
15.0 mL
23.
Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?
0.5189 M
0.2590 M
1.732 M
3.861 M
3.275 M
24.
The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.
1.16 M
3.47 M
0.110 M
0.386 M
0.329 M
25.
A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.
0.105 M
1.05 M
22.8 M
0.0439 M
0.237 M
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
h
3
1
2
5
4
Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?
(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.
2 and 3
1 and 2
3 only
2 only
1 only
The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.
True
False
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
1.
Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:
equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.
2.
Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?
3.
What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?
Fusion
Freezing
Condensation
Sublimation
Evaporation
4.
Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?
vapor pressure
boiling point
heat of vaporization
density
viscosity
5.
Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.
CH3CHO, SO2, H2O
SO2, CH3CHO, H2O
H2O, SO2, CH3CHO
H2O, CH3CHO, SO2
CH3CHO, H2O, SO2
6.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
All statements are correct.
7.
The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…
Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
Attractive forces between molecules are significant
Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character
8.
Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.
9.
The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?
10.
The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is
11.
Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?
CH4
I2
SiH4
SO2
O2
12.
Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.
The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.
13.
Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?
HF
NH3
CH4
H2O
all the same
14.
The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:
SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C
The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:
dipole-dipole attraction.
hydrogen bonding.
metallic bonding.
London dispersion forces.
ionic bonding.
15.
Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?
NaCl(l)
N2(s)
HF(l)
H2O(l)
K(s)
16.
Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.
Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.
17.
There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.
the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.
18.
What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?
It would decrease.
It would double.
It would become half its value.
It would increase.
Two of these choices are correct.
19.
Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:
Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
All statements are correct.
20.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
21.
Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?
Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.
Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.
Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.
Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl– in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.
22.
Why does ice float on liquid water?
It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.
23.
In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?
vaporization
sublimation
melting
crystallization
None of these choices are correct.
24.
Which of the following statements is correct?
There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.
25.
Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?
White phosphorus
Calcium fluoride
Sulfur hexafluoride
Carbon dioxide
Silver
26.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?
NH3
MgCl2
Cl2
H2S
CH4
27.
The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?
89 kJ
39 kJ
2.7 kJ
2.6 kJ
1.6 kJ
28.
Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.
1.09 × 10–5J/g
3.23 × 10–3J/g
3.10 × 102J/g
9.17 × 104J/g
3.10 × 105J/g
29.
Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
-81.4 kJ/mol
30.7 kJ/mol
9.73*10^3 kJ/mol
2.24*10^4 kJ/mol
22.4 kJ/mol
30.
Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.
0.88 J/g · °C
1.1 J/g · °C
5.8 × 103J/g · °C
1.3 × 104J/g · °C
8.8 × 107J/g · °C
31.
The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.
Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist
(i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3
What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.
2.3 kJ
7.4 kJ
61 kJ
71 kJ
9.8 × 103kJ
A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?
6.6 atm
With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
226 torr
680 torr
760 torr
505 torr
255 torr
Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.
The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.
Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.
The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.
1.1 kJ
1.4 kJ
9.4 kJ
10.8 kJ
11.8 kJ
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
543 torr
669 torr
266 torr
217 torr
760 torr
Q5. i a need diagrams
Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.
Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te
Non-Profit Organizations
Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)
1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
—Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.
Q7. One argument in the debate surround
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs
Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs
Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.
Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.
Q8. Stoichiometry Answer
8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?
Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
Q10. Assess the value of branding in health
Module 3 – Case
Branding & Online Marketing
Case Assignment
Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?
Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.
COMMUNICATIONS.
Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q2. technical commumications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation
Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)
Grading Rubric
Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.
This is the end of Assignment 8.
Q3. EN 360 technical communications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q4COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
Question 1
40 out of 40 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.
According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.
The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.
The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.
The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.
Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.
Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.
Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
The background noise we encounter in communication situations.
The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.
For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?
Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.
A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.
Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A
Question 1
30 out of 30 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.
Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.
As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.
In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.
In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.
In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.
Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.
Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.
He devised a theory of reflective thinking.
Question 2
20 out of 20 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.
In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.
In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.
In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.
The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.
The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.
The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.
The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.
Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)
Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1
Question 1
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.
Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.
When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.
When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress
A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”
A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.
The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.
The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”
The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.
A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”
A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”
Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.
Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.
Question 3
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).
Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.
A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.
Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.
Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.
Question 4
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.
Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.
Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.
The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.
Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.
Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:
Question 2
____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.
Question 3
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 4
All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.
Question 5
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 6
“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):
Question 7
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 8
A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?
Question 9
Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.
Question 10
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?
Question 11
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 12
Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.
Question 13
Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.
Question 14
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 15
“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:
Question 18
Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.
Question 19
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 20
Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.
Question 21
Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.
Question 22
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 23
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 24
Putting too much information on note cards can result in:
Question 25
Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?
Question 26
Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?
Question 27
Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?
Question 28
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 29
Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?
Question 30
What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?
Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.
Question 2
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 3
The first step in organizing your speech is:
Question 4
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 5
If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms. The organization of this speech would be considered:
Question 6
Outlining is regarded by our authors as:
Question 7
When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?
Question 8
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 9
According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.
Question 10
An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen. This part of the introduction is referred to as:
Question 11
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 12
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 13
Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.
Question 14
According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?
Question 15
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 18
Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.
Question 19
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 20
Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.
Question 21
Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.
Question 22
If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?
Question 23
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 24
A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.
Question 25
The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.
Question 26
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 27
Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?
Question 28
All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation. However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.
Question 29
One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.
Question 30
Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.
Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2
Question 1
Which is not included in the body of the speech?
Question 2
Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 3
A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.
Question 4
Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?
Question 5
The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.
Question 6
Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?
Question 7
Which of the following is a literal analogy?
Question 8
The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?
Question 10
____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 11
Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:
Question 12
“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.
Question 13
Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?
Question 14
“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?
Question 15
This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.
Question 16
The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?
Question 17
Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:
Question 18
A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.
Question 19
Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?
Question 20
Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.
Question 21
___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.
Question 22
The two overall persuasive goals are:
Question 23
“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?
Question 24
In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.
Question 25
In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.
Question 26
Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:
Question 27
The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:
Question 28
Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.
Question 29
“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.
Question 30
The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:
Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3
Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic?
Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘
Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income.
Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis?
Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation.
Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need.
Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations.
Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection?
Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values.
Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience.
Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information?
Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is:
Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias.
Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan
Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech.
Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and:
Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson.
Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy?
Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free.
Question 20 Message credibility is defined as
Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids?
Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is:
Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker.
Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid?
Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids?
Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?
ARCHITECTURE
Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-
Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.
Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living
Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.
Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper
Focus of the Final Paper
Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):
Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.
Include the following:
1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.
2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.
3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.
Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign
Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.
Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?
Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis
Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.
Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
Create a job description from the job analysis.
Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi
Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.
What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.
–
Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.
Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.
Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.
Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES
The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.
A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.
B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.
C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?
Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
HLT 310V A Spiritualit
HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W
hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score
Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do
Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)
____ 1. Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.
____ 2. A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.
____ 3. For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.
____ 4. Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.
____ 5. There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.
____ 6. The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.
____ 7. The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.
____ 8. Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.
____ 10. Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.
____ 11. Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
____ 12. A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.
____ 13. Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.
____ 14. Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.
____ 15. Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.
____ 16. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.
____ 17. Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.
____ 18. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
____ 19. Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
____ 20. When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.
____ 21. Veins are less compliant than arteries.
____ 22. Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.
____ 23. Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.
____ 24. While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.
____ 25. Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.
____ 26. Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.
____ 27. Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.
____ 28. Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.
____ 29. Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.
____ 30. Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.
____ 31. Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.
____ 32. In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.
____ 33. When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.
____ 34. Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.
____ 35. An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.
____ 36. Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.
____ 37. Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
____ 38. Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 39. Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?
a.
Osteogenic sarcoma
b.
Basal cell carcinoma
c.
Multiple myeloma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
____ 40. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a.
Blood vessels
b.
Epithelium cells
c.
Connective tissue
d.
Glandular tissue
____ 41. What are characteristics of cancer in situ?
a.
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b.
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c.
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d.
Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.
____ 42. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:
a.
dysplasia.
b.
hyperplasia.
c.
myoplasia.
d.
anaplasia.
____ 43. What are tumor cell markers?
a.
Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells
b.
Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c.
Cytokines produced against cancer cells
d.
Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
____ 44. How are tumor cell markers used?
a.
To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
b.
To treat certain types of cancer
c.
To predict where cancers will develop
d.
To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
____ 45. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:
a.
cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.
b.
an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.
c.
tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d.
apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.
____ 46. What is autocrine stimulation?
a.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
b.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
c.
The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
d.
The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
____ 47. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?
a.
A tumor suppressor gene
b.
A growth promoting gene
c.
An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth
d.
A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth
____ 48. What are oncogenes?
a.
Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b.
Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue
c.
Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue
d.
Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
____ 49. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome translocation
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome fusion
____ 50. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome fusion
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome translocation
____ 51. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
a.
Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b.
The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.
c.
Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d.
Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
____ 52. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?
a.
Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent
b.
Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth
c.
Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis
d.
Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation
____ 53. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
a.
By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b.
By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies
c.
By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs
d.
By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes
____ 54. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
a.
They invade local tissues.
b.
They spread through lymph.
c.
They cause systemic symptoms.
d.
They have a low mitotic index.
____ 55. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
a.
Liposarcoma, lipoma
b.
Lipoma, liposarcoma
c.
Adisarcoma, adipoma
d.
Adipoma, adisarcoma
____ 56. Most human cancers appear to arise via:
a.
autosomal recessive gene inheritance.
b.
spontaneous gene mutations.
c.
X-linked recessive gene inheritance.
d.
autosomal dominant gene inheritance.
____ 57. Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:
a.
lung.
b.
skin.
c.
bladder.
d.
kidney.
e.
pancreas.
____ 58. The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
a.
herpes simplex virus type 6.
b.
herpes simplex virus type 2.
c.
human papillomavirus.
d.
human immunodeficiency virus.
____ 59. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
a.
Ovarian
b.
Uterine
c.
Cervical
d.
Vaginal
____ 60. Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
a.
Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
b.
Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
c.
Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
d.
Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
____ 61. Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?
a.
Women over 45 years
b.
Women who never had children
c.
Women who had a high body mass index
d.
Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
____ 62. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?
a.
Skin, lung, and pancreatic
b.
Colon, liver, and lung
c.
Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic
d.
Bladder, skin, and kidney
____ 63. How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
a.
By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
b.
By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations
c.
By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
d.
By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
____ 64. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
a.
Proto-oncogenes
b.
Oncogenes
c.
Tumor suppressor genes
d.
Growth promoting genes
____ 65. Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.
a.
negative-feedback
b.
positive-feedback
c.
neural
d.
physiologic
____ 66. Hormones are effective communicators because they:
a.
are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
b.
increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
c.
are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
d.
decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
____ 67. Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?
a.
Thyroxine (T4)
b.
Aldosterone
c.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d.
Insulin
____ 68. How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?
a.
Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier
b.
Free in an unbound, water-soluble form
c.
Bound to a water-soluble binding protein
d.
Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry
____ 69. Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?
a.
Calcium
b.
Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
c.
Diacylglycerol (DAG)
d.
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
____ 70. Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?
a.
Angiotensin II
b.
Thyroxine
c.
Estrogen
d.
Testosterone
e.
Aldosterone
____ 71. Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:
a.
is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
b.
is continuously synthesized.
c.
acts as a second messenger.
d.
carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
____ 72. Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?
a.
When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour
b.
When serum osmolality is increased
c.
When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased
d.
When vasopressin is given pharmacologically
____ 73. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Anterior pituitary
c.
Mammary glands
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 74. Where is oxytocin synthesized?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Paraventricular nuclei
c.
Anterior pituitary
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 75. Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?
a.
Thyroxine
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c.
Growth hormone
d.
Insulin
____ 76. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
a.
It increases serum calcium.
b.
It decreases serum calcium.
c.
It decreases serum magnesium.
d.
It increases serum magnesium.
____ 77. Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?
a.
Potassium
b.
Calcium
c.
Sodium
d.
Magnesium
____ 78. Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?
a.
Increased triiodothyronine (T3)
b.
Increased thyroxine (T4)
c.
Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Increased calcitonin
____ 79. Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:
a.
tubules of nephrons.
b.
thyroid gland.
c.
glomeruli of nephrons.
d.
smooth and skeletal muscles.
____ 80. A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?
a.
The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
b.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.
c.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.
d.
The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.
____ 81. What are actions of glucocorticoids?
a.
Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis
b.
Fat storage and glucose use
c.
Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization
d.
Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism
____ 82. What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
a.
Hypokalemia and alkalosis
b.
Hyperkalemia and alkalosis
c.
Hyperkalemia and acidosis
d.
Hypokalemia and acidosis
____ 83. What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?
a.
It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.
b.
It directly increases calcium reabsorption.
c.
It directly increases sodium reabsorption.
d.
It directly increases water reabsorption.
____ 84. Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?
a.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal
b.
Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal
c.
Cortisol level above normal
d.
Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal
____ 85. Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:
a.
G-protein–linked.
b.
ion channel.
c.
second messenger.
d.
tyrosine-kinase linked.
____ 86. What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
a.
Solute retention and water retention
b.
Solute retention and water loss
c.
Solute dilution and water retention
d.
Solute dilution and water loss
____ 87. The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?
a.
Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality
b.
Serum K+ 5 and urine hyperosmolality
c.
Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality
d.
Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality
____ 88. A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:
a.
neurogenic diabetes insipidus.
b.
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
c.
psychogenic polydipsia.
d.
osmotically induced diuresis.
____ 89. Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary
b.
Organic lesion of the thalamus
c.
Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary
d.
Organic lesion of the renal tubules
____ 90. If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).
a.
neurogenic
b.
nephrogenic
c.
psychogenic
d.
ischemic
____ 91. Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Urine specific gravity is low.
b.
Serum sodium is low.
c.
Urine protein is low.
d.
Serum total protein is low.
____ 92. The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:
a.
neurogenic.
b.
psychogenic
c.
nephrogenic.
d.
ischemic.
____ 93. Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:
a.
a pituitary adenoma.
b.
hypothalamic hyposecretion.
c.
autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.
d.
a neurohypophysial tumor.
____ 94. What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
a.
Panhypopituitarism
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency
c.
Hypopituitarism
d.
Anterior pituitary failure
____ 95. How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?
a.
The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.
b.
The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.
c.
The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.
d.
The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.
____ 96. Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?
a.
Cushing syndrome
b.
Acromegaly
c.
Gigantism
d.
Myxedema
____ 97. What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?
a.
Posterior pituitary adenoma
b.
Thymoma
c.
Prolactinoma
d.
Growth hormone adenoma
____ 98. How does Graves’ disease develop?
a.
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
b.
A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue
c.
A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d.
An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter
____ 99. What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?
a.
Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″
b.
Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
c.
Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs
d.
Constipation and amenorrhea
____ 100. What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?
a.
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b.
Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
c.
Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin
Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice
To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.
Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:
The name of the theory
The year the theory was introduced
The theorist/author
Key components of the theory
For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.
Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.
The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.
Q3. Need help with DB post
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Assignment:
Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE
PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Paper on Disease Process Instructions
The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.
Content and Outline
Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate the disease to be discussed
Indicate the organ systems affected
Provide a brief overview of disease
Description
Describe disease process
Explain disease effect on organ systems
Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole
III. Diagnosis
Outline how the disease is diagnosed
Include common symptoms
Discuss the main causes of the disease
Treatment
Discuss treatment and management of the disease
Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Length
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Sources
Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.
Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.
Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it
Question 2
From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 3
From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 4
Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?
Question 5
Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by
Question 6
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 7
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 8
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 9
Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.
Question 10
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 11
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 12
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 13
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 14
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 15
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 16
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 17
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 18
The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it
Question 19
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 20
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 21
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 22
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 23
Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.
Question 24
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 25
In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
·Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
·Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
·Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
·Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
·Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
·Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
·Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
·Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
·Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
·Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
·Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
· Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
· Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
· Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
· Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
· Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
· Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
· Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
· Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
· Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
· Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
· Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
· Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
· Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
· Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
· Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
· Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
· Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
· Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
· Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
· Question 2
Directional selection
· Question 3
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
· Question 4
To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation
· Question 5
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
· Question 6
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
· Question 7
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
· Question 8
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
· Question 9
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
· Question 10
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
· Question 11
Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of
· Question 12
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
· Question 13
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
· Question 14
One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in
· Question 15
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
· Question 16
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
· Question 17
Directional selection has been used to
· Question 18
Stabilizing selection
· Question 19
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
· Question 20
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
· Question 21
Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?
· Question 22
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
· Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
· Question 24
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
· Question 25
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 2
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 3
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
·Question 4
Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?
·Question 5
Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 6
The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if
·Question 7
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
·Question 8
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 9
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 10
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 11
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 12
One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that
·Question 13
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 14
Directional selection
·Question 15
Stabilizing selection
·Question 16
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
·Question 17
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 18
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 19
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
·Question 20
The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as
·Question 21
One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it
·Question 22
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 23
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 24
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 25
The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to
Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
COMPUTER SCIENCE.
Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases
Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.
·Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.
·Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.
Q2. Network Planning Assignment
Network Planning Assignment
Overview
The main objectives of this assignment are:
· To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet.
· To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.
· To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.
Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.
Scenario
You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.
The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.
R2
R1
QLD
NT
WA
R4
R3
SA
NSW
R5
VIC
R6
TAS
Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.
Tasks
The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:
New South Wales (NSW) : 6 Million
Victoria (VIC) : 4 Million
Queensland (QLD) : 3 Million
Western Australia (WA) : 2 Million
South Australia (SA) : 1 Million
Tasmania (TAS) : 300 Thousand
Northern Territory (NT) : 150 Thousand
The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.
§ Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.
§ You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.
§ The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.
§ It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.
The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.
§ Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).
§ Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.
Recommended Readings
The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:
§ Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource
§ IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)
§ Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
· K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.
· K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.
· K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.
· K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.
· K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.
· A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.
Assessment Details
All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.
Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).
Submission
Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.
Marking Guidelines
IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)
63 Marks
Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)
28 Marks
Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)
14 Marks
Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)
33 Marks
Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)
12 Marks
Total marks
150 Marks
The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).
The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.
IP Address (NT)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Appendix A
IP Address (SA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (TAS)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
IP Address (WA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (QLD)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (NSW)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (VIC)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers
Routing Table for R1
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Routing Table for R2
R1
R2
Routing Table for R3
R3
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA
Router
NIC
IP Address
R1
#5
R1
#8
R1
#6
R1
#7
R1
#7
R2
#4
R2
#2
R2
#3
R2
#1
R3
#9
R3
#10
R3
#11
R3
#12
R2
R3
R1
NIC #6
NIC #1
NIC #2
NIC #3
NIC #4
NIC #5
NIC #8
NIC #11
NIC #12
NIC #9
NIC #10
NIC #7
Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection
The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.
The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.
The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.
Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.
If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure. Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.
ü The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .
If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself. This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation. It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship. You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about. When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.
Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.
Prompts:
In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?
Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
To: Replace with name
From: Replace with name
Date: Replace with date
Subject: Replace with subject of memo
Introduction
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Proposed Information System
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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)
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Data Management
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Data Types
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Storage Methods
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Data Quality
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Transition of System Functions
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Evidence of Feasibility
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References
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command
[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.
[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.
Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.
[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.
[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).
[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references. In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.
Remove References in example that you do not use.
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE
Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.
Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA
Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following
In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?
EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES
It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.
Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?
Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
Submitting your work
In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.
Q8. Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D
IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS
Project Background
Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital. For example, Jane Doe Hospital. Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records. However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.
Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices. They have well surpassed this. You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design. This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.
Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design
Project Overview
This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.
In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.
To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital. Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure. Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.
Project Requirements
Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design. Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time. Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.
o This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name
Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception
o Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices
For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,
IPv4 or IPv6
Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
Use proper network address translation (NAT)
o Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design
o Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design
o Design and implement the following new services and servers
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
o Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings
o Introduction
Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed
o Packet Tracer design explanation
Explain each of the additions and improvements
Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:
o Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.
o You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows
o For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.
“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à
Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.
o In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.
o Paste the selected area to a word processor.
o Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI
Q9. Week 8 Assignment
Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Do the following tasks
The name of each Object should start with Week8
1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)
Week 1 Lab 1 submission
tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.
Lab Assignments
Submit each lab based on the following:
Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience. Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.
Lab Assignment 1
Due Week 1 and worth 30 points
Complete the following EC-Council Labs.
Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.
Lab Version
Module Title
Location
Lab #: Title
Deliverable(s) for Submission
Strayer
SEC435
(CEHv.9)
Session Hijacking
iLab
Module 1o
Lab 1: “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”
Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.
Q1. Artificial Neural Network
1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.
2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?
3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.
Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock
Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.
Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation
Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation
Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.
The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.
w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker
z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker
x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.
Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver
The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.
Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices
identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire
Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line
Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.
(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).
(b) Determine RL.
(c)Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.
(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.
Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)
Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.
Directions:
Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:
An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.
Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator
Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.
Or
Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)
Or
Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.
Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying
What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?
Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?
What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?
What is the function of the bit synchronizer?
How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.
Mathematically prove how the effect of 2w0 can be eliminated.
Q10. python programming
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
PHYSICS
Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring
3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate
(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage
Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?
Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
What is grounded theory?
The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful
Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay
Comparative Essay Instructions
Selection of Topic
Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:
Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)
Content and Outline
Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
Old-Earth Secular View
What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
o Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.
III. Young-Earth View
What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Be sure to restate your purpose.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.
Length
This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:
Ø paper title
Ø your name
Ø instructor’s name
Ø course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)
Ø date
There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.
Sources
Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.
Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name
PHSC 210-[Section]
Date
Instructor
Introduction
Old-Earth Secular View
Young-Earth View
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Conclusion
[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]
References
[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]
Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]
Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2
Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt
Topic: Current Young-Earth Research
Thread:
In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:
Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
The author and title of the article.
A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
A discussion the significance of the findings.
Your reasons for choosing this article.
A short concluding sentence or two.
(No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).
Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)
After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:
What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1
Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt
Topic: Earth Science in Action
Thread:
Complete the following step-by-step process:
Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:
Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
Read the article and take notes.
Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
What is the title of the article?
What is the web address for the article?
Who is(are) the author(s)?
What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
What new information have scientists found?
Why is this new information important?
What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?
Notes:
The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
Concluding paragraph
Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.
Replies:
After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:
What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise
Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.
Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight
For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more).
As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.
Selected Aircraft:
Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:
Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:
Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:
Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:
Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.
For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).
Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):
Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.
Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)
Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)
Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)
G
VS
(kts)
PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:
Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):
Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?
Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.
What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?
At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].
I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).
II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.
III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in degree per second).
For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.
Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)
From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.
Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn
Equation 14.15 r = = == 2020 ft
Equation 14.16 ROT() = = = 11.98 deg/sec
or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10
(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle. One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle
Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation
Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.
Refer to the Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines for content and delivery format and guidelines.
Content Format Guidelines
This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.
Delivery Format Guidelines
The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.
Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!
Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.
Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.
ABSTRACT
This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003). This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.
And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.
Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html
Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)
Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.
Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.
Exercise 4: Drag and Applications
The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.
Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):
Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.
Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):
Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):
Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):
Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):
Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):
Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):
CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):
Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):
Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):
What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.
Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.
Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.
V
(KTAS)
q
(psf)
CL
CDP
CDI
CD
CL / CD
DP
(lb)
DI
(lb)
DT
(lb)
VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300
Equations for Table:
q = CL = CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL2
CD = CDP + CDi CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL2 Dp = CDp q S
Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S
Answer the following questions from your table.
I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin’ [lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):
II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin’ [kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):
III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point in your table?
IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.
V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.
VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).
If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)
For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):
Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).
What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?
What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?
What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?
What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?
Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise
Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.
Must show work and references.
Answers need to be added in the attached word file
Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils
The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.
In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Selected Aircraft:
For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.
Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):
Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):
Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):
Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):
Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:
Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).
a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412, and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )
b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Stall AOA.
c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.
a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional uses of such airfoil in aviation.
For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):
L = CL * * S * V2 / 295
Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:
Research the Wing Span [ft]:
Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:
Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2 (if no Average Chord is directly found in your research)
Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:
Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):
Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):
Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘’ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)
You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:
Calculate LIFT (lb)
Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed:
0
10,000
40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS
I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA of 5°. (As initially indicated, a more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)
In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):
Airspeed (KTAS)
Required Lift = Weight
Required CL
Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200
First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).
Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):
I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the CLmax that you found in 3.
II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight Theory and Aerodynamics”).
Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.
Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:
Business
Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
Information Systems and Technology
The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
Criminal Justice
The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
Everyday Life
Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.
Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:
Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.
Your report must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.
MUSIC
Q1. Music homework assignment A grade
Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.
Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties
“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”
Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy
Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)
link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc
Finish the following questions
The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?
Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?
The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?
There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.
Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.
We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.
Some more specific questions:
What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?
Q4. A Man for all Seasons
A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe
Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.
American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.
Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.
Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:
Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.
Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
Question 1
(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?
Communities where some possess much
Communities where some have nothing
All of the above
None of the above
Question 2
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Empirical research is important.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.
the contractualists
Marxists
behavioralism
systems theory
Question 4
(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.
the social contract
institutions
behavioralism
superstructure
Question 5
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
Question 6
(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?
Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.
Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.
Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.
Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.
Chapter 3, page 37
Question 7
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
Markets regulate themselves.
Question 8
(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?
Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.
Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.
Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.
Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.
Question 9
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Liberals
Conservatives
Marxists
Libertarians
Question 10
(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.
Liberalism
Conservatism
Socialism
Fascism
Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)
Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points
For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.
After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.
You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.
Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:
Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
Leadership Styles (for Question 3)
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.
Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA
Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:
Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.
2pgs
Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)
Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81] vertical envelopment beachhead assault tentative landings fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)
POLI 330 Final Exam
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2. 2.(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4. 4.(TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5. 5.(TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)
charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty
Question 6. 6.(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)
scholarship
theory
power
culture
Question 7. 7.(TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)
the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment
Question 9. 9.(TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)
The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 12. 12.(TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)
It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)
Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)
Miranda v. Arizona Dred Scott v. Sandford Brown v. Board of Education Gibbons v. Ogden
Question 15. 15.(TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial
Question 16. 16.(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 17. 17.(TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Electoral
Coalition
Question 18. 18.(TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)
chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier
Page 2 – Multiple Choice
(TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)
a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy
Question 2. 2.(TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)
Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)
Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past
Question 4. 4.(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)
late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism
Question 5. 5.(TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)
classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian
Question 6. 6.(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)
Question 7. 7.(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.
Question 8. 8.(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
Question 9. 9.(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)
Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)
Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat
Question 12. 12.(TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)
Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.
Question 15. 15.(TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)
because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.
Question 16. 16.(TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)
Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure
Question 17. 17.(TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)
The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands
Page 3 – Essay
Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)
Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.
Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
click “View in Browser.”
Click the link above to submit your assignment.
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
PAD525-A3-5 5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
PAD525-A3-6 6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)
Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
PAD525-A3-7 7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
PAD525-A3-8 8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)
More than 6 errors present
Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)
5-6 errors present
Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)
3-4 errors present
Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)
0-2 errors present
PAD525-A3-9 9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)
Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)
Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)
Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)
Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.
Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
LAW
Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style
Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?
Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA
Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.
Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following: • How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?
?
How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper
Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.
Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:
Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?
Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
An appeal process
The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent
2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?
Vicarious authority
Express and obvious authority
Implied and apparent authority only
Express, implied, and apparent authority
3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?
Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
All members will lose their limited liability.
This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.
4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?
Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000
5) Partners of a general partnership
Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership
6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?
Negotiated settlement
Mini-trial
Mediation
Conciliation
7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment
Fact-finder
Arbitrator
Judicial referee
Negotiator
8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?
Arbitration
Fact-finding
Mini-trial
Conciliation
9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?
A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
A mediator does not make a decision or award
If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator
10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is
Violating a duty of loyalty
Violating a duty to exercise due care
Violating the business judgment rule
Not violating any duty
11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as
A breach of a director’s duty of notification
A breach of a director’s duty of care
A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
There was no breach of duty
12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?
Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate
13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?
The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate
14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?
Contributory negligence
Defendant was negligent per se
Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
Comparative negligence
15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of
Due care
Obedience
Loyalty
Good business judgment
16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will
Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
Win on the basis of design defect
Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear
17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?
The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case
18) What does the parole evidence rule do?
It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
It determines which contracts are required to be in writing
19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?
Pleadings
Motion for summary judgment
Discovery
Trial
20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest
Within 10 years
By the time of the employee’s retirement
In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
Only as provided in the pension plan
21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?
The Norris-LaGuardia Act
The National Labor Relations Act
The Labor-Management Relations Act
The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is
Not prohibited under federal law
A violation of Title VII
A violation of the Equal Pay Act
A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act
23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?
Quid pro quo
Hostile work environment
Gender discrimination
Pregnancy discrimination
24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?
The Freedom of Information Act
The Government Compensation Act
The Administrative Procedure Act
The Equal Access to Justice Act
25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?
The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
The person was the only person who lived on the land in question
26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?
A freestanding desk
Built-in cabinets in an office
A copyright to a literary work
A field of corn
27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?
Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need
28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?
Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
Ensuring companies are profitable
Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation
29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer
No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both
30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
High salaries for corporate executives
Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis
ANTHROPOLOGY.
Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships
Term Paper Topics
Select one of these questions to answer:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson? Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
Should animals be used in circuses?
Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
Should animals be used in modern warfare?
Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
Should animals be used in religion?
Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:
o Animal welfare proponents
o Animal rights advocates
o Food security proponents
o Ethicists, philosophers
o National and local economic / employment interests
o Educators
o Medical researchers
o Parents
o Small business owners
o Family ranchers or farmers
o Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers
o Wildlife managers
o Conservationists
EXAMPLE:
The question I selected is:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
My Thesis statement might be:
In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.
The body of my paper would include these sections:
PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:
Yes- animals should be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST:
No- animals should not be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER
WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?
Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.
Include the following in your paper:
Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
Q3. The red carpet cleaning
This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.
Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
Final exam is scheduled for April 20thfrom 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.
These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.
To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely. Good luck!
What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.
What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.
Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.
Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.
According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.
Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.
Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail.
While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”
How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)
Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.
Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.
The lifestyle reality television showWhat Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity.
In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.
In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.
Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.
Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.
Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).
Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN
PART I
Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length. Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted). List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources. You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal
Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights. Identify the sides in the conflict. Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate? How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?
Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers
The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.
The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.
State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands
Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W
Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet
Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Week 2 DQ1
How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
ASTRONOMY.
Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is
Unit II PowerPoint Presentation
Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.
Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.
Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.
Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:
Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.
This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”. There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace. The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications. Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides. Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements. Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes. This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit. In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.
Let me know if you have a question.
DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.
Q2. What kind of information do you think
Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.
REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.
Q3. Being a small-business owner such a
Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.
Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems
In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q5. Review Questions
These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.
Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
What is Design for Reliability? Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
Module Review Guidelines
Current APA format
Q6. Airline Service Delivery
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
Requirements
Discussion Board Posting Requirements
Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
All references must be in current APA format.
Below are the two peers postings
There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.
Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side. Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both. For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale. Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor. In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).
So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo. However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination. As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121). In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.
For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines. Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016). The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.
On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines. The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017). Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion. They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.
Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process. Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another. They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.
v/R
Ken
References
About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html
Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp
Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do
Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report
You Tube Video Analysis Report
Must be own works and with references
Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:
Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
In your paper write the following:
Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
Explain the pros and cons of this approach
Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
Find at least two additional references to support your paper
Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument
Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!
Q9. Fuel System internet research paper
For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Make sure it is your own works and with references.
Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:
Order Qualifiers:
Why must companies understand this requirement?
What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?
Order Winners:
What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
GENERAL QUESTIONS
Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s
Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
MATHEMATICS.
Need help in Acct 211
I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments. Is anyone available to assist me with this?
Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Name
Course
Professor
Date
QUESTION 1
Differences as normally distributed.
Dominant
Non dominant
d
1
0.177
0.179
-0.002
2
0.21
0.202
0.008
3
0.186
0.208
-0.022
4
0.189
0.184
0.005
5
0.198
0.215
-0.017
6
0.194
0.193
0.001
7
0.16
0.194
-0.034
8
0.163
0.16
0.003
9
0.166
0.209
-0.043
10
0.152
0.164
-0.012
11
0.19
0.21
-0.02
12
0.172
0.197
-0.025
d-bar
-0.0132
sd=
0.0164
Paired t test:
Let d =dominant-non dominant
Test statistic:
t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))
t=-2.78
df=12-1=11
p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090
As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.
There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.
QUESTION 2
The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:
off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)
QUESTION 3
Hypotheses. The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.
Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress
An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.
Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).
SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)] SE = 3.6342 DF = 69
t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE
t = – 1.65
where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.
The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.
P-value is 0.052
Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.
From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.
QUESTION 4
QUESTION 5
QUESTION 6
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
See Attachments
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion
See attachment.
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to
be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety
recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)
recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval
for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed
salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.
3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.
Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.
(Adapted from the American Lung Association)
4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct
a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round
to the nearest thousandth.
5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the
2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.
a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a
confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the
second quarter of 2014.
Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004
Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev, n
1 no pesticide 3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion 1.36, 0.52, 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium, Regular, Difference
Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
Mean: 30, 29, 1
St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Elementary Statistics
Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam
Each question is worth 13.75 points.
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the
following academic honesty statement.
I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct
consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s
Academic Regulations.
I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not
and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course
material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal
table, and Minitab Express.
I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic
honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n
1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13
2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium Regular
Difference
Vehicle 1 19 20 -1
Vehicle 2 35 32 3
Vehicle 3 34 33 1
Vehicle 4 18 19 -1
Vehicle 5 40 37 3
Vehicle 6 26 27 -1
Vehicle 7 36 33 3
Vehicle 8 28 29 -1
Vehicle 9 34 31 3
Mean 30 29 1
St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
Q6. Statistics Review
These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –
Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).
Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).
(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.
Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation
Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart
Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers
Derive or Evaluate the formula for
the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of consecutive even numbers
the sum of consecutive odd integers
Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers
Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for
The sum of positive integers
the sum of the square of positive integers
Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers
Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.
Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed
Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!
SPSS HOMEWORK 1
40 POINTS
Factual Informative Scenario
Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25
10
25
15
10
20
32
15
10
15
15
35
30
50
45
30
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Cooperation
Competition
88
91
73.5
82
84
92.5
76
95
98
81.5
92
87
85
79
91
95.5
72.5
74
63
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.
SOCIOLOGY
Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley
Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.
According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.
o Why is it a problem?
o Where does the problem or issue come from?
o How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?
o What are some possible solutions?
Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda
Instructions:
Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups
Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.
Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and
Consensus.
In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:
In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.
Q3. Caste systems in India
How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system
Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking
What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?
Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?
What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.
220 words
think as american
Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)
Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment
This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:
Burundi
Benin
Cameroon
Nigeria
Nicaragua
Guatemala
Central African Republic
North Korea
Angola
Ghana
Chad
Yemen
Eritrea
Cuba
Congo
Thailand
Egypt
Iran
Equatorial Guinea
Zimbabwe
Zambia
Oman
Ethiopia
Philippines
Congo
Liberia
Gabon
Bahrain
Tanzania
India
Guyana
Mexico
El Salvador
Lebanon
Honduras
Pakistan
Syria
Guinea
Kenya
Sri Lanka
Algeria
Gambia
Mozambique
Senegal
Malawi
Indonesia
Namibia
Vietnam
Morocco
Myanmar
Rwanda
Haiti
Sudan
Bolivia
Somalia
Kuwait
Mauritania
Mali
South Africa
Iraq
Botswana
Bangladesh
Tunisia
Niger
Libya
Malaysia
Uganda
Panama
Source: United Nations, 2014
It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.
The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.
Instructions:
Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:
Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
geography
extractive institutions
governmental corruption
internal or external conflicts
shaky financial systems
unfair judicial systems
ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
lack or misuse of natural resources
closed (statist) economies
Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.
Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)
SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?
Authoritarian
Democratic
Laissez-faire
Bureaucratic
Political
Chapter 5
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.
The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.
Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.
People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”
The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.
During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.
Chapter 5
Question 3
0 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.
You Answered
a role connection
impression management
status assistance
a network
LinkedIn individuals
Chapter 5
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.
employment based on technical qualifications
hierarchy of positions
specialization
rules and regulations
impersonality
Chapter 5
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?
They are sexually attracted to both sexes.
They are attracted to neither sex.
They have both female and male characteristics.
They have no gender.
They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.
Chapter 6
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?
Structural Functional Theory
Symbolic Interaction Theory
Social Conflict Theory
Queer Theory
Exchange Theory
Chapter 6
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.
Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.
Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.
Deviance encourages social change.
Deviance promotes social unity.
Chapter 7
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that
Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.
deviance results from differential access to wealth.
deviance is a frustration of ambition.
individualism inhibits the deviance.
everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.
Chapter 7
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?
Increased use of the death penalty
Reduction in the youth population
Changes in policing
Better economy
Declining drug trade
Chapter 7
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.
caste; crass
caste; classless
cask; class
mobility; closed
caste; class
Chapter 8
Question 11
0 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:
You Answered
Equality is functional for society.
World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.
The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.
Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.
Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.
Chapter 8
Question 12
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.
Income; personal property
Profit; income
Wealth; income
Income; wealth
Rent; net worth
Chapter 8
Question 13
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.
Relative poverty; absolute poverty
Absolute poverty; comparative poverty
Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation
Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation
Absolute poverty; relative poverty
Chapter 8
Question 14
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?
Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.
Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.
Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.
Weber agreed with Marx.
Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.
Chapter 8
Question 15
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____
blue-collar work.
white-collar work.
pink-collar work.
fur collar work.
no-collar work.
Chapter 8
Question 16
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?
Chattel slavery
Child slavery
Debt bondage
Debit slavery
Revolving credit slavery
Chapter 9
Question 17
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?
High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off
Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption
High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity
Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption
Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities
Chapter 9
Question 18
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is
Max Weber.
Emile Durkheim.
Walt Rostow.
Oliver Clozov
Immanuel Wallerstein.
Chapter 9
Question 19
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is
Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.
Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.
Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.
Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.
Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.
Chapter 9
Question 20
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.
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Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse
Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.
Important Concepts from Chapter 3:
Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.
Assignment:
Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.
Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?
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Statistics Review
q [1.1] Make sure you understand (and can correctly identify examples related to] the relevant terminology. These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values – see p. 5). Questions like #11-14, #15-18, #23-26 (on pp. 8-9) are fair game. [IMPORTANT GENERAL NOTE/ADVICE: Each of the MyLabsPlus Chapter Review homework assignments provide you with the level/type of multiple-choice questions you can expect.] q [1.2] Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster). See textbook page 15 for an excellent summary. Expect a few questions comparable to #23-38 (pp. 17-18). q [1.3] Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo). A number of the examples contained within Section 1.3 (pp. 19-27) and #9-20 (pp. 28-29) are comparable to what I have in mind for this section, except that your question(s) on these topics will be in multiple-choice format.] q [1.5] Know the three ways of classifying data: (i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank. See Example 1-3 pp. 40-43 for an illustration, as well as (on pp.43-44) #5-16, #17-28, and #29-40. q [2.1] Make sure that you are easily able (with the aid of your calculator’s built-in fraction keys/functions) to do the following: (i) change back-and-forth between improper-fraction form and mixed-number form (#1-2 & #3-4 on p. 55); (ii) simplify/reduce fractions; and (iii) perform operations with fractions (ideally with the aid of your calculator). q [2.2] Be skilled in (i) rounding decimal numbers to requested place values (for example, “round to the nearest hundredth”, “round to three decimal places”, “round to the nearest whole number”, etc.); and (ii) knowing how to use the bar notation to express a decimal in exact/unrounded form or in exact/unrounded form as a percentage [examples: % 3.8338.06 5 = = , % 45.4545.011 5 = = ]
q [2.3] Be able to convert numbers back-and-forth between fraction form, decimal form, and percentage form (e.g., #1-16, p. 63). q [2.4] Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation (e.g., Example 4-7 on pp. 65-67). q [2.5] Know how to calculate absolute change and relative change (and indicate whether it is an ‘increase’ or a ‘decrease’) with an applied problem comparable to the stock-price example we did in class. q [2.5] Given a percentage increase (such as a 2.75% increase to your annual salary) or a percentage decrease (such as a 30%-off sale), know how to solve related applied problems, such as “What would be your new salary?” or “What would be the sale price?” q [3.1] Make sure you understand the various types of frequency tables/distributions, including grouped vs. ungrouped, relative (r.f.), cumulative (c.f.), and relative cumulative (r.c.f.). I’m planning on asking you a question very similar to Ex. 8 from the in-class worksheet we completed last Saturday, which is comparable to #15-16 on p. 88. q [3.2] Given a two-way table (aka a contingency table), answer several questions about it to demonstrate your understanding of the information it provides. Example 1 on p. 91 is very similar to the difficulty level I have in mind, although I may possibly (?) omit the row/column/grand totals in the table I provide you… and leave those for you to calculate. q [3.3-3.4] Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart. q [General advice for Chapters 1-3 OVERALL — and for the ENTIRE rest of the course] At all times, your aim should be to develop real conceptual ‘understanding’ (i.e., resist the dangerous urge to blindly memorize!). Strive to cogently explain in your own words the purpose/role of each particular topic/skill and when it is applicable (and when it isn’t). In other words, in every one of your homework sessions, make sure you are always invoking your curiosity and then asking (and answering!) the following questions: where does this fit into the “big picture”? What is its purpose? What light does it shed on a given data set (i.e., what can we conclude)? If you were in a professional position in which you had to report this to information to the general public (or to a prospective client… or a patient… or before a judge/jury in a court of law… or to a group of elected legislators), what would you tell them? People who are able to do so are always in very high demand and short supply (in virtually every occupation) in the professional job market.
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STATS- SPSS HOMEWORK 2
SPSS HOMEWORK 2
40 POINTS
Drinks Per Week
Before Program
Drinks Per Week
After Program
25
17
20
29
16
17
23
21
24
23
19
16
13
14
7
18
11
8
21
10
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
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Twin 1
Twin 2
254
64
89
78
89
174
47
207
21
93
136
19
40
212
230
58
198
67
119
43
89
180
61
112
100
87
126
52
56
259
70
29
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 2.
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Python programming
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
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DB Post, need help
Topic: Lab Project Phase 1
Preliminary Reading: To prepare for this DB forum, please download and read the following documents, found in the Lab Project folder of the course Assignment Insructions in Blackboard:
Lab Project DB 1 Article Excerpt, from Quarles, C. (2015, March 29). Southern Baptists must learn to ‘choose our battles wisely’. [Louisiana] Baptist Message. Retrieved from http://baptistmessage.com/southern-baptists-must-learn-to-choose-our-battles-wisely/
You are only required to read the excerpt included in the lab project folder, but can find the entire article at the link above.
Lab Project Survey—this document contains the actual survey you will be administering
Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration
Background: Both Discussion Board assignments for this course relate directly to the Lab Project that is posted in the Course Content. This project requires you to administer a survey to at least 12 people and record the results, with an SPSS data file due at the end of Module 4. We are posing the research question, “Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?”
Thread Prompt: Based on the preliminary reading above, respond to the following prompts:
Summarize the Quarles (2015) excerpt in 2-3 sentences. Include in your summary a list of the main Christian doctrines that students are failing to grasp.
Before you administer your surveys, it is important to establish the null and alternative hypotheses that will guide the data analysis and interpretation. Think about the research question:“Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?” Based on the given research question and your reading, state a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis for the Lab Project. Note that you are not stating a hypothesis for the Quarles study, but for the lab project survey study that you will be conducting.Refer to Chapter 8 of your text for a review of formulating hypotheses, notably “Step 1” of the section “The Four Steps of a Hypothesis Test.”
Based on your reading of the “Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration,” state which method you are using or intend to use to collect your surveys (in-person, online, etc.). Describe at least one reason why you have chosen this method, and write about one possible challenge that could arise when administering surveys with your chosen method.
Share your thoughts: Based on your own opinion, briefly describe what you predict the results of such a study might be.
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Statistic review
These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –
Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).
Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).
(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.
Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation
Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart
PURPOSE: The purpose of this assignment is to administer surveys and create an SPSS data file containing the survey data.
SKILLS/ KNOWLEDGE: As a result of completing this assignment, you will be able to:
Administer surveys online or in person and score the surveys
Use SPSS statistical software to create a data file containing the raw survey data and one index variable
BACKGROUND: The questions on the survey are derived from instruments used in published studies of orthodox Christian beliefs, including Francis, Williams, & Robbins (2010) and Kaldor & Francis (2000).
TASKS:
Download the following documents from the “Lab Project” folder in the Assignment Instructions. The information in these documents is essential for successful completion of the Lab Project:
Lab Project Survey
Step-by-Step Instructions for Survey Administration
IRB Guidelines for Survey Administration
Raw Data Scoring Instructions
After reviewing the above documents, administer the Lab Project Survey to at least 12 people, either online or in-person, keeping in mind the IRB guidelines. Allow yourself plenty of time to complete this step.
Score your completed surveys and enter the data into a new SPSS data file. Create an index variable that represents the total understanding of Christian doctrine for your sample. Instructions for scoring the survey, entering data, and creating the index variable are in the Raw Data Scoring Instructions document in the Lab Project Folder.
ü Ensure that your SPSS data file includes individual surveys as the cases, or rows, and the survey questions as the variables, or columns. The index variable representing total understanding of Christian doctrine will reside in column 11, as shown in the example below:
Note: The only precondition to participating in the survey is that participants must be at least 15 years old; otherwise, participants can be of any gender, race, religious background, etc. It is important to emphasize that the results of the survey are anonymous by pointing out the instructions at the top of the survey. The survey is limited to 10 questions due to length limitations placed by online survey services. Do not add or remove any questions when administering the survey.
Submit this SPSS data file to Blackboard as the finished product for Phase 2
CRITERIA FOR SUCCESS: Please carefully review the Lab Phase 2 Rubric. Also, remember that asking questions contributes to learning and success, so please contact your instructor should you have any questions related to the assignment.
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Liberty University’s Institutional Review Board
Survey Guidelines For Students
In order to comply with IRB policy and to ensure a positive experience for all students and participants, the following directions must be followed when administering surveys for the Liberty University Psychology 355 Lab Project.
All survey respondents must remain completely anonymous. This means that there should be no identifying information of any sort on any of the survey forms or related documents. If you administer the survey electronically, there should be no way to track the respondents’ identities. If you administer the survey in person, all forms must be folded and placed by the respondents into a general collection envelope.
No results or other information related to the survey are to be released, used, or published in any form outside of the confines of the Liberty University Psychology 355 environment.
Respondents (or participants) have the right to withdraw or stop completion of the survey at any time.
All instructions given in other documents related to the survey or the use of survey data must be followed at all times.
Failure to adhere to these requirements could result in significant point loss on the lab project. If you have any questions about specific procedures, please contact your professor.
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Lab Project Survey
Disclosure: I am asking you to complete this survey as part of the requirements for my statistics in psychology course. Your answers will remain completely anonymous. No personal information about you will be linked to this survey. Please do not put your name or any other identifying information on the survey. The results of this survey will only be used for educational purposes and will not be published or released to the public. You must be 15 years old or older in order to complete this survey.
Directions: For the following questions, mark the answers that most reflect your understanding of general Christian doctrine. This is not a personal belief survey. In other words, we are more interested in your understanding of what Christianity teaches, and not necessarily in your own personal beliefs, which may or may not coincide with these statements. The survey consists of two pages of questions. For each question, please mark your level of agreement with the given statement.
Christianity teaches belief in a personal God.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ was God in a full sense.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ really rose from the dead.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that people are born good.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ’s death was a sacrifice that paid for the sins of humankind.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that what is good and evil depends on the circumstances of the time.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that the Bible is God’s word and all it says is true.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that faith in Jesus Christ is necessary if a person wants to go to heaven.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Christianity teaches that God exists in three persons: God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
Strongly agree
Agree
Neither agree nor disagree
Disagree
Strongly disagree
Including Sundays and any other day of the week, how many times per year would you say that you attend church? (For your reference, there are 52 weeks in one year.) Please enter a number in the box:
Thank you for taking the time to complete this survey!
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Raw Data Scoring Instructions
How to create your SPSS data file:
Open a new data file in SPSS. You will create a file containing one survey per row. The columns will contain one variable for each item (question) on the survey (for a total of 10). Additionally, you will create one index variable that represents the sum of responses to questions 1-9 for each survey (see below). This index variable should appear in column 11. An example is provided here for your reference:
How to score surveys and enter the results into your data file:
All questions on the survey except the last one are written as Likert-type items, with choices ranging from “Strongly agree” to “Strongly disagree.” In order to enter these into the data file for analysis, each of the answer choices will be given a corresponding score ranging from 1 to 5. NOTE: It is important to pay attention to the following directions, as some of the items will be reverse-scored (see below).
Gather your completed surveys. It will be necessary to enter data from each individual survey into SPSS.
If you have used the online method, you must follow these steps to access each individual survey:
a) Sign into your account and go to “My Surveys.” Your survey title will appear with 3 icons to the right: Design, Collect, and Analyze. Click on the pie graph under “Analyze.” This will take you to a Response Summary page.
b) On the menu bar to the left, click on “Browse Responses.” This allows you to view each individual survey, which is necessary in order to enter and analyze data in SPSS. Within “Browse Responses,” you can move from one individual survey to the next by clicking on the “Next” and “Prev” arrow buttons at the top.
All items on the survey will be scored from 1 to 5 except for item 10. You will enter the scores for each survey in rows (survey 1 in row 1, survey 2 in row 2, etc.), under the appropriate question column (Question 1 in column 1, etc.). If you have 10 surveys, you will have 10 cases (rows), if you have 25 surveys, 25 cases (rows), etc.
a) Scores for items 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, and 9 are as follows:
Strongly agree = 5
Agree = 4
Neither agree nor disagree = 3
Disagree = 2
Strongly disagree = 1
b) Items 4 and 6 must be reverse-scored. This is because, in opposition to the other items, these items indicate a fundamentally different worldview than the Christian worldview, so the scoring must be reversed; this allows higher scores on all items to reflect an understanding of Christian doctrine, while lower scores indicate misunderstanding or disagreement. This is a method commonly used in survey research. Therefore, scores for items 4 and 6 are as follows:
Strongly agree = 1
Agree = 2
Neither agree nor disagree = 3
Disagree = 4
Strongly disagree = 5
c) For question 10 (church attendance), you will simply enter the exact number that the respondent filled in on the survey (for example, 10, 52, etc.) under the appropriate variable in the SPSS data file.
Remember that the original research question is about the relationship between church attendance and understanding of Christian doctrine. We have one variable that represents church attendance (item 10), but we do not have one sole variable to compare it to—a total score that represents doctrinal understanding.
To create this total score index variable: After you have entered all of your survey data, create a new variable called Tot_Und (which is shorthand for “total understanding”) in Column 11. In this column, enter the sum of items 1-9 for each survey.
You will submit this SPSS data file as your finished product in Blackboard.
Remember to refer to the “Lab Project Phase 2 Instructions” in addition to this document when completing this phase.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
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SPSS Homework 4
SPSS HOMEWORK 4
40 POINTS
Community Clinic
University Clinic
CBT
36
32
19
25
27
31
12
27
20
29
PD
24
41
38
12
42
21
37
53
19
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Male
Freshmen
Sophomore
Junior
Senior
39
66
54
66
60
44
32
62
59
29
63
67
46
51
41
45
53
68
57
60
Female
51
46
45
57
32
32
21
30
49
53
56
52
60
47
59
61
55
42
58
61
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 4.
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SPSS Homework 3 help needed
SPSS HOMEWORK 3
40 POINTS
Therapist 1
Therapist 2
Therapist 3
35
37
35
37
36
33
39
36
37
37
31
39
35
32
29
32
25
28
33
30
32
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
First-generation
immigrants
Second-generation
immigrants
Non-immigrants
35
39
34
37
36
23
39
26
37
28
29
36
25
18
29
22
17
25
19
30
16
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 3.
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Where does your state rank?
Description
All states are ranked according to their performance by ranking watchdogs. The Government Grading Project grades all fifty states and publishes its findings in Governing Magazine annually.
Proctor & Gamble (but not Wal-Mart) manages the inventory at the distribution centers owned by Wal-Mart. This is an example of a concept called Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI). How does Wal-Mart’s supply chain benefit from VMI? Discuss with reasoning.
Recall the following from the Module Four lecture document: “The manufacturer is trying to decide how many units to produce for the upcoming season. If too many products are produced, some of the products may be left unsold by the manufacturer to the distribution center. If too few products are produced, the manufacturer may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the distribution center.” A similar challenge is faced by the distribution center. In other words, if too many products are bought by the distribution center from the manufacturer, some of the products may be left unsold by the distribution center to the retail stores. If too few products are bought by the distribution center, the distribution center may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the retail stores. Discuss how the manufacturer and the distribution center can resolve their respective challenges while neither party should benefit at the expense of the other.
Work with your group to research and brainstorm how you might use customer categories for product pricing. Be sure to identify the categories a company would choose and provide reasons for your decisions in your group discussion.
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Apply the economic order quantity formula to the data in Example 2-2 on Page 35 in the textbook, and reproduce the answer of 2,828 units. Also, calculate the total annual cost incurred for the economic order quantity. Submit your solution.
Your State’s Budget
Description
Research your state’s budget. (Hint: Start with the state’s tax department or the office of the secretary in charge of state finances.)
What are the four top areas that consume budget resources in your state? In what area does your state spend the least amount of money? What is the main policy agenda item of your state’s Governor?
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Balanced Budgets
Description
Unlike the federal government, state governments must balance their budgets. Some short-term strategies used to assist states in closing budget gaps include short-term borrowing or the use of the “rainy day fund.” That fund is tapped only if certain conditions are met, but not all states have such a fund or at least not a well-endowed one. What strategies are your state Governor and legislature using to close any budget gap?
Refer to the example in One Order/Production Opportunity of the Module Five lecture document. Since the manufacturer is concerned that not all of the products might be bought by the distribution center, does the manufacturer tend to produce fewer for the upcoming season? If so, does it make sense for the distribution center to offer an incentive to the manufacturer to produce more so that the distribution center might be able to buy as many as desired? For example, does it make sense for the distribution center to pay a penalty to the manufacturer for each product produced by the manufacturer but not bought by the distribution center? Discuss such potential incentives with reasoning and examples.
Refer to the formulas given in the Multiple Order/Production Opportunities of the Module Five lecture document: safety stock, reorder level, order quantity, and average inventory level.
Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the demand uncertainty is high. (Your response must include the formula for the average inventory level.)
Discuss what happens to the reorder level if the lead time is long. (Your answer must include the formula for the reorder level.)
Discuss what happens to the order quantity and the average inventory level if the ordering cost is high. (Your answer must include the formulas for the order quantity and the average inventory level.)
Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the desired service level is high. (Your answer must include the formula for the average inventory level.)
4 True or False Questions about Arthur Danto, if the answer is false please provide the true answer. If you know any of the rest on top of your head feel free to answer and I’ll add it to the tip.
QSO 630 wk5 milestone
QSO 630 Module Five Overview One Order/Production Opportunity Module Four presented how the manufacturer can decide how many units of a seasonal product to produce for the upcoming season. However, it was assumed that there was no initial inventory. Here, that assumption is relaxed and the following example shows what happens. Example The initial inventory is 1,000 units, and the manufacturer is trying to decide whether to produce 2,000 additional units or zero additional units for the upcoming season. The demand from the distribution center to the manufacturer could be any of the following with the given probabilities: Demand from distribution center Probability 1,000 0.25 2,000 0.35 3,000 0.15 4,000 0.25 The following information is also given: · Fixed cost of production = $10,000 · Variable cost of production = $50 per unit · Selling price = $150 per unit · Salvage value of unsold products = $25 per unit If the manufacturer is considering production quantities of 2,000 additional units or zero additional units, which of these two options should the manufacturer choose? 2 QSO 630 Module Five If 2,000 additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be fixed cost + variable cost = $10,000 + (2,000 * $50) = $110,000. The revenue, however, may be different for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 1,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 2,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (1,000 * $125) + (2,000 * $25) = $175,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $175,000 – $110,000 = $65,000. If the demand is 2,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 2,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 1,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (2,000 * $125) + (1,000 * $25) = $275,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $275,000 – $110,000 = $165,000. If the demand is 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 3,000 units on hand. Revenue = 3,000 * $125 = $375,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $375,000 – $110,000 = $265,000. Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $175,000 $65,000 2,000 0.35 $275,000 $165,000 3,000 0.15 $375,000 $265,000 4,000 0.25 $375,000 $265,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit if the manufacturer produces 2,000 additional units = (0.25 * $65,000) + (0.35 * $165,000) + (0.15 * $265,000) + (0.25 * $265,000) = $180,000. If zero additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be $0. In this case, the revenue too will be the same for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units or 2,000 units or 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 1,000 units on hand. Revenue = 1,000 * $125 = $125,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $125,000 – $0 = $125,000. QSO 630 Module Five 3 Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 2,000 0.35 $125,000 $125,000 3,000 0.15 $125,000 $125,000 4,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit for the production quantity of zero additional units = (0.25 * $125,000) + (0.35 * $125,000) + (0.15 * $125,000) + (0.25 * $125,000) = $125,000. Since the expected profit is higher for production quantity of 2,000 additional units, the manufacturer should be recommended to produce 2,000 additional units for the season. Multiple Order/Production Opportunities The previous section considered a seasonal product with one order/production opportunity. This section now considers a generic product with multiple order/production opportunities. Like in the previous section, here too, the demand is uncertain and there is some initial inventory. A few definitions are in order: · Safety stock: If a firm does not allow its inventory to fall below a certain level, that level is called the safety stock · Reorder level: If a firm places an order for products if the inventory level falls to or below a certain level, that level is called the reorder level · Lead time: It is the duration between placement of an order and receipt of that order · Service level: The percentage of customers who get the product of their choice when they want it and where they want it; for example, if a retail store maintains a service level of 90%, the chance of stockout at that retail store is 10% Using statistical concepts learned in QSO 510 4 QSO 630 Module Five Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * Lead Time Where z is obtained using the desired service level and normal distribution concepts from QSO 510. The example that follows the below formulae illustrates the concepts. Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) Recall from Module Four that the Economic Order Quantity =Q * = 2RK h . Recall also that slightly changing the value of Q* will not increase the total annual cost by a lot. Hence, even though the EOQ formula was derived for a constant demand situation, Q = 2RK is used h here as well. Notice that the asterisk is removed because Q is no longer considered the “best” order quantity, given the fact that demand is no longer constant. However, R (constant annual demand) in this formula is replaced by the Average Demand calculated using historical data. Hence, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K h Recall from Module Two that the average inventory level is typically calculated by taking the average of the inventory level (Safety Stock) just before receiving the order and the inventory level (Safety Stock + Q) just after receiving the order. Hence, the average inventory level is (Safety Stock + Safety Stock + Q) / 2 = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock). The following example shows how all of the above formulae are applied: Example A retail store orders from a manufacturer. The ordering cost is $2,000 per order, and the holding cost is $1 per unit per week. Also, the lead time is two weeks, and the desired service level is 97%. The following table provides historical demand data for the last 8 weeks: Week I II III IV V VI VII VIII Demand 100 145 125 184 200 98 118 142 QSO 630 Module Five 5 Average Demand (using the AVERAGE function in MS Excel) = 139 units per week Standard Deviation of demand (using the STDEV function in MS Excel) = 37 units per week. Service level = 97%. This means, z = NORMSINV (0.97) = 1.88. Recall from QSO 510 that if area to the left of X under a normal curve is given, X is calculated by first obtaining the value of z by using the NORMSINV function in MS Excel. Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * = 1.88 * 37 * 2 = 98 units Lead Time Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) = (139 * 2) + (98) = 376 units Order Quantity, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K = h 2 *139 * 2,000 = 746 units per order 1 Average inventory level = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock) = (746 / 2) + (98) = 471 units
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Discuss the American Dream
The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.
Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated. 500 words
I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario
This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.
For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting
Problem Scenario
(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?
(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?
Writing
(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)
(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow
(10 pts) Grammar and spelling
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History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP
In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?
500 words
Help me with philosophy question!! Plato and Love
One of the background themes of Plato’s Alcibiades is love. What does the text imply about the nature of love? Using close readings of textual passages defend an interpretation of Plato’s implied position about love and show how that interpretation survives a strong objection. 300-400 words
Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger
In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a
mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.
Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode
of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,
either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve
or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology
more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.
Noticing Patterns in Addition
What is the sum of integers from 1 to n? Justify your formula with a proof.
Black and White Marbles in Two Jars
Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.
A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.
Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.
What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?
Need help with this proof, complex numbers
The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.
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City of Flies NEED HELP ASAP
A city of flies has a population that doubles once every day. The flies go extinct from overpopulation on the 30th day. On which day was the fly population halfway from extinction?
HELP: Card Stopping Optimization
In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?
Integer question help
Find the smallest positive integer that leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, a remainder of 3 when divided by 4, …, and a remainder of 9 when divided by 10
Sociology
What are the benefits and responsibilities of becoming a US Citizen? Please list them and provide some background following MLA guidelines.
Mathematics
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
Can trigonometry be used to prove the Pythagorean theorem? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
How do you solve this integral of 3 sec(2x-1)tan(2x-1)?
A mathematical model for the Future Value of a savings account earning interest that is compounded continuously is given by the equation FV = Pert, where FV is the amount after t years, P is the principal amount invested at t = 0, and the principal is assumed to grow continuously at a rate, r. How many years will it take the principal to triple if the annual rate is 12%?
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Health and medical
v What’s the difference between good bacteria and bad bacteria? Please list all the difference as well as how they both affect/interact with our organism. 450 words minimum, APA format.
v What are the manifestations of zinc deficiency in children and how is it diagnosed? In addition to signs and symptoms, please suggest treatments too. Thanks!
Engineering
v What is the difference between concrete, mortar and grout? Please list all the difference between them along with their respective definitions. Please add all the necessary references and follow MLA guidelines.
v A 72 ohm coil of wire is connected in series with an adjustable resistor (rheostat) whose resistance can be varied from 0 to 88 ohms. If the line potential of wire is 115 volts, what is the rheostat resistance when power taken by the coil is 90 watts?
v Do magnets become demagnetized through electromagnetic/magnetic induction? Please provide the answer and explanation.
Computer Science
v What is a UNIX Machine? I know Macs are Unix machines… but what does that mean? why are Unix machines better for programming? What is windows? Because I know windows is not a Unix Platform, and how come it isn’t? And whatever it is… what is it made for?
v What is the difference between java and java script?
v Around what time did the Internet come around and how did it all start? Would like to know more of the history of how the internet started – just a brief discussion will do.
Is my thesis arguable?
Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.
Algebra 2 Math Problem?
For her chemistry experiment, Marisol needs 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. The lab has two containers, one with 40% alcohol solution and the other with 80% alcohol solution.
Write a system of linear equations that you can use to determine how many liters of each type of alcohol solution Marisol should combine to get 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. Be sure to define your variables.
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Incentive theory in management
v Does the incentive theory really work in motivating employees in a high-stress work environment? Please explain your answer (whether yes or no) and provide your justifications of your answer. Thank you
v What is Chaos Theory and how does it apply to Management? Please cite sample scenarios where it is best applied to. Cite references when possible
Science
What is pollination and how is it important to the environment? Please explain the scientific significance of this process. Cite references.
Psychology
How animated shows do like cartoons affect the psyche of a toddler (kids aged 1-3)? Please cite references. I need an essay that states facts and statistics regarding this.
Passage reading Question
Question
“2.1.9. Generally speaking, the men who hitherto have written on the affairs of India, were a set of liars. Deimachus holds the first place in the list, Megasthenes comes next, while Onesicritus and Nearchus, with others of the same class, manage to stammer out a few words [of truth]. … No faith whatever can be placed in Deimachus and Megasthenes. They coined the fables concerning men with ears large enough to sleep in, men without any mouths, without noses, with only one eye, with spider-legs, and with fingers bent backward. They renewed Homer’s fable concerning the battles of the Cranes and Pygmies, and asserted the latter to be three spans high. They told of ants digging for gold, of Pans with wedge-shaped heads, of serpents swallowing down oxen and stags, horns and all; meantime, as Eratosthenes has observed, reciprocally accusing each other of falsehood. Both of these men were sent [as] ambassadors to Palimbothra … and such are the notes of their residence abroad, which, I know not why, they thought fit to leave. Patrocles certainly does not resemble them; nor do any other of the authorities consulted by Eratosthenes contain such absurdities. 2.1.10. If the meridian [i.e. line of longitude] of Rhodes and Byzantium has been rightly determined to be the same, then that of Cilicia and Amisus has likewise been rightly determined; many observations having proved that the lines are parallel, and that they never impinge on each other.” – Ibid. Notice the difference in tone and form of argument between paragraphs 2.1.9 and 2.1.10 above. What does this suggest about the nature of the science of geography in the first century BC? Be sure to back up your observations with direct quotations (even if only a word or two) from the passage. Direct quotations must be in quotation marks “like this”. (250 words maximum, 5 points)
Mathematics
An athlete needs to get across a river. He must reach from point A on one bank to point B, which is directly across from point A on the opposite bank. If he wishes to minimize the total time T it would take to do so, at what angle upstreams (measured from the line AB) should he swim? Let his swimming／rowing speed relative to the water be 6.0 mi/h, and his running speed along the bank be 10 mi/h. The river flows downstream at 3.0 mi/h.
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Write a Java program that contain the following class, i.e., class SecretCode. Please refer to the given UML diagram for the minimum required class’s data fields and methods. You are free to add additional class members as you see fit.
HELP WITH WRITING A FOUR PAGE SCENE ABOUT BLACK LIVES MATTER
Question
I need someone to write a scene about a young girl raising awareness about black lives matter and how her surroundings keeps rejecting this movement and what she does to internally change the characters. Requirements are 4 pages long. First person narrative. NEEDS TO HAVE:
1) Dialogue. What your character says…or doesn’t say is where a scene starts. The interaction, how characters relate to each other verbally shows so much about them. Do they watch their words? Are they brutally honest? Do their actions and reactions seem in line with the actual words? But then we need more, or all we have is a couple of talking heads.
2) Action. Action breaks up the dialogue. What types of action might your character be doing while she’s telling her ex-boyfriend to jump off a cliff? Maybe she’s reaching for a bat, which might hint to the reader that she’s got a bit of a temper. Or maybe she’s inching away, which hints to the reader that maybe the guy’s a bad guy…and hits.
Or…maybe she’s sliding into a fighting stance, subtly and naturally. Showing the reader that this guy may hit…and this gal knows how to fight.
Make the action a natural one for your character.
3) Reaction. We all react differently to situations. So will your characters…internally and in dialogue. If a guy comes at me with a bat, I’d probably hold up my hands and try to talk him out of smacking me. NOT the best defense. But my kick-ass heroine..well now. She’d go for the jugular. (I need to take a karate class, I think.)
4) Emotions. What are they? Characters can feel more than one emotion at a time…someone dumping their boyfriend might feel both relief and sadness. And our bodies react to emotions. What’s fun, is often the dialogue completely contradicts the emotions. Our heroine needs to keep her chin up, after all.
5) Senses. Use them all. But here’s a key: notice only what your character would notice. If your hero is color blind, there’s no reason to describe the sparkling blue of the heroine’s eyes. He can’t see that. He can see her lush hips, tilted chin…etc. And smell her natural lilac scent.
6) Setting/Atmosphere. Same thing here…your character might see a room differently than you do. I walk into my husband’s den, and I see it needs to be vacuumed and I left my favorite socks on the couch. He would see the pillows goofed up on the couch and know I let the dogs in and didn’t watch them. One of his buddies might walk in and let out a whistle at the ridiculously large television. A Broncos fan would walk in and snarl at all the Oakland Raider goodies. I don’t even see that stuff. You reveal your character by what they see, hear, smell…
7) Backstory. If you’ve done it right, numbers 1-6 have created your backstory for you. There’s no big info dump needed…you’ve spread it throughout. For example, my heroine walks into my home office. She immediately spots the fairy figurine on the desk, reminding her of the one her boyfriend Joe won at their small town’s fair last year. (Oh yeah, a bit of backstory WHILE the setting is being described.)
To sum up: Layer to round out your scene so the reader might as well be your character. Don’t layer to: Add word count…or describe a room. Your reader doesn’t care what the room looks likes. Your reader cares about what the room means to the character…and what he or she sees. And how what they notice reveals more about them.
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Physics
Question
Given the heat conduction problem in the rod as follows: Length of the rod is equal 5 and heat conductivity coefficient is equal 50. The left hand end of the rod kept with the temperature equal t and there is heat flow from the right hand end equal sin t. At initial time temperature of the rod was as -3sin 8 sin There is the heat source inside of the rod expressed by the function 10 (x -5)2 x2 10 -10 sint + tsin–4e+ + cost 2 25+ Your task followings: 1. 2. 3. 4, Specify the problem as mathematical model. Find the solution of the problem. Draw the graph of the temperature at the time t 10. Draw the graph of the temperature at point x = 3 in the time interval 0
Problem 1: Association Rules: Co-occurrence Matrix (10 points)
Question
A car dealer conducted a study on its 100 transactions during the period of one month, and noticed that 50 customers were “young age”, 30 customers were “middle age”, and 20 customers were “seniors”. It also noticed that 70% of “young-age” customers purchased model A, and 30% purchased model B. 90% of “young-age” customers financed their cars. Furthermore, the car dealer noticed that the” middle-age” customers purchased both models with the same probability (50-50). Only 20% of these customers financed their cars. The study also showed that 80% of the senior customers purchased model B, and 20% purchased model A. They never financed their vehicles.
Finally, going through the financing accounts, the dealer noticed that 39 Model A cars and 12 Model B cars were financed.
a. Derive the co-occurrence matrix based on the transactions described above.
b. Calculate support, confidence, and lift values for the following rules
i)Young age customers finance their cars.
ii)Middle age customers purchase model B.
iii) Which rule is strong?
Draw a Moore machine
Question
Draw a Moore machine to perform a parity check on the input string; that is, the output string ends in 1 if the total number of 0 bits in the input string is odd and 0 if the total number of 0-bits in the input string is even.
Annotated Bibliography Assignment
Question
Students will develop a case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a mircoaggression(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/or social- emotional development. the purpose of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore, may tell it as you see it. The cultural autobiography case study and training.
Researching and writing an annotated bibliography using 10 citations from journal articles between 2012-2017:2018) that support the cultural autobiographical case study, intervention.
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Cultural Autobiography Case study Assignment
Question
Students will write a 100 – 250 word case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a microaggressionn(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/ or social-emotional development. The purpose of this assignment of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore may tell it as you see it. The cultural Autobiography case study and training intervention will consist of:
Netflix Case
Question
After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case.
Describe Netflix’s strategy process over time. What approach to the strategy process does Netflix follow? What works well with this approach? What are some challenges with this process, especially as Netflix continues to grow fast?
How was Netflix able to disrupt the U.S. home entertainment industry? Describe Netflix’s innovation strategy over time. Also, how did Netflix’s business change over time? How did its business model innovation support its technology strategy?
What are Netflix’s core competencies? How can they help Netflix to sustain its competitive advantage? How must its core competencies be honed and modified?
Netflix growth in the United States seems to be maturing. How could Netflix increase demand for its services in the United States? What other services could Netflix offer to drive future growth?
International expansion appears to be a major growth opportunity for Netflix. What challenges does Netflix face by going beyond the U.S. market? What can Netflix do to address some of the challenges encountered when going internationally? And which international markets should Netflix focus on, and why?
Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper
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Economics
Question
A consumer is willing to trade 3 units of x for 1 unit of y when she has 6 units of x
and 5 units of y. She also is willing to trade 6 units of x for 2 units of y when she has
12 units of x and 3 units of y. She is indifferent between bundle (6, 5) and bundle (12,
3). What is the utility function for goods x and y? Hint: What is the shape of the
indifference curve?
Sea World & Universal Studios
Question
Contrast and discuss their competitive strategies. How are they similar? How are they different?
Please write 10 meaningful sentences answering this question using the outside resources to support your answer
Angie Ghent a local prominent Business Angel has expressed a keen interest in Razor Wire Productions (“RWP”), a large manufacturing of industrial fencing products. Angie estimates that RWP will have after tax earnings of $3.5 million in 2020 (year 1), $4.75 million in 2021, and $9.25 million in 2022 (year 3). In 2022 RWP is expected to have about 8.12 ROA, $12 million in total debt, and approximately $14 million in capital assets. Angie intends to value the firm as of year 2022 (her expected timeframe for exiting the investment) and is using an earnings multiple of 9 times. Angie’s required rate of return is 60%. The US tax rate is expected to remain constant at 21% for foreseeable future. Ralph Smithson owns RWP. Ralph is the sole owner and has 1.75 million shares of stock. If Angie invests $4 million into the RWP what percentage ownership of RWP should Angie receive in return? HINT: Not all of the data provided in this problem is relevant to the solution.
Part 2
Continuing with the question above, how many shares of stock and at what stock price should be issued to Angie upon closing the deal with Ralph Smithson? For the purpose of this question assume RWP has a fair market value of $23.50 million (this was determined by determining the net present value of RWP’s terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.
Part 3
After several discussions with other investors, Angie has decided to demand dilution protection by insisting that her diluted equity position still provide her a 60% return on investment in the event that future rounds of funding are necessary. In fact Angie now believes that an additional 10% of the company will have to be sold to raise an extra $3.25 million in funds in 2021, and 5% of the company for $3 million in 2022. What % ownership will Angie require now to insure that after the next rounds of funding her ownership position will be protected. For this question assume that RWP has a fair market value of $31 million (determined by discounting of RWPs terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.
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Information systems and technology
Question
The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.
Select one character in Loraine Hansberry A Raisin in the Sun (1771-1830), and explain how that specific character’s motivations, concerns, and/or personalities reflect or defy social historical conditions. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points
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HUM 3360 – African-American Literature
Question
Listen to slave narratives on YouTube. Locate narratives about Equiano and of others.
Please submit–1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Equiano’s narrative, and 1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Wheatley’s poetry. To discuss the tone, please consider the word choices of the authors, as well as the messages (not the voice of the speaker on youtube). Take another 2-3 paragraphs to compare and contrast the tones. How are they similar and how are they different?
Submit 2-4 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the Jacobs and Douglass narratives (listed in the Course Required Readings). Make sure you highlight and discuss issues of gender.
African American women writers of the antebellum period genderized African American life in pre-Civil War America. Discuss how you believe Sojourner Truth genderized her experiences in her Address to the Ohio Women’s Rights Convention (1851) on page 245-249. Consider briefly discussing the tone, genre, or narrative voice. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points.
Question
How did the British government attempt to illuminate conflict between Native Americans and colonist?
Persuade essay
Question
Understanding your target audience is key to developing productive promotions and communications that influence people. In this exercise you will select the specific target audience with whom you strategically choose to engage and define the specific desired action you want them to take. You will also identify the emotional feelings that need to be created within someone in order to prompt the desired behavior. You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.
length of paper 2pages
Write an Essay of 200 words
Question
Write a 200 words essay on any one of the below given topics –
Gambling and Its Effects
A Detailed Look at Globalization and Its Effects
A Comparison of Unemployment levels in India to the rest of the world
Ways In Which Creativity Can Lead To Huge Success
Labour economics
Crowd funding and benefits
How cartels manipulate market and price
The economics of global warming
Any topics that you pick from above must be written from an economic perspective. When using sources, you cannot copy paste their content and give the link in references.
You will be marked based on the following –
Content – 4 marks
Organisation – 4 marks
Language – 4 marks
Relevance to topic – 4 marks
Relativeness to economics – 4 marks
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Use of learning accounting in management education
Question
For your assignment , write a 100 word essay on the topic – “Use of learning accounting in management education”
Write Up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling
Question
Write a 1000+ word write up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling
2. it can be based on the entire ceiling or a single painting of it
3. Say “no” to plagiarism.
4. Use the popular terminology across your project such as impressionism, fauvism, renaissance, modernism, cubism, humanism etc.
Exercise 1
Question
In this exercise you will select the specific target audience
You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.
Week 1 discussion questions pysch635
Question
Here are the 3 discussion questions for week 1 in Psych 635. I just need questions answered in about 100-150 words with a reference. NO paper written. These are week 1 discussion questions.
How can you measure learning from behaviorist, social cognitive, information processing and constructivism perspectives? Choose two of these perspectives to discuss.
Table 1.5 in Ch. 1 of the Learning Theoriestextbook describes the critical issues for learning theory. Provide at least three brief examples of how each issue might be manifested in one of the following fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology.
3.
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in one to two paragraphs:
Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
.
Discussion questions Watch the video Comment on the elements of Persuasion
After watching the video, please comment on which elements of persuasion you believe will help you influence your chosen target audience (or the audience you’re considering if you haven’t selected a specific target audience yet) to take the defined action you’ve defined in your paper. Please briefly define that audience to put it in context for the class. You do not need to describe tactical execution at this point, but if you must, share it here not in your paper.
Java programming
Question
CIS 166 – Java Programming
Professor Rodrigues
Assignment 5: Die Class
You will be creating 2 Java files for this assignment: Die.java and TestDie.java
You will be creating 1 Word document that contains the UML diagram of the Die class
Part 1 – The Die Class
The program
Design a Die class that contains the following attributes:
• sides: represents how many sides a dice has. A dice usually has 6 sides but sometimes could have more. This will be provided by the user
• value: represents the current value that was rolled in the dice.
The die Class should have the following methods:
• Constructor: takes one parameter that represents the number of sides in the dice. It then rolls the dice to give it an initial value
• Accessor methods: Should return the fields of the Die class.
• roll: Randomly generates a value within the number of sides of the dice. For example, if the dice has 6 sides you need to set value to be a random number between 1 and 6. If the dice has 12 sides, you need to set the value to a random number between 1 and 12 and so on… (Hint, this function is of type VOID)
The UML diagram
Before you start programming, take a moment to figure out all the fields that you will need and all the methods that need to be created. Create the UML diagram for the Coin class. Don’t forget to account for the access specifiers (public or private), for the data types of the fields and for the return types and the parameters of the methods.
Commenting and Programming Style
The first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the assignment.
You should create a documentation comment before every class header and method header (Starting with /** and ending with */). For now, the comment only needs to describe the purpose of the method. We will improve our comments throughout the semester. A sample is provided below.
Don’t forget to add spaces before and after every operator and to align braces.
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Part 2 – The TestDie Class
The Program
The program should create two instances of the Die class (each a six-sided die). One Die object is the computer’s die, the other Die object is the user’s die.
The program should have a loop that iterates 20 times. Each time the loop iterates, it should roll both dice. The die with the highest value wins. (In case of a tie, there is no winner for that particular roll of the dice).
As the loop iterates, the program should keep count of the number of times the computer wins, and the number of times that the user wins. After the loop performs all of its iterations, the program should display who was the grand winner, the computer or the user.
Finally, if the user wins, the program must ask the user to enter a nickname (The nickname must be at least 1 character and at most 5 characters), keep asking to user to enter a name while it is not valid. Once the user enters their nickname, append their nickname and number of wins to a file called “scores.txt”. Opening this file will contain the score of every player that has won the game.
Commenting and Style
In this test file, the first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the file.
Add a documentation comment (/** */) explaining what methods you will be testing on the program.
You should then include single line comments throughout your main method to explain what you are doing. For example:
Don’t forget to add a space before and after operators and to align braces.
Submission and Grading:
Submit Payroll.java, TestPayroll.java and the UML diagram through Blackboard. You can compress the files if you want.
Your grade will be determined based on the following rubric:
Task
Points
Die UML diagram
10 points
Die.java contains all required attributes w/ correct data types and access specifiers
5 points
Die class contains a constructor method
10 points
Die class contains all accessor and mutator methods
10 points
Die class contains a method to roll the dice
10 points
TestDie tests uses the constructor to set up a new object
10 points
TestDie correctly uses a loop to roll multiple dice
10 points
TestDie correctly decides who won the match
10 points
TestDie correctly saves nicknames and number of wins to “score.txt”
10 points
Documentation & Style
15 points
Total
100 points
Penalties
If the program does not compile or run, 30 points will be deducted from your total.
It is very important to test your program!
FP Journe Case study
Question
The case papers should be 1 page, double spaced and generally follow this outline.
Issues/problems?
Diagnosis/analysis?
Recommendations
Action Plan (immediate, short/long term)
Need help with question
Question
A food freezing plant requires 20 tons of refrigeration at an evaporator temperature of -30 deg C and a condenser temperature of 35 deg C. The refrigerant Freon 22 is subcooled 4 deg C before entering the expansion valve and the vapor is superheated 5 deg C before leaving the evaporator. The clearance is 496, the suction and discharge valve pressure drops are 35 kPa and 50 kPa, respectively. Compression is polytropic with n 1.08. The mechanical efficiency is 75%. An 11.5 x 11.5 cm, six cylinder single acting compressor running at 1000 rpm is used. Determine: 1. (a) Clearance volume efficiency (b) Piston displacement (c) Total Volumetric efficiency (d) Theoretical HP in compressor (e) Actual HP in compressor (f) Heat rejected during compression (g) Heat rejected to condenser cooling water (h) Quantity of cooling water in the condenser of the temperature rise is 6 deg C.
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Brand Positioning
Question
Write a Brand Positioning Statement for Jersey Mike’s Subs. Discuss how the Positioning Statement aligns with Jersey Mike’s business goals.
Feel free to use this basic framework in the attachment
Discussion Question Week 12
Question
You are considering a firm under three separate scenarios: 1) no debt, taxes or bankruptcy costs, 2) with debt and taxes but no bankruptcy costs, and 3) with debt, taxes, and bankruptcy costs. Under which one of these three scenarios will the firm have the highest value?
History of Animation
Question
As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation
history.
A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a
comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.
The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the
first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).
Measuring IMC program effectiveness
Question
identification of the particulars of the monitoring, evaluation, and control efforts that will be employed to appraise the effectiveness of all IMC program elements used. what is to be tested ? when are the tests to occur ? where? explain how the testing is to take place, including the specific methods and techniques to be used.
3 pages (approx) need some graphs and etc…
triumph daytona 675 motorcycle
HUM3360: African American Literature-Assignment 2
Question
Submit 4-6 paragraphs on the Chestnutt and Dunbar reading assignments : how do these texts reflect the Reconstruction Period? Describe their tone in relation to political, economic, and social progress
Submit- 5-8 paragraphs on the DuBois and Washington readings: this should consist of 2-3 paragraphs summarizing Washington’s concept of progress, and Du Bois’ concept of progress. 1-2 paragraphs – comparing and contrasting these concepts. 2 paragraphs Answering the following questions within your paper – Has one proven to be more effective than another? Is the current Reparations movement a reflection of one of these authors?
Internal combustion engine
Cylinder conditions at the start of compression is an SI engine operating at WOT on an air-standard OTTO cycle are 70 oC and 98kPa. The engine has a compression ratio of 10.5:1 and uses gasoline with AF = 15.5. Combustion efficiency is 96%, and it can be assumed that there is no exhaust residual. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Specific work done during power stroke. [kJ/kg] d) Heat added during combustion. [kJ/kg] e) Net specific work done. [kJ/kg] f) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%]
A CI engine operating on the air-standard diesel cycle has cylinder conditions at the start of compression of 70oC and 130 kPa. Light diesel fuel is used at an equivalent ratio of Ф = 0.8 with a combustion efficiency 𝜂𝐶 = 0.98. Compression ratio is 𝒓𝑪 = 20. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Cutoff ratio d) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%] e) Heat lost in exhaust. [kJ/kg]
Figure 3 shows Pressure – Volume Diagram of Otto cycle. The engine has a capacity of 2000cc, 4 cylinders, compression ratio, Cr = 8:1 and using RON 95 as its fuel. Figure 3 : PV Diagram a. Shows that the compression ratio for the maximum work in this Otto cycle is given by 𝑟 = ( 𝑇3 𝑇1 ) 1 [2(𝛾−1)] where T1 and T3 are the lower and upper limits of absolute temperature respectively. b. Also prove that the intermediate temperatures for this condition are: 𝑇2 = 𝑇4 = √𝑇1𝑇3
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Information Systems
Question
The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.
Need help on how to solve
Question
1) Historically, the average time to service a customer complaint has been 3 days and the standard deviation has been 0.50 day. Management would like to specify the control limits for an chart with a sample size of 10- and 3- sigma limits. The LCL for the chart would be:
A) less than 2.40.
B) greater than 2.40 but less than or equal to 2.45.
C) greater than 2.45 but less than or equal to 2.50.
D) greater than 2.50.
Week 2 discussion questions
Question
Just need like 100 words for each question. I need 3 different answers for each question so a total of 6 different answer (3 for each questions). These are discussion questions for the week. please add at least 1 reference.
Select one of the four broad professional fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology. Which of the four learning theories is most effective in guiding professional practice in your selected field? Identify strengths and deficiencies of using the theory you identified
Watch the “Operant Conditioning – Discriminative Stimuli,” “Pavlov’s Experiments on Children,” and “Pavlov’s Experiments on Dogs” videos in this week’s Electronic Reserve Readings. Choose a theory of learning to explain the processes of classical conditioning and operant conditioning, supporting each usage with relevant evidence in animal and human psychological research.
Business
Question
Guidelines on Sector Report:
Selected industry: Global Medical Equipment Industry
Each student is required to select an industry or a subsector he or she is interested in and prepare a written report covering the sector or subsector at the global level. Your Sector Report Topic should be e-mailed to the instructor no later than February 20. Students interested in writing their sector reports on certain industries are urged to make a request for the industry they want to write a report on as soon as possible without waiting for the February 20 deadline. Be aware that the instructor will confirm the approved sub-sector or industry with a return e-mail.
As you will be introduced to sectors within Turkey during the SEC 302 course, for SEC 301 this report MUST be prepared at the GLOBAL LEVEL. Reports about a specific sector in Turkey or a specific company will NOT be Acceptable. The completed report is to be submitted to the instructor no later than April 30. Please note that sector reports will be checked for plagiarism through “Turn-it-in”.
Your sector (or sub-sector) report that will cover a global sector subsector, or better still, a global industry should at a minimum include the following:
Sector(Sub-sector or Industry) participants: (20Points)
Customers and Products of the Sector or Sub-sector (5 Points)
Major competitors within sector or sub-sector (5 Points)
Key Suppliers to the Sector (5 points)
Identifying substitutes for the sector’s products (5 points)
Market (25 Points)
A) Global Market size (5 Points)
B) Major Geographic Markets (5 Points)
C) Industry Growth Rate (5 Points)
D) Drivers of demand growth (5 points)
E) Future of the Sector (5 points)
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III. Attractiveness of the sector, subsector, or industry based on expected profitability as a function of the 5 competitive forces: (30 Points)
A) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of the Industry Customers (5 Points)
B) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of Industry’s Suppliers (5 Points) Sub-sector suppliers are industries that supply inputs to the sub-sector
C) Assessment of the Intensity of Rivalry among Industry Incumbents (5 Points)
D) Assessment of the Threat of New Entry into the Sector through an analysis of industry entry barriers (10 Points)
E) Assessment of the Threat of Substitutes to the industry’s offering from other industries (5 Points)
Key success factors(The factors that determine success in this industry or sub-sector; what a company has to be good in, to be successful within the current industry environment) (25 Points)
To write a successful sector report make sure to read the Porter article called “Understanding Industry Structure” or the Avigdor articles called “Kar Amaçlı Rekabet: 5 Güç Yaklaşımı”.
Please note that your sector report needs to be no less than 12 pages (can be more) including a contents page and an executive summary page and is to be prepared from a global perspective. Your executive summary should summarize your key findings, especially about the sector’s expected future. Your report can either be about a whole sector (like global retailing) or a sub-sector (like global convenience store retailing). Please note that it is highly recommended to write your report on a sub-sector or an industry rather than on an entire sector.
In writing your report, you are free to use information from the articles that have been listed as supplementary readings. However you are required to use at least 3 additional sources for your reports, which must be mentioned in your foot-notes. For all the sources used for your report, it is critical that you make these sources clear by mentioning the sources in foot-notes.
Your sector report needs to be written with double spacing and business-like font. The document format must be in PDF format. Please be clear that formats other than “PDF” are not acceptable.
Finance
Question
Term Project
Selected corporation: Alibaba Group
You should work alone on your case study. Your case study will be a publicly-traded corporation. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on corporate finance issues including ownership structure and potential governance problems, capital structure policies, dividend policies, etc. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups (5 to 10 pages of text plus supporting material such as spreadsheets, figures and tables) will be submitted as the project report.
Term Project
Selected financial institution: ICBC ( Industrial and Commercial Bank of China )
You should work alone on your case studies. Your case study will be a publicly-traded financial institution. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on financial reports of a bank published on the web. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups will be submitted as the project report.
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Theory of self
Question
Compare Hume’s theory of self, or lack thereof, with the Buddhist theory of self. How are they similar and different, and what consequences would they have on your life if they were true?
Walt Disney Case
Question
After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. This assignment due is by this Saturday (11:59 pm). Suggested discussion questions are as follows:
Have you “experienced” Disney in some way such as TV programming, movies, parks and resorts, merchandise, or video games? How did this shape your view of Disney?
Are Walt Disney, Michael Eisner, and Robert Iger strategic leaders? Why or why not? Where would you place them on the Level-5 Pyramid?
How did Disney create its uniqueness in the Media and Entertainment Industry?
What strategic pillars did Robert Iger put in place to grow Disney into the world’s largest Media and Entertainment Company? Detail each strategic pillar and explain why this may or may not be important to Disney’s future.
How is the media and entertainment industry being disrupted?
What are Disney’s biggest strategic challenges? What recommendations would you give Robert Iger to address the challenges? Be specific.
Where should Disney’s Board of Directors look for the next CEO: Silicon Valley, Global Brand Management, or Hollywood? Explain why.
Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.) All cases should use standard American Psychological Association (APA) format. In particular, cases must be double-spaced, employ 1” margins, use headings and subheadings where appropriate, use page numbers, and use a 12-point Times New Roman font. The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.
System Design
Question
(a) use-case diagram and use-case descriptions (may include activity diagrams for complex use-cases)
(b) domain class diagram
(c) system sequence diagram and
(d) state machine diagrams
Financial Management Case: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory
Question
CASE: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory
Each student pick one case and write a report on it. No more than two students can choose the same case. First come first serve. Please post your preferences in Blackboard forum.
The following information are from syllabus:
CASE WRITE-UP
Each student will pick one case on the list and should submit a write-up on that case. This write-up should be 5-10 pages, double spaced, and 12pt letter size. It should include at least the following: 1) a cover page with case title and name; 2) an executive summary of your recommendation and brief rationale; 3) detailed analysis of all the key issues related to the case; 4) tables and charts supported by numerical analysis/calculations; 5) references. These case write-ups should be considered as formal and professional reports.
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Quantum Chemistry
Question
Use the virial theorem to obtain an expression for the relation between the mean kinetic and potential energies of an electron
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider the operation of a PEM FC that provides power to an EV traction motor drive. The FC stack OCV characteristic is defined by the following function:
V =Voc– A ln(I) – RI – m exp(nI)
Voc is the open circuit voltage, A is the activation losses, R is the resistive losses, and m and n are mass transfer losses. The design goal is to have OCV as high as possible and the voltage losses to be also was possible. The FC stack parameters are as follows: Voc=436V,A=12.9 V, R = 0.181 W, m = 0.0091 Volts, and n =0.013/Ampere.
a) If the FC stack delivers 10 kW of power to the load, calculate the current and voltage of the fuelcell;
b) Determine the maximum power of the fuel cell and the corresponding voltage and current.
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Accurate measurements of the V-I characteristics of a fuel cell allowed the determination of its slope. It was found that at 10 A, the slope was -0.003 V/A, but at 5.0 A, the slope was much larger (in absolute value), -0.005 V/A. Does this make sense? If so, can you calculate the internal resistance of the cell?
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider a FC/Battery EV, wherein the power system consists of a FC stack with 400 cells and an induction traction motor that operates at 300V.
a) Assume that the EV consumes 2.1kW from the Li-ion battery pack alone to reach a speed of 20 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range if the battery pack has a rated energy of 1.1 kWh
b) Now, consider that the EV consumes 15.0 kW from the fuel cell alone to reach a speed of 60 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range, if the EV is fueled by 4.0 kg hydrogen
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
A UC bank consists of three UCs sized at 200F, 500F, and 1000F. They have breakdown voltages of 200V, 500V, and 100V, respectively. The three capacitors are connected in series and the voltage applied across the bank is gradually increased. Which UC will breakdown first? Calculate the total applied voltage and the total energy stored at the point of breakdown.
Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
For a constant power traction application, assume the following parameters for a bank of UCs: Vmax= 15.0 V; Vmin= 9.0 V; P = 60 Watts; td= 5.0 seconds. Based on the given data, calculate the appropriate UC size for this application. Please make suitable assumptions where necessary.
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Electrical Energy Storage System
Question
Consider that a UC bank consisting of the following scenario: A 2000F UC is charged to 150V and a 1000F UC is charged to 50V. The pair of UCs are then connected with plates of opposite polarity joined together. Calculate the total voltage in this case. Also, calculate the initial and final values of stored energy. Plot the wave form of the current flowing through the 2000F UC when the voltage across it is as shown in the figure.
HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce
Question
This week you also have the second mini-case analysis assignment. After reading mini case 21 ‘HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce (Rothaermel, p520-523), you will provide answers to discussion questions at the end of this case and submit the mini case analysis in Blackboard by Saturday at 12:00 pm.
It is expected that the written analysis of the case range from 1-3 typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.). The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.
Discussion post about Arthur Danto Artworld theory 150 words
Question
Use the Arthur Danto Artworld theory to discuss one of the works by Raphael, Dürer, Titan, Rembrandt, or Ai Weiwei. Make sure you use a few of the following art-relevant predicates: mimesis, Ideal, kitsch, sublime, sublime, inspiration, infection, ecstasy, Dionysian, Apollinian, taste (Hume’s), aesthetic (Kant’s), psychic distance.
150-200 words
Essay
Question
Questions for Exam 2.
Choose 2 of the 3 questions to answer. These questions are to be e-mailed to me by 4/15 at midnight. Each question is worth 6 points. Each answer needs to be 1 page or less.
Many Managers have Power or Authority. If you could choose would you want to have Authority or Power in your organization and why?
Why do you think it is important to communicate to employees who survived a company wide Layoff and what do you think is the most important thing to communicate to surviving employees?
There are several reason employees Resist change. Which of the following do you think is the reason most employees resist change and why?
Uncertainty
Habit
Concern over personal loss
Belief change is not in the best interest for the organization.
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HUM3360: African American Literature Assignment 3
Question
Submit–4-6 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the tone of readings from Ellison and Wright. (Listed in the Course Required Readings)
HUM3360: African American Literature Interpretive Paper
Question
1) Submit Interpretive Paper.- 1-2 page paper
Write a 1-2 page paper- Choose one of the course required readings from the first two weeks to explicate and interpret. Choose a symbol or theme from one of the course required readings and discuss its significance in the overall meaning of the reading. To explicate the text, analyze it closely – no detail it too small. Notice the word choices, the structure and organization, the repetition of images or ideas, and/or the attention to audience (if applicable). Do NOT summarize. Instead, cite passages and examine them closely.
English
Write a 1500-word argumentative essay. . Develop your own thesis based on the following topic: Is the traditional model of higher education still relevant with costs skyrocketing, lack of jobs in degree fields, and our current student loan debt crisis? If so, how and why should we keep the model the same? If not, how and why should we change the model?…Cite all sources using APA format. Your paper must include proper parenthetical citations and a Reference page. LESS THAN 15% SIMILARITY
Psychology
Instruction
Perform research in the Walden Library and the Internet to find three scholarly resources that focus on crime and victimization, specifically statistics of major crimes. Visit the National Center for Victims of Crime website listed in this module’s Learning Resources. Subject Research: Criminal Justice & Security Using the Walden Writing Center “Basics Executive Summaries” as a guide, write a 5- to 6-page Executive Summary in which you complete the following: Provide an overview of crime and victimization in the United States and include current statistics of at least three major crimes (UCR Part I Crimes). Identify and describe three direct impacts of crime on victims and their families. Discuss whether these are short or long-term impacts. Explain which crimes have higher reporting rates and which crimes have lower reporting rates. Identify methods for improving rates of reporting for underreported crimes. Discuss how using statistics and improving reporting rates can lead to social change.
Psychology
Instruction
In a minimum of 150 words, describe some of the public misconceptions regarding sexual assault you may have heard. Describe the concept of “victim blaming.” Why are victims of sexual assault more likely to experience blame than victims of other crimes? Compare at least two countries and note any differences.
Review Chapter 11, “Sex Offenders: Assessment and Treatment,” in the course text Correctional Counseling and Treatment. Pay particular attention to the types of sex offenses as well as sex offender treatment approaches.
• Review the article “Therapeutic Responses of Psychopathic Sexual Offenders: Treatment Attrition, Therapeutic Change, and Long-Term Recidivism” in this week’s Learning Resources. Consider the efficacy of different treatment approaches for sex offenders.
• Identify a specific treatment approach for treating one group of sex offenders that is of particular interest to you.
• Conduct an academic search in the Walden Library and select at least one scholarly article from a peer-reviewed journal that discusses the treatment approach you selected. Ensure that the treatment demonstrates efficacy in the treatment of your selected offender group.
• Think about the unique characteristics of the sex offender group you selected and reflect on considerations related to their treatment.
• Consider the challenges you might encounter when using the specific treatment approach with your selected group of sex offenders. Reflect on how you would address these challenges.
• Review the course document, Treatment Outcome Models provided in the introduction area to this week’s discussion.
• Think about how the success of the treatment approach could be evaluated with each treatment outcome model.
• Select one treatment outcome model that you think would be most effective for measuring the success of the treatment approach and consider why.
With these thoughts in mind:
Post by Day 4 a brief description of the research article you selected. Include the type of sex offender and treatment approach. Then explain which treatment outcome model you would use to measure program success and why.
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Psychology
Instruction
Review the website: Center for Sex Offender Management: Subtypes and Typologies. Consider similarities and differences among the types of sex offenders • Select two types of sex offenders to compare for this Discussion. With these thoughts in mind: Post by Day 3 a brief description of the two types of sex offenders you selected and explain at least two similarities and two differences between these two types of sex offenders. Then explain one challenge related to the treatment of each type of sex offender.
Biology
Instructions
Return thFor all submissions please double space and use 11 point font, this will give me room to make comments. Please use correct grammar and complete sentences throughout. Do not type in this form, and do not copy the questions over to your responses. You may use any legitimate sources that your wish, cite them below the pertinent question response. Do not plagiarize, make sure your answers are in your own words. If you have any questions regarding plagiarism check out this website: http://www.plagiarism.org.
There are many “right” answers to the essay questions. Ensure your answers are plausible and justifiable for full credit.
This is expected to be a short essay (10 points): Pompe disease is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD) which, along with the other 40+ similar genetic disorders in this family, affect 1 in 7,700 babies born. You are a pathologist and you would like to investigate and confirm the presence of LSD using histologic methods. What will you do? Include at least two histological techniques (not molecular techniques) in your answer and predicted experimental outcomes.
This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the posted article “Tissue-engineered artificial oesophagus patch using three-dimensionally printed polycaprolactone with mesenchymal stem cells: a preliminary report.”
What is polycaprolactone and why is it a good candidate for tissue engineering (specifically 3D printing based tissue engineering).
What is fibrin and what are three important contributions that it makes to the implanted artificial oesophagus?
Discuss figure 6, what is Desmin and what does it indicate? Find a commercially available source for a Desmin antibody. Include the source datasheet and price with your answer.
This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the article “How secret conversations inside cells are transforming biology,” which can be found at https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00792-9.
Summarize the main points of this article as they relate to sub-cellular structure.
Given this information (at least in part) has been known for nearly 70 years, why is cell biology not being taught in a way that reflects this organization? Your answer can focus on K-12 education and/or post-secondary education.
Using a TEM that you find (and must cite), indicate features of the intracellular environment that reflect the intimate association of organelles with one another.
This is expected to be a long essay question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments (at least 3) to test the hypothesis: mitochondrial dysfunction and autophagy are upregulated in breast cancer cells. Include experiments to observe integrity of the mitochondrial membrane(s), overall levels of autophagy, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results. Make sure to cite your sources.
This is expected to be a long Essay Question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments to test the hypothesis: α-synuclein protein builds up in the brain of Parkinson’s disease patients. Include experiments to observe sub-cellular location of α-synuclein, overall levels of α-synuclein, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results.
Literary Studies
Instruction
This essay will be at least 1,300 to 1,500 words long. This is a research-intensive essay that will require an annotated bibliography. Three academic, scholarly peer-reviewed articles, six academic-oriented sources with at least two specific media based references will enhance your essay. These two will be directly related to the media source you choose e.g. a television weekly describing a series.
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DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS
DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS
MUST REFERENCE THE 4 REQUIRED READINGS
REFERENCING MUST BE IN APA FORMAT
This task requires you to use ethnographic thinking and methods to construct an account of an organisational area or unit in which you have participated. This may be somewhere you have worked in a paid or voluntary capacity, or an organisation in which you are an active member such as a religious or sporting organisation. The intention is to make sense of that organisation, both for yourself and for the person reading your writing. You should briefly introduce the organisation as a whole but focus upon the unit or area that you have experienced.
The importance of your account is that you have insight into the workings of the organisation / work area that cannot be gleaned from outsider research. This is what makes your piece ethnographic. Therefore, you should provide an insight into organisational life that goes well beyond what might be found on official websites. Following a common convention in ethnographic descriptions, you will give your organisation a pseudonym. Any individuals you mention from the organisation should also be given pseudonyms.
The key to doing this task well is identifying what really goes on in the organisation using your insider experience and then using concepts and theory from the course to give depth to your account. So, as an observational ethnography, this task depends equally on developing your own descriptive and reflective abilities as it does on using academic reference materials. You will need to write in a way that communicates your insights and observations to a reader.
Some background questions to guide your initial thinking about this task are:
What does the organisation do? Does this match the organisation’s goals?
What is the culture of the organisation? Does this differ in your smaller work area? (Tip: Is the culture, for example, social? formal? high pressure? hierarchical? Does it reflect that a certain type of person is employed there?) How does the culture relate to the structure or purpose of the organisation?
What kinds of work practices are undertaken? How do they compare to practices that are meant to take place?
How does power operate in the organisation? (Tip: think about power in the formal organisational structure, in the informal culture, and by whose roles or identity are seen as more important?)
You can structure your Descriptive Ethnography of an Organisation by following the assessment criteria. At the start of your Ethnography, address the first assessment criteria by providing a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course. Next, address the second assessment criteria by reflecting thoughtfully on organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory. A description of the organisational climate is useful here. Topics covered in the first half of the course – such as learning, motivation and power – can be used here to make sense of the culture and practices. The last part of your Ethnography addresses the final assessment criteria by identifying gaps between espoused values and practices as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours. Here you need to compare the organisation’s values with what you know takes place. This needs to be informed by ideas in the course literature.
We will help you develop a good understanding of this ethnographic approach and support the development of your work through, for example, guided writing activities and workshopping how to integrate references into personal accounts.
Assessment criteria:
Your descriptive ethnography:
Provides a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course;
Describes and analyses organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory;
Identifies gaps between espoused values and practice as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours, in reference to theories covered in the course;
Is well structured, well written and edited, and referenced correctly.
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Communications
Letter of Advice
For this assignment, you will write a letter of advice to either a newly engaged couple or a group of coworkers. Imagine that either the engaged couple or coworkers hear that you are taking a course in interpersonal communication and want advice regarding how to communicate in their personal or professional relationships.
Instructions
Use the list of learning outcomes to write your letter. The course learning outcomes you will need to cover are listed below:
Explain the principles of and barriers to effective interpersonal communications.
Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem.
Differentiate appropriate levels of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships.
Describe strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications.
For each of the five learning outcomes, create a separate heading that states the learning outcome that you are addressing. Then, address the following for each segment:
Explain the principles of and barriers to effective, competent interpersonal communications. Why do the principles matter? How can your couple or group of co-workers overcome the barriers you have listed?
Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem. Begin by defining each term and then explain how these three notions of the self potentially impact the relationships of your couple or group of co-workers. What advice can you offer to help them develop a positive self-concept or build each other’s self-esteem?
Illustrate the importance of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships. What role does self-disclosure play in the relationships of your couple or co-workers? How can their relationships be improved by them becoming more emotionally intelligent? What connections can be made between emotional intelligence and self-disclosure?
Evaluate strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts. Explain one or two potential conflicts and then present at least two strategies for addressing the dispute(s).
Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications. First, define these two key terms. Then, explain the importance of gender and culture in relationships generally and for your couple or group of co-workers specifically. What advice can you give to become a better communicator based on the information you have presented?
Content Requirements
You must address all five of the learning outcomes and the questions listed with those objectives. For each objective, be sure to define key terms and relate those ideas directly to advice for your couple or co-workers. The point here is for you to demonstrate how these ideas can be utilized to help people in their relationships. Try to offer specific advice they can integrate into their lives.
Begin your paper with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement and that previews what you plan to cover in your paper. End with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis and restates your key points.
You must use at least five scholarly sources to help you make your points.
Must be 8 double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style.
Must use each learning objectives as a header dividing each section of the paper.
Healthcare
Instruction
Part 1: Despite the documented challenges that the U.S. health care system faces, it also enjoys a number of advantages over other systems around the world. Choose 2 other countries from around the world and discuss the strengths of the U.S. health care system as compared to these countries from an administrator’s and a third-party payer’s perspectives. Be sure to not only discuss each strength, but provide an explanation as to why you believe the United States has this advantage over the other countries you chose. Part 2: Identify a nonprofit health care organization and a for-profit health care organization (not an organization mentioned in part 1). Answer the following: Summarize the types of services provided, clientele served, and provider groups involved. Compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of each organization from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives. Provide at least 2 suggestions for each organization to minimize the identified weaknesses. Summarize which organization you would rather be part of, using rationale.
This is paper should be written in APA format. Deliverable length should be a minimum of 7 pages and no more than 10 pages not including the cover and reference page. This paper is 2 parts but should be written to address the information below and follow the grading rubric attached. Reading should flow to understand the assignment points Number of references a minimum of 5 peer scholarly reviews. Assignment Objective: Differentiate the primary goals of nonprofit health organizations and for-profit health organizations in the U.S. Differentiate the strengths and weaknesses associated with various types of healthcare delivery systems in the U.S. from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives.
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Healthcare
Instruction
Although both for-profit and not-for-profit hospitals provide a certain amount of charitable services to the public, there is debate as to which provides a higher level of charitable services to its respective community. Which type of hospital do you believe provides more charitable health care services, and why? Provide at least 2 to 3 reasons for the choice using a specific example for each type of organization.
Healthcare
Instruction
Thinking about this from both a provider’s and a payer’s perspectives, answer the following questions: What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the gatekeeper system in terms of progressing through the levels of care? Provide an example of each perspective. What are at least 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages for each group? Provide a rationale for your choices.
This is a masters class in Heathcare Administration. The assignment is a “discussion board” request. Not APA, just simple discussion on the assignment below that will allow others to join in. In an HMO, the primary care physician acts as the “gatekeeper” to all higher levels of care that the patient may need. In theory, this means that the physician decides what is best for the patient and coordinates his or her care, while at the same times working to control costs and trying to ensure the delivery of care in the most efficient manner possible.
Forensic Toxicology
Instruction
Term Paper: You are required to submit a term paper that is at least 12 pages in length exploring some aspect of the forensic science discipline. The length requirement excludes cover sheets, abstracts, appendices, graphs, figures, and references, if these are included. You have the freedom of choosing any topic related to the forensic science disciplines. Examples of suitable topics include a particular specialization in forensic science (entomology, forensic anthropology, etc.), a biography of a prominent historical figure in the field of forensic science, an appropriate topical event, or a discussion of important political/legal issues that involve the field of forensic science. The paper must include a minimum of six reference sources from scholarly publications (books, academic journals, governmental publications, etc.), though it is advisable to include more than the minimum. Non-scholarly sources may be used as supporting material, but will not count toward the requirement. The paper must follow APA guidelines, including proper citation and a cover sheet. The term paper should be considered a research instrument and should be supported by facts and data. The paper should not contain personal opinions.
Art
The final paper assignment portion of the course will consist of a critical analysis of either a work of art, individual artist, or period/movement/artistic style of the student’s choosing, pending approval by the instructor. This assignment will be measured by the student’s ability to demonstrate a working knowledge, understanding, and competency of course lessons by applying said information to take shape as a written formal analysis. The final paper must be formatted in MLA, utilize a 12pt font, contain a bibliography, an illustrations page (do not insert illustrations into the text itself) and be at least 8 pages in length.
While emphasis should be given to the understanding and ability to discuss art in a formal context, other areas that should be included in the paper are as follows:
• Introduction– Begin by stating why you chose the particular artist, or art work and what interests it holds for you as an individual. What is the aesthetic and personal appeal for you as an individual? Then provide a clearly defined statement of intent in regarding the work.
• Description– Describe the work visually along lines of the presence and use of the elements and principles of art, both as design and aesthetic compositional devices. So look at what’s there, literally right in front of you. Start with the most basic: what medium or material is it – a photograph, an object, a painting? How does it look? Rough and quick? Slick and neat? Shiny? Dirty? Carefully made? Thrown together? The artist will have made some very deliberate decisions about the materials, style and approach, and these will feed directly into the overall feel and meaning of the work.
• Analysis– Refers to how we see the elements and principles of art. In this step, our minds take in the lines, values, and colors of the artwork. We also may take notice of the balance, proportion, rhythm, and unity found within the work. Look, see and think about what is before you. The first two – look and see – are just about using your eyes, and observational skills. The third requires a bit of thought, drawing on what we already know and creatively interpreting what we’ve observed within an artwork’s broader contexts. When we see anything, whether it’s a work of art, a movie or a billboard, our brains perform a massively complex split-second process of reading and making meaning. We absorb a whole range of clues that make up our understanding of any image, many of which we’re not even conscious of.
• Context– Particulars should include biography, history as regarding artistic style and process, along with societal influences. The broader context of an artwork will help make sense of what you’ve already observed. Much of the information about context is usually given in the little labels that tell you the artist’s name, the title of the work and the year. And there are often other valuable morsels of information included too, such as the place and year an artist was born.
• Meaning– We look for meaning in everything, so this is natural. An interpretation of the work based upon research with considerations given to the possible presence of universal themes, iconography, symbolism, metaphor, etc., that will help to give shape and inform of the inherent meaning within an artwork. What is the artist trying to communicate to us?
• Judgement– This is a summation of the previous steps leading up to it. The goal is to provide a statement of the work’s cultural significance and worth based upon analysis, objective viewpoints, critical perspectives and reasoning. The aim is to provide an answer to the question, “Is this work of art successful?”.
Artist
If you have chosen to cover a particular artist, remember the focus should be on the development of the work created by that artist. While biographical information is important in relating the development of personal artistic style, it should not become the primary concern, nor subject of the paper. Biographical information that would be pertinent would be area of birth, early training, life experiences that bear influence upon the work, geographical locations and associations with other artists or groups.
In order to inform and define individual artistic style, you should choose works to compare and contrast, that visually demonstrate and provide example of early, middle and later artistic work. Remember, artistic style is based upon the individual’s personal methodology, habits and applications of formal attributes as pertaining to the elements and principles of design. While this may be initially rooted in geographic location, culture and training, it evolves and changes based on experiences and personal choices that reflect the growth of ideas.
Artwork
Whenever you conduct a formal analysis of an artwork, you are primarily looking at applications of the elements and principles of art and informing as to how they result in an effective, or ineffective piece. If you choose to focus on artworks for your paper, you may focus on the works of several artists comparatively, artworks from a specific period that crosses mediums, i.e. renaissance painting and sculpture, or compare artwork from different periods, such as Japanese woodblock prints compared to the artwork of contemporary graphic novels.
Contextual information is provided that serves to inform of the artists, but also serves more to inform of the work and the era/period in which it was executed. Inform the reader of the materials that were utilized, what markets did it serve, how does it compare to other works that are contemporary, what stylistic properties were introduced, and what are the lasting effects on subsequent generations of artists?
Period/Style /Movement
Without a doubt, writing about art regarding a specific artistic period, style or movement is the most challenging in terms of chronology, analysis and context. It involves the consideration and comparisons of several artists, mediums and can range over several geographic locations and decades.
Period
An artistic period can range over decades, involve hundreds of artists, various mediums and be broken into several smaller movements, i.e.
The Romantic Period 1790-1880
•Nazarene movement c. 1820 – late 1840s • The Ancients movement 1820s – 1840s • Purismo movement. 1820 – 1860s • Hudson River School movement 1850s – c. 1880
Movement
An artistic movement is a smaller association of a larger period and is relative to a specific location. They are collective titles that are given to artworks which share the same artistic ideals, style, technical approach, or timeframe.
Style
In the visual arts, style is a “…distinctive manner which permits the grouping of works into related categories” or “…any distinctive, and therefore recognizable, way in which an act is performed or an artifact made or ought to be performed and made”. An example of this would expressionism. https://www.theartstory.org/movement-expressionism.htm
Rubric
Final Critical Analysis Paper: Topic must be submitted by Week 2.
Paper due April 14 11:59pm. (for every day late, 5 points will be deducted from the overall grade.)
• Thesis 25 pts
• Analysis 25 pts
• Synthesis 25 pts
• Clarity 25 pts
• Grammar 25 pts Total: 125pts
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Finance
1) You are a manager at Northern Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your office, drops a consultant’s report on your desk, and complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.6 million for this report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 23 million on new equipment needed for this project, look it over and give me your opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates (in millions of dollars):
Project Year
Earnings Forecast ($000,000s)
1
2
. . .
9
10
Sales revenue
29.000
29.000
29.000
29.000
Cost
of goods sold
17.400
17.400
17.400
17.400
Gross
profit
11.600
11.600
11.600
11.600
General,
sales, and administrative expenses
1.840
1.840
1.840
1.840
Depreciation
2.300
2.300
2.300
2.300
Net
operating income
7.4600
7.4600
7.4600
7.4600
Income
tax
2.611
2.611
2.611
2.611
Net
Income
4.849
4.849
4.849
4.849
All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 30% on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by $ 4.849 million per year for ten years, the project is worth $ 48.49 million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be done! First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 8 million in working capital up front(year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10. Next, you see they have attributed $ 1.84 million ofselling, general and administrative expenses to the project, but you know that $ 0.92 million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted. Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus on!
1.) A. If the cost of capital for this project is
what is your estimate of the value of the new project?
Value of Project = $_____________ Million (Round to three decimal places.)
2) Buhler Industries is a farm implement manufacturer. Management is currently evaluating a proposal to build a plant that will manufacture lightweight tractors. Buhler plans to use a cost of capital of 12 % to evaluate this project. Based on extensive research, it has prepared the following incomplete incremental free cash flow projections (in millions of dollars):
Free Cash Flow ($000,000s)
Year 0
Years
1–9
Year 10
Revenues
93.00
93.00
Manufacturing
expenses (other thandepreciation)
-33.00
−33.00
Marketing
expenses
−9.00
−9.00
CCA
?
?
EBIT
?
?
Taxes
(35%)
?
?
Unlevered
net income
?
?
CCA
?
?
Increases
in net working capital
−5.00
−5.00
Capital
expenditures
−143.00
Continuation
value
11.00
Free
cash flow
−143.00
?
?
The relevant CCA rate for the capital expenditures is 10 % Assume assets are never sold.
A.) Using the indirect method requires a separate calculation of the CCA tax shield. What is the present value of the CCA tax shield?
The present value of the CCA tax shield is
$_________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
B.) For this base-case scenario, what is the NPV of the plant to manufacture lightweight
tractors?
The NPV is
$__________________ million. (Round to two decimal places.)
C.) Based on input from the marketing department, Buhler is uncertain about its revenue forecast. In particular, management would like to examine the sensitivity of the NPV to the revenue assumptions.
What is the NPV of this project if revenues are 10 % higher than forecast?
The NPV is
$__________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
D.) What is the NPV if revenues are
10 %lower than forecast?
The NPV is
$___________________________
million. (Round to two decimal places.)
You are a manager at Northern Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your office, drops a consultant’s report on your desk, and complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.9 million for this report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 25 million on new equipment needed for this project, look it over and give me your opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates (in millions of dollars):
Project Year
Earnings Forecast ($000,000s)
1
2
. . .
9
10
Sales revenue
26.000
26.000
26.000
26.000
Cost
of goods sold
15. 600
5.600
15.600
15.600
Gross
profit
10.400
10.400
10.400
10.400
General,
sales, and administrative expenses
2.000
2.000
2.000
2.000
Depreciation
2.500
2.500
2.500
2.500
Net
operating income
5.9000
5.9000
5.9000
5.9000
Income
tax
2.065
2.065
2.065
2.065
Net
Income
3.835
3.835
3.835
3.835
All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used
straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 45 % on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by
$ 3.835 million per year for ten years, the project is worth $ 38.35
million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be done!
First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 9 million in working capital up front (year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10. Next, you see they have attributed $ 2 million of selling, general and administrative expenses to the project, but you know that $ 1$ million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted. Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus on!
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Given the available information, what are the free cash flows in years 0 through 10 that should be used to evaluate the proposed project?
A.) The free cash flow for year 0 is
$_____________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
B.) The free cash flow for year 1 is
$_____________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
C.) The free cash flow for year 2 is
$_______________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
D.) The free cash flow for year 3 is
$__________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
E.) The free cash flow for year 4 is
$________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
F.) The free cash flow for year 5 is
$_______________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
G.) The free cash flow for year 6 is
$___________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
H.) The free cash flow for year 7 is
$__________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
I.) The free cash flow for year 8 is
$____________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
J.) The free cash flow for year 9 is
$_____________________
million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
K.) The free cash flow for year 10 is $______________________million. (Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative number.)
Sociology
Instruction
Child Observation Report Student will choose one the areas of development covered in the course (infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, late childhood, or adolescence) and conduct an observation of one child’s behavior. These observations must take place on a minimum of five different occasions with a minimum of one hour each observation. (You could do more frequent, smaller observations, just needs to be ten hours total) Students will provide commentary of the behaviors observed and correlate to information on the specific area of development from text, lectures, and outside research (if necessary). Report is worth 200 points. Observation report must include both the log of dates and times that observations took place as well as a summary and conclusion.
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Sociology Paper
Instruction
In a 2-3 page paper, review the following article and complete a critical analysis of the identified social problem within the article. Rector, Robert and Rachel Sheffield. “Understanding Poverty in the United States: Surprising Facts About America’s Poor” The Heritage Foundation, No. 2607, September 13, 2011. Use the following headings/parts within your paper to ensure all parts of the assignment are completed: Part A: Introduction (3 Points) Identify your chosen article, and provide a brief but clear discussion of how the article topic frames a social problem, given a social construction understanding of social problems. (1-2 paragraphs). Part B: Evidence (11 Points) Utilize at least three different academic sources and discuss alternative views of the identified social problem. (3-5 paragraphs) Part C: Critical Evaluation (11 Points) Critically evaluate, given the research demonstrated in Part B, the original chosen article, with a conclusion as to the accuracy of the article. (3-5 paragraphs). This evaluation should demonstrate the following: Evaluation of accuracy of the information. Distinguishes fact from opinion. Demonstrates alternative arguments and understandings.
Leadership Paper
MGT 248, Culinary Supervisory Development
Leadership Paper
List and describe in detail all the characteristics of a good leader. You must demonstrate a clear understanding of Deming’s 14 quality tenets and motivation by empowerment. Your description should include specific practices for a Leader to be successful.
Your paper should have an introduction paragraph explaining the purpose of the paper. Then the body of the paper with all the supporting details that relate to that purpose. Then a final summary paragraph drawing conclusions based on information provided.
Reference page: Utilizing the library worksheet provided, present at least 3 references 4 weeks before paper due date. All materials used must be cited in APA format. If you are citing the textbook as a reference there must be at least 2 other peer reviewed current (3- 5 year) cited references. Complete web address links must be included, along with proper referrals to written books used. Wikipedia will not be accepted. It is not considered a valid reference site because it is not peer reviewed, which means it is not double-checked for accuracy. You can however use this as a jumping off place to find valid references
Please provide a draft of your paper 2 weeks prior to the due date. If needed I may guide you to take your paper to the writing center for improvement.
Your paper must be in your own words and not cut and pasted from a web site. Plagiarism will result in a Zero grade.
Your project should be at least four pages, using double spaced # 12 type and Times New Roman font. It needs to done in Microsoft Word and submitted to Black Board.
Projects & Assignments Due Dates
All assignments and projects are due on the date indicated. Late work will be accepted as follows: up to one week late with a 20% points reduction. Up to 2 weeks late with a 30% points deduction and up to 3 weeks with a 50% deduction and after 3 weeks student will receive a zero and no work accepted for that assignment or project.
Grading
-Paper is worth 95 pts.
-Submitting the Library Worksheet 4 weeks before due date and Written draft 2 weeks before due date is worth 5 pts.
Homework Help
Instruction
Research Assignment – Leading Internationally 1.The purpose of this assignment is to help you see that one’s leadership style and effectiveness is culturally dependent. Assignment Overview – Assume that you are being sent to Japan to run a division of your company’s overseas operations. Let’s assume that you have been managing for five years in your current position at a U.S.-based facility. Now that you are going overseas you want to understand what the Japanese workers look for in a leader and what it will take to be a successful leader in Japan. Therefore, I would like you to report on what it would take for you to be a successful manager in Japan. What do workers expect from their leaders? What business or cultural norms would you have to be aware of to lead successfully in this new environment? 2.Include a description of the country, its workforce, and its common business practices. Discuss, for instance, language, traditions, values, and ethics. A good place to begin your research is with your eReadings from the OERs. Pay particular attention to discussions of some of the key ways that cultures vary such as power distance, individualism vs. collectivism, and uncertainty avoidance. Then incorporate information obtained from other scholarly sources and what you’ve concluded about your own leadership style from the readings. Keep in mind that your analysis is complete only if it provides practical insights for you to succeed as a business leader in Japan. Requirements: Eight to ten page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least six sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.
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Communication Strategies
Instruction
Midterm Assignment: Communication Strategies: An Essay Based on Experience For this assignment, you will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of different communication strategies and apply them to your own experience. You will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of the different communication strategies and techniques that are used in communicating across different cultures and how it improves one’s ability to connect with each other in a business setting. It is also true that certain other factors, assumptions, or beliefs can get in the way of effective communication. Introduce your essay by discussing why effective communication is important in the business world. Next, discuss one specific strategy that facilitates or supports effective communication in a multicultural work environment, and identify why it is effective. Then discuss a communication inhibitor—that is, a factor, an assumption, or a belief that can undermine effective communication in a multicultural work environment. Identify how and why this inhibitor gets in the way of effective communication. Finally, offer an example from your own experience of a communication event that you have either witnessed or participated in that illustrates what you have learned about either effective or ineffective communication in the workplace. In choosing an example, try to focus on a situation that illustrates the communication issues that can occur in a multicultural work environment. Requirements: Six to eight-page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least five quality scholarly sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.
Communications
Instructions
Write a 4-5 paper that analyzes the intercultural dimensions of the book “Spirit Catches You.” Choose one or two individuals from the book as the focal point for your essay. Develop your paper based on the intercultural interactions struggles, barriers and/or conflicts experienced by these individuals. Remember that in an intercultural interaction, the participants almost never have equal power. Reflect on how power and positionality play a role in these individuals’ lives. Provide specific details from the book related to things that the individuals said or did to support your thesis. In addition to the concept of power and positionality, you must draw on at least 3 specific concepts or ideas from your textbook to make theoretical connections and arguments related to the motivations, actions, and interactions of the characters.
General
Module 4
For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community. This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown! The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.
Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”
The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:
Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose. With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community. I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.
After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience. So you will have at least two documents. Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:
TIPS
Ø You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.
Ø Take a digital camera. You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find. The pictures will also add value to your presentation.
Ø Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.
o Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’
Ø You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.
Ø Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you. Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?
Ø If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey. To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.
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Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report. This will be a paper different from your presentation. No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.
Paper: (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.
Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses. Are they of particular style? What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!) What gaps in services did you observe?
Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)? How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area. What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems. You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this. This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community. Reasons for non-growth?
Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey. EVERY community has strengths!! You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.
Module 4 Presentation Project – 40 points
The format for your presentation slide show should be:
Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
Subjective feelings
III. Community needs
Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
Conclusions
Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view. .
You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice. Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.
If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues. Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.
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Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper
The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?”
American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.
Completing This Assignment:
For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.
The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.
Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?
Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:
In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document
Formatted, including:
12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)
Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level
You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.
2.Psychology
Instructions Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location. Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.
Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.
3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles
Description
Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?
Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain
4. Unit 2 Discussion question
Description
The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.
5. Examining the Legal Environment
Description
Overview
Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.
Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process.
Context
Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.
Questions to Consider
To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.
* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination? * What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives? * As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book
Read the scenario below. Scenario While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:
* Females in the labor force: 35% * Blacks in the labor force: 10% * Hispanics in the labor force: 5% * All other groups are 0%
To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:
Hiring Statistic
Total
Females
Black
Hispanic
Number Applied
80
20
10
5
Number Hired
20
6
3
1
Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:
Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:
Positions Within the Company
Total
Females
Black
Hispanic
Unskilled Workers
350
45
20
15
Skilled Operators
50
1
2
3
Line Supervisors
25
2
1
1
Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.
Requirements
Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following:
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow. * Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1. * Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs. * Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.
Additional Requirements
* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references). * Use Times New Roman font, 12 point. * Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.
References
* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM. Chapter 6.
* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.
* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.
6. Health Care Analytics
Description
Discussion Resources
The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:
Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.
Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.
For your initial discussion post, address the following:
Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.
Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations
7. Analyzing Researched Information
Description
Overview
For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.
My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.
Instructions
For this assignment:
Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment
8. Conducting a Job Analysis
Description
Overview
Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.
Context
Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.
Read the scenario below.
Scenario Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.
Requirements
You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.
Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.
Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:
A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job. The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required. Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state. Additional Requirements
Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point. Double space your memo.
Resources
Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM. Chapters 5–7.
U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/
9. Cloud Computing Security
Question
The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.
10. Manipulating the Minitab Output
Question
Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.
Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.
Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?
12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS
Question
Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.
13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management
Question
Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues
14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post
Question
Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!
1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc).
2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?
3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?
15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num
Question
In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have
16. Creative Writing Poem
Question
ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”. The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem.
17. Math question about combination safes
You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.
Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)
18. Coastline question math, hard concept
Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.
Explain how you got to the answer.
19. Career Planning and Management 300 words
Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.
Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is?
Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
Recent statistical data on identity theft
Type of identity theft
Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft
20. Defend or refute one of the following statements
1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.
Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.
21. Learning Strategies Psychology
Topic is : Human Rights
1. Define the topic
2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?
3. How are people in this group treated in our society?
4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?
5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?
Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.
300 words or more
22. Pole and minimum number of moves
There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.
What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?
Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.
23. Math help
You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.
You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.
Please explain your solution.
24. Math Help
John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?
25. Unemployment compensation
Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:
Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.
At least a 300 words response. APA
26. Mirror question
Please help me out with this confusing question!
Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.
Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.
27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question:
Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?
28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question # 4:
General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.
29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.
Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.
Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.
Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.
An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.
Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.
A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.
B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?
C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?
D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?
E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?
30. Business Development
Please complete the following assignment.
You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).
To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.
31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question # 5:
Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?
32. 2 Paragraphs question
Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome
MLA format.
33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs
Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference
Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?
MLA format – 300 words minimum
34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question
Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.
During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.
In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:
List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.
35. Answer the following questions
The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
36. Business Questions
Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.
Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
Personal loss exposures
Property loss exposures
Liability loss exposures
With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
37. Design and analysis of algorithms
Analysis & Design of Algorithms
Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.
Question
1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.
2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.
3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.
4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.
5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.
6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.
7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.
38. Web Development Exercise
Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,
based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price
ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public
member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-
ing schedule:
Age Price
Under 5 Free
5 to 17 Half price
18 to 55 Full price
Over 55 $2 off
39. Software design and construction quiz
Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.
QUESTION 1
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QUESTION TEXT
You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?
Select one:
A. TOGAF
B. IEEE
C. MICROSOFT .NET
D. JAVA
QUESTION 2
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QUESTION TEXT
What does the MVC pattern do?
Select one:
A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.
B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.
C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.
D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.
QUESTION 3
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QUESTION TEXT
Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?
Select one:
A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.
B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.
C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.
D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.
QUESTION 4
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QUESTION TEXT
Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?
Select one:
A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.
B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.
C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.
D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.
QUESTION 5
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?
Select one:
A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.
B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.
C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.
D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.
QUESTION 6
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?
Select one:
A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES
B. MODULARITY
C. AGILITY
D. INFORMATION HIDING
QUESTION 7
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is not an architectural style?
Select one:
A. CONNECTOR.
B. LAYERED.
C. CLIENT-SERVER
D. PEER-TO-PEER.
QUESTION 8
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QUESTION TEXT
Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?
Select one:
A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.
B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.
C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.
D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.
QUESTION 9
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?
Select one:
A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.
B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.
C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.
D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.
QUESTION 10
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QUESTION TEXT
What is software efficiency?
Select one:
A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.
B. LOW COST.
C. HIGH OCTANE.
D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.
QUESTION 11
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QUESTION TEXT
Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?
Select one:
A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.
B. NEITHER.
C. BOTH.
D. FUNCTIONAL.
QUESTION 12
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QUESTION TEXT
Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?
Select one:
A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.
B. YES, IT DOES.
C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?
D. NO, IT DOES NOT.
QUESTION 13
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QUESTION TEXT
What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?
Select one:
A. HIDE … POUNCE.
B. LISTEN … CORRECT.
C. WATCH …. GRAB.
D. TRY … CATCH.
QUESTION 14
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QUESTION TEXT
What is the role of connectors in software architecture.
Select one:
A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.
B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.
C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.
D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.
QUESTION 15
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is an example of a Connector?
Select one:
A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.
B. BACKING UP FILES.
C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.
D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.
QUESTION 16
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QUESTION TEXT
What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?
Select one:
A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS
B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.
C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.
D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.
QUESTION 17
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?
Select one:
A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.
B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.
C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?
D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.
QUESTION 18
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?
Select one:
A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.
B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.
C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.
D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.
QUESTION 19
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QUESTION TEXT
Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?
Select one:
A. ME? NO WAY.
B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.
C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.
D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.
QUESTION 20
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QUESTION TEXT
How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?
Select one:
A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.
B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.
C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.
D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.
40. Create a small GUI application
Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.
Sum of the four values
Product of the four values
The smallest value
The largest of the values
The exit button will exit the application.
41. Sport Management and Drugs
Sports Management:
Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)
Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!
42. Budget Assignment
Instruction
For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.
43.History Assignment
Instruction
Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.
44.Healthcare
Instruction
• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment
45. General Assignment
Instruction
Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.
46. Math Assignment
Instruction
Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?
47. Science
1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.
48. Business
Instruction
The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Instruction
In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
50. Math help
A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3
Instruction
Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.
51. Psychology week 2
Instruction
Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.
52. Cultures in conflict week 2
Instruction
Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?
53. Website Assignment
Instruction
Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q
Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.
55.History
Instruction
Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.
56. Science
Instruction
1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?
4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?
5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?
6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?
7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?
8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.
9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.
10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?
11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?
12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.
13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?
14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?
15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).
16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?
17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?
18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?
19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?
57. Psychology
Instruction
Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.
58. Other
You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!
59. Healthcare
Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?
60. Article review and power point
Instruction
I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise
61. Business
Instruction
Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372
62. General
This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization. By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.). This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll
I suggest the following process:
Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
OPTIONAL:Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected. I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.
Paper Format:
Your paper should be at least five (5) pages long, not including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography
Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers. A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient.
63.Healthcare
Instruction
Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.
64. Psychology
Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d
Instruction
Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.
65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs
Essay 2 Directions
Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:
1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches 17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s
You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic
66.Economics
Instruction
You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).
67.General
Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)
This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project
will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.
– Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study
– Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,
– Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,
– Organization of your paper should include:
I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader
II. Introduction:
– Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status
– Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-
economic burden among those affected, etc)
– You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact
III. Descriptive Epidemiology:
– Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references
– who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age
IV. Rates:
– Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)
V. Causes and Risk Factors
– Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)
– Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease
VI. Conclusion
– Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact
VII. Bibliography
– Reference all statements of fact.
– All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper
– Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.
For examples: AMA style.
– Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged
– Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.
68. Computer Science
Instruction
– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.
69. Computer Science
Instruction
I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.
70. History of Psychology
Discussion Questions
All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.
Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.
Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page 1. There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important. Pick two reasons and explain why they are important. 2. Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology. Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.
3. Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.
4. Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes. How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?
5. Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.
6. Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology. How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?
7. Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.
8. What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?
9. Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views. Which one do you agree with more? 10. There were many controversies over intelligence testing. Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history. Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ. 11. Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism. How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different? 12. Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists. Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known. 13. Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist. Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known? Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories. 14. Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory. What impact did it have on psychology and therapy? 15. Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each. 16. Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis. Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.
71.Writing Essay
Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner? Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include a counterargument and rebuttal. You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations.
72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases
Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).
Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.
Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use Academic Search Complete to find them. You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.
You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:
Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu
Password: eConnect password
If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.
Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.
73. Project Management Discussion 5
1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?
Total estimated repairing cost = total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000
Total cost of raw materials = total units * cost per unit
= 10000 * 40
= $400,000
total cost of production for 10,000 units = $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000
= $758,000
Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000
Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.
2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?
The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.
1. Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?
Cost estimate with new high cost component:
$72×10,000=720,000
Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:
Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:
100,000+400,000= $500,000
Calculation after the defect:
0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215
Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150
Cost for defective component=$120
2150×120= $258,000
Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000
Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.
Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.
2. Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?
Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part
Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.
References:
1. Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
74. Assignment: Journaling
When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.
For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.
To complete
Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:
Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
(Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.
75. Term Paper
Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.
You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.
– Assure you are citing in APA format
-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)
– Doublespace the paper
– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)
76. Discussion
Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.
a. What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?
b. What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?
3 paragraphs with 3 references
77. Week 8- Discussion
Discussion Assignment:
Watch the following video:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0
Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.
The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis swelling caused by a bee sting sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma fake news climate change popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why increasing post-graduation debt for college students outcome of the
2016 presidential election controversies in schools and online over free speech
78. Computer Science
Question 1
Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b -> deg_c = m * deg_f + b
Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the spreadsheet. You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a file. Then copy the column with error values included for degree Celsius. Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the formulas in the spreadsheet.
Question 2
Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and operator overloading. I have written the .h and main.cpp files for you. Complete by writing the .cpp class files.
How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.
80. Education Homework
Story Plot
Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read. Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013). Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards. For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course. You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category. A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type. Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.
81. Education homework
Picturebooks
The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013). Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books. For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3. Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements. Include one picture and description for each of the following:
Color
Shape, line, and texture
Characters and icons
Composition and point of view
In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.
In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.
82. Human Resource Management
Internet Search
Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:
Describe member services and incentives.
Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
Examine provider network and outreach.
Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
List its accreditation and/or certification.
Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.
In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:
Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.
84. Human Resource Management.
Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance
In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:
Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.
Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)
Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)
86. Accounting
Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.
87. Writing Essay
Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,
88.Discussion
While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.
In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.
89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay
CASE ANALYSIS GRADING
Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.
For each assignment, you need to show:
– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written
– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action
THEN
– Roll the electronic die.
– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.
– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective
You receive no points for summarizing the case.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification. You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues. You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.
In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.
Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.
90. Information Systems
Instructions
Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.
Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-haor Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.
Please address the following elements:
From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
What will you do differently?
How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?
You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!
(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)
Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?
Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?
Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?
Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?
92. Identify Variable Types And Values
In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:
Identify the types of data represented by variables
The range or types of values for each variable
Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.
Steps
1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel
2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type
3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each
4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).
Additional Instructions:
Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include
Correctly identifies all variable types
Correctly gives the range of values for each variable
Correctly describes each variable
Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.
93. Applied sciences
Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.
Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.
94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments
BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity, and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.
Discussion Questions
1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?
2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?
Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.
95. Literature Analysis Research
Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.
Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:
Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic devices.
Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included? How would their absence change the literary work?
Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work? Name at least two (2) and why.
For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted
How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?
3 references with minimum of 300 words
97. Discussion Question
From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is
Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.
98. Monologue
Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”
99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System
1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM
2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.
Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.
Minimum of 300 words with three references
100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism
Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism
Topics:
Question 1) Business Bluffing
Question 2) Stakeholder theory
Question 3)Organizational Integrity
Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,
DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term;
SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.
DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.
REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.
101.Nursing
What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.
Choose one of the five determinants other than individual behavior (as we are all aware of how individual behavior impacts health). In your post, describe this determinant and its importance.
Discuss how a community health nurse (CHN) could use one of the 17 intervention categories from the Public Health Intervention Wheel to address this determinant (Nies & McEwen, 2015).
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health
102. Company Name Apple Inc:
The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:
Title Page
Executive Summary
Background
Introduce the company and provide the reader with background information about the company.
Situation Analysis
The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
Political environment
Economic environment
Social environment
Technological environment
Legal/Regulatory environment
Environmental environment
The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
Bargaining power of suppliers
Threat of new entrant
Rivalry among existing competitors
Bargaining power of competitors
Threat of substitutes
The Firm
What is the mission and vision of the firm?
What are the strengths of the firm?
What is the firm’s financial condition?
What are the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition, organizational conflict)?
What is the management philosophy?
What does the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
The Product
What good and/or service does the organization offer?
What consumer need does the product solve?
What promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being used by the organization?
What competitive advantage does the marketing strategy offer?
SWOT Analysis
Strengths
Identify strengths of the organization and answer the following questions:
How does this strength affect the operations of the organization?
How does this strength assist the company in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Weaknesses
Identify weaknesses of the organization and answer the following questions:
How does this weakness affect the operations of the organization?
How does knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Opportunities
Identify opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
How is this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
What actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
Threats
Identify threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
How is this threat related to serving the needs of our target market?
What actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting the capabilities of the organization?
Problem Statement
What is the primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative analysis in your response.
Strategic Plan
Based on the problem identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:
1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values
2. SMART objectives to solve the problem
3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified
4. Implementation plan
5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress
Summary
Conclude the paper with a summary of the major points.
References
As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:
· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)
· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data
· Format: APA
Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term
The
first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing
practice problem of interest.
Select
a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.
Start
with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from
clinical care.
Following
the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem
area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.
Conduct
a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected
practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both
quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your
practice problem.
The
PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project
students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of
study).
Select
six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5
weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative
research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in
which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s
abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference
list with abstracts.
Suggestions
for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible
sources:
Use
a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using
the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in
the “Limit Your Results” section.
When
setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add
quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes.
Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.
To
narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and
include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and
pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the
abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a
description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.
Prepare
this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide,
located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This
assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the
assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You
are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.
2. CMIS 320 project
In this
assignment you will perform the physical design and implementation using SQL
Data Definition Language (DDL) and proceed with populating the Mom and Pop
Johnson Video Store database via Data Manipulation Language (DML) SQL
commands.
For each of
the steps below you may create a separate SQL script file and SPOOL file or you
may want to put the SPOOL output for several steps, from the same SQL script
file, in the same file. Be sure your SPOOL file(s) contains your SQL
statements along with the Oracle responses and/or displayed results. Do
NOT submit your SQL script files. Only submit your output SPOOL files.
Assignment Details
1) Create
Oracle database tables using SQL Data Definition Language (DDL) for each table
listed in the metadata of Project 2. You may need to use a combination of
DROP TABLE, CREATE TABLE, and ALTER TABLE SQL statements. Make sure that
entity and referential integrity are enforced by declaring a primary key for
each table (these may be composite keys) and declaring all appropriate foreign
keys. Your CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements (if desired) must show
integrity constraints, as appropriate, for NOT NULL, UNIQUE, PRIMARY KEY,
FOREIGN KEY, REFERENCES, and CHECK constraints. Be sure to save your SQL script
file used to create these tables with a .sql extension and your output SPOOL
file with a .lst or .txt extension. You should rerun and test your SQL
script file until it runs without any errors (this is why you’ll want to include
DROP TABLE statements). Submit your SPOOL file showing that all SQL in
your SQL script file worked properly.
2) Populate
each of your tables with at least five valid rows of data each and show the SQL
INSERT statements as you executed them. Populate other tables in your database,
as necessary, to satisfy referential integrity. Save your SQL script file and
SPOOL file with the correct extensions. You should test and rerun your
SQL script file until it runs without any errors. Submit your SPOOL file
showing that all SQL in your SQL script file worked properly.
3) Develop an
SQL script file to perform the following queries and updates. You should test
your SQL script file until it runs without any errors.
Retrieve all
of your customers’ names, account numbers, and addresses (street and zip code
only), sorted by account number.
Retrieve all
of the videos rented in the last 30 days and sort in chronological rental date
order.
Produce a
list of your distributors and all their information sorted in order by company
name.
Update a
customer name to change their maiden name to a married name. You can choose
which row to update. Make sure that you use the primary key column in
your WHERE clause to affect only a specific row. You may want to include
a ROLLBACK statement to undo your data update.
Delete a
customer from the database. You can choose which row to delete. Make sure that
you use the primary key column in your WHERE clause to affect only a specific
row. You may want to include a ROLLBACK statement to undo your data
deletion.
Submit your
SPOOL file(s) showing that all SQL in your SQL script file worked properly.
Show the actual SQL statements executed and the results the SQL produced
below the code by making sure that you have a SET ECHO STATEMENT in your SQL
script file(s).
3.
Liberty HIEU 201 History of Western Civilization Evaluative Essay 1 & 2
Thesis Statement
To evaluate an historical theme using
assigned sources for support.
To compose a properly formatted,
scholarly paper, using the most recent edition of Turabian, Notes-Bibliography.
General Directions:
For this assignment, students will
choose 1 historical theme from the
list below to research throughout the course:
Religion/Philosophy
Literature
Law
Science/Medicine/Technology
Economy/Labor
Students will write 2 analytical essays on their chosen
theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional
documents.
In Week 3, students will submit a
thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the instructor for review. This
pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be required for Evaluative
Essay 2.
Evaluative Essay 1 will cover the
period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.
Evaluative Essay 2 will cover the
period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.
Specific Requirements:
The evaluative essay will consider
assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those sources using the
topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this assignment.
Format, Length and Organization:
Length: 750-1100 words (roughly
3-4pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
Double spaced text, Times New Roman,
size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian:
Notes-Bibliography)
The paper should have a title page,
body, and bibliography page
Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography
style, format footnotes for the paper.
Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in
literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body and
conclusion:
Introduction should be one paragraph
and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong thesis statement.
The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
Body of the paper is a few paragraphs
(3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing comparison and contrast
of the assigned documents, as well as
further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body of the paper should provide
specific examples and details from the assigned sources.
Conclusion is the final paragraph,
restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the paper, drawing
conclusions for the reader. No new information.
The textbook and lectures can be used
for basic background information, but the majority of supporting details should
be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic document.
For Biblical analysis, you can use
your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using
Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation (such
as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).
Note that no citation is needed for common
knowledge information, but specific examples, details, or arguments drawn from
the assigned sources DO need proper source citation.
Martin
Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the
door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation
needed)
The
Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories
that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always
reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees
rather than historians.[1] – citation needed because this expresses a
specific view or argument.
**If
you are unsure of whether or not a citation is needed, it is better to include
the citation than to leave it out. You can also contact your instructor for
assistance.
4. Management
Book Reactions:
Students will find
two to three compelling items within the book and tie it back into what has
been learned in the course. The book reactions should be a minimum of 2 pages
(writing should run onto page three) double spaced with 1” margins and 12-point
font. Feel free to agree or disagree with what was presented in the books, but
make sure to support your argument with information. Long headers at the
beginning of the submission will NOT count towards your page length.
5. I need an essay to
be written over the specified case study. I have attached the case study along
with the directions.
Instruction
Write
a two- to three-page essay. Double spaced, 12-pt font. Identify and discuss 5
nutrition related problems or potential nutrition problems in the Davis family.
Offer recommendations for dealing with the nutrition issue in the context of
the current crisis situation. Use your text book, the PPT lectures, previous
case studies and assignments, reliable websites, and your own critical thinking
skills. No references required.
6.
Your
Smallville client has asked you to gather details to meet IT audit requirements
to determine whether IT services meet the organization’s objectives. Prepare a
report for your Smallville client on IT audit objectives, risk assessment, and
what help you may need from them to complete this task. Review the Gail
Industries Case Study.
Write
a 3- to 4-page report or create a 12- to 16-slide media-rich presentation with
speaker notes in which you: Describe the reasons it is important to conduct
periodic reviews of information systems to determine whether they continue to
meet the organization’s objectives. Discuss the importance of the
organization’s policies and practices as they relate to information systems and
IT infrastructure. Identify strategic and operational objectives for planning
for the audit. Evaluate different risk assessments techniques and monitoring
tools to consider during an audit process. Note: You are preparing for a
systems audit, not a financial audit. Frame your analysis around the systems,
not the accounting or finance aspects directly. Format citations according to
APA guidelines.
7. 10
page Term Paper Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Impact on Climate Change
Instruction
Details
of the Paper: Prepare a 10-15 page paper in Microsoft Word (counts as 15% of
the final grade) in APA format (see writing expectations in the Policies
section) (350 words per page). At a minimum include the following: References
(minimum of 10) You may use resources from the APUS Online Library, any
library, government library, or any peer-reviewed reference (Wikipedia and any
other publicly-reviewed source is not accepted). The paper must by at least 10
pages double-spaced, 1″ margin all around, black 12 point fonts (Times New
Roman or Arial) with correct citations of all utilized references/sources,
(pictures, graphics, etc are extra – allowed but extra for the minimum page
count). The title page and references are also required but don’t count in the
minimum page count. A minimum of 10 references are needed. The paper will be
subjected to checking against plagiarism. The paper must follow acceptable
originality criteria (no more than 15% max total, and 2% per individual source
match are allowed). Save the file using the following file naming convention:
ITMG481_Project_First_Last.doc(x) (where first and last are your first and last
names resp.) and submit the file in this assignment area. Turnitin.com has been
enabled for this assignment so remember that your submission’s file type must
be either doc or docx Outline and Topic are attached. Paper needs to follow the
outline provided as well as include the references already provided.
8. Service and Contracts
Description
Analyze
how physicians and hospitals have negotiated service contracts with third party
payers.
Discuss
how fee for service versus managed care models of reimbursement have
contributed risk avoidance in their contract negotiations.
Recommend
future strategies for physicians and hospitals to effectively negotiate service
delivery contracts. Base the recommendation on your research and readings.
Citations
must appear within the body of your paper to correspond with the references
listed at the end of the paper (i.e., if the resource is included in your
Reference List, the resource must be cited in your paper).
Write a 7–10 page analysis of how the
practices of your own organization (or another organization with which you are
familiar) influence the success of its virtual teams.
You will benefit from taking a close
look at how your own organization fares in terms of addressing critical success
factors for virtual teams, as well as from building an understanding of the
skills needed to participate successfully in virtual team collaboration.
Preparation
In their seminal work, Mastering
Virtual Teams (2011), Duarte and Snyder identify seven critical success factors
in virtual team collaboration:
1. Human resource policies.
2. Training and development.
3. Standard organizational processes.
4. Communication and collaboration technology.
5. Organizational culture.
6. Leadership.
7. Competence (p. 10).
Note: You should be able to find a
number of resources that address these critical success factors through your
research for this assessment.
To prepare for this assessment,
research the seven critical success factors in virtual team collaboration.
Consider your own real-world experiences with these factors in the workplace.
This assessment incorporates multiple
elements. Be sure to thoroughly address each before submitting the assessment.
Use the seven critical success factors
to analyze how the practices of your own organization (or another organization
with which you are familiar) influence the success of its virtual teams. Base
your analysis on your own experience of being a member of a virtual team within
the organization.
Note: If you have not participated in
a virtual team, base your analysis on a hypothetical virtual team experience,
using what you know of your organization’s practices.
In developing this case, it is helpful
to assume that you have been tasked by executive management to conduct an audit
of your organization’s ability to support virtual team collaboration. Your
audit will include a detailed report in each of the seven critical success
factors. Go beyond a description of the “as-is” state for each of
these factors in your audit to evaluate and analyze each of the factors to
identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that the current
state presents to the organization in terms of its ability to support virtual
team collaboration.
Remember that the executive management
of your company is not interested in a report about the criteria
themselves—they are not interested in reading about human resource policies in
the abstract, for example—but about how the organization measures up to the
criteria. Use the success factors to analyze the organization—do not fall into
the trap of writing about the criteria. Use the criteria to describe, analyze,
and evaluate the organization.
Explain how organizational practices
influenced (or might influence) the virtual team’s performance. Address all of
the following:
Human resource policies: Do the
organization’s career development resources address the needs of virtual team
members? Does the organizational reward system recognize the efforts and
successes of those who work virtually? Are rewards given only for results, or
are they also given for effort? Does the organization actively support work
arrangements such as telecommuting?
Training and development: Is there access to technical training for virtual
team members? Is there access to training in the area of working across
cultures? Is there a program of ongoing training as needed? Is there a system
for sharing what has been learned, such as a database?
Standard organizational processes: Are there standard technical processes used
throughout the organization (with regard to virtual teams)? Are there standard
soft processes used throughout the organization? Does the organization support
the ability to adapt processes when necessary? Does the organizational culture
support shared ways of doing business across teams?
Communication and collaboration technology: Are there consistent standards for
electronic communication and collaboration tools across the organization? Does
the organization possess or provide enough resources to purchase and support
state-of-the-art electronic communication and collaboration technology? Do all
employees (across departments and geographic location) have equal access to
electronic communication and collaboration technology?
Organizational culture: Is there trust between the organization, its partners,
and other external stakeholders? Are teamwork and collaboration standard
practices? Are people from different cultures valued?
Leadership: Do leaders allocate enough resources for the training and
technology needed by virtual teams? What level of expectation do leaders set
for virtual team performance? Do leaders model exemplary behavior by working
across boundaries and using technology effectively?
Competence: Are team leaders experienced with working in virtual environments?
Are team members experienced with working in virtual team environments? Are
team leaders experienced in working across both organizational and cultural
boundaries? Are team members experienced in working across both organizational
and cultural boundaries?
Support your analyses with real examples, as well as evidence from your
research and readings.
Additional Requirements
Ensure written communication is free
of errors that detract from the overall message and quality.
Your report should be 7–10 content pages, in addition to a title page and
references page.
Use 12-point, Times New Roman.
Use at least three scholarly resources.
Follow APA rules for attributing sources that support your analysis and
conclusions. As a reminder related to using APA rules to ensure academic
honesty:
When using a direct quote (using exact or nearly exact wording), you must
enclose the quoted wording in quotation marks, immediately followed by an
in-text citation. The source must then be listed in your references page.
When paraphrasing (using your own words to describe a nonoriginal idea), the
paraphrased idea must be immediately followed by an in-text citation and the
source must be listed in your references page.
Suggested Resources
The following optional resources are provided to support you in completing the
assessment or to provide a helpful context.
Purvanova, R. K. (2014). Face-to-face versus virtual teams: What have we really
learned? The Psychologist-Manager Journal, 17(1), 2–29.
Read the case study about using the DMADV approach for designing new housing at the
University of Miami. Write a paper of two to four pages detailing the
DMADV steps for designing a new product/process at your firm. Your approach to
designing the new product/process at your firm should be similar to that in
this case study. Cite your sources in the APA format.
A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a
rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change
in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t)
according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:
1. The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.
Please explain how you arrived at your answer.
12. Which formula should be used to
determine the total cost?
The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges
$1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for
photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total
cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming
at least 60 are purchased?
a. C = 1000 p + 2
b. C = 1000(2p – 60)
c. C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)
Please explain your answer.
13. Philip and Claire are
married and file a joint
Question
Individual Tax
Return Problem 4
Required:
Use the following information to complete Phillip and Claire Dunphy’s 2017 federal
income tax return. If any information is missing, use reasonable assumptions
to fill in the gaps. Ignore the alternative minimum tax for this problem.
Any required forms, schedules, and instructions can be found at the IRS website
(www.irs.gov). The instructions can be helpful in completing the forms.
Facts:
Phillip and Claire are married and file a joint return. Phillip is
self-employed as a real estate agent, and Claire is a flight attendant. Phillip
and Claire have three dependent children. All three children live at home with
Phillip and Claire for the entire year.
The Dunphys provide you with the following additional information:
The Dunphys do not want to contribute to the presidential election campaign.
The Dunphys live at 3701 Brighton Avenue, Los Angeles, California 90018.
Phillip’s birthday is 11/5/1971 and his Social Security number is 321-XX-5766.
Claire’s birthday is 5/12/1974 and her Social Security number is 567-XX-1258.
Haley’s birthday is 11/6/2005 and her Social Security number is 621-XX-7592.
Alex’s birthday is 2/1/2007 and her Social Security number is 621-XX-8751.
Luke’s birthday is 12/12/2011 and his Social Security number is 621-XX-9926.
The Dunphys do not have any foreign bank accounts or trusts.
Claire is a flight attendant for Western American Airlines (WAA), where she
earned $57,000 in salary. WAA withheld federal income tax of $6,375, state income
tax of $1,800, Los Angeles city income tax of $675, Social Security tax of
$3,600, and Medicare tax of $825.
Phillip and Claire received $300 of interest from State Savings Bank on a joint
account. They also received a qualified dividend of $395 on jointly owned
stock in Xila Corporation.
Phillip’s full-time real estate business is named “Phillip Dunphy Realty.” His business
is located at 645 Grove Street, Los Angeles, California 90018, and his employer
identification number is 93-3488888. Phillip’s gross receipts during the year
were $730,000. Phillip uses the cash method of accounting for his business.
Phillip’s business expenses are as follows:
Advertising
$ 5,000
Professional dues
800
Professional journals
200
Employee wages
48,000
Insurance on office contents
1,120
Accounting services
2,100
Miscellaneous office expense
500
Utilities and telephone
3,360
Payroll taxes
3,600
Depreciation To be calculated
On March 20, Phillip moved his business out of the old offices at 1103 Allium
Lane into a newly constructed and equipped office on Grove Street. Phillip sold
the old office building and all its furnishings. Phillip’s expenditures for the
new office building are as follows:
Date Acquired
Asset Cost
3/20
Land
$ 300,000
3/20
Office building
2,500,000
3/20
Furniture
200,000
4/1 Computer
system 350,000
6/1
Artwork
150,000
Phillip computes his cost recovery allowance using MACRS. He would like to use
the §179 immediate expensing, but he has elected to not claim any bonus
depreciation. Phillip has never claimed §179 or bonus depreciation before. The
assets Phillip sold on March 20 are as follows:
Date Acquired
Asset
Sales Price Original Cost
Accumulated Depreciation as of Beginning of the Year
[1]
Marvin Perry, et.al., Western
Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form)
Phillip has never sold any assets relating to his business before this
transaction.
The
Dunphys sold 60 shares of Fizbo Corporation common stock on September 3 for $65
a share (minus a $50 total commission). The Dunphys purchased the stock on
November 8, 2016, for $90 a share. They also sold a painting for $13,000 on
March 1. Claire purchased the painting for $20,050 on September 1, 2010, as an
investment.
The
Dunphys filed their 2016 federal, state, and local returns on April 13, 2017.
They paid the following additional 2016 taxes with their returns: federal
income taxes of $630, state income taxes of $250, and city income taxes of $75.
The
Dunphys made timely estimated federal income tax payments of $17,000 each
quarter during 2017. They also made estimated state income tax payments of
$1,000 each quarter and estimated city income tax payments of $300 each
quarter. The Dunphys made all fourth-quarter payments on December 31, 2017.
They would like to receive a refund for any overpayments.
Phillip and Claire have qualifying insurance for purposes of the
Affordable Care Act (ACA).\
14. Facilities Management
As the manager of a resort hotel with 500
guest roomsyou are concerned with your monthly water and sewage bill. The water company uses the graduated billing
schedule listed below. Your operation is currently using 2,500,000 gallons of
water per month. It is time to replace your 3.6 gallon per flush toilets and
you initially decided to install 1.8 gallons per flush high efficiency toilets. The toilet salesperson is recommending that
you install anultra-high efficiency model that used 0.9 gallons per flush. The ultra-high efficiency toilets will cost
you $250more than the high efficiency toilets per toilet, installed. Based on
information your chief engineer found, you estimate that on average every
toilet in an occupied room is flushed 10 times per day. Your average annual occupancy rate is
91.0747%.Assume 30.5 days per month when calculating your monthly water
savings. Based on the information above
and the rate scale below,your ultimate goal is to determine if it is more cost
effective to install the ultra-high efficiency toilets?
Water rates:
monthly charge of $150.00 per month plus usage charge base on the rates
listed below.
Amount
of water used Rate
per 1000 gallons
First
100,000 gallons $6.00
Next
500,000 gallons $5.00
Next
1,000,000 gallons $4.00
Anything
over 1,600,000 gallons $2.00
Sewage rates: monthly charge of $200.00 per
month plus usage charge based on the total water used.
Amount
of sewage produced = Total water
used minus deduct meter
Rate per 1000 gallons is $10.00
Deduct
meter shows a monthly average of 125,000 gallons
Water and sewage rates are expected to rise at
the same rate,2.0202% per month. The owners of the operation expect a monthly
rate of return on their investment of at least 1.0%. Assume that the toilets
will last for 30 years. Assume that you will take out a loan for the
toilets. You must pay 10% down make
payments at the end of each month until the remainder has been paid off, 72
month. The nominal annual interest rate
for the loan is 3.99%. The equation for converting a nominal annual rate to a
monthly rate is:
Give the above
information answer the following questions. You must show ALL your work to
receive credit.
1. How
much will your water usage drop each month (to the nearest gallon) if you
install the ultra-high efficiency
toilets compared to the high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
2. If
your water usage is for the entire facility is projected to be 2,250,000
gallons if the high efficiency toilets are installed, how much water will be
used each month by your entire facility if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
3. If
you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets, what will be your average
monthly water and sewage bill (to the nearest dollar) for the entire facility?
Water portion of the bill
(Type
stating amount here)
100,000
x 6.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 100,000 here)
500,000
x 5.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 600,000 here)
1,000,000
x 4.00/1,000 =
(Type
stating amount – 1,600,000 here)
(Type
stating amount – 1,600,000 here) x 2.00/1,000 =
0
Total water bill =
Sewage bill =
Total water and sewage bill =
4. What
is the projected savings on your water and sewage bill (to the nearest dollar)
for the entire facilityin present value if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets instead of the high efficiency toilets? The projected monthly water and sewage bill
if you add the high efficiency toilets will be $30,000. Make sure you calculate
all interest rates to 4 significant digits, and write all percentages as
decimals.
Equation (variables only): PV =
A =
n =
ieffective =
PV =
PV =
5. How
much more will it cost to install the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to
installing the high efficiency toilets in present value will it cost (to the
nearest dollar) for the new toilets, installed? Make sure you calculate all interest rates
to 4 significant digits, and write all percentages as decimals.
a. What
will be increase in total price for all the toilets installed if you install
the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to installing the high efficiency
toilets (to the nearest dollar)?
(type
your answer here)
b. How
much more will the down payment be on the loan if you install the ultra-high
efficiency toilets compared to installing the high efficiency toilets (to the
nearest dollar)?
(type
your answer here)
c. How
much more will your monthly loan payment (to the nearest dollar) be if you
install the ultra-high efficiency toilets compared to installing the high
efficiency toilets?
(type your answer here)
d. How
much will the total cost (to the nearest dollar) in present value for the
toilets installed increase if you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets
compared to installing the high efficiency toilets?
Equation (variables only): PV =
A =
n =
ieffective =
PV =
PV =
6. What
will be your net savings if you install the ultra-high efficiency toilets
compared to installing the high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
7. Should
you install the high efficiency or ultra-high efficiency toilets?
(type
your answer here)
15. Political Science and Policy response
Question
Assume that you are a Senator within
your home state in which determinate sentencing is currently being practiced;
however, you have introduced a bill to switch to indeterminate sentencing. What
are some of the strengths of indeterminate sentencing that you could use to
persuade your fellow senators?
16. Globalization in the role of Mass
Media in Healthcare and Higher Education
Question
Students will write a paper analyzing
the issues of the Globalization in the role of Mass Media in Healthcare
and Higher Education. This paper should be 2000-2500 words. It should examine relevant
professional issues and real-life dilemmas encountered by members of the topic.
The paper should cite at least seven (7) current sources.
APA Guidelines
Time New Roman
12 pt, Double Spaced
17.
BUILDING AN ETHICS-BASED WORKPLACE CULTURE
Question
Assignment Overview
Ethics Program Implementation
As you can see by your reading, a lot
of energy goes into the implementation of an organizational ethics program. And
Lockheed Martin has clearly allotted considerable resources to assuring their
program is successful. In this assignment we’ll be focusing on what the company
did to ensure the implementation of a successful program that was flexible
enough to accommodate the changing needs of the organization.
Case Assignment
Please address the following questions:
On p. 83 Terris discusses the
company’s ethics code. Why is the code considered important to the
company’s ethics program?
Discuss the importance of ethics
training and employee involvement. What are some of the things Lockheed
does to make the training process interesting and worthwhile?
How does Lockheed measure success with
respect to ethics in the workplace?
What are some of the things Lockheed
does at the operational level to make their ethics program work?
Assignment Expectations
Write a 4- to 5-page paper, not
including title page or references page addressing the issue and upload it by
the end of this module.
Your paper should be double-spaced and
in 12-point type size.
Your paper should have a separate
cover page and a separate reference page. Make sure you cite your
sources.
Use APA style, and proofread your
paper.
Upload your paper by the end of the
module.
18. BUS ADM 600
Question
The analysis of
strategy in the case of Wal-mart 2005.
(20 points)
Please summarize
its company strategies with supporting activities at the corporate,
business, andfunctional level.
Please state how
the corporate level of strategy is connected to the business level.
Stakeholder
Theory of the Firm: Theory and Application
(20 points)
Describe the
stakeholder theory for a RTE breakfast
cereal firm. Who are the major external stakeholders? Who are
the major internal stakeholders?
Imagine you are
the CEO of a ready-to-eat breakfast cereal company such as General
Mills. Recent research has linked diabetes to an artificial
sweetener that your company has been using for the last decade. Please
discuss the likely preference of each stakeholder group. Discuss how you
will go about deciding whether to continue with the same
artificial sweetener or to seek alternative yet more costly
replacements.
External
Analysis: Please describe Porter’s 5-Forces Model in the following order: Power
of Suppliers, Power of Buyers, Substitutes, Barriers to Entry, and Price
Rivalry from the perspective of Coke and Pepsi concentrate producers.
(25 points, 5
points for each force)
For each force be
sure to indicate if the power is HIGH, MODERATE or LOW.
Please be sure to
defend your assessment of each force with evidence.
Internal
Analysis: please list what resources and capabilities qualify as VRIO for the
case of Wal-mart 2005? (20 points)
Please first
describe the question of value, rarity, imitability, and organization.
Please list the
resources and capabilities that you identify from Wal-mart under each of the
question of VRIO model.
Internal
Analysis: Please provide a Value-Chain analysis for the company
of Coca-Cola.
(15 points)
Please
list the primary activities in value chain for a soft drink
company such as Coco-Cola.
Please indicate
whether those primary activities were conducted internally or
outsourced. If outsourced (at certain times or in certain regions), please
state the rationale behind such decision.
BONUS
QUESTION: Competitive Advantages – Value Chain and Economic Value
Creation (10 points)
For Milwaukee
Cheese Company, below are the breakdowns for its cheese production:
• Product priced
at $20/pound
• Raw materials
cost $10/pound
• Manufacturing
cost $1/pound
• Packaging cost
$1/pound
• Distribution
cost $1/pound
• Sales and
Marketing cost $1/pound
• Overhead allocation
$1/pound
• Production
facility rent $3/pound
• Employee pay
$2/pound
Given the
information above, please calculate Milwaukee Cheese Company’s Economic Value
Creation. Please provide all of your work below in calculation.
19. Outline the cybersecurity issues
and vulnerabilities of the petrochemical industry
Question
1. Outline the Cybersecurity issues
and vulnerabilities of the petrochemical industry. Include in your answer
specific actions required to improve the security profile of this industry.
2. Using Clarke’s
assessment from chapter six of Cyber War: The Next Threats to
National Security and What to Do About It, describe America’s
potential best scenario use of “Offensive Cyberwar” to attack other nation’s
infrastructure. Feel free to provide ‘theoretical’ scenarios and
war-gaming actions that would best serve our nation’s efforts for
debilitating a foe’s national infrastructure.
20. Starbuck Corporation Case Anaylsis
Question
This week, we will analyze a
full-length case study, which is about Starbucks Corporation
With more than 25,000 stores in 75
countries and $21 billion in annual revenues, Starbucks is the largest roaster
and retailer of specialty coffee in the world. Howard Schultz’s strategic
leadership was critical in turning Starbucks around. He is now hoping that his
second retirement from the company he built from the ground up will be his
final one. In the meantime, Kevin Johnson, the new CEO, faces several
challenges. In particular, the question of maintaining core competencies and
how to achieve future growth, both domestically and internationally is central
to the case. The case also focuses on diversification, as Starbucks is
branching out in new areas such as menu extensions including offering alcohol
as well as rolling out coffee bars with high-end offerings such as a $12 cup of
coffee.
To-Do
List – Week Six: All assignments are required.
Read
Overview of this case
Reading
Assignments: Starbucks
Corporation
Full-length Case
assignment: Read
‘Starbucks Corporation’ case, and think about the discussion
Discussion questions
How
did Starbucks create its uniqueness in the first place? Why was it so
successful (until the mid-2000s)?
Why
and how did Starbucks lose its uniqueness and struggle in the mid-2000s?
What
strategic initiatives did Howard Schultz put in place to re-create Starbucks’
uniqueness after his return in 2008? Detail each strategic initiative. Explain
why a specific strategic initiative was successful.
Is
Howard Schultz an effective strategic leader? Why or why not? Buttress your
arguments.
How
is Starbucks trying to grow in the future? What are its biggest challenges?
What
recommendations would you give the new Starbucks CEO, Kevin Johnson, to address
the challenges identified in Question 5? Be specific.
After reading the case, you
are expected to submit a written analysis of the case which ranges
from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should
conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the
case
*Note add references behind sentences
that are used from other sites.
21. Sex Crime Statutes
Research your Louisiana government website to
locate information on a recently adopted sex crime statue in this area.
Write a 550- to 700-word paper in which you
do the following:
Provide
a brief summary of the statute, including the intended category of sexual
offense. Louisiana
Explain
how the statute could impact laws or enforcement in the area.
Provide
a brief history of other statutes that may have led to the creation of the
current statute.
Describe
the range of punishments for violation of the law.
Explain
whether the acts identified in the statute are acts that previously were
considered accepted practice.
Explain
what made this statute a current precedent and if it was derived from a
previous law.
Format your paper consistent with APA
guidelines.
22. Analysis of Ground Rules
Write a
minimum of 3 pages with team experiences you have had in which a team was
effective and another in which it was not. Write a description of these teams
and their tasks, paying particular attention to the behavioral expectations for
which the team members held each other accountable.
Describe how ground rules help an effective team perform and work
well together.
Analyze prospective differences in ground rules for team members
and tensions that may result.
Analyze how differences in unspoken ground rules and team members’
expectations cause conflict and damage performance.
Describe the effect of discussing ground rules as a method of team
learning.
Analyze applications of change management principles.
Describe an effective team from a real-world experience, including
the tasks of the team.
Describe the ground rules applied in an effective team.
Describe an ineffective team from a real-world experience,
including the tasks of the team. Explain the spoken or unspoken ground rules
that describe expectations for behavior in an ineffective team.
23. The Epic of Gilgamesh and Monkey
Compare
the heroes as kings. Monkey as a king of the monkeys has some things in common
with Gilgamesh as a king, e.g. a desire for immortality. When they are good
kings,what virtues do they show?Is one of them better than the other? When they
are not good kings, what feelings do they share? Who has the greatest flaws as
a king?
Please
use quotes from the text.
The
paper should be in MLA guidelines and be around 1000-1250 words
a. Business goals
b. Technical goals
c. User communities and data stores
d. Network applications
6. Current state
of the network
7. Logical design
8. Physical design
9. Results of network design testing
10. Implementation plan with a project schedule
11. Project budget with a return on investment calculation
Your assignment
must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed,
double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins
on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific
format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
25. Managerial Accounting
Over the last 50
years the financial reporting systems have dramatically changed and will
continue to change as the financial world faces changes such as globalization,
changing regulations and the increased use of technology. The accounting
profession must be ready to not only face these changes but to also adapt to
them, providing relevant and reliable information to the many internal and
external users of financial and managerial accounting reports.
It is important
to understand the difference between managerial and financial accounting
reports.
You are the chief
executive officer of a multinational corporation that operates wholly owned
subsidiaries in several countries. One of the company’s manufacturing plants is
located in Europe. As CEO, respond to the following questions in 400-600 words:
What
types of internal and external accounting reports will you use in the
process of making decisions?
How
will the reports differ for a multi-national corporation?
26. Resistance
and Communication – Walmart
Write a four to
six (4-6) page paper in which you: (previous paper is attached)
Diagnose
the reasons for resistance to change.
Interpret
the potential causes of resistance in the organization (WALMART). Identify
and describe three (3) potential causes of resistance to your change plan
(better benefits and better training and development programs). Identify
and describe three (3) potential sources of resistance to your change plan
(better benefits and better training and development programs).
Create
a plan for minimizing possible resistance to your change management plan.
Elaborate
on the relationship between resistance to change and communication.
Evaluate
three (3) communication strategies.
Recommend
one (1) communication strategy that would be applicable to your
organization (WALMART). Diagnose why this communication strategy is best
for your organization.
Create
a solid communication plan for your change initiative.
Use
at least four (4) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia
and other similar Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Note: If you choose to submit a video
presentation, please also submit a one (1) page summary of your presentation.
If you choose the
written paper, your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed,
double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins
on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific
format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a
cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the
professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the
reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
27. Fraud Prevention and Detection Plan
Scenario
– You went back to your corporate controllership position with Dingwow Inc.
Senior Management has assigned you as the team lead to develop a fraud
prevention and detection plan for the company.
Use the Internet, to research the key elements of a fraud
prevention and detection program, and prepare a plan.
Write an eight to nine (8 – 9) page paper in which you:
Evaluate the key elements that should
be included in the plan, including a justification as to how the element is
likely to protect corporate assets and minimize risk based on your research.
Create an argument to be presented to
the senior leadership in support of a fraud prevention and detection plan,
indicating the consequences of failure to implement the plan. Provide support
for your argument.
Create an approach to identify the
roles and responsibilities of key personnel in the organization, indicating the
significance of each role in the fraud prevention and detection equation.
Provide support for your rationale.
Compare the roles of management,
internal auditors, external auditors, governing bodies, and the board of
directors, and assess how each can contribute to your fraud prevention and
detection plan.
Evaluate the tools that you would
propose to use to make your plan more effective in mitigating or eliminating
fraud and how you would justify the risk / reward ratio of each tool
recommended.
Prepare a fraud prevention and
detection plan based on your findings, indicating how you would communicate the
plan to employees throughout the organization.
Predict the future occurrences of
corporate fraud and the likelihood that it will be detected by regulatory
agencies based on your research. Provide support for your rationale.
Use
at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment.
NOTE:
Wikipedia and similar Websites do NOT
qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment
must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times
New Roman font (size 12), with 1” margins on all sides; citations and
references must follow APA
The cover page containing the title of
the assignment, and the reference page are NOT
included in the required assignment page length.
The specific
course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Create an approach to implementing a
fraud detection plan.
Research and analyze the impact of
fraud on financial reporting within a corporation.
Examine the role that corporate
governance plays in preventing and detecting fraud.
Research and analyze the impact of
fraud prevention and detection using forensic accounting practices.
Create strategies for communicating
the prevention and detection of fraud.
Use technology and information
resources to research issues in fraud prevention and detection.
Write clearly and concisely about
fraud prevention and detection using proper writing mechanics.
28. Philosophical explication and
analysis of the first chapter of “Being and Some Philosophers” by
Etienne Gilson (refer to instructions for specifications).
Instruction
Prompt:
The goal of this essay is to understand and explicate, in your own words, what
Gilson has to say in the first chapter. This essay should explain the argument
that Gilson makes and comment on the significance of his analysis. In your
essay you will be expected to touch on the following three problems:
1.
What does Gilson mean by the “existential neutrality” of our
conceptual knowledge? How does this frame the problem that Gilson intends to
study in “Being and some Philosophers”?
2.
What is Parmenides’ answer to the question, “what is being”? How is
Plato the heir and continuator of Parmenides?
3.
How does plato give rise to the Neo-Platonic “metaphysics of the
One”? What problems does such a metaphysics pose for a Christian thinker?
Specifications:
This
essay should be 6-8 pages (double spaced), 12 point in the “Times New Roman”
font, with one inch margins, plagiarism free, and proofread. Helpful Tip:
Gilson’s book is a philosophical analysis of the ways that various philosophers
have understood the meaning of being in the Platonic tradition. His goal is to
present not a history of metaphysics, but rather a thinking through of the
views of several historical philosophers.
29. ChE 230Problem Set 3
Optimization
75 Points. You are to optimize a series of two heat
exchangers. The first heat exchanger uses low-pressure steam as a utility. The
second heat exchanger uses medium-pressure steam. The third uses high-pressure
steam. Together, the heat exchangers must bring a 1.5 kg/s stream of Dowtherm
from 25C to 220C. Dowtherm has a heat capacity of 6.0 .
Both types of steam enter as a saturated vapor and leave as a saturated liquid
(so the utility stream does not change temperature). The following table
summarizes the relevant properties:
lps
mps
hps
Temp (C)
160
187
254
Cost
$13.28/GJ
$14.19/GJ
$17.70/GJ
Heat
exchangers are costed by their area. To determine the area, the following
design equation must be used
Where is the heat duty, is the overall heat transfer coefficient (, is the area of the heat exchanger, and is the log-mean temperature difference.
See the following diagram for more
information.
Heat exchangers are costed according to the
following equation
where A is area in m2.
Since there are two intermediate
temperatures, this is a multivariable optimization. You are to optimize this
system two ways:
Set , then minimize
the EAOC with respect to using golden
search. Once you get the optimal, keep that
constant, and minimize the EAOC with respect to , again using
golden search. Repeat this process once more to see if the optimal temperatures
change. This is called a “greedy” optimization. (Greedy because you only look
at one variable over all others at a time.) Was this technique effective for
this system?
Use
a grid search to minimize the EAOC with respect to both temperatures
simultaneously. You can then use solver or fmincon to see how closely the
solutions match.
30. Self-Defense Essay for Criminal
Law
Instruction
Instructions:
You have been asked to give a lecture to a group of first-time gun owners about
self-defense. Explain when force may be used in self-defense. What about deadly
force? How will you instruct the session differently if you are in a
stand-your-ground jurisdiction? -1000 word minimum, 1500 maximum length.
-FORMAT: Set in APA or MLA format, typed in Times New Roman 12-point font, 1”
margins, Double-spaced, Spell-checked, and Proofread. -Plagiarism will not be
tolerated on any assignment. Always cite your sources. -No images. Create a
successful academic prose that is readable, coherent, and grammatically
appropriate for the college level. Begin by introducing the topic.
(Introduction) You will then use a minimum of three (3) resources to gather
facts about the topic. (Body) Finally, you will report your findings.
(Conclusion)
31. Business
When a business is
not focused on sustainability, value may be solely determined outside its
customers’ interest in green behavior. Suppose a restaurant makes a
great-tasting hamburger. Very few of its customers might care whether or not
the restaurant engages in green business practices. However, what if there are
two restaurants that make equally great-tasting burgers, but one is green while
the other is not? Many customers may choose the green business, because the
business adds value to its offerings by engaging in sustainable practices. In
the case of sustainable products, meaning those products made with an effort to
be environmentally and socially responsible, sustainability plays a large role
in the customers’ decisions to buy, and tends to be central to the company’s
brand.
Instruction
Identify
a Saudi business that may not yet be focused on sustainability. Suppose this
company decides it would like to deliver products that are more socially,
environmentally, and economically superior. In a 4-5 page paper, not including
the cover and reference pages, present the company with the total value
proposition from a sustainability perspective. In that total value proposition,
include a discussion of use values and nonuse values for the business’ green
products. How should the business determine WTP, WTA, or consumer surplus? Your
required readings this week provide insight which will aid you in your
analysis. Make sure to cite and reference any information gleaned from those
documents. Additionally, include two current and scholarly sources beyond the
course materials and readings to support your analysis. Current sources are
those published in the most recent five years. Scholarly sources come from
peer’s reviewed journals. Use Saudi Electronic University academic writing
standards and APA style guidelines, citing references as appropriate.
32. Capital Financing
Description
Does
financial innovation in health care improve productivity and consumer
welfare the way technological innovation does? Why or why not?
33. Healthcare and Macroeconomics
Description
Which of the factors given below is more
important in determining how much to spend on medical care:
How
sick people are.
How
much money is available.
Who should be determining which factor is more
important? Why?
34. STAT 3502 C –
Assignment 2 Carleton University Winter 2019
1. (5 points) Let
X be a positive and continuous random variable for which E[X] exists. Show
that: E[X] = Z ∞ 0 (1 − F(x))dx, where F is the cdf of X.
2. Customers
arrive at a checkout counter in a department store according to a Poisson
distribution. Let X be the number of customers arrivals during a one-hour
period such that X ∼ P oisson(λ),
(a) (4 points) Show that Var(X) = λ.
(b) Let λ = 7.
During a given hour, what are the probabilities that:
i. (4 points) no
more than three customers arrive?.
ii. (4 points) at
least two customers arrive?.
iii. (4 points) exactly five customers
arrive?.
3. (6 points)
Past experience shows that the number of accidents per month is modelled by a
random variable N with p(n) = P(N = n) = 1/ (n + 1)(n + 2),
where n = 0, 1,
2, …. Calculate the probability of at least one accident during a particular
month, given that there have been at most five accidents during that month.
4. (6 points) The
annual rainfall (in inches) is normally distributed with µ = 40 and σ = 4.
Assuming rainfalls are independent from year to year, what is the probability
that starting with this year, it will take more than 10 years before a year
occurs having a rainfall of over 50 inches?
5. Headway time (HT) (in seconds) in a traffic
flow (time elapsed between the passage by a fixed point of two successive cars)
has pdf f(x) = αλα (λ + x) α+1 , where x ≥ 0, α > 0, and λ > 0.
(a) (4 points) Check this actually is a pdf.
(b) (4 points)
Compute HT’s cdf.
(c) Let α = 0.5
and λ = 10
i. (4 points) What is the probability of HT
above 7 sec.
ii. (4 points)
What is the probability of HT between 2 and 6 sec?
iii. (5 points)
Find an expression of the (100p)th percentile.
iv. (4 points)
Find the HT’s median.
v. (4 points) 75%
of the HT are below which value?
6. (6 points) * A
baseball team has scheduled its opening game for April 1. If it rains on April
1, the game is postponed and will be played on the next day that it does not
rain. The team purchases insurance against rain. The policy will pay 1000 for
each day, up to 2 days, that the opening game is postponed. The insurance
company determines that the number of consecutive days of rain beginning on
April 1 is a Poisson random variable with mean 0.7. What is the standard
deviation of the amount the insurance company will have to pay?
7. (6 points)
Suppose you throw a die and say that you have success if you get 5 or 6. You
want to get two such successes. What is the probability that you need exactly
10 tries for this?
8. Suppose that
25% of all students at a large public university receive financial aid. If 65
students are sampled,
(a) (5 points)
What is the probability that at most 10 of them receive aid? (Use normal
approximation to binomial).
(b) (5 points)
What is the approximate probability that between 5 and 15 (inclusive) receive
aid.
9. In an assembly-line production of
industrial robots, gearbox assembles can be installed in 1 minute each if holes
have been properly drilled in the boxes and in 10 minutes if the holes must be
redrilled. Twenty gearboxes are in stock, 2 with improperly drilled holes. Five
gearboxes must be selected from the 20 that are available for installation in
the next five robots.
(a) (5 points) Find the probability that all 5
gearboxes will fit properly.
(b) (5 points)
Find the mean, variance and standard deviation of the time it takes to install
these 5 gearboxes. (Hint: Denote by X the number of improperly drilled
gearboxes in the sample of 5, determine the distribution of X, and represent
the total time as a function of X.)
10. (6 points)
The number of years a certain type of TV functions is exponentially distributed
with an average lifetime of 6 years. If Jones buys a used TV (3-year old, say),
what is the probability that it will be working after an additional 6 years?
(Comment: You will find that this probability is the same as the probability
that the TV will function after 6 years from the beginning. That is, the TV
does not actually get old. This is the so-called memoryless property of
exponential distribution.)
Problems marked
by a star are inspired from old actuarial exams.
35. ITS 835 Enterprise Risk Assessment
Final Research Paper
Write a research paper on the topic: What are the main drivers for successful
ERM implementations in organizations?
Your research paper should be
minimally 6 pages (double space, Font – Georgia with font size 12). The
research paper needs to refer to the following sources
Rubino, M.
(2018). A comparison of the Main ERM frameworks: Howq Limitations and Weakness can be Overcome
Implementing IT GOvernance. Internation Journal of Business and Management,
13(12).
In addition the
research paper needs to minimally refer to 3 peer reviewedq journal papers
The following case studies from your
book need to be referenced in your research paper
Chapter 30,
“Alleged Corruption at Chessfield: Corporate Governance and theq Risk Oversight Role of the Board of
Directors”
Chapter 31,
“Operational Risk Management Case Study: Bon Boulangerie”q
Chapter 34,
“Turning Crisis into Opportunity: Building an ERM Program atq General Motors”
In addition you
need to refer to at least two other case studies that we haveq covered so far in the course
The research needs to minimally
discuss the role of the following factors in successful ERM
implementations
Corporate
governance
Risk frameworks
such as COSO, ISO 31000q
Information
Technology
Operational
factors
Please do not describe the case
studies from the book but focus on elaborating on key points and examples from
the case studies that support the research topic.
The bibliography should be included as
a separate page and is not part of the 6 page requirement. Student assignments
will be run through Safe Assignment. Please ensure to check the safe assignment
result prior to submitting
36. HCM 4025
E-Prescribing
E-prescribing is the
transmission of prescription or prescription-related information using
electronic media between a prescriber, dispenser, pharmacy benefit manager, or
health plan, either directly or through an intermediary, including an
e-prescribing network.
In an effort to
understand the benefits and cautions about e-prescribing, conduct thorough
research. For your assignment, create a 4- to 5-page report in Microsoft Word
document consisting of your research findings covering your responses to the
following questions:
Evaluate three pros and three cons of e-prescribing.
Summarize the e-prescription standards as described by the National
Council for Prescription Drug Programs.
Evaluate the projected cost and time savings as estimated by the
United States Department of Health and Human Services.
Comment on the controversy surrounding the 2013 e-prescribing
penalty.
Use the following
resources, and 2 outside resources and your text book for this assignment.
Ratanawongsa, N.,
Lenny L. S. Chan, Fouts, M. M., & Murphy, E. J. (2017). The challenges of
electronic health records and diabetes electronic prescribing: Implications for
safety net care for diverse populations.Journal of Diabetes Research, 2017doi:10.1155/2017/8983237
Juszczyk, D.,
Charlton, J., McDermott, L., Soames, J., Sultana, K., Ashworth, M., . . .
Gulliford, M. C. (2016). Electronically delivered, multicomponent intervention
to reduce unnecessary antibiotic prescribing for respiratory infections in
primary care: A cluster randomized trial using electronic health records-REDUCE
trial study original protocol.BMJ Open, 6(8)
doi:http://dx.doi.org.southuniversity.libproxy.edmc.edu/10.1136/bmjopen-2015-010892
Support your
responses with examples in a 3-6 page APA formatted Word Document. Include an
introduction and conclusion. Cite any sources in APA format.
37. M7a3
Assignment 3: Course Project Task XII
Final Submission
It’s now time to complete your
dissertation paper. In the previous modules, you tried different statistical
analyses as possible approaches for your final prospectus.
Now, submit your Final Prospectus
Project including a cover page and the following subheadings:
An abstract of the prospectus project.
Introduction: A one-page overview of
the background theory, definitions, and questions for the study.
Goals: A one-page summary of specific
goals and hypotheses for the study.
Sampling and sample size: In one to
two pages, describe your sample size and the sample. Address the following
points:
Who, how, and how many?
How did you come to these decisions?
How does your proposed sample size
relate to the planned power?
Operational definitions of variables
included in your study, which are as follows.
Independent variables (IVs): What they
are and how are they measured or defined in the actual research operations of
your study? For example, what exactly are the treatments being compared? Give
specifics of how they vary in such things as intensity, content, and length and
cite supportive references for background information including the effect
sizes. This will depend on the number and types of IVs and levels or categories
of each.
Dependent variables (DVs): What they
are and how are they measured in the actual research operations of your study?
How was the measurement technique developed? What are the reliabilities,
validities (citing supportive resources), and level of measurement of each
measure? Is the resulting score a single item score or a composite score? How
do you interpret the score? Are there norms available for interpreting the
score? What were the known relationships between and among the measures prior
to your data collection? Are there covariates (CVs) you plan to use? If so, how
are these measured and what are all the details of these measures (repeat all
the questions for the DVs)? This again will depend on the number of DVs.
However, sufficient information should be given for each to answer all these
questions. This could take several pages.
Procedures: Detail exactly how you
plan to develop measurements (if not already developed) and to obtain
participants or observations. How are your procedures compatible with ethical
and legal standards of research including institutional review board (IRB)
expectations? (This could be two pages long if no new development instrument is
being developed, but it could be longer if you need to detail such things as
these procedures and the establishment of reliability.)
Results: Detail your plans for using
statistical analyses to evaluate each of your research questions or hypotheses.
How will you assemble and prepare your data for SPSS analysis? Given your
statistical analysis(es), how will you do such things as screen data, make any
necessary modifications in the database, and compute composite scores, if
necessary? How will you proceed with your statistical analysis(es)? Give sample
outcome tables (with dummy data) that would be part of what you would be
presenting if you were reporting this as actual study results. Depending on the
study and the statistical methods used, this could be two to three pages long
for each question or hypothesis. However, this is variable.
Discussion: Point out possible
limitations or problems with your design and any ideas for ways to improve on
them. (This could be, at most, two pages long.)
Appendix: Include copies of your test
instruments and/or other supporting information.
Your Final Prospectus Project should
be of 10–15 pages (plus Appendix, if included). Present it in Microsoft Word.
Name your file R7034_M7_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc. Submit it to
theSubmissions Area by the due date assigned.
Note:
Your facilitator will assign you one research proposal submitted by a classmate
for peer review in Module 8.
All written assignments and responses
should follow APA rules for attributing sources.
Assignment 3 Grading Criteria Maximum Points Provided an introduction with an adequate
summary of the introductory background theory, definitions, and questions for
the study.8Identified and described specific goals and hypotheses for the
study8Described and justified sampling and sample size.12Identified and
operationally defined all variables to be used or measured in the study and
addressed relevant questions for IVs and DVs12Analyzed and described a plan to
develop measurements and explained how the procedures are compatible with IRB
expectations16Identified and justified statistical analyses to be used to
evaluate each of the research questions or hypotheses.16Provided a discussion
of possible limitations or problems with the design.16Included flawless copies
of test instruments, projected assignment activities with a timeline, and/or
other supporting information.12Wrote in a clear, concise, and organized manner;
demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of
sources, displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.4Total:104
38. Research Paper
Develop
a Complete Disaster Recovery Plan to be submitted to the executive board of
your company.
Only
MS Word (.doc, .docx) and Adobe Acrobat (PDF) formats are acceptable.
Please
note that this is a formal writing, all references (peer-reviewed) mostly must
be cited appropriately within the text and clearly avoid plagiarism.
The
paper should have a minimum of 10 pages, 1.5 spacing and Times New Roman
font.
A
minimum of 5 peer review references must be provided. Reference style is
APA.
With
also 10 slides of PPT. Slides may also contain visuals and/or graph content to
enhance your presentation. Include speaker notes of at least 50 words per
slide. Use 12-point Times New Roman and APA citations and reference page.
39. Discussions
Discussion Topic 1
During the Great Recession of 2008–2009, (1) what actions would have
been required of Congress and the President had a balanced budget amendment to
the Constitution been ratified? (2) What
impact would that have had on the unemployment rate?
Discussion Topic 2
Explain how decr
Discussion Topic 2
Explain how decreased domestic investments that occur due to a budget deficit will
affect future economic growth.
40. M7a2
Assignment 2: Prospectus Project Task XI
Planning
Discriminant Analysis or Logistic Regression Analysis
In
this project task, you will formulate a research question for your study that
would be compatible with the use of either a discriminant analysis or logistic
regression analysis of selected data.
For
this assignment, write a response to the following points:
Identify one dependent variable (DV) or
criterion variable and three predictor variables from your selected
variable set that would fit the requirements of discriminant analysis or
logistic regression analysis. Create new variables if you don’t have
exactly what you would need to do this type of analysis.
State your research question in a manner
compatible with the selected type of classification analysis.
Elaborate on your design for using
discriminant analysis or logistic regression analysis for your study.
Describe and justify the methods you propose for each of the following
(discuss any possible concerns or limitations in the proposed methods):
Determining sufficient sample
size: Specify considerations for the selected alpha level, desired power,
desired effect size, and the validation checks you may plan.
Selecting a sample: How would
you ensure representativeness?
Performing statistical analyses:
Include the method to be used and validation checks.
Screening data and evaluating
assumptions: Are any data transformations or modifications required? If
yes, describe.
Interpreting the outcomes in
relation to the stated hypothesis(es).
Present
the response in Microsoft Word. Name the file
R7034_M7_A2_LastName_FirstInitial.doc and submit it to the Discussion
Area by the due date assigned.
Through the end of the module, review your
partner’s research question description and design for using a discriminant analysis
or logistic regression analysis. Post a response addressing the following
points:
What are the challenges and strengths in
the design of your partner?
How does the design promote sample
representativeness?
What are your thoughts about the proposed
sample size?
How will the methods for analyses serve
the goals of the study?
All
written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing
sources.
Assignment 2 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsAccurately
identified one DV or criterion variable and three predictor variables that
would fit the requirements of discriminant analysis or logistic regression
analysis.8Accurately identified and described the research question for design
in a manner compatible with the selected type of classification analysis.8Determined
a procedure for planning a sample size appropriate to the scope of the study
and the alpha level8Identified and clearly described any concerns or
limitations of the plan.8Determined a procedure for sample selection consistent
with the underlying assumptions of representativeness and identified any
concerns and limitations in the plan.8Identified and justified the
classification analysis method to be used and described a technique for
validating the results.8Determined a procedure for data screening and the
evaluation of assumptions and described any data transformations or
modifications required.8Justified a method for interpreting outcomes in
relation to the stated hypothesis(es).8Evaluated and critiqued partner’s plans
indicating strengths and limitations in the design, sample size, sample
selection, and the chosen method of analysis.16Wrote in a clear, concise, and
organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation
and attribution of sources, displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and
punctuation.
41. Costing Method
Use the
Internet to research the annual report of at least one (1) merchandising
company. Determine which costing method (Last In First Out [LIFO], First
In First Out [FIFO], or weighted average cost) that is used to record
inventory by your selected company.
Identify the
three (3) primary advantages and three (3) primary disadvantages of using
the costing method (LIFO, FIFO, and weighted average) that is used to
record inventory.
Provide
support for your response.
42. HCM4012
Workforce Shortage
Clickhereto read the health
care workforce shortage and its implications on America’s hospitals, at the
American Hospitals Association’s (AHA) website.
Select a hospital,
which is not more than two hours away from your place of residence. Based on
your readings and understanding, create a 5- to 6-page report in a Microsoft
Word document, that includes:
A plan for a rural,
medium-sized hospital to deal with short- and long-term workforce shortages.
Your plan should
include the following elements:
Introduction
Problem description of the healthcare workforce shortage and its
implications
The aspects that need immediate attention and aspects that need
long-term attention
Provide a rationale on why these aspects need attention
A description of the financial implications for these issues
Evaluation of alternatives with an explanation of the risks
associated with these problems
Your recommendations to solve these problems
An explanation of the methods to measure the success of the
plan
A description of the next steps, if the plan failed
Conclusion
Reference list
To support your work,
use your course and textbook readings and also use the South University Online
Library. As in all assignments, cite your sources in your work and provide
references for the citations in APA format.
Submission Details:
Your assignment should be addressed in an
5- to 6-page document.
Based
on what you read in the text, in at least 150 words, discuss three things you
agree with or disagree with, or a mix of agree/disagree.
Use
at least three key terms in bold from your text in your post.
44. M7a1
Assignment 1: SPSS Discriminant Analysis
While
regression analysis evaluates the ability of multiple predictor variables to
predict values on a single continuous variable, discriminant analysis evaluates
the ability of multiple predictor variables to predict classification on a
single categorical variable. Discriminant analysis can also be viewed as the
reverse of a MANOVA: In MANOVA, the IVs are the groups and the DVs are the
predictors. In DA, the IVs are the predictors and the DVs are the
groups. (In order to avoid semantic confusion, it’s easier to refer to IVs
as the predictors—or discriminating variables—and to DVs as the grouping
variables.)
The
emphases of MANOVA and DA are different. While MANOVA seeks to find a linear
combination of variables that will maximize the test statistic, DA is used to
establish the linear combination of dependent variables that maximally
discriminates among groups. DA is used to predict membership in naturally occurring
groups and to determine if a combination of variables can reliably predict
group membership. Several variables are included in a study to see which ones
best contribute to the discrimination between groups.
As
with factor analysis, discriminant functions are identified through the
analysis, but it remains for the researcher to provide a meaningful
interpretation and labeling of these.
Use
the Discussion
Area to ask for help in completing the tasks from your
classmates and the facilitator; likewise, offer your suggestions to those
asking for help. Participating in this community of scholars will help you
clarify processes, solve problems, and gain the immediate reinforcement you
need to quickly solidify gains that you’re making in working with multiple variables
and advanced statistics.
Open
the Statistical Package for the Social Sciences (SPSS) data file created in M6:
Assignment 1. Use the following variables:
Create
a Grouping Criterion Variable: Using the continuous data for Number of Previous
Hospitalizations, transform this into categorical data by assigning patients to
different categorical groups. You will add a new variable to your data file,
which indicates which group each case falls into. For example, use the
descriptive statistics and frequency information for the number of
hospitalizations to decide your cut-offs for scores to define each group and
then to assign patients to a group such as Group 1 (lower number of
hospitalizations), Group 2 (medium number of hospitalizations), and Group 3
(higher number of hospitalizations) or you may consider quartiles, a median
split, and dividing by standard deviation units. Justify your method.
Select
five (or more, if justified) continuous variables to use as predictor variables
for your analysis. Briefly justify your choices.
Conduct
a discriminant analysis of these data. Use the same methods and choices found
in the textbook’s sample study. Include tests for homogeneity of group
variances.
Save
the SPSS file as R7034_M7_A1_LastName_FirstInitial.sav.
Prepare
a two- to three-page (plus Appendix for tables) response, which presents a
summary report of the following information:
State a research question that could be
studied using the specified variables for a discriminant analysis.
Report the results of prescreens for the
missing data, multivariate outliers (Mahalanobis distance), univariate
normality, and linearity (bivariate scatter plots). Indicate if any
transformations or other decisions are required.
In your Appendix, report group
descriptive statistics, analysis of variance (ANOVA) summary tables,
summary of steps, eigenvalues, Wilks’ lambda table, standardized
discriminant function coefficients, cannonical correlation or structure
matrix, classification of results, and discriminant function means.
Summarize the results of the discriminant
analysis, including an interpretation of discriminant functions. Compare
the outcomes in terms of the research question.
Create
your response in Microsoft Word. Name your file
R7034_M7_A1_LastName_FirstInitial.doc. Submit your response to the Discussion Area
by the
due date assigned.
All
written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing
sources.
Assignment 1 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsCorrectly
created a nominal variable for number of hospitalizations and assigned cases to
each group.4Identified and justified choice of continuous variables to use as
predictor variables for the DA.4Accurately interpreted the results of
prescreens for the missing data, multivariate outliers, univariate normality,
and linearity.8Conducted discriminant analysis and reported the results
correctly for group descriptive statistics, ANOVA summary tables, summary of
steps, eigenvalues, Wilks’ lambda table, standardized discriminant function
coefficients, correlation coefficients or structure matrix, classification of
results, and discriminant function means.36Presented an informative narrative
summary of the analysis.24Participated actively in the Discussion
Area by asking for or providing clarification of a response,
addressing gaps, offering suggestions, and asking for help, as needed.8Wrote in
a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in
accurate representation and attribution of sources, displayed accurate
spelling, grammar, and punctuation.4Total:88
45. PURPOSE-DRIVEN MARKETING Portfolio
Essay
My Portfolio
MARKETING STRATEGY. Imagine you work at a large multi-brand
company of your choosing (e.g., Apple, Nestle, Unilever). (a) BRAND DEVELOPMENT
STRATEGIES. Imagine you are hired as a Brand Manager for any one brand at the
company. Name the brand (e.g., iPhone). Using the slide titled “4 Brand
Development Strategies,” detail 4 pathways to grow the Brand. (i) LINE
EXTENSION. (ii) BRAND EXTENSION. (iii) MULTIBRAND. (iv) NEW BRAND. (v) Rank
order the anticipated success of these 4 strategies and explain your reasoning.
(b) BUSINESS GROWTH STRATEGIES. Flash forward a few years, imagine you are now
promoted to a Vice President position for a region of your choosing. Name the
region (e.g., USA). Using the slide titled “4 Strategies for Growing
Businesses,” detail 4 pathways to grow the Company. (i) MARKET PENETRATION.
(ii) PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT. (iii) MARKET DEVELOPMENT. (iv) DIVERSIFICATION. (v)
Rank order the anticipated success of these 4 strategies and explain your
reasoning.
PURPOSE-DRIVEN INNOVATION. Think of a purpose-driven innovation in each
of the following market categories: (a) TRANSPORTATION, (b) FOOD AND BEVERAGES,
and (c) PERSONAL CARE. Within each category, answer these questions. (i)
CATEGORY INNOVATION. Describe the status quo in the product category, your
purpose, and your innovation. (ii) TARGET MARKET. Identify the consumer segment
who will be the most likely to value your category innovation. Use demographic,
geographic, psychographic, and/or behavioral variables to define this segment.
(iii) ANTICIPATED RESPONSE. Anticipate the response and resistance to your
innovation from other relevant stakeholders (e.g., activists, employees,
communities, governments, journalists). (iv) PROMOTION MIX. Explain how you
would promote this innovation to ensure that it is a success. The slide
entitled “Promotion Mix” could serve as a checklist of options.
MAKING THE PITCH. A key step in any marketing project is
pitching your ideas to your colleagues, bosses, partners, and funders. Watch
any 3 pitches from the TV show Shark Tank on YouTube. You just need to watch
the pitch, not the investor negotiations. (a) LINKS. List weblinks for the 3
pitches you selected. (b) THE LEAST EFFECTIVE. In your opinion, which pitch was
the least effective and why? If you were to redo the least effective pitch,
what would you do differently? (c) THE MOST EFFECTIVE. Which pitch was the most
effective and why? If you were to redo the most effective pitch to make it even
better, what would you do differently? (d) PITCHING EXPERIENCE. Describe any
experience you have had pitching a new idea to a tough audience and what you
learned from the experience. (e) MY PITCH. As an entrepreneur, you are seeking
venture capital for a new business idea. Please write a short elevator pitch.
CAREER ADVANCEMENT. Find 5 different job ads (internships or
permanent jobs) in marketing or other business areas that interest you. Aim for
as much variety as possible. At least one of these jobs should be at a global
company (e.g., Nestle, P&G, Unilever, etc.). At least one of these jobs
should be at a relatively small company in NYC. (a) JOB ADS. Provide web links
to the descriptions of each of these 5 jobs. (b) VALUES-BASED SELECTION. Which of
these jobs most closely aligns with your personal values and how? (c) LIKELY
HURDLES. Identify all the educational, experiential, psychological, and
practical hurdles you might face in securing these jobs. (d) MY NEXT STEPS.
Enumerate the steps that you are going to take to overcome these hurdles and
get these jobs in the next few months.
PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT. (a) COURSE SLIDES. From all the slides
discussed in the course so far, elaborate on 3 course slides that could be helpful for
your personal or professional goals. Describe when, where, and/or how you might
use the slide. (b) CHARACTER STRENGTHS. Describe 3 character strengths that you think you have
improved upon during this course. Describe where you used to be, how you have
progressed, and how you hope to develop next. (c) WELL-BEING PILLARS. Do the pillars of well-being exercise. Identify at
least 3 actionable insights you learn about your current circumstances.
Directions for Portfolios
Each portfolio consists of five projects. The recommended word
count is at minimum 1000 words per project (or 5000 per portfolio). The
projects are purposefully open to customization. Students are free to make
adaptations to match their specific career interests.
Evaluation criteria. The grade is determined as follows: 50% for completion + 50% for
quality. What constitutes high quality in business is necessarily defined by
competition. That said, here are some typical quality markers:
readability;
shorter sentences are generally clearer than longer ones
logic; all of
the assumptions and arguments make sense
concepts and
frameworks from the slides and beyond (e.g., Changing
Minds)
all concepts
and frameworks are explained before they are applied
several
different sources of data and insights from appropriate sources
useful
examples to illustrate the key points
no long quotes,
which signal an inability to synthesize
elegant
presentation, including clear organization and consistent formatting
conceptual
illustrations (e.g., process maps, comparison tables)
photographs
or other images that provide evidence or animate key ideas
Examples. Students who have limited exposure to professional business
reports are encouraged to review examples before producing their own.
Submission checklist. Consider these items before you submit:
Does your
cover page include your own name?
Does your
table of contents list page numbers for each project?
Does each
project begin on a new page?
Are your
sources cited in the text and referenced in a works cited page?
Do your
citations/references use a standard format (e.g., MLA)?
Is most of
the text in a readable 10-12 font size?
Is your text
single-spaced like most professional reports?
Is each part
clearly numbered (1, 2, 3…/a, b, c…/i, ii, iii…)?
Is each part
clearly titled to help guide the reader?
Have you run
a spelling and grammar check?
46. Movie Critical Review
Watch
the following film and write a 2-page reaction paper/review.
Salt of the Earth: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n3VPWmqaOb4
47. Case Study
APA STYLE- 2
Pages
Synthesis: Suggest ways
to improve/strengthen your chosen solution (may use information not contained
within the scenario). Scenario: Security at All Pine Medical Center.
Questions:
a. Identify
concepts and ideas from multiple sources that improve or strengthen your
solution.
b.
Identify any new found information and the impact that new information may or
may not have on your solution.
c.
Identify potential missing information and the impact that missing information
may or may not have on your solution.
48. Macro Econ Discussion
Go to the internet and find a news article
published within the last three monthsthat discusses balancing the federal
budget of the U.S. and fiscal policy, summarize key points and post in the
Discussions area. Discuss the current level of the Federal budget deficit
and the implications of the deficit. Support a proposal for addressing
these concerns.
Reflection – the students also should include
a paragraphin the initial
responsein their own words
reflecting on specifically what they learned from the assignment and how they think
they could apply what they learned in the workplace.
49. Research Paper
Develop
a Complete Disaster Recovery Plan to be submitted to the executive board of
your company.
The
paper should have a minimum of 10 pages and APA format. A minimum of 5
peer reviewed references in APA.
50. “Nike Sweatshops: Behind The
Swoosh” (300 Words) Reflection
Watch
the videos below and write a 300-word individual reflection discussing
two most poignant/surprising things you learned from this video.
You can focus on Jim Keady’s story and mission, any new perspectives this opens
for you, and how the issue connects with international business (law) and
corporate social responsibility.
In
this video, Jim Keady, a renowned speaker on social injustice, recounts his
experience living in Indonesia for a month on Nike sweatshop worker
wages.
Using your
Beyond the Book Guide, course materials, and online resources, assume the role
of the office manager and provide the following information for your staff to
ensure they understand the electronic record keeping systems used in the
medical office. What is a practice management system
(PMS) used for in a medical office? How is a PMS related to an electronic
health record (EHR) system? Name 2 uses for computers and software
programs in a medical office in addition to the electronic health record
entries and explain what is meant by a computer back up and why it is important
in a medical office. What is meant by supply chain management and
why is it important in a healthcare organization?
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Addiction Paper- Alcohol
You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set
Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.
Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following:
Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Case Study – SuperFun Toys
SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.
Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.
This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.
For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.
As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.
Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.
SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Error.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.
Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,
Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.
Include answers to the following:
Case 1: Bell Computer Company
Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.
HRM 517 Week 9 DQ
Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.
Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28
From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.
Community Support Pamphlet
You will create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help. Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.
MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…
Pamphlet Instructions:
Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:
Information on both sides of the paper;
8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
12-point Times New Roman font;
A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.
Normal Distribution
the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.
The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:
Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.
SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
CJUS Quiz 3 L U
Question 1
Correct Answer:
As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states
that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,
including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the
right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order
regarding transfer.
Question 2
Correct Answer:
____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the
equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.
Question 3
Correct
Answer:
At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require
the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What
is not one of the ways the case is resolved?
Question 4
Correct Answer:
Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal
court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what
court to file charges.
Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?
Question 5
____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment
used by the juvenile justice system.
Correct Answer:
Question 6
Correct Answer:
The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made
to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the
juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:
Question 7
Correct Answer:
Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,
emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders
are completely responsible for their own actions.
Question 8
Correct Answer:
At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court
intervention is necessary?
Question 9
Correct
Answer:
Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?
Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with
juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication
Question 10
Correct
Answer:
In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among
juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:
Question 11
Correct Answer:
Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a
____________ is filed.
Question 12
Correct Answer:
Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory
restitution programs.
Question 13
Correct Answer:
Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention
facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile
public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on
deficiencies in his defense.
Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the
juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document
that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights
and disposing of all the issues.
Question 14
Correct Answer:
Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum
standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of
the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?
Question 15
Correct Answer:
Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?
Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to
Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:
Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:
o In person surveys
o Telephone surveys
o Computer-based surveys
o Focus group surveys
Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.
Include at least four peer-reviewed references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.
Reflection paper
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.
The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.
The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper
After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation
The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.
Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Reference Attached
Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true
Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:
Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?
Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.
References:
Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831
LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018
Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?
Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.
Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.
Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.
Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.
Workers’ compensation is defined as the:
insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.
remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.
set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.
system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.
Corporate officers are best described as:
directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.
owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.
employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.
Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?
An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.
A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.
A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.
A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.
Which of the following best describes the term warranty?
It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.
It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.
It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.
It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.
Which of the following is a category of torts?
Nonintent crime
Professional malpractice
Strict liability
Personal liability
Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?
Special damages
Punitive damages
Binding arbitration
Specific performance
Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?
They are usually not tried by the jury.
They are punishable by the death penalty.
They are tried by criminal procedure.
They are brought to court by a plaintiff.
Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:
creating a new status quo.
minimizing the freedom of employees.
advocating social justice.
providing a basis for compromise
Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?
Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.
The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.
An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.
The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.
Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?
It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.
It allows a business to consist of only general partners.
It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.
It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.
Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:
minimizing individual freedom.
maintaining the status quo.
advocating social justice
providing bases for compromise
A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:
allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.
end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.
enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.
control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.
Insider trading is considered illegal because:
it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.
it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.
it results in excessive losses for the company.
it makes use of nonmaterial public information.
Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?
It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.
It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.
It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.
It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.
Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?
Adverse possession
Reasonable grounds for suspicion
Adequate assurance of performance
Reasonable duration of detention
Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?
The invention must be original.
The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.
The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.
The invention must be in the form of a service.
Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?
The rule of reason
The per se rule
The rule of four
The pro rata rule
Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?
The sale of non-organic food products
The sale of adulterated food
Labeling of raw seafood products
Labeling of genetically engineered food products
The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.
monopoly power
implied power
enumerated power
reserved power
A group boycott occurs when:
competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.
competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.
parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.
parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.
When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?
While drafting a submission agreement
When an arbitration is binding
While entering a negotiation
When an arbitration is nonbinding
The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:
duty of restitution.
duty of restoration.
duty of loyalty.
duty of care
Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.
nonintent crime
unintentional tort
intent crime
intentional tort
When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.
racial discrimination
religious discrimination
sex-plus discrimination
color discrimination
The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.
acceptance
an offer
an agreement
consideration
When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.
franchise
joint venture
kickback
limited liability partnership
Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.
owners
common stockholders
board of directors
preferred stockholders
An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.
fully disclosed agency
apparent agency
implied agency
agency by ratification
Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?
Failure to warn
Defect in product packaging
Failure to tamperproof
Defect in manufacture
Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week
In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.
Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.
About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.
Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.
In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:
What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1
Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.
Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county. The country is Saudi Arabia’
.2. Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed. Provide a rationale for the response.
3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right. Provide support for the analysis.
Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification for the response.
Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.
The Assignment must be APA Format. Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.
I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%. Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.
Levels Of Competing Cultures
Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.
You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.
What is the African American population of the area?
Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?
NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS
In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.
(Essay must be plagiarism free)
REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2
The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation
Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.
Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.
There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based
Who is provided access?
Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed
Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
(20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
13, 7, 6, 6, 3
14, 12, 11, 10, 8
65, 65, 65, 65, 65
12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
(20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
Why is the median relatively unaffected?
Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
(24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
(20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
(16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
(2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
(2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
(2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
(4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
(2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
(4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
By “noumena” Kant is referring to:
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 10
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, source skepticism questions:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 18
Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 20
3 out of 3 points
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.
Question 2
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 3
In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:
Question 4
According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:
Question 7
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 8
Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.
Question 9
According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:
Question 10
The scientific case for determinism holds that:
Question 11
Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.
Question 12
Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?
Question 13
Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?
Question 14
Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?
Question 16
The term “contiguity” means:
Question 17
Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 20
According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:
Question 1
Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?
Question 2
Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?
Question 3
One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.
Question 4
In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.
Question 5
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 6
Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?
Question 7
The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.
Question 8
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 9
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 10
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 13
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 14
Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?
Question 15
Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.
Question 16
An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.
Question 17
The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:
Question 19
Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:
Question 20
Which of these is a characteristic of substances?
Question 1
In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.
Question 2
Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:
Question 3
Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting
Christian revelation.
Question 4
Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?
Question 5
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 6
According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:
Question 7
According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.
Question 8
One major argument for libertarianism is:
Question 9
According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:
Question 10
For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?
Question 12
What is one of the advantages of Dualism?
Question 13
According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.
Question 14
On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?
Question 16
Which of the following is not an element of causality?
Question 17
Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.
Question 18
Metaphysical Realism says that:
Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”
Question 20
Which of these is an example of an essential property?
Question 1
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:
Question 2
According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?
Question 3
According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.
Question 4
For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:
Question 5
For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:
Question 6
For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:
Question 7
The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:
Question 8
Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:
Question 9
David Hume was a:
Question 10
The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 11
Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:
Question 12
The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:
Question 13
One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.
Question 14
According to the traditional definition of knowledge:
Question 15
Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:
Question 16
According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.
Question 17
According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.
Question 18
Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:
Question 19
William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.
Question 20
Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
The function of a metaphysical theory is to:
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection
Term Draft Paper
APA style Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,
demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,
Judaism, and Islam:
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 9
3 out of 3 points
Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 20
Needs Grading
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 2
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 3
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.
Question 4
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 6
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 7
If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 8
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9
Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 10
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11
This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12
The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 13
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 15
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18
According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.
Question 19
The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 2
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 3
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 4
In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.
Question 5
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 6
Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 8
What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:
Question 10
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 11
According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 13
The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.
Question 14
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15
Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 16
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2
According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 4
According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 5
According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 6
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 7
Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 8
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9
Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:
Question 10
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 11
Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 14
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.
Question 16
According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 17
In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 18
The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 19
A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 20
To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 113 out of 3 points
What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 3 out of 3 points
According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 13
3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?
There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.
Question 18 3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19 3 out of 3 points
The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20
Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1
3 out of 3 points
Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 2
3 out of 3 points
_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3
3 out of 3 points
What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 4
3 out of 3 points
Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.
Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?
Question 8
3 out of 3 points
Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 10
3 out of 3 points
An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 11
3 out of 3 points
The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 13
3 out of 3 points
A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14
3 out of 3 points
Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15
3 out of 3 points
_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 16
3 out of 3 points
According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 17
3 out of 3 points
The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.
Question 18
3 out of 3 points
The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 19
3 out of 3 points
“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.
Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.
Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.
Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.
Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.
Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.
Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.
Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as firstcause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.
Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.
Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:
Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.
Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.
Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:
Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?
Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.
Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.
Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?
Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.
Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?
Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”
Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.
Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.
Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.
Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?
Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.
Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.
Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.
Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.
Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.
Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is
Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:
Question 19 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:
Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.
Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.
Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?
Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.
Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.
Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.
Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:
Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.
Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?
Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:
Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.
Question 13 Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.
Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:
Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.
Question 16 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:
Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.
Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.
Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.
Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:
Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
What kinds of responses might be considered?
What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
Give a summary of the event
Outline the response by police and fire agencies
Detail roles within the structured incident command
Outline crisis response objectives
Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Resources:Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?
How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?
Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
Defend or refute one of the following statements
Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.
Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.
Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.
Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.
Include answers to the following questions:
What is White privilege?
If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?
Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.
Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines
Factorial math problem help!
How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.
Clock hand problem
What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.
A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?
Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard
The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.
HELP: Card Stopping Optimization
In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?
What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.
Black and White Marbles in Two Jars
Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.
A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.
Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.
What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?
History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP
In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?
Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!
Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.
I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario
This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.
For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting
Problem Scenario
(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?
(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?
Writing
(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)
The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.
Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated
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Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.
Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.
Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:
What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Research Paper Psyc 312
Research Paper Instructions
You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.
For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.
Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):
For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.
For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.
Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.
You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).
Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.
The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.
Title Page– current APA style
Abstract– current APA style
Introduction
Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.
Review of Article I
Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
Summarize study results
Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)
Review of Article II
Include all of the same elements listed above
Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.
Conclusion
Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
Briefly summarize the major results of each study
Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed
Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
Include textbook reference
(Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)
Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions
For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:
Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
One reference needs to be your course textbook
Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.
At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:
Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):
Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)
Scriptural Reference 2:
**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.
Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles
Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:
Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?
Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?
If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:
Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?
Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?
If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
New hire for job position
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
International econ
1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.
2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.
3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.
4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market
5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market
6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?
7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.
8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff
9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.
12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.
13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.
14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU
15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.
16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?
17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?
1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?
2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.
3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?
4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.
5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?
1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?
2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?
3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?
4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.
1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply
2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets
Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.
Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?
Provide an example of empirical probability ?
BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis
Formative question
Activity 1.
What is marketing? (20-40words)
What is the USP? (20-40 words)
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Activity 11.
What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words
Activity 12
What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which work best? Why? 50-75 words
Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words
Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.
Activity 14.
How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.
When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words
Activity 15
How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 16.
Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
How can they be documented? 1 sentence
Acitivty 17.
What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10
Summative assessment 1
Question 1.
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities
1000-2000words
Production/Operation
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
How do firms go about planning and analyzing their logistics capabilities?
Using the logic behind the Centroid Method, list five major reasons why a new electronic components manufacturing firm should move into your city or town.
Why is it important for firms to focus on global procurement and sourcing?
What are ways firms can be more efficient through improved global procurement and sourcing?
How should firms go about making the decision whether or not to outsource?
Describe how outsourcing works. Why would a firm want to outsource?
Case study 10-4 performance management
Possible illegal discrimination at tractors, Inc.
As the new human resource manager, you have been asked to identify those areas of current performance management system that could face legal challenge. Develop a one page summantion, the currentsystem identifying the potentially illegal aspect of the current system and your suggestion for making the current system more legally sound.
How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche
Writing Instructions
This is a “How to” post for my digital marketing blog. I need a good quality on “How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche” Add a little information too on how to do the actual guest-blogging. This should, however, be actionable tips, not just general info.
Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
“Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
Get Essay writing help at www.homeworknest.com for this essay now! Pay someone to do your Fall Finals and get strain
Course textbook:
Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.
How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce
Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce. How can each generation learn from one another? Then tell me what can Generation X do to make the workplace a better place?
Analysis, Modeling, and Design
Business Case Research Paper
A Business Case Definition: Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.
For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan. Include definitions and applications. Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.
I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length. Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.
This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.
XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000. An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building. A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000. Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used. Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.
Economic Gain – 10 million
Depreciation rates are as follows:
Real Property – 39 year straight line
7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:
7 Year Property5 Year Property
14.29% 1. 20%
24.49% 2. 32%
17.49 % 3. 19.2%
12.49 % 4. 11.52%
8.93 % 5. 11.5%
8.92 % 6. 5.76%
8.93
4.46
Signature Assignment
Assignment Steps
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.
Summarize the business case for each project.
Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.
Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.
Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management
Which of these countries is NOT identified in the text as having a developing economy with a substantial market?
A) Russia
B) China
C) India
D) Europe
Low inflation is a trigger for improved project management skills because:
A) Rampant cost increases must be passed along to the consumer
B) Internal process improvement is accomplished via project management
C) Lower inflation means narrower product launch windows
D) Global markets are a prerequisite for low inflation
The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is:
A) Multifunctional
B) Permanent
C) Designed to avoid using human resources
D) Not limited by a budget
The acronym PMBoK stands for:
A) The Personal Management Before or Kernel.
B) The Project Movement Behind our Kernel.
C) The Project Management Body of Knowledge.
D) The Performance Measurement Body of Knowledge.
Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
A) The budget
B) The customer requirements
C) The schedule
D) The technical specifications
Which of the following is NOT an element of strategic management?
A) Formulating cross-functional decisions
B) Implementing cross-functional decisions
C) Evaluating cross-functional decisions
D) Eliminating cross-functional decisions
Which of the following is descriptive of a vision statement?
A) Inspirational
B) Functional
C) Supportive
D) Critical
Which of these strategic elements exists at a higher level than the others?
A) Programs
B) Objectives
C) Goals
D) Strategies
A strategic element that contains formally titled initiatives such as the Customer Survey Project, the Small Business Alliance Project, and the Employee Relations Project is most likely a:
A) Mission
B) Strategy
C) Goal
D) Program
External stakeholders that are external to a project but possess the power to effectively disrupt the project’s development are:
A) Intervenor groups
B) Environmental groups
C) Stressor groups
D) Special-interest groups
Souder’s project screening criterion of realism addresses the question:
A) How many workers will the project need?
B) Will the project work as intended?
C) Who are the stakeholders?
D) How often should the project team meet?
A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
A) Ease of use.
B) Comparability.
C) Capability.
D) Flexibility.
A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long-term versus short-term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:
A) Flexibility.
B) Ease of use.
C) Capability.
D) Realistic.
A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back from the list of 700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could describe this factoid as:
A) Numeric and subjective.
B) Numeric and objective.
C) Non-numeric and subjective.
D) Non-numeric and objective.
One project factor that directly impacts a firm’s internal operations is the:
A) Expected return on investment.
B) Financial risk.
C) Need to develop employees.
D) Impact on company’s image.
Which statement regarding project selection is BEST?
A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a
role in project selection.
C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table. Which project should be chosen?
Project Criteria
Importance
Weight Score
1 1 3
Greenlight 2 2 2
3 3 1
1 1 2
Runway 2 2 1
3 3 3
1 1 1
X 2 2 2
3 3 2
1 1 2
Ilevomit 2 2 2
3 3 2
A) Project Greenlight
B) Project Runway
C) Project X
D) Project Ilevomit
For the project manager, leadership is:
A) The process by which she influences the project team.
B) The process of assembling a group of individuals.
C) The process of building skills among all team members.
D) The process of maintaining control of the budget.
The idea that all members of a project team have the ability to offer a contrary position in order to achieve true partnership between the project manager and the team is called:
A) Exchange of purpose.
B) A right to say no.
C) Joint accountability.
D) Absolute honesty.
In a partnership, each member of the project team is responsible for the project’s outcomes and the current situation, whether it is positive or shows evidence of project problems. The term that BEST describes this responsibility is:
A) Exchange of purpose.
B) A right to say no.
C) Joint accountability.
D) Absolute honesty.
Which statement regarding the duties of leaders and managers is BEST?
A) Leaders embrace change while managers support the status quo.
B) Management is more about interpersonal relationships than leadership is.
C) Leaders aim for efficiency.
D) Managers aim for effectiveness.
Which of these is more characteristic of a leader?
A) Strive for control
B) Do things right
C) Demand respect
D) Inspire trust
A common tactic project managers use when they realize their project is underfunded is to rely on:
A) Intimidation.
B) Political tactics.
C) Asking for forgiveness rather than permission.
D) The kindness of strangers.
Which personality trait is a poor match for project work?
A) Introverted
B) Outgoing
C) Gregarious
D) People-oriented
Which statement about scope management is BEST?
A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and termination phases.
B) Project goals don’t matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded.
C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member.
D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.
The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, “It’s a dream until you write it down. Then it’s:
A) Etched in stone.”
B) A scope statement.”
C) A documented dream.”
D) A goal.”
Which of these is NOT an element of project scope management?
A) Project champion
B) Scope statement
C) Project closeout
D) Control systems
Scope management for a project begins with:
A) A work package.
B) An organization breakdown structure.
C) A statement of goals.
D) A configuration statement.
Restrictions that affect project development are:
A) Problems.
B) Constraints.
C) Stop-limits.
D) Limitations.
Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed in the:
A) Approach section of the SOW.
B) Risks and concerns section of the SOW.
C) Acceptance criteria section of the SOW.
D) Resource requirements section of the SOW.
The step that reflects the formal “go ahead” given to the project to commence once the scope definition, planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the:
A) Go ahead.
B) Send off.
C) Work authorization.
D) Work release.
Project management people skills include:
A) Team building.
B) Scheduling.
C) Budgeting.
D) Project evaluation.
The first step in assembling a project team is to:
A) Talk to potential team members.
B) Identify the required skills.
C) Negotiate with the functional supervisor.
D) Notify top management.
Most project resources are negotiated with:
A) Project managers.
B) Potential team members.
C) Top management.
D) External stakeholders.
Stacey noted that the client was a cantankerous old man and that her current project team lacked the requisite skills to work with him. Time was running short, so the BEST approach to making sure the project team had the necessary skills was to:
A) Locate a new client for this project.
B) Identify a suitable training program and implement it.
C) Hire a contractor for the life of the project.
D) Modify the skill set to something that her current team possessed.
If a functional manager will NOT release the resources you need as project manager, your best course of action is to:
A) Complete the project as best you can and inform management and the client that you predicted this outcome.
B) Use social media to voice your concerns.
C) Notify top management of the consequences.
D) Update your resume.
The department chair had allotted plenty of time for all department (and project) members to prepare sections of their five-year program review. Administration demanded no less than 50 pages be devoted to a thorough and thoughtful review of activities and goals. What happened to the report was anybody’s guess; no one had actually seen one or ever heard back from administration once they had submitted it. Most of the project team members thought the report was immediately sent to the steam tunnels running underneath the campus or perhaps it would sit collecting dust as part of a make-work program to justify an assistant VP’s job. No wonder that team meetings were poorly attended and that all the sections of the report were filled with trite phrases and wide margins. This team suffers from:
During the two hours before their 7:30 p.m. appointments on Wednesday evenings, the operations team had a weekly gripe session during which everyone gleefully unloaded on the powers that controlled their miserable lives. This session was valuable since it:
A) Allowed them to feel like real men, if only for a little while.
B) Rewarded good behavior.
C) Established a sense of security and consistency.
D) Created a clear process for addressing conflict and group norms.
The difference between projects that fail and those that are ultimately successful has to do with:
A) The plans that have been made to deal with problems as they arise.
B) The fact that a successful project doesn’t encounter problems.
C) Whether the project is for an internal or external customer.
D) Whether the problem is time- or budget-related.
Project risk is highest during the:
A) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
B) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
C) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
Project risk is lowest during the:
A) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
B) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
C) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
The greatest project risk occurs when:
A) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are high.
B) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are low.
C) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are high.
D) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are low.
The greatest project opportunity occurs when:
A) The project is in the concept phase.
B) The project is in the development phase.
C) The project is in the implementation phase.
D) The project is in the termination phase.
The overall project risk factor is known to be 0.6. The probability of dependency failure is twice the probability of complexity failure and four times the probability of maturity failure. The consequence of performance failure is twice the consequence of reliability failure, four times the consequence of schedule failure and eight times the consequence of cost failure. What is the probability of maturity failure?
Maturity X Cost Y
Complexity 2X Schedule 2Y
Dependency 4X Reliability 4Y
Performance 8Y
A) 0.213
B) 0.197
C) 0.104
D) 0.148
Use the failure probability and consequence scores shown in the table to determine the consequence of failure for the project.
Maturity 0.6 Cost 0.2
Complexity 0.8 Schedule 0.3
Dependency 0.6 Reliability 0.2
Performance 0.5
A) Greater than 0.7
B) Less than or equal to 0.7 but greater than 0.5
C) Less than or equal to 0.5 but greater than 0.3
D) Less than 0.2
True and False: Write T for True or F for False on the line.
Projects, rather than repetitive tasks, are now the basis for most value-added in business.
True
False
The emergence of global markets has made project management skills more critical.
True
False
The same project managed in the same fashion may succeed in one organization but fail in another.
True
False
Most companies are well suited to allow for successful completion of projects in
conjunction with other ongoing corporate activities.
True
False
Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.
True
False
ECO100 Knowledge Check 1
Question
Question 1
If macroeconomics looks at the economy as a whole, it focuses on which of the following?
households
business firms
unemployed people
the division of labor
Question 2
In a discussion of economics, which of the following would exert the most influence on an individual firm’s decision to hire workers?
wage levels
the macroeconomy
the firm’s income
household income
Question 3
What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
microeconomics looks at the forest (aggregate markets) while macroeconomics looks at the trees (individual markets).
macroeconomics is concerned with groups of individuals while microeconomics is concerned with single countries.
microeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets) while macroeconomics is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets).
macroeconomics is concerned with generalization while microeconomics is concerned with specialization.
Question 4
What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
microeconomics concentrates on individual markets while macroeconomics focuses primarily on international trade.
microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers while macroeconomics focuses on the behaviour of firms.
microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers and firms while macroeconomics focuses on the performance of the entire economy.
microeconomics explores the causes of inflation while macroeconomics focuses on the causes of unemployment.
Question 5
Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in macroeconomics?
an increase in the price of a hamburger
a decrease in the production of DVD players by a consumer electronics company
an increase in the wage rate paid to automobile workers
a decrease in the unemployment rate
Question 6
Attending college is a case where the ________________ exceeds the monetary cost.
budget constraint
marginal analysis
opportunity cost
marginal utility
Question 7
Most real-world choices aren’t about getting all of one thing or another; instead, most choices involve _________________, which includes comparing the benefits and costs of choosing a little more or a little less of a good.
utility
opportunity cost
benefit analysis
marginal analysis
Question 8
The law of ____________________________ explains why people and societies rarely make all-or-nothing choices.
consumption
marginal analysis
diminishing marginal utility
utility
Question 9
Also called the opportunity set—a diagram which shows what choices are possible—which of the following is the model that economists use to illustrate the process of individual choice in a situation of scarcity?
consumption set
budget constraint
original budget
income cap
Question 10
Scarcity implies that:
consumers would be willing to purchase the same quantity of a good at a higher price.
it is impossible to completely fulfill the unlimited human desirefor goods and services with the limited resources available.
at the current market price, consumers are willing to purchase more of a good than suppliers are willing to produce.
consumers cannot afford the goods and services available
A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a __________.
style
theme
trend
pattern
A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:
the market shows several natural segments.
it wants to appeal to multiple market segments
it wants to customize its products for each consumer.
all consumers have the same wants and preferences.
The marketing department of Style Wheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to launching a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?
Perceived quality
Market share
Customer awareness
Shareholder value
___________ the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.
Determining demand
Selecting the pricing objective
Selecting a pricing method
Estimating cost
Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:
in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.
the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.
buying decisions are subject to multiple influences.
in business markets, a marked typically deals with several smaller buyers.
Which of the following describes the term product system?
It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.
It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.
It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.
It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.
The width of a company’s product mix refers to:
the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.
the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.
the number of different product lines carried by the company.
the total number of items in the product mix.
C-level executives. Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms as C-level executives.
chief marketing officer
finance manager
chief information officer
marketing manager
In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?
Introduction
Maturity
decline
Growth
Which of the following statements is true?
Their influence on purchase is significant.
Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.
They are often less effective than mass communication channels.
They include public relations, advertising and sales promotions.
_______________ to the capacity to satisfy humanity’s needs without harming future generations.
Profitability
Sustainability
Accountability
Durability
Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company’s products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?
Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?
In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, while in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.
Suppliers in business markets are often expected to tailor their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers.
In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not affected by price changes.
Purchasing decisions are made by the end user and purchasing decisions are made by a buying committee.
Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm’s marketing efforts?
Perceived quality
Customer awareness
Sales turnover
Market share
_________ refers to the activity of designing a company’s product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market
targeting
segmentation
Positioning
Customization
__________ the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.
Product modification
Customer cloning
Customer relationship management
Enterprise resource planning
The __________ encompasses the engaged engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.
legal environment
demographic environment
natural environment
task environment
__________ divides the market into units looking for nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.
Geographic segmentation
Behavioral segmentation
Demographic segmentation
Psychographic segmentation
In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing into the business.
operations
inbound logistics
technology development
marketing
__________ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require
Multiple segment specialization
Single-segment concentration
Individual marketing
Full market coverage
Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product do not take __________.
agents
merchants
jobbers
facilitators
Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?
An organization’s trust and reputation have a role in determining its place in a sharing economy.
A sharing economy is usually the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.
Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that are part of a sharing-related business.
In a sharing economy, in individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.
Which of the following statements is true of fads?
They usually satisfy a strong customer need.
They tend to win over only a limited following.
They have a long acceptance cycle.
They last for several generations.
The ___________releases to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm’s budget.
customer acquisition process
customer relationship management process
new-offering realization process
fulfillment management process
When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a __________.
sub-brand
parent brand
master brand
family brand
__________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.
Introduction
Growth
decline
Maturity
__________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate about new products or new features of existing products.
Informative advertising
Reinforcement advertising
Reminder advertising
Persuasive advertising
A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should be a product or service.
value proposition
value network
project objective
mission statement
A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:
engage the right customers in the right way.
allow all its customers to participate in the product design process.
focus solely on its lead users.
prohibit customers from innovating products without their consent.
__________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.
A nurse who has an obvious physical disability applies for a staff nurse position. Which question, asked by the nurse recruiter, is legal?
“How long have you been disabled?”
“How does your disability affect your life?”
“Are you able to fulfill the requirements of this job?”
“Has your condition stabilized, or do you foresee it getting worse with time?”
Question 2
What is the basic purpose of the state board of nursing?
To ensure that all practicing nurses are competent
To restrict nursing practice through regulations
To ensure that all schools of nursing seek national accreditation
To establish a means of protecting the public at large
Question 3
A nurse brings suit against the hospital after being terminated for excessive absenteeism. Who is the defendant in this lawsuit?
The nurse bringing the suit
The nurse’s attorney
The hospital
The hospital’s attorney
Question 4
Which of the following principles underlies the actions of all health care providers and assures that those actions will meet or exceed standards of care?
Veracity
Maleficence
Beneficence
Autonomy
Question 5
What is the nurse’s legal duty with regard to implementing a physician’s order?
The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse believes some other course of action would be better.
The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse has reason to believe that the patient could come to harm if the order is followed.
The nurse should review each order with the physician and then follow the order.
The nurse should question every order with the physician, since physicians are only human.
Question 6
Which patient incident should be addressed because it is the primary cause of action in lawsuits against long-term care facilities?
Inadequate resident nutrition
Resident falls
Medication errors
Abuse of residents
Question 7
Ethical theories that derive norms and rules from the duties human beings owe to each other fall under the broad classification of:
Teleological theories.
Deontological theories.
Utilitarian theories.
Situational ethics.
Question 8
Which of the following actions is a requirement of the standard of care when it comes to technology and equipment in nursing practice?
Select and properly use equipment within health care settings.
Clean and repair equipment so that it can be readily used.
Modify equipment or improvise as needed in clinical settings.
Notify the FDA is equipment is not working properly.
Question 9
Students do not need to be licensed to practice nursing actions because:
They practice on their instructors’ licenses.
They practice as an exception to the licensure requirement.
They have a lower standard of care than do licensed nurses.
Clinical contracts preclude the need for licenses.
Question 10
A nurse’s neighbor routinely calls and asks for advice regarding health issues. What should the nurse do about these calls?
Tell the neighbor that the nurse is not legally able to give health advice outside the work environment.
Be certain that any advice given reflects both nursing and community standards.
Charge the neighbor a flat fee of $25 for each call.
Tell the neighbor that nurses are not educationally prepared to give health advice.
Question 11
When one delegates tasks to another, accountability for that task:
Is transferred to the person performing the task.
Is retained by the person who transfers the task.
Is held jointly by the person transferring the task and the person performing the task.
Can be imputed to either the person performing the task or the person transferring performance of the task.
Question 12
When giving health-related advice, the nurse can avoid liability if the advice reflects:
A solid medical diagnosis.
Nursing and community standards.
A quick assessment and treatment recommendations.
There is no way to avoid liability when giving advice.
Question 13
The overall goal of American antitrust laws is to:
Prevent competition while creating efficient markets.
Promote competition while creating efficient markets.
Promote competition without affecting market practices.
Prevent competition without affecting market practices.
Question 14
The single most critical factor in determining whether a particular nurse acted with reasonable care in a given situation is:
The number of years the nurse has practiced as a professional.
The experience the nurse has in a particular clinical setting.
The ability of the nurse to perform according to his or her job description.
How the nurse’s conduct compared to the conduct of other nurses with similar backgrounds and experience.
Question 15
Persons who are qualified under the Americans with Disabilities Act include:
Persons who have gender identity disorders and sexual behavior disorders.
Persons who are bisexual and homosexual.
Persons who are currently using illegal drugs.
Persons who are recovering or rehabilitated alcoholics.
Question 16
When the nurse manager transfers full responsibility for the performance of a task without transferring the accountability for the ultimate outcome, the task has been:
Consent, once validly given by a competent adult patient:
May not be revoked.
May be revoked only in writing if the original consent was written.
May be revoked at any time prior to the procedure or treatment being implemented.
May be revoked only if a second procedure supersedes the first procedure.
Question 18
Nurses in which health care settings are required to comply with the Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990?
Solely in formal institutional settings, such as hospitals.
In all health care settings except home health care settings.
In all health care settings, including home health care settings, if federal funds are received.
In home health care settings only if they have a validly executed advanced directive when care is first rendered.
Question 19
A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old patient who reveals that recent injuries are a result of domestic violence. The patient begs the nurse not to “tell anyone.” What action, taken by the nurse, is correct?
Tell the patient that the law requires reporting this incident.
Promise the patient the information will not be shared.
Talk with the patient about the reason for secrecy.
Report the revelation to the charge nurse immediately.
Question 20
The number of states that now have elder abuse laws is:
40
45
48
50
Question 21
Which of the following best describes the term “Telehealth”?
Transmission of information from one site to another.
Delivery of health care through a telecommunications system.
Transmission of sounds and images between two or more sites.
Combination of robotics and virtual reality to allow treatment modalities in distant sites.
Question 22
Apparent consent occurs when the patient:
Voluntarily signs a consent form for an invasive procedure.
Orally agrees to have an invasive procedure performed.
Allows a family member to sign the informed consent form for him or her.
Shows by his or her conduct that he or she agrees to the treatment.
Question 23
In passing the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Congress attempted to combine the two legal concepts of:
Disability and the right to work.
Disability and equality.
Disability and autonomy.
Disability and fairness.
Question 24
A nurse, while under a general employment contract with a hospital, is subject to the right to direct and control the details of his or her work by a second entity. Such a nurse would be said to be acting as a (an):
Dual servant.
Borrowed servant.
Independent contractor.
Agent of the principal.
Question 25
Internal sources for determining standards of care include:
Hospital policy and procedure manuals.
Professional journals and nursing texts.
Previous and relevant court cases.
State standards of care as defined by the state board of nursing.
Question 26
The defendant in a lawsuit is the party:
Bringing the lawsuit against another.
Who was injured by the nurse or health care provider.
Who is answering a complaint brought against him or her.
Who is the health care institution in the case.
Question 27
One of the most important state legislative acts in the area of community health nursing is the:
State nurse practice act.
State Medicaid law.
State family consent doctrine.
State reporting statute.
Question 28
Which advanced nurse practitioner role is authorized by nurse practice acts, medical practice acts, and allied health laws?
Nurse anesthetist
Nurse midwife
Family nurse practitioner
Clinical nurse specialist
Question 29
Since unlicensed personnel are not licensed by the state in their own right, they may perform delegated tasks because:
They practice on the license of the professional delegating the task.
They are sanctioned by the American Hospital Association as an exception to the requirement for licensure.
They work under the auspices and licensure of the institution, not the professional nurse.
They are sanctioned by the state nurse practice act as an exception to the requirement for licensure.
Question 30
When nurses assist patients to understand their own value system and make choices consistent with those values, the approach to advocacy is said to be the:
Rights protection model.
Autonomy model.
Values-based decision model.
Patient advocate model.
Question 31
The main purpose of documentation is to:
Communicate the patient’s condition to all members of the health care team.
Record patient information for future research studies.
Verify dates of patients’ admissions to health care institutions.
Ensure that all charges are validly documented and assessed to the patient for collection from third-party payers.
Question 32
What is the most significant professional qualification necessary for a nurse who practices as a school nurse?
The nurse’s ability to work closely with school officials.
The nurse’s ability to properly counsel students about medical concerns.
The nurse’s ability to exercise independent judgment in emergency situations.
The nurse’s ability to effectively teach students about their health and wellness.
Question 33
The functions of risk management include all of the following except:
Defining situations that place the entity at some financial risk.
Intervening in and investigating potential risks that exist in the health care setting.
Identifying opportunities for improving patient care.
Identifying opportunities and funding for patient research.
Question 34
The legal guide to the practice of registered nursing is:
ANA Code of Ethics.
Nightingale Pledge.
State Nurse Practice Act.
Nurse’s Bill of Rights.
Question 35
When a nurse manager assists an employee in deciding about the employee’s future career and possible options available to him or her, the manager is most likely following the ethical principle of:
Justice
Fidelity
Autonomy
Paternalism
Question 36
The standard of care under Good Samaritan laws is usually the:
Standard of the reasonably prudent patient.
Emergency care standard.
Disaster care standard.
Standard of the prudent hospital-based staff nurse.
Question 37
The court found a nurse manager liable for failure to warn. Which option reflects a failure to warn scenario?
The nurse manager did not adequately supervise a newly hired nurse who had not practiced nursing in five years.
The nurse manager did not tell a potential employer that a former employee was asked to resign for incompetence.
The nurse manager did not advise a newly hired nurse that continuing education was an annual requirement for promotion.
The nurse manager did not notify the physician regarding worsening of a patient’s respiratory status.
Question 38
One of the earliest needs for the EMTALA was seen as the need to prevent:
Patients being turned away from clinics because of inability to pay for services.
Health maintenance organizations from making a profit by providing substandard care.
Patients being turned away from emergency centers based on inability to pay for services.
Illegal aliens from receiving free services in the United States.
Question 39
Which group or person has authority to write statutory law such as nurse practice acts?
State legislatures
State boards of nursing
State governors
State nursing associations
Question 40
The doctrine of personal liability is a rule that:
Protects nurses against liability for malpractice.
Holds everyone responsible for his or her own negligent conduct.
Makes some persons responsible for the actions of others.
Ensures that no one has liability in certain legal actions.
Question 41
The statute of limitations for a lawsuit:
Defines events that will not be allowed to be discussed at trial.
Defines the period of time in which a lawsuit may be filed.
Is suspended for minors in all states until they become 18 years of age.
Limits the number of plaintiffs and defendants in any given lawsuit.
Question 42
By passing the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, Congress:
Established the right of all Americans to have health insurance.
Established the right of access to medical care, regardless of ability to pay.
Established the right of access to medical care, dependent upon the ability to pay.
Set into motion a socialized medical plan for all Americans.
Question 43
Delegation has been a concept used in nursing:
Since the 1990s.
Since the early 1970s.
Since the mid-1950s.
Throughout all of nursing’s history.
Question 44
A confused patient frequently calls out for “help” throughout the shift. When nursing staff respond to the call, the patient is unable to explain what is needed. What action should be taken by the nurse?
Continue to respond and attempt to reorient the patient.
Move the call bell out of the patient’s reach to deter erroneous calls.
Restrain the patient in soft wrist restraints until the physician can be reached.
Chemically restrain the patient with a mild sedative so he/she will sleep.
Question 45
A nurse has decided to obtain individual professional liability insurance. In general, which type of insurance is best for most nurses?
Claims-made
Certificate-based
Occurrence-based
Employer-sponsored
Question 46
A patient on the medical/surgical unit became confused and dangerous to himself and others in the setting, restraints were applied, and the patient was confined to bed. The nurse’s best defense for applying the restraints would be:
Consent.
Self-defense.
Necessity.
Privilege.
Question 47
The standard of care of the nursing student is:
Greater than that of the RN.
Less than that of the RN.
The same as that of the RN.
Not comparable to the standard of the RN.
Question 48
A school nurse negligently administered an overdose of medication to a student, causing the student to suffer a severe reaction that necessitated hospitalization. Should a lawsuit result from this case, the nurse would be held to what standard?
The reasonably prudent school nurse
The reasonably prudent pediatric nurse
The reasonably prudent general duty hospital nurse
The reasonably prudent advanced nurse practitioner
Question 49
Discrimination against which group of persons necessitated the Americans with Disabilities Act?
The increasing population of older Americans
Those returning from war with orthopedic injuries
The increasing numbers of people injured in motor vehicle accidents
Those living with HIV/AIDS
Question 50
External sources for determining standards of care include:
When advising a patient about the influenza nasal spray vaccine, the NP considers the following:
Question options:
1) Its use is acceptable during pregnancy.
2) Its use is limited to children younger than 6 years.
3) It contains live, attenuated virus.
4) This is the preferred method of influenza protection in the presence of airway disease.
Question 2
Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?
Question options:
1) This vaccine contains live virus.
2) Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy.
3) Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction.
4) One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized.
Question 3
Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy?
Question options:
1) Ceftibuten.
2) Amoxicillin.
3) Cefuroxime.
4) Azithromycin.
Question 4
The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is:
Question options:
1) haemophilus influenzae.
2) parainfluenza virus.
3) respiratory syncytial virus.
4) coxsackievirus.
Question 5
At which of the following ages in an infant’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?
Question options:
1) 1–2 months.
2) 2–4 months.
3) 4–6 months.
4) 8–10 months.
Question 6
A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age:
Question options:
1) 12 months.
2) 18 months.
3) 24 months.
4) 30 months.
Question 7 1 / 2 points
Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age.
2) Breastfeeding into the toddler years.
3) Family history of lipid abnormalities.
4) Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question 8
Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis?
Question options:
1) Nasal washing antigen test.
2) Antibody test via blood sample.
3) Urine culture.
4) A laboratory test is not available.
Question 9
Physical examination findings in otitis externa include:
Question options:
1) tympanic membrane immobility.
2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation.
3) tympanic membrane erythema.
4) tympanic membrane bullae.
Question 10
Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely:
Question options:
1) a sequela of rheumatic fever.
2) a result of a congenital defect.
3) calcific in nature.
4) found with atrial septal defect.
Question 12
Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant?
Question options:
1) A visual preference for the human face.
2) A preference for low-pitched voices.
3) Indifference to the cry of other neonates.
4) Poorly developed sense of smell.
Question 13
An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a “sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101° F (38. 3° C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:
Question options:
1) streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis.
2) infectious mononucleosis.
3) viral pharyngitis.
4) vincent angina.
Question 14
At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about infant sleep position most helpful?
Question options:
1) Birth.
2) 2 weeks.
3) 2 months.
4) 4 months.
Question 15
With regard to seasonal influenza prevention in well children, the NP considers that:
Question options:
1) compared with school-aged children, younger children (? 24 months old) have an increased risk of seasonal influenza-related hospitalization.
2) a full adult dose of seasonal influenza vaccine should be given starting at age 4 years.
3) the use of the seasonal influenza vaccine in well children is discouraged.
4) widespread use of the vaccine is likely to increase the risk of eczema and antibiotic allergies.
Question 16
Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with:
Question options:
1) light palpation at the site of the discomfort.
2) release of deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
3) palpation on the contralateral side of the abdomen.
4) deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
Question 17
A Still murmur:
Question options:
1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology.
2) has a humming or vibratory quality.
3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance.
4) can become louder when the patient is standing.
Question 18
Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) staphylococcus aureus.
2) haemophilus influenzae.
3) streptococcus pneumoniae.
4) pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 19
Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?
Question options:
1) Ultrasound.
2) Barium enema.
3) CT scan.
4) Abdominal flat plate.
Question 20
At which age is a child at greatest risk of death from pertussis?
Question options:
1) <1 year.
2) 2–4 years.
3) 5–10 years.
4) >10 years.
Question 21
A healthy 3-year-old child is in your office for well-child care. You expect this child to be able to:
Question options:
1) name five colors.
2) alternate feet when climbing stairs.
3) speak in two-word phrases.
4) tie shoelaces.
Question 22
Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) cromolyn ophthalmic drops.
2) oral antihistamines.
3) ophthalmological antihistamines.
4) corticosteroid ophthalmic drops.
Question 23
Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as:
Question options:
1) drops of blood noticed when wiping.
2) dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool.
3) a large amount of brisk red bleeding.
4) significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool.
Question 24
Concerning the MMR vaccine, which of the following is true?
Question options:
1) The link between use of MMR vaccine and childhood autism has been firmly established.
2) There is no credible scientific evidence that MMR use increases the risk of autism.
3) The use of the combined vaccine is associated with increased autism risk, but giving the vaccine’s three components as separate vaccines minimizes this risk.
4) The vaccine contains thimerosal, a mercury derivative.
Question 25
You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent:
Question options:
1) aortic stenosis.
2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
3) a physiologic murmur.
4) a Still’s murmur.
Question 26
Which of the following statements is correct about the varicella vaccine?
Question options:
1) This vaccine contains killed varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
2) A short febrile illness is common during the first days after vaccination.
3) Children should have a varicella titer drawn before receiving the vaccine.
4) Rarely, mild cases of chickenpox have been reported in immunized patients.
Question 27
A healthy 6-year-old girl presents for care. Her parents request that she receive vaccination for influenza and report that she has not received this vaccine in the past. How many doses of influenza vaccine should she receive this flu season?
Question options:
1) 1.
2) 2.
3) 3.
4) 4.
Question 28
At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about toilet-training readiness most helpful?
Question options:
1) 12 months.
2) 15 months.
3) 18 months.
4) 24 months.
Question 29
The murmur of atrial septal defect is usually:
Question options:
1) found in children with symptoms of cardiac disease.
2) first found on a 2–6-month well-baby examination.
3) found with mitral valve prolapse.
4) presystolic in timing.
Question 30
You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You:
Question options:
1) encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization.
2) conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment.
3) reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys.
4) order audiogram and tympanometry.
Question 31
Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:
Question options:
1) azithromycin.
2) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
3) clarithromycin.
4) clindamycin.
Question 32
Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?
Question options:
1) Receiving blood products.
2) Ingestion of raw shellfish.
3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water.
4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food.
Question 33
Juice intake is acceptable in children 6 months and older per which of the following recommendations? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) The juice is mixed in small amounts to flavor water.
2) Only 100% juice is used.
3) Juice replaces no more than one serving of milk.
4) The juice is consumed in the morning with breakfast.
5) No more than 6 oz. (177 mL) per day is recommended for children 6 months to 5 years.
Question 34
Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include:
Question options:
1) moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops.
2) polymyxin B ophthalmic drops.
3) oral acyclovir.
4) no antibiotic therapy needed.
Question 35 1 / 2 points
Which of the following benchmarks indicate normal development by a healthy child born at term who is now 12 months of age? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1) Talking in two-word sentences.
2) Pointing to a desired object.
3) Reaching for a desired object.
4) Walking backward.
COM 539 Final Exam Guide (New, 2018)
Relative to Americans, Canadians are more likely to be:
Happy and casual
Educated and informal
Bilingual and formal
Sociable and casual
Which of the following is an acceptable method of negotiating the price objection?
Apologize for the product’s high price
Clarify the link between price and quality
Make price the focal point of your presentation
Focus on an individual product feature
John Bieland, the equipment buyer for Great Lakes Manufacturing, purchased two large riveting machines from Hoseke Corporation’s sales representative, Lindell Ross. Because of a clerical error, the machines shipped a day later than scheduled, which put the delivery truck in the middle of a blizzard that shut down roads for several days. By the time the machines were delivered by Hoseke Corporation, they were a full week late. John Bieland sends an email to Lindell, cc’ing the CEOs of Great Lakes Manufacturing and Hoseke Corporation, expressing his dissatisfaction. What should Lindell offer to John to rectify the situation?
Lindell should discount any further purchases by half.
Lindell should refund John’s money.
Lindell should send John 2 new machines
Lindell should consult with John to find out what would help him regain trust in Lindell and Hoseke Corporation.
Managing an organization’s personal selling function to include planning, implementing, and controlling the sales management process is called:
Sales control
Sales supervision
Sales leadership
Sales management
With respect to the sales training process, after Brenda is done assessing the sales training needs, she should begin working on:
Performing sales training
Setting training objectives
Setting the sales training schedule
Evaluating training alternatives
Developing a long-term relationship that focuses on solving the customer’s buying problems is referred to as:
consulting
transitioning
selling
partnering
Steve is looking for a way to analyze customer data from his territory in an effort to identify new opportunities for sales revenue growth. _______________ could help Steve with this task.
Deal analytics
Sales call auditing software
Cloud computing
Customer Relationship Management
The primary goal of a ____________ presentation strategy is to influence the prospect’s beliefs, attitudes, or behavior, and to encourage buyer action.
persuasive
value
sensory
reminder
Which of the following is true with respect to negotiations in foreign cultures?
Business rituals are largely the same across cultures
It is sometimes advisable to become antagonistic during negotiations
German buyers are unlikely to look you in the eye
Different cultural expectations can cause miscommunication
The most widely used system for dividing responsibility is to organize the sales force on the basis of:
Products
Geography
Markets
Customers
JoAnn has a website for her business. She advertises her business on a number of online services, but she is not sure which ones are driving traffic to her website and which are not worth the money for advertising. The best thing for JoAnn to do is:
All websites are public so there really is not a way to determine how people find a website.
Buy advertising everywhere
Only advertise 1 or 2 places and see if her sales go up or down
Use a service such as Google Analytics® to determine what websites and searches are bringing traffic to her site.
The most likely reason for salespeople to make follow-up telephone calls to customers is that:
sales managers cannot make all the calls themselves
customer service representatives cannot be trusted to make the calls
the customer may place repeat orders during a phone call
follow-up calls are more efficient than e-mails
By demonstrating effective listening, a salesperson is able to do which of the following?
Beat out the competition
Always uncover two or three explicit needs
Convince the buyer that the salesperson’s product is best
Help build the buyer’s trust
“Smart” sales-force automation tools that analyze data on past customer behavior, cross-selling opportunities, and demographics to identify areas of opportunity are referred to collectively as?
Sales force automation
Cloud computing
Deal analytics
CRM
A customer has a negative experience at your business and writes about this on a social media review site. What is the best thing for you to do?
Respond calmly and don’t take it personally.
Never admit responsibility and divert blame.
Ignore it. People don’t take those sites seriously.
Post your reasons for not meeting their expectations.
The purpose of the follow-up communication between customer and salesperson is to express thanks for the order and to:
introduce related products
determine if the customer is satisfied
request referrals for other prospects
complete the call card form
Andrew is a new sales rep for an industrial chemical supplier. Andrew makes it a point to never be late for an appointment and to always follow through immediately on promises he makes to his customers. These behaviors help Andrew build trust with his customers because they perceive him as:
dependable
likeable
competent
candid
Steve is a salesperson who is responsible for selling only two of his company’s 15 products. Steve is working in a _____________ sales force.
Specialized
Centralized
Geographic
Decentralized
Which the following best describes the process of strategic prospecting?
The process of turning prospects into customers
The process of locating new customers
The process of generating leads
The process of identifying, qualifying, and prioritizing sales opportunities
Conveying interest and understanding is the objective of which active listening component?
Evaluating
Sensing
Responding
Interpreting
A series of creative improvements in the sales process that enhance the customer experience is known as:
value-added selling
relationship modeling
customer-oriented sales
transactional selling
Which statement is most likely true about the communication-style model?
Emotion and dominance are the two primary dimensions.
It is based on 3 important dimensions of human behavior
It is based on a highly accurate self-rating system.
It is composed of 4 distinct quadrants.
When a prospect has voiced an objection, it is most likely best for the salesperson to:
Deny the accuracy of the objection
Clarify the true nature of the problem
Suggest postponing the negotiations
Divert attention to a product feature
In order for salespeople to be able to deliver complete comparative product information in sales presentations they must possess:
trust
competitor knowledge
adaptability
assertiveness
Anthony is a purchasing agent for a hospital. One day the hospital receives a shipment from one of its suppliers with several items missing. Anthony calls the supplier and talks to a customer service representative who is very friendly and helpful. Anthony calls the supplier again the next day but talks to a different customer service representative. This customer service representative is not as friendly and not as helpful. Which of the following describes the problem the supplier has with customer service?
The first customer service agent set an unrealistic expectation
Customer service people are hard to train
The quality of the service provided is inconsistent across customer service agents
The second customer service agent needs more training
Steve is a salesperson for XYZ Corporation. His territory includes 50 established accounts which he calls on regularly. Although Steve is supposed to allocate some time to prospecting, he’d rather call on his existing accounts. Like many salespeople in his position, Steve resists prospecting because:
His established accounts are too important.
He is afraid of rejection.
He’d rather use his spare time for paperwork.
He doesn’t believe it’s necessary.
Working to reach an agreement that is mutually satisfactory to both buyer and seller is also called:
negotiation
practice theory
tactics
agreement
When a customer service problem requires an apology, a salesperson should most likely:
Send a text message to the customer
Delegate the task to a customer service representative
Send a prompt email to the customer
Call the customer personally
In order to better understand their own product’s position in the market place, salespeople need:
A high degree of competitor knowledge.
To be candid.
To be customer oriented.
A high degree of customer knowledge.
You have a business that you want to set up on Facebook®. What is the best way to drive traffic to your business using Facebook?
Create a profile using the name of your business.
Facebook does not have business options and only personal profiles are allowed.
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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question
Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
Creating a physician expert panel
Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
Conducting an external review of a guideline
Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Inhaled corticosteroids
Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
Leukotriene receptor agonists
Oral corticosteroids
Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.
The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
Diamox
Diamox
Promethazine
Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Filiform/digitate wart
Dysplastic cervical lesion
Condyloma acuminata
Koilocytosis
Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Dementia
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Delirium
Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
“Drive to the emergency room now.”
“Call 911.”
Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
Fluid restriction
Hemodialysis 4 days a week
High-protein diet
Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Glaucoma
Increased sperm quality
Bladder cancer
Eczema
Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:
3 weeks
1 month
6 months
1 year
Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Parkinson’s disease
Alzheimer’s disease
A CVA
Bell’s palsy
Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Tension
Migraine
Cluster
Stress
Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
African American men
Scandinavian men and women
Caucasian women
Asian men
Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Pharyngitis
Allergies
Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Severe asthma
A common valvular lesion
Severe hypertension
A prosthetic heart valve
Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
Increase the dose of antibiotic.
Order a cytoscopy.
Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.
This condition only occurs on the face.
Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
“We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
Stage 2 hypertension
Hypertensive
Normal in healthy older adults
Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
1 month
3 months
6 months
As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
He should stop smoking today.
He should stop smoking tomorrow.
His quit date should be in 1 week.
He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
No activity at all
A blank stare
Urine is usually voided involuntarily
The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
Permethrin cream
Lindane
Crotamiton lotion and cream
Ivermectin
Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
Viral conjunctivitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Every 3 months
Every 6 months
Annually
Whenever there is a problem
Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Repeat the test.
Refer to a nephrologist.
Measure the serum protein.
Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
CN V
CN VII
CN IX
CN X
Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray
Cystoscopy with biopsy
Magnetic resonance imaging
Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
Biopsy
Best practice
Boundary
Border irregularity
Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Greater than 30
Greater than 40
Greater than 50
Greater than 60
Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Legionella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Serum calcium
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Complete blood cell count
Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
All of the above
Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
BUN and creatinine
Electrolytes
Creatinine clearance
Urinalysis
Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
It is an old wives’ tale.
It is used as a last resort.
Salicylic acid is more effective.
It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
Penicillin
Quinolone
Cephalosporin
Macrolide
Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Otosclerosis
Cholesteatoma
Presbycusis
Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
An ulcer
A fissure
Lichenification
An excoriation
Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
B-type natriuretic peptide
C-reactive protein
Serum albumin
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Baker phenomenon
Arnold reflex
Cough reflex
Tragus reflex
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treat
NR511 Midterm Exam
NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Erythema infectiosum
Laterothoracic exanthem
Erythema migrans
Morbilli exanthem
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
All of the above
Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
Elevated blood urea nitrogen
Decreased urine pH
Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
Absent cremasteric reflex
Pain relieved on testicular elevation
Testicle very low in the scrotum
Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”
Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Reduces postprandial blood glucose
Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Reduces total cholesterol
All of the above
Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Platelet count
Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
Anemia
Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)
Sports-related injuries
Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?
Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.
Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.
Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.
The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.
Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Oral contraceptive use for 15 years
Early menarche
Diet high in soy protein
Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
All of the above
Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive bacillus
Gram-negative bacillus
Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?
100% bleach
50% bleach and 50% vinegar
Nine parts H2O to one part bleach
The friend must have his or her own bathroom.
Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?
Ferritin
Porter’s syndrome
Hypochromasia
Pica
Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Free T4 and serum calcium
Free T3 and T4
TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
“My optometrist checks my eyes.”
“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
SLE
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?
Bradycardia
Extreme diaphoresis
Severe bronchoconstriction
Hypotension
Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,
minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?
“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”
“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”
“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”
“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”
Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:
It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
It can be utilized during routine office visits.
It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.
All are benefits of MI.
Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?
PEP should be started within hours of exposure.
PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.
Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.
PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.
Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
All of the above
Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
Carrots
Spinach
Potatoes
Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
CN II
CN III
CN IV
CN V
Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Pheochromocytoma
Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac arrhythmias
All of the above
Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Urinalysis
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Complete blood cell count with differential
Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:
A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.
A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.
A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.
A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:
Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem
Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter
Focus on the “process” and not the assessment
Make the patient and family happier
Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma
Pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
All of the above
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
Question
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:
A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Ovaries
D) Fallopian tubes
The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
A) anteverted and anteflexed.
B) retroverted and anteflexed.
C retroverted and retroflexed.
D)superiorverted and anteflexed.
An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:
A)aging.
B)becoming fibrous.
C)estrogen dependent.
D)able to respond to estrogen.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
A) 2; 2; 1
B) 3; 2; 0
C) 3; 2; 1
D) 3; 3; 1
During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?
A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”
B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”
D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
A) dysuria.
B) stress incontinence.
C) hematuria.
D) urge incontinence.
During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
A) a change in your urination patterns?”
B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?
A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”
B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
C) “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
A) Redness of the labia majora
B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
A) Nabothian cysts are present.
B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
A) These findings are all within normal limits.
B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) In the parent’s lap
B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”
B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”
C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A) pediculosis pubis.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
A) an ovarian cyst.
B) endometriosis.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.
A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) endometriosis.
B) uterine fibroids.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
A) syphilitic chancre.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
A) stellate.
B) small and round.
C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
D) everted.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
A) uterine
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) endometrial
During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
D) a normal finding.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”
B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”
C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”
D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”
The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
A) Heavy and solid
B) Mobile and fluctuant
C)Mobile and solid
D) Fixed
E) Smooth and round
F) Poorly defined
HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)
Questions:
How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?
Millennium development goals report
Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.
BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?
What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?
Activity 2.
What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with
environmental regulations?
How might an assessor conduct an assessment?
Activity 3.
What is resource efficiency?
What is an Environmental Management System?
How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?
Activity 4.
Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.
Activity 5.
What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.
Activity 6.
Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.
Activity 7.
How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?
Activity 8.
List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.
Activity 9.
What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
What is the hierarchy of control?
Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:
Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.
Activity 11.
What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.
Activity 12.
Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.
Activity 13.
Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.
Activity 14.
Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?
Activity 15.
Define the term “Engagement”.
Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.
Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
What are the benefits of having a diverse team?
Activity 16.
List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.
Activity 17.
A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.
Activity 18.
Determine whether the following statements are true or false.
Activity 19.
Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
Create performance Indicators.
Decide how you are going to publish report.
Gather the data and evaluate it.
Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
Identify the target audience for your report.
Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
Obtain Feedback.
Produce, publish and distribute the report.
Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.
Activity20.
Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?
Activity 21.
List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.
Activity 22.
Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.
Question 1.
What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?
Question 2.
What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?
Question 3.
What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?
Question 4.
What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?
Question5.
What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?
List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.
Question 6.
Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.
Question 7.
What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?
Question 8.
How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?
Summative Assessment 2
Project 1.
Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.
Your response should include a discussion of:
Complex environmental issues.
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Project 2.
Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.
Millennium development goals
Pick two MDGs
Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries.
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.
Week 2 – Healthy People 2020
After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT. Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice. Topic: Affordable Medication Program
Length: Minimum of two full pages of text in length. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references
Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Human Resource Management Overview
Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview
Due Week 4 and worth 200 points
Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..
2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..
3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..
4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Which statement about confusion is true?
Question options:
a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question options:
a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
Question options:
a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 4 2 / 2 points
How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Question options:
a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Question options:
a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
Question options:
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.
Question 7 2 / 2 points
Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
Question options:
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
Question options:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
Question options:
a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
Question options:
a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Question options:
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
Question options:
a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
Question options:
a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 16 1 / 1 point
Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
Question options:
a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
Question options:
a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
Question options:
a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
Question options:
a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
Question options:
a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion
Question 22 2 / 2 points
What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
Question options:
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel
Question 23 2 / 2 points
Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
Question options:
a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto
Question 25 0 / 2 points
Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
Question options:
a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
Question 26 2 / 2 points
About 90% of all headaches are?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause
Question 27 2 / 2 points
Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Question options:
a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
Question options:
a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids
Question 29 2 / 2 points
The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Question options:
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
Question options:
a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
Question 32 1 / 1 point
Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
Question options:
a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
Question options:
a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 35 2 / 2 points
When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Question options:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 37 2 / 2 points
The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Question 38 1 / 1 point
A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Question options:
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
Question options:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy
Question 40 1 / 1 point
Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Question options:
a) Hypersomnolence
b) Blunted feelings
c) Loss of interest in significant activities
d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?
Question options:
a) Decrease in adrenal size
b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone
Question 42 2 / 2 points
The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
Question options:
a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 5 weeks
Question 44 2 / 2 points
It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Question options:
a) Before the initiation of treatment
b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
c) When switching to a different medication
d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 45 2 / 2 points
A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?
Question options:
a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.
b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.
c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.
d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.
Question 46 1 / 1 point
According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Question options:
a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?
Question options:
a) Memory impairment
b) Sexual dysfunction
c) Dry mouth
d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question options:
a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 49 2 / 2 points
What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?
Question options:
a) 0.05
b) 0.1
c) 0.2
d) 0.3
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?
Question options:
a) Every 30 minutes
b) Every 60 minutes
c) Every 90 minutes
d) Every 180 minutes
Question 51 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
Question options:
a) Hypercholesterolemia
b) Hypermagnesmia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Decreased TRH
Question 52 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Question options:
a) Sertraline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Citoprolam
d) Imipramine
Question 53 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Question options:
a) Liver function
b) Vision
c) Growth parameters
d) Renal function
Question 54 2 / 2 points
It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) Substance abuse
d) PTSD
Question 55 2 / 2 points
Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
Question 56 2 / 2 points
Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Anxiety
c) Substance-related addictions
d) Gambling
Question 57 1 / 1 point
What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?
Question options:
a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention
b) Personality or environmental problems
c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors
d) Global assessment of functioning
Question 58 2 / 2 points
Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
Question options:
a) CAGE
b) SANE
c) SAD PERSONAS
d) DIGFAST
Question 59 2 / 2 points
Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?
Question options:
a) ADHD
b) Bipolar
c) Depression
d) Anxiety
Question 60 1 / 1 point
Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?
Question options:
a) Substance abuse and medication effects
b) Medical and neurological disorders
c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression
d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Question 61 1 / 1 point
The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 62 1 / 1 point
Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 63 1 / 1 point
Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 64 1 / 1 point
Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 65 1 / 1 point
Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 66 1 / 1 point
The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 67 1 / 1 point
A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 68 1 / 1 point
Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 69 1 / 1 point
Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 70 1 / 1 point
When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 71 1 / 1 point
A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Question options:
a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b) Endometrial hyperplasia
c) Vagismus
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 72 2 / 2 points
A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Question options:
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Doxycycline
c) Acyclovir
d) Metronidazole
Question 73 1 / 1 point
A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) HPV
c) Chlamydia
d) Trichomonas
Question 74 1 / 1 point
A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Question options:
a) Trichomonas
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) HPV
d) Herpes simplex virus
Question 75 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Question options:
a) Metronidazole
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Diflucan
d) Doxycycline
Question 76 1 / 1 point
A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Question options:
a) Fluconazole
b) Estrogen vaginal cream
c) Metronidazole
d) Doxycycline
Question 77 2 / 2 points
Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Question options:
a) Filiform/digitate wart
b) Dysplastic cervical lesion
c) Condyloma acuminata
d) Koilocytosis
Question 78 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 79 2 / 2 points
Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Periorbital cellulitis
c) Erysipelas
d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis
Question 80 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 81 2 / 2 points
The most common cause of CAP is?
Question options:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 82 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 83 2 / 2 points
The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 84 2 / 2 points
A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
Question options:
a) The scrotum will be dark.
b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c) The scrotum will appear milky white.
d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 85 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 86 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 87 1 / 1 point
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 88 1 / 1 point
A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Testicular cancer
b) Inguinal hernia
c) Varicocele
d) All of the above
Question 89 1 / 1 point
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 90 1 / 1 point
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 91 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 92 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
Question options:
a) An ulcer
b) A fissure
c) Lichenification
d) An excoriation
Question 93 2 / 2 points
A bulla is:
Question options:
a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Question 94 1 / 1 point
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 95 1 / 1 point
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 96 1 / 1 point
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 97 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 98 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 99 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 100 1 / 1 point
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 3 2 / 2 points
After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Question options:
a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.
b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.
c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.
d) All of the above
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Question options:
a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 5 2 / 2 points
John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Question options:
a) Valgus stress test
b) McMurray circumduction test
c) Lachman test
d) Varus stress test
Question 6 2 / 2 points
The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
Question options:
a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Question options:
a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
d) All of the above
Question 8 2 / 2 points
The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?
Question options:
a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s
b) Recent exposure to mumps
c) Vegetarian diet
d) Allergy to iodine
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Question options:
a) Rice
b) Carrots
c) Spinach
d) Potatoes
Question 10 2 / 2 points
One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:
Question options:
a) Goiter
b) Abnormal serum calcium
c) Elevated urine biochemical markers
d) Bony fracture
Question 11 2 / 2 points
After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Question options:
a) Elevated TSH
b) Normal TSH
c) Low TSH
d) Undetectable TSH
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Question options:
a) Decreased C-reactive protein
b) Hyperalbuminemia
c) Morning stiffness
d) Weight gain
Question 13 2 / 2 points
The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 14 2 / 2 points
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Question options:
a) Gastrocnemius weakness
b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c) Numbness in the lateral foot
d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 18 2 / 2 points
You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?
Question options:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
Question options:
a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
d) All of the above
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Question options:
a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose
b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c) Reduces total cholesterol
d) All of the above
Question 22 0 / 2 points
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
Question 23 2 / 2 points
The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”
d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?
Question options:
a) Check his blood sugar.
b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
c) Call 911.
d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.
Question 26 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
Question options:
a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b) Free T4 and serum calcium
c) Free T3 and T4
d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) TSH
c) Electrolytes
d) Urine specific gravity
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?
Question options:
a) History of hypertension
b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.
c) Her history of diabetes mellitus
d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
Question options:
a) 1,200 mg/day
b) 1,000 mg/day
c) 1,300 mg/day
d) 1,500 mg/day
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Question options:
a) Sinus bradycardia
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Supraventricular tachycardia
d) U waves
Question 31 2 / 2 points
You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Question options:
a) Articular
b) Inflammatory
c) Nonarticular
d) A and B
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
Question options:
a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
d) All of the above
Question 33 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Question options:
a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?
Question options:
a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.
b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.
c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.
d) None of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:
Question options:
a) Apprehension sign
b) Bulge sign
c) Thumb sign
d) None of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
Question options:
a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis
c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Bone scan
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) X-ray of the foot
d) Culture of the ulcer
Question 38 2 / 2 points
One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Question options:
a) Bone
b) Synovium
c) Tendons
d) Fascia
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Question options:
a) Elevated uric acid level
b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen
c) Decreased urine pH
d) Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?
Question options:
a) Myxedema
b) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Pan-hypopituitarism
Question 42 0 / 2 points
How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Question options:
a) Once a year
b) Every 6 months
c) Every 3 months
d) Every visit
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Question options:
a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.
d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?
Question options:
a) Low-dose aspirin
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Ethambutol
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 49 2 / 2 points
The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?
Question options:
a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
b) RAI binds free T4.
c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.
d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Pancreatitis
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?
Question options:
a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.
b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.
c) Recommend cranberry supplements.
d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Question options:
a) Repeat the test.
b) Refer to a nephrologist.
c) Measure the serum protein.
d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
Question options:
a) 0.05% liquid formulation
b) 0.1% cream
c) 1% foam
d) 0.02% cream
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
Question options:
a) Pruritis
b) Glycosuria
c) Irritability
d) Hypotension
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?
Question options:
a) Keratosis pilaris
b) Dennie’s sign
c) Keratoconus
d) Pityriasis alba
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Erectile dysfunction
b) Glaucoma
c) Hypotension
d) Headache
Question 8 2 / 2 points
When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?
Question options:
a) A piece of hair or a thread
b) Hyphae
c) Leukocytes
d) Spores
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?
Question options:
a) Vagistat vaginal cream
b) Monistat combination pack
c) Terazol vaginal cream
d) Diflucan, 150 mg
Question 10 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question options:
a) NSAIDs
b) Beets
c) Vitamin A
d) Red meat
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
Question options:
a) BUN and creatinine
b) Electrolytes
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Urinalysis
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?
Question options:
a) 35
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Question 13 0 / 2 points
When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?
Question options:
a) Spores
b) Leukocytes
c) Pseudohyphae
d) Epithelial cells
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?
Question options:
a) Last menstrual period
b) Method of birth control
c) Last unprotected sexual contact
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Question options:
a) Urinalysis
b) Gram stain of urethral discharge
c) Complete blood cell count with differential
d) Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?
Question options:
a) Bullous impetigo
b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
c) Nonbullous impetigo
d) Ecthyma
Question 18 2 / 2 points
An example of ecchymosis is:
Question options:
a) A hematoma
b) A keloid
c) A bruise
d) A patch
Question 19 2 / 2 points
An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Prostate cancer
d) All of the above
Question 20 0 / 2 points
A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Testosterone level
b) Prostate-specific antigen
c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
d) Prolactin level
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Peyronie’s disease
b) Damage to the pudendal artery
c) Scarring of the cavernosa
d) All of the above
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 23 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Tinea unguium is also known as:
Question options:
a) Onychomycosis
b) Tinea versicolor
c) Tinea manuum
d) Tinea corporis
Question 25 2 / 2 points
The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?
Question options:
a) Recent heat stroke
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment
d) All of the above
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?
Question options:
a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.
b) Pinch the skin taut together.
c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.
d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?
Question options:
a) Diarrhea
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Closed-angle glaucoma
d) Breast cancer
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 29 2 / 2 points
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question options:
a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
b) Josh has red papules on his face.
c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.
d) There are white streaks on his neck.
Question 31 2 / 2 points
The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
Question options:
a) A skin tag
b) Actinic keratosis
c) A melanoma
d) A basal cell lesion
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?
Question options:
a) Telogen effluvium (TE)
b) Trichotillomania
c) Psoriasis
d) Alopecia areata
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
b) Ice pack to the scrotal area
c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
d) All of the above
Question 34 2 / 2 points
A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Lower urinary tract infection
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Candidiasis
d) Pyelonephritis
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?
Question options:
a) Milk
b) Bananas
c) Soy sauce
d) All of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:
Question options:
a) Bulla
b) Scale
c) Excoriation
d) Fissure
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?
Question options:
a) Urethral polyps
b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
c) Anticholinergic medication
d) All of the above
Question 38 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?
Question options:
a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”
b) “What medications are you currently taking?”
c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?
Question options:
a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”
b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”
c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”
d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?
Question options:
a) Warm sitz baths
b) Scrotal elevation
c) Masturbation
d) All of the above
Question 41 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?
Question options:
a) Hypertension
b) Constipation
c) Tubal ligation
d) Diabetes
Question 42 2 / 2 points
A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Psychogenic nocturia
b) Urethral polyp
c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Question 43 0 / 2 points
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?
Question options:
a) Staphylococcal aureus
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) S. pyrogenes
d) Streptococcus
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
c) Cellulitis
d) A diabetic ulcer
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
Question options:
a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.
b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
c) Their skin is thicker.
d) Their immune system is stronger.
Question 47 2 / 2 points
A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
Question options:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 48 2 / 2 points
When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?
Question options:
a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.
b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.
c) Only take short tepid showers.
d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?
Question options:
a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.
b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.
c) Drink more black tea.
d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
Question options:
a) 3 to 7 days
b) 14 to 21 days
c) 3 to 6 weeks
d) 6 to 12 weeks
MN568 Unit 4 Exam
MN568 Unit 4 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?
Question options:
a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.
b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,
c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?
Question options:
a) Very early
b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation
c) Late in inflammation
d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Lactase deficiency
d) All of the above
Question 4 0 / 2 points
If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?
Question options:
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Hiatal hernia
c) Costochondritis
d) Pericarditis
Question 5 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?
Question options:
a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea
b) Wakens at night with diarrhea
c) History of international travel
d) All of the above
Question 6 2 / 2 points
In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
Question options:
a) First-degree AV block
b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
d) Third-degree AV block
Question 7 2 / 2 points
For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
Question options:
a) 6 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 10 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?
Question options:
a) Malabsorption
b) Constipation
c) Rectal bleeding
d) Esophageal ulceration
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?
Question options:
a) CBC with differential
b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Barium enema
d) Computed tomography of the abdomen
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Question options:
a) Greater than 30
b) Greater than 40
c) Greater than 50
d) Greater than 60
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea.Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Feels relief after a bowel movement
b) Sometimes is constipated
c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night
d) All of the above
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
Question options:
a) A physiologic split S2
b) A fixed split S2
c) S3
d) S4
Question 13 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?
Question options:
a) This is a premalignant tissue.
b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
d) All of the above
Question 14 0 / 2 points
A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
Question options:
a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells
b) Inadequate hepatocyte function
c) Biliary obstruction
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
Question options:
a) B-type natriuretic peptide
b) C-reactive protein
c) Serum albumin
d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Your patient with permanent afib asks when he can discontinue his warfarin. You tell him:
Question options:
a) When your internalized normalized ratio reaches 3.0, you can stop taking your warfarin permanently.
b) When you no longer feel ill
c) One month after your symptoms dissipate
d) You’ll probably be on it indefinitely.
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d) Complete blood cell count
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
Question options:
a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
d) None of the statements are true.
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?
Question options:
a) Obtain a complete history.
b) Order a barium enema.
c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.
d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?
Question options:
a) Digital rectal exam
b) Pelvic exam
c) Sexual history
d) All of the above
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?
Question options:
a) Her age
b) Frequent constipation
c) Flatulence
d) Colicky abdominal pain
Question 22 2 / 2 points
Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?
Question options:
a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.
b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
Question 23 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis. The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Question options:
a) Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase
b) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c) Elevated indirect bilirubin
d) Decreased white blood cells
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Bactrim
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?
Question options:
a) Stool culture
b) Liver enzymes
c) Antihepatitis D virus
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Statins are approved for which age group?
Question options:
a) Children over the age of 2
b) Children over the age of 6
c) Children over the age of 10
d) Only adolescents and adults
Question 27 2 / 2 points
When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
Question options:
a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
d) Beta blocker
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?
Question options:
a) Less than 0.25
b) Less than 0.50
c) Less than 0.90
d) Greater than 1
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Which group would most benefit from statins?
Question options:
a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL
b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease
c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%
d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?
Question options:
a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
Question 32 2 / 2 points
The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?
Question options:
a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).
b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.
c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.
d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?
Question options:
a) Multivitamin
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Pepto-Bismol
d) Ibuprofen
Question 34 2 / 2 points
You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?
Question options:
a) Swimming
b) Weight lifting
c) Golfing
d) Walking
Question 36 2 / 2 points
A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
Question options:
a) A high mortality rate
b) An increased chance of recurrence
c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A Delta wave on the ECG may be present in which condition?
Question options:
a) Prinzmetal’s angina
b) Bundle branch block
c) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
d) Aortic stenosis
Question 38 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:
Question options:
a) Maintaining a body mass index of 17
b) Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day
c) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day
d) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?
Question options:
a) Fleeting
b) Moving
c) Diffuse
d) Localized
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
Question options:
a) T-wave inversion
b) ST-segment elevation
c) Significant Q wave
d) U-wave
Question 41 0 / 2 points
A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
Question options:
a) His gender
b) His age
c) His use of Alka-Seltzer
d) His ethnic origin
Question 42 2 / 2 points
Which murmurs are usually ‘watch and wait’?
Question options:
a) Systolic murmurs
b) Diastolic murmurs
c) They both are dangerous and need immediate attention.
d) You can ‘watch and wait’ for both of them.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Endometriosis
b) Colon cancer
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 44 2 / 2 points
George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
Question options:
a) His age
b) His cholesterol level
c) His systolic BP
d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
Question options:
a) Use of NSAIDs
b) Cigarette smoker
c) Ethanol consumption
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the‘A’ stands for:
Question options:
a) Anticoagulation
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Age
d) Antihypertension
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?
Question options:
a) Initially in 6 weeks
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?
Question options:
a) Eliminate coffee.
b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
c) Recline and rest after meals.
d) Limit the amount of antacids.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Question options:
a) Severe asthma
b) A common valvular lesion
c) Severe hypertension
d) A prosthetic heart valve
Question 50 2 / 2 points
You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?
Question options:
a) Her waist is 36 inches.
b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c) Her BP is 128/84.
d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
MN568 Unit 2 Exam
MN568 Unit 2 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
Question options:
a) 0 to 7 mm Hg
b) 8 to 21 mm Hg
c) 22 to 40 mm Hg
d) 40 to 80 mm Hg
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) COPD
Question 3 0 / 2 points
A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
Question options:
a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
Question options:
a) Coxsackievirus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Group A streptococcus
Question 5 2 / 2 points
The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
Question options:
a) HSV type 2
b) HIV
c) Pneumonia
d) Syphilis
Question 6 0 / 2 points
Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:
Question options:
a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL
b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL
d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Question 7 0 / 2 points
African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c) Leukotriene receptor agonists
d) Oral corticosteroids
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?
Question options:
a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
Question options:
a) He should stop smoking today.
b) He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c) His quit date should be in 1 week.
d) He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 10 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:
Question options:
a) Metoprolol
b) Clopidogrel
c) Tadalafil
d) Captopril
Question 12 0 / 2 points
You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b) “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c) “Drive to the emergency room now.”
d) “Call 911.”
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?
Question options:
a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Question 14 0 / 2 points
You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Question options:
a) Baker phenomenon
b) Arnold reflex
c) Cough reflex
d) Tragus reflex
Question 15 0 / 2 points
Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Question options:
a) Glaucoma
b) Increased sperm quality
c) Bladder cancer
d) Eczema
Question 18 0 / 2 points
Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
Question options:
a) African American men
b) Scandinavian men and women
c) Caucasian women
d) Asian men
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?
Question options:
a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.
c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.
d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Sinusitis
c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d) Influenza
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?
Question options:
a) Mild intermittent
b) Mild persistent
c) Moderate persistent
d) Severe persistent
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A chronic cough lasts longer than:
Question options:
a) 3 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 8 weeks
Question 23 0 / 2 points
Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Question options:
a) True
b) False.
Question 24 0 / 2 points
As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:
Question options:
a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions
b) Blood vessel proliferation
c) Venous beading
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Question 25 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?
Question options:
a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Question 27 0 / 2 points
Sam, age 78, presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. His pulmonary function tests are as follows: a normal total lung capacity, a decreased PaO2, and an increased PaCO2. On assessment, you auscultate coarse crackles and forced expiratory wheezes. What is your diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Influenza
Question 28 0 / 2 points
Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?
Question options:
a) Nuclear cataracts
b) Cortical cataracts
c) Posterior cataracts
d) Immature cataracts
Question 29 0 / 2 points
Otitis media is considered chronic when:
Question options:
a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
d) All of the above
Question 30 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Question options:
a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b) Otosclerosis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Presbycusis
Question 31 0 / 2 points
A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Mononucleosis
c) Influenza
d) Herpes zoster
Question 32 0 / 2 points
You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Consider home treatment.
b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.
c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.
d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Question options:
a) Pharyngitis
b) Allergies
c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d) Perforation of the eardrum
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Question options:
a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d) All of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen.Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?
Question options:
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Probiotic
d) Phytonadione
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
Question options:
a) Chronic coughing
b) Hyperinflation
c) Polycythemia
d) Pulmonary hypertension
Question 37 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
Question options:
a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 38 0 / 2 points
Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?
Question options:
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Exudative pharyngitis
d) Rhinorrhea
Question 39 0 / 2 points
Which statement about adenocarcinoma of the lung is accurate?
Question options:
a) It is the least common type of lung cancer, representing approximately 5% to 10% of cases.
b) It is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lungs in both sexes and in nonsmokers, representing 35% to 40% of all tumors.
c) It is more common in men than in women and occurs almost entirely in cigarette smokers.
d) It is aggressive, with rapid growth and early local and distant metastases via the lymphatic and blood vessels.
Question 40 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition?
Question options:
a) Otitis media
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Tinnitus
d) Otitis externa
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?
Question options:
a) 3 to 5 hours
b) 6 to 10 hours
c) 11 to 14 hours
d) 15 to 18 hours
Question 42 0 / 2 points
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?
Question options:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Timolol
c) Brinzolamide
d) Acetazolamide
Question 43 2 / 2 points
You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:
Question options:
a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
d) call 911.
Question 44 2 / 2 points
You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:
Question options:
a) to refer the patient.
b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.
c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.
d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?
Question options:
a) Vasomotor rhinitis
b) Rhinitis medicamentosum
c) Atrophic rhinitis
d) Viral rhinitis
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?
Question options:
a) Recurrent sinusitis
b) Allergic sinusitis
c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
d) All of the above
Question 47 0 / 2 points
The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?
Question options:
a) Weber test
b) Schwabach test
c) Rinne test
d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:
Question options:
a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
Question options:
a) Fungi
b) Viruses
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroid
b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
c) Systemic corticosteroid
d) Methyl xanthenes
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
Question 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall.
She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question.2 In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question.3 Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a.Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b.Elevated T4
c.Elevated TRH
d.All of the above
Question.4 Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepinesb.
Antipsychoticsc.
Anticonvulsantsd.
Antidepressants
Question.5 When may confidentiality be overridden?
When personal information is available on the computer
When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene testX
When a patient has a communicable disease
Question.6 What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question.7 The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
All of the above
Question.8 Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question.9 Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Veracity
Question.10 George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question.11 A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test.
Endometrial biopsy
Pelvic ultrasound
Platelet count
Question.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question.13 During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question.14 Which drug commonly prescribed …. partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver nitratex
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question.15 A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question.16 After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
Send her for acupuncture treatments
All of the above
Question.17 Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
Doxycycline
Question.18 Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
accidental.
caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
not attributed to any reason.
Question.19 Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
Dilute povidone-iodine solutionx
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question.20 A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question.21 What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
A pain that is worse upon awakening
A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question.22 Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
A 40-year-old African American male
A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question.23 If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
The area will be super sensitive.
The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question.24 The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?
Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
Compete eradication of the virus
Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
Complete abstinence
Question.25 The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question.26 The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question.27 In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensusx
Certification
Collaboration
Question.28 Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate painbut should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
All of the above
Question.29 Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question.30 CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and non physician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. Which of the following are part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question.31 Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
x 20%
30%
50%
Question.32 A bulla is:
A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question.33 Clinicians who learn how to code and document Evaluation and Management (E&M) and clinician services will be more successful in gaining timely payment for care delivery. Which or the following Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) practices are designed to financially penalize clinicians who do not bill according to CMS guidelines?
Audits and probes
Add-on codes
Modifier codes
HAC guidelines
Question 34. Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
Impaired attention
Affective changes
Delusions
Question.35 Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question.36 A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question.37 When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question.38 Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
Identifying and managing complications of care
All of the above
Question.39 Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question.40 Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
Topiramate
Question.41 A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question. 42 How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
Every 6 months
Every 3 months
Every visit
Question.43 A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Trichomonas
Bacterial vaginosis
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question.44 After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question.45 The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:
Good liability insurance
A collaborating physician
Good documentation
Open communication skills
Question.46 The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
Question. 47 What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question. 48 Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question.49 Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Anxiolytics
Antidepressants
Atypical antipsychotics
Question.50 Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
a. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
a. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
a. Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
a. Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
a. Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
a. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
a. Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
a. Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
a. Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
a. Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
Walden NURS6501 Week 8
Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:
a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred
Question 2
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?
a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption
Question 3
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:
a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.
Question 4
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery
Question 5
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.
Question 6
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Question 7
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
Question 16
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn
Question 17
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose
Question 18
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender b
because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A.Antianxiety
B.Narcotic Analgesics
C.Barbituates
D.Antitussives
Question 2 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will
A.Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and thenadd the medications ordered during the hospitalization.
B.compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medicationsobtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.
C.explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. D.determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications
Question 3 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a
C-I drug.
C-II drug.
C-III drug.
C-IV drug
Question 4 A nurse works in a private hospital and needs to administer some narcotic drugs to one of her patients. Which of the following should the nurse consider when administering narcotics to patients in a hospital setting?
Narcotics are banned in private settings and cannot be used.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital after obtaining written approval from the Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations(JCAHO).
Narcotics to be used in the hospital are dispensed only with a written prescription.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital according to patient preferences
Question 5 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug
A.Schedule 1
B.Schedule 2
C.Schedule 3
D.Schedule 4
Question 6 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by
A.washing his or her hands before handling the medications.
B.consulting a drug guide for compatibility.
C.identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.
D.questioning the patient concerning allergies.
Question 7 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, whohave the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occurfrom taking an experimental drug
Question 8 Federal legislation dictates a lengthy and rigorous process of testing for new drugs. What is the primary purpose of this testing process?
To protect state and federal departments from legal liability
To maximize autonomy and treatment options for citizens
To facilitate the efficiency of health care delivery
To ensure the safety of the public
Question 9 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 5
Schedule 2
Question 10 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?
A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A 62-year-old male with gout
Question 11 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use.They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Question 12 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess
blood pressure.
body temperature.
fluid intake.
skin changes
Question 13 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.
A.Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?
B.Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?
C.Can the patient take the prescribed drug?
None of the above
Question 14 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a
higher-than-normal dose.
weight-based protocol dose.
lower-than-normal dose.
child’s dose
Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml tid for 10 days? The nurse practitioner would expect the pharmacist to fill the prescription bottle with how many ml?
50 ml
100 ml
120 ml
150 ml
Question 16 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states
Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.
Question 17 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient’s plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?
The drugs’ chemical names
The drugs’ generic names
The drugs’ trade names
The drugs’ biologic names
Question 18 A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old woman who was sponsored to emigrate from Mexico to the United States 6 months ago. Earlier this week, the woman slipped while getting off a bus and fractured her hip. How should the woman’s nurse best exemplify cultural competence in the care of this patient?
Ensure that the woman receives care solely from Spanish-speaking caregivers.
Consider dimensions of the woman’s cultural background when planning care.
Integrate teaching about American culture when interacting with the patient.
Address the woman’s children first when explaining her care and changes in her health status.
Question 19 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation
Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will
Speak loudly
Exaggerate her mouth movements
Use nonverbal language
Speak fast
Question 21 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
National Provider Identification (NPI)
B.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C.Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)
D.None of the above
Question 22 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be
“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.”
“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”
Question 23 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Question 25 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
Constant, burning, and throbbing with an acute onset
Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure
Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint
Begins in the morning and limits continued ambulation
Question 2. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:
Recommending she increase her dietary intake of Calcium and Vitamin D
Ordering once a year bisphosphonate and a proton pump inhibitor
Participate in a fall prevention program
Dual-energy X-ray (DEXA) scan and updating immunizations
Question 3. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:
Green leafy vegetables
Beer, sausage, fried seafood
Sugar
Gluten and bread items
Question 4. A 33-year-old female reports general malaise, fatigue, stiffness, and pain in multiple joints of the body. There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma. On physical examination, the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints. She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected. She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck, both shoulders, hips, and medial regions of the knees. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Fibromyalgia
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Question 5. A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue, general malaise, and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks. She reports that pain, stiffness, and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning. On physical examination, you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. These are common signs of:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
Sarcoidosis
Question 6. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?
It affects primarily weight-bearing joints
It is a systemic inflammatory illness
The metacarpal phalangeal joints are commonly involved
Prolonged morning stiffness is common
Question 7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
Indomethacin 50 mg thrice daily for 2 days; then 25 mg thrice daily for 3 days
Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
Prednisolone 35 mg four times a day for 5 days
Ice therapy
Question 8. A 34-year-old female presents with fever, general malaise, fatigue, arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks. Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies, anti-DNA antibodies, elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:
Fibromyalgia
Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 9. Your 66-year-old male patient has recently started treatment for metabolic syndrome and is currently taking the following medications: an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker for treatment of hypertension. He is also taking a statin medication, simvastatin for hyperlipidemia, and a biguanide, metformin, for type 2 diabetes. The patient complains of myalgias of the legs bilaterally and blood work shows elevated serum creatine kinase. Which of the medications can cause such a side effect?
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Statin medication
Metformin
Question 10. A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain. He complains of right knee pain when kneeling, squatting, or walking up and down stairs. On physical examination, there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee. He is unable to squat due to pain. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Joint infection
Chondromalacia patella
Prepatellar bursitis
All of the above
Question 11. A 17-year-old male complains of severe right knee pain. He was playing football when he heard a “pop” at the moment of being tackled and his knee “gave away” from under him. On physical examination, there is right knee swelling and decreased range of motion. There is a positive anterior drawer sign. These findings indicate:
Knee ligament injury
Osgood-Schlatter disease
Prepatellar bursitis
Chondromalacia patella
Question 12. A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday. He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot. On physical examination, the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?
Straight leg raising sign
Lumbar herniated disc on X-ray
Loss of left sided patellar reflex
Urinary incontinence
Question 13. Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain. On physical examination, there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician’s resistance. These are typical signs of:
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Osteoarthritis of the wrist
Epicondylitis
Cervical osteoarthritis
Question 14. Which of the following describes the pathology of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?
Irritation of a tendon located on the radial side of the wrist, near the thumb
Impingement of the median nerve, causing pain in the palm and fingers
Fluid-filled cyst that typically develops adjacent to a tendon sheath in the wrist
Ulnar nerve compression at the olecranon process
Question 15. What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Trauma due to fall
Trochanteric bursitis
Question 16. A 43-year-old female was in a bicycling accident and complains of severe pain of the right foot. The patient limps into the emergency room. On physical examination, there is no point tenderness over the medial or lateral ankle malleolus. There is no foot tenderness except at the base of the fifth metatarsal bone. According to the Ottawa foot rules, should an X-ray of the feet be ordered?
Yes, there is tenderness over the fifth metatarsal
No, there is not tenderness over the navicular bone
Yes, the patient cannot bear weight on the foot
A and C
Question 17. 38-year-old Asian male, Mr. Chen, with past medical history significant for prehypertension who has recently taken up softball presents with three to five weeks of shoulder pain when throwing overhead. Ice minimally alleviates pain. Medications: Naproxen minimally alleviates shoulder pain. Allergies: Penicillin-associated rash. Family history: Brother has rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following musculoskeletal causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?
Adhesive capsulitis
Septic subacromial bursitis
Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
Calcific tendinopathy
Question 18. If Mr. Chen had restricted passive as well as active ROM of the shoulder, what problems involving the shoulder might you consider?
Adhesive capsulitis
Rotator cuff tear
Tendinopathy of the long head of the biceps
Rotator cuff impingment
Question 19. What is the essential dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
Labrum
Rotator muscle group
Glenohumeral ligaments
Teres major muscle
Question 20. Given Mr. Chen’s repetitive overhead activities, some injury to his rotator cuff muscle group is most likely. Of the following exam findings, which one would not support the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinopathy?
Positive Apley’s Scratch test
Weakness and pain with empty can testing
Limited active ROM
Inability to raise arm above his head
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint, it is important to first:
Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed
Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination
Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion
Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis
Question 2. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella virus?
Tinea versicolor
Seborrheic keratosis
Verruca
Herpes zoster
Question 3. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:
All symptoms should disappear within three days
Oral medications can dramatically reduce the duration and intensity of his symptoms
He has chickenpox and can be contagious to his grandchildren
He has a sexually transmitted disease
Question 4. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?
Ignore the lesion, as it is associated with aging.
Instruct him to use a nonprescription hydrocortisone cream to dry up the lesion.
Perform a biopsy or refer to a dermatologist.
Advise him to use a dandruff shampoo and return in one month if the lesion has not gone away.
Question 5. The appearance of a 2-10 cm. herald patch with subsequent development of parallel oval lesions on the trunk in a christmas tree distribution involving the upper arms and upper legs are common in:
Pityriasis Rosea
Shingles
Psoriasis
Lymes Disease
Question 6. Mr. Fitzgerald is a 68-year-old previously healthy man with a history of significant sun exposure who presents with a progressively enlarging 18 x 16 mm erythematous pruritic oval patch on his left forearm that has been present for three to four years. Your differential would include all of the following EXCEPT:
Fungal skin infection
Eczema
Seborrheic Keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Question 7. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
Scales
Vesicles
Plaques
Urticaria
Question 8. Among the following conditions, which needs to be treated with systemic antifungal agents?
Tinea pedis/tinea magnum
Tinea corporis/tinea cruris
Tinea capitis/Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)
Tinea pedis /tinea faciale
Question 9. Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?
Scabies
Herpes zoster
Tinea
Dyshidrosis
Question 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describes which skin lesion?
Seborrheic keratosis
Malignant melanoma
Herpes zoster
Basal cell carcinoma
Question 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?
Cellulitis is two times more common in women
Facial cellulitis is more common in people >55
There is low incidence of cellulitis in patients with diabetes
Cellulitis is only a disease of the lower extremities of patients with known arterial insufficiency
Question 12. Folliculitis is most commonly due to:
Contact dermatitis
Varicella zoster
Dermatophytes
Staphylococcal infection
Question 13. The anti-inflammatory properties of topical corticosteroids result in part from their ability to induce vasoconstriction to the small blood vessels in the upper dermis. Of the following, which is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
Hydrocortisone 2.5%
Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%
Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%
Alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%
Question 14. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?
Cool, erythematous, shiny hairless extremity with decreased pulse
Scattered, erythematous ring-like lesions with clear centers
Clearly demarcated, raised erythematous area of face
Diffusely inflamed skin that is warm and tender to palpation
Question 15. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Leukoplakia
Senile lentigines
Question 16. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
Circular erythematous patches with papular, scaly annular borders and clear discharge
Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs
Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders
Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases
Question 17. A patient has a tender, firm, nodular cystic lesion on his scalp that produces cheesy discharge with foul odor. This is most likely a:
Bacterial folliculitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Bullous impetigo
Epidermoid cyst
Question 18. Patient presents with complaint of a “swollen node” under his arm. The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days. Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Epidermoid cyst
Furuncle
Both A and C
Question 19. A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago, and today presents with a painful, warm, red swollen region around the area. The laceration has a purulent exudate. The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:
Contact dermatitis
Folliculitis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Cellulitis
Question 20. A woman complains of malaise and arthralgias. You note a butterfly-shaped, macular, erythematous rash across her cheeks and nose. These conditions are common in:
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Erythema nodosum
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Asians
Hispanics
African Americans
American Indians
Question 2.Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?
Every 6 months
Yearly
Every 2 years
Every 2 to 4 years
Question 3. Your 55-year-old male patient presents to your office with complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
Ultrasound of the abdomen
Abdominal X-ray
Digital rectal examination
Spiral CT scan
Question 4. The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:
Ureteral rupture
Hydronephrosis
Kidney mass
Renal artery stenosis
Question 5. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Nephrolithiasis
Hydronephrosis
Pyelonephritis
Question 6. On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
Urinary tract infection
Bladder cancer
Nephrolithiasis
Pyelonephritis
Question 7. On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal urinalysis. The patient’s PSA is within normal limits for the patient’s age. The clinician should:
Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
Obtain an abdominal X-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
Recognize this as a normal finding that requires periodic follow up
Obtain urine culture and sensitivity for prostatitis
Question 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except:
Increased estrogen production’s influence on the bladder and ureter
Decline in bladder outlet function
Decline in ureteral resistance pressure
Laxity of the pelvic muscle
Question 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of this procedure?
Urinary incontinence
Impotence
Dribbling urine
Selected low back pain
Question 10. Your 77-year-old patient complains of frequent urination, hesitation in getting the stream started, and nocturnal frequency of urination that is bothersome. On DRE, there is an enlarged, firm, non-tender, smooth prostate. The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Question 11. Your 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria as well as frequency and urgency of urination that develops the day after she uses her diaphragm. Urine culture reveals a bacterial count of 100 CFU/mL. These signs and symptoms indicate:
Upper urinary tract infection
Normal bacteriuria
Lower urinary tract infection
Urethritis
Question 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/ml. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 ml; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 ml; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?
PSA level of 3.3 ng/ml
Decreased bladder capacity
Involuntary detrusor contradictions
Increased postvoid residual urine volume
Question 13. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?
Examination of her thyroid to rule out thyroid nodules that may contribute to her feeling fatigued.
Auscultation of her abdomen for abnormal bowel sounds to rule out peritonitis.
Thorough abdominal and gynecological exam to rule out masses and identify any tenderness.
A rectal examination to rule out colon cancer as a secondary site for breast cancer.
Question 14. A 27-year-old male comes in to the clinic for symptoms of dysuria, urinary frequency, as well as urgency and perineal pain. Transrectal palpation of the prostate reveals a very tender, boggy, swollen prostate. The clinician should recognize these as signs of:
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Question 15. Which of the following males would be at greatest risk for testicular cancer?
John, a 52-year-old, married African American Attorney who lives in Detroit, MI
Jacob, a 22-year-old, homosexual male, who works as an accountant, resides in Cumming GA, and has a history of cryptorchidism
Andy, a 27-year-old, Caucasian, single male who resides in Waukesha, WI and works as a maintenance mechanic
Ryan, a 34-year-old healthy, married man from Sweden, who works as a Registered Nurse in Boston, MA
Question 16. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Pyelonephritis
Nephrolithiasis
Hydonephrosis
Question 17. Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?
Cystocele
Overactive bladder
Uterine prolapse
All of the above
Question 18. Your 18 year old sexually active patient presents with sudden right sided groin pain that is sharp and constant. Inspection of his genitals reveals a swollen and erythematous right scrotum. His right testicle is exquisitely tender, swollen and has no palpable masses. Elevation of the testis results in no reduction in pain. The left scrotum and the testicle are normal. Epididymis and other scrotal contents were within normal limits. The scrotum does not transilluminate. Cremasteric reflex is present on the left side but absent on the right. There is no penile discharge, inguinal lymphadenopathy, or hernias.
Based on the history and physical exam your immediate concern is for:
Torsion
Infection
Cancer
Rupture
Question 19. The Prehn sign is utilized to distinguish epididymitis from testicular torsion. Epididymitis is considered when the Prehn sign is positive. When is the Prehn sign determined to be positive?
Pain is relieved by lifting of the testicle.
Tenderness is limited to the upper pole of the testis.
Lightly stroking or pinching the superior medial aspect of the thigh causes testicular retraction.
A small bluish discoloration is visible through the skin in the upper pole.
Question 20. Which of the following exam findings makes the diagnosis of testicular tumor more likely?
A scrotal mass that is accompanied by exquisite tenderness.
Testicular swelling is mostly fluid and transilluminates easily
A testicular mass that is non-tender to palpation
Dilated and tortuous veins in the pampiniform plexus
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1: Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?
Bulging tympanic membrane
Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
Increased tympanic membrane mobility
All of the above
Question 2. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 3. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 4. A 56-year-old male complains of anorexia, changes in bowel habits, extreme fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. At times he is constipated and other times he has episodes of diarrhea. His physical examination is unremarkable. It is important for the clinician to recognize the importance of:
CBC with differential
Stool culture and sensitivity
Abdominal X-ray
Colonoscopy
Question 5. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 6. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fracture
Question 7. An 82-year-old female presents to the emergency department with epigastric pain and weakness. She admits to having dark, tarry stools for the last few days. She reports a long history of pain due to osteoarthritis. She self-medicates daily with ibuprofen, naprosyn, and aspirin for joint pain. On physical examination, she has orthostatic hypotension and pallor. Fecal occult blood test is positive. A likely etiology of the patient’s problem is:
Mallory-Weiss tear
Esophageal varices
Gastric ulcer
Question 1. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?
Seasonal allergies
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Question 2. A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be?
Observation and reassurance
Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin
Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate
Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler.
Question 3.Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients?
Asymmetric chest expansion
Increased lateral diameter
Increased anterior-posterior diameter
Pectus excavatum
Question 4. When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction:
No palpable vibration is felt
Decreased fremitus is felt
Increased fremitus is felt
Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe
Question 5. Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma?
Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling
Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy
Clubbing, cyanosis and edema.
Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases
Question 6.Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views
Ultrasound
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Question 7. A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to:
Exercise-induced cough
Bronchiectasis
Alpha-1 deficiency
Pericarditis
Question 8. Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to:
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Question 9. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
Pulmonary edema
Heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Question 10. A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:
2 weeks or more
8 weeks or more
3 months or more
6 months or more
Question 11. Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze?
Chest X-ray
Methacholine challenge test
Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation
Ventilation/perfusion scan
Question 12. In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include:
Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5%
Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5%
Question 13. The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home:
Age over 40
Fever greater than 101
Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute
Productive cough
Question 14. Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is:
High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist
Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate
Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline
Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler
Question 15. A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient:
Can be treated as an outpatient
Requires hospitalization for treatment
Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic
Can be treated with oral antibiotics
Question 16. Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia?
Fever of 102
Infiltrates on chest X-ray
Pleural effusion on chest X-ray
Elevated white blood cell count
Question 17. A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
Barrel-shaped chest
Clubbing
Pectus excavatum
Prolonged capillary refill
Question 18. Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect:
Legionnaires’ disease
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Question 19. A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of:
Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
COPD
Question 20. A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident.Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect:
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Fracture of ribs
NSG6420 Week 2
NSG6420 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:
Acoustic neuroma
Cerumen impaction
Otitis media
Ménière’s disease
Question 2. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fractur
Question 3. A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin?
Amoxicillin
EES (erythromycin)
Bicillin L-A
Dicloxacillin
Question 4. Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:
Physiologic aging
Ménière’s disease
Cerumen impaction
Herpes zoster
Question 5. Epistaxis can be a symptom of:
Over-anticoagulation
Hematologic malignancy
Cocaine abuse
All of the above
Question 6. Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Aphthous ulceration
Behcet’s syndrome
Question 7. A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment?
Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain.
Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion
Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion
Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion
Question 8. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 9. Dizziness that is described as “lightheaded” or, “like I’m going to faint,” is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as?
Presyncope
Disequilibrium
Vertigo
Syncope
Question 10. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected.
Cataract
Macular degeneration
Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Question 11. Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be?
Vestibular neruitis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Vestibular migraine
Benign hypertensive central vertigo
Question 12. Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging?
A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses.
A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive.
A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed.
Question 13.A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with:
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Chemical conjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis
Question 14. In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness?
History of prior red-eye episodes
Grossly visible corneal defect
Exophthalmos
Photophobia
Question 15. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
Bacterium
Allergen
Virus
Fungi
Question 16. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?
Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation
Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation
Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction
Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability
Question 17. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?
Ménière’s disease
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Migraine
Question 18. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?
Fictional keratosis
Keratoacanthoma
Lichen planus
Leukoplakia
Question 19. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?
Epstein-Barr virus
Diphtheria
Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 20. A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?
Mono spot
Strep test
Throat culture
All of the above
NSG6420 Week 1
NSG6420 Week 1 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
Reduced physiological reserve
Reduced homeostatic mechanisms
Impaired immunological response
All of the above
Question 2. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
Less obesity rates than women
Prostate enlargement
Testosterone
Less estrogen than women
Question 3. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 4. Functional abilities are best assessed by:
Self-report of function
Observed assessment of function
A comprehensive head-to-toe examination
Family report of function
Question 5. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data?
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)
Serum ferritin and serum iron
Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation
Question 6. When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased
Question 7. The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:
Depleted iron stores
Impaired ability to use iron stores
Chronic unable bleeding
Reduced intestinal absorption of iron
Question 8. The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is:
Replenishing iron stores
Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron
Management of the underlying disorder
Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections
Question 9. In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?
Serum iron
Total iron binding capacity
Transferrin saturation
Serum ferritin
Question 10. Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except:
Sore throat
Fever
Weight loss
Headache
Question 11. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:
Chief complaint
History of the present illness
Current vital signs
All of the above are essential history components
Question 12.Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients?
Clinical practice guideline
Clinical decision rule
Clinical algorithm
Clinical recommendation
Question 13. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding:
Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease
Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to become carriers
Question 15. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 16. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:
Not be affected by the disorder herself
Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female)
Not transmit the disorder to her daughters
Transmit the disorder to only her daughters
Question 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA):
Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential
NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients
Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information
All of the above
Question 18. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment?
Colon cancer in family member at age 70
Breast cancer in family member at age 75
Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35
All of the above
Question 19. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as:
Variable expressivity related to inherited disease
Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease
De novo mutations of genetic disease
Different penetrant signs of genetic disease
Question 20.In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should:
Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet
Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder
Interview family members regarding genetic disorders
All of the above
NR 511 Week 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Ergotamine
b. Timolol
Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensus
Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
4
8 d
10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound .
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
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