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Question 1: General

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

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Question 1: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

Question 2: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 4: General Question

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

Question 5: General Question

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

Question 6: Mathematics

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Question 7: Mathematics

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

Question 8: Mathematics

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

Question 9: Mathematics

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

A.3.10

B.9.61

C.7.03

D.49.50

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men. Assume α = 0.05. What is the test value?

Women Men

Sample size 50 80

Mean effect 7 6.95

Sample variance 3 4

A.t = 0.151

B.z = 0.455

C.t = 3.252

D.z = 0.081

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

Females Males

Sample size 20 18

Sample mean 3.8 2.5

Sample variance 3.5 2.2

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 8 – 4.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 4 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

A.smallest number of outliers

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

C.largest number of points on the line

D.largest sum of squared residuals

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

A.highly correlated

B.mutually exclusive

C.directly related

D.inversely related

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

A.render the study useless

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

D.lie outside the sample

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

D.a curved relationship among the variables

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

A.5

B.unknown

C.10

D.0

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 9 of 17 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area. The following are the results of his random sampling. Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees Spruce trees

Sample size 30 35

Mean trunk diameter (cm) 45 39

Sample variance 120 140

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Test value: 2.121 Round your answer to three decimal places.

What is the critical value?

Critical value: 1.311 Round your answer to three decimal places.

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 10 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

Store Shelf Space(X) Weekly Sales(Y)

1 10 2.0

2 10 2.6

3 10 1.8

4 15 2.3

5 15 2.8

6 15 3.0

7 20 2.7

8 20 3.1

9 20 3.2

10 25 3.0

11 25 3.3

12 25 3.5

Find the equation of the regression line for these data. What is the value of the standard error of the estimate? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. Do not use a dollar sign. For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry. 0.308

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank. Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign. For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry. 525.4

Answer Key:

Part 5 of 8 – 0.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 12 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15 12 3 12 28 6 8 2

percent change for CEO 6 17 -4 12 32 -1 7 2

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry. 1.010

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 8 – 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Question 14 of 17 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group Control group

sample size 35 50

mean sleep improvement 12.8 9.1

sample variance 56.3 61.2

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test? Choose one.

There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples. Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size). The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

Part 7 of 8 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 15 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 8 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 16 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 10: Mathematics

Part 1 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 1 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

A.1/600

B.1/2300

C.1/300

D.1/700

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

A.0.25

B.0.90

C.0.40

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

C.the Central Limit Theorem

D.subjective probabilities

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

A.5

B.8

C.15

D.30

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

mutually exclusive

complementary

independent

exhaustive

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 6 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

A.6.00

B.1.50

C.4.00

D.10.00

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

A.0.0009

B.0.9991

C.0.8967

D.0.0024

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x 0 1 2 3 4 5

P (X=x) 0.20 0.25 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.10

Find P( X 3)

A.0.80

B.0.85

C.0.15

D.0.20

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

A.60

B.50

C.7.1

D.5.9

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

A.0.081

B.0.243

C.0.027

D.0.003

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 6 – 2.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 11 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. .7443

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X 1 2 3 4 5

P(X) 0.20 0.10 0.35 0.05 0.30

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

Mean = 2.26

Answer Key:

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

Question 13 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. 0.6550

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry. 0.54

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 6 – 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 15 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry 900

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry. 0.10

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role? 1 2 3

Yes 60 110 30 200

No 40 215 45 300

100 325 75

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry. 0.30

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry. 0.3825

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

Part 5 of 6 – 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 19 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 6 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 20 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 11: Mathematics

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

A.27.2 < < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and = 0.20 is

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute where t₂₀ has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 12: Computer Science

Assignment 2: Forensic Lab Design
worth 100 points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

Question 14: Business

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

Question 15: Business

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

Question 16: Business

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

Question 17: Business

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

Question 18: Business

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

Question 19: Health Care

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

Question 20: Religious Studies

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

Question 21: Mathematics

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 22: Business

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document. The article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

Question 23: General Question

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

Question 24: General Question

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Question 25: General Question

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza.

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

Question 27: General Question

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 28: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

Question 29: Business

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

Question 30: Literary Studies

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected. How might this be

explained? How might this be changed?

In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

Question 2: Healthcare

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More. This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods. Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi. A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients. Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses. The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi. These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based. The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item. The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen. This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors. Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores. Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product. While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much. A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution. To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets. The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail. This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel. Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up. Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel. The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler. Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up? If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism? Why or
why not? If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel. Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market. Be specific in your response. Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter. Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products? How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix? Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations. (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4. When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5. The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6. Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7. The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8. The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9. When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15. Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18. When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20. The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22. A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23. Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24. A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25. A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26. A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28. The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29. The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1. A = first-level priority problem

2. B = second-level priority problem

3. C = third-level priority problem

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

(1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i) Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii) Table of Contents
iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
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This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Question 3: Psychology

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

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Question 4: Other

Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format 5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

not to use unearned privilege
not to participate in oppression
to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
“What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
“Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
What was the day like for you?
Why is every day not like this for you?
How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

Question 5: Other

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12: Economics

Production function that uses one variable function

Question 13: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.) Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, & Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

Question 14: Business

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

Question 15: Mathematics

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

e^(ix) *e(iy)
e^(ix)^n
(e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

Question 16: Engineering

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

Question 17: Finance

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

Asset		Liabilities

Current Asset		Current liabilities
Cash	3,285,600	Account payable	$ 6,977,700
Account receivable Inventory	5,910,800 6,627,300	Note payable Total	14,342,600 21,320,300
Total Fixed Assets	$15,823,700	Long-term debt Owner’s equity	36,400,000
Net plant and equipment	$101,481,200	Common stock and paid- in surplus	5,580,000
		Retained earnings	54,004,600
Total asset	117,304,900	Total Total liabilities and equity	59,584,600 117,304,900

Question 18: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 19: Mathematics

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

Question 20: Other

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 21: Finance

Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

Question 22: Business

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in. Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Question 23: History

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

Question 24: Other

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

Question 25: Other

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture. Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures. Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession. The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison. Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences. When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate. Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement. If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them. If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

Question 26: Psychology

Question 27: Psychology

Essay 1 Questions

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation. Below is an abbreviated example.

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

Signal (NS)	Opening the refrigerator
UCS	Sound of an alarm
UCR	Jumps
CS	Opens refrigerator
CR	Jumps

Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Question 28: Business

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Question 29: Psychology

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

Question 30: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?

Additional things to keep in mind.

You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 1: Communications

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 2: Health Care.

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

Question 3: Health Care

Final Exam Nurs 6531

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

Question 4: Health Care

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

QUESTION 1

A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?” I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

QUESTION 2

Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters. (The answer wording is different.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points

QUESTION 9

1. As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points

QUESTION 10

1. The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

The patient smokes cigarettes. This is correct!

The patient has hypertension.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points

QUESTION 11

1. A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

Alert staff to possible seizures

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points

QUESTION 12

1. A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level Correct answer

Order a liver function test

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

Order a stat platelet count

1 points

QUESTION 13

1. A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

To promote the availability of serotonin

To decrease serotonin

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points

QUESTION 14

1. The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points

QUESTION 15

1. Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.”

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 16

1. A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

Benzodiazepine

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

Ketamine

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points

QUESTION 17

1. The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

Full agonists

Antagonists

Partial agonists

Inverse agonists

1 points

QUESTION 18

1. A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.”

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points

QUESTION 19

1. The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

Anticonvulsants

1 points

QUESTION 20 ?

1. Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.” Not correct

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points

QUESTION 21

1. A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy? I did not have this question

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points

QUESTION 22

1. Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists. Correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 23

1. Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points

QUESTION 24

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 25

1. A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points

QUESTION 26

1. The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

Hypersexuality

Amenorrhea

Dystonia

Tardive dyskinesia correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 27

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

Asenapine to Risperidone

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 28

1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

Quetiapine

Paliperidone

Lurasidone

Clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 29

1. Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 30

1. Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

An underlying depressive disorder

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one This is correct

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 31

1. The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

Long-term use of antipsychotics

Genetic disposition

Age

A and C

2333326

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

5HT2 antagonism

D2 antagonismThis was wrong 0/1

Alpha-2 antagonism

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

Norepinephrine

Dopamine

Serotonin

A and C

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

Patient with a bipolar II designation

Patient with a bipolar III designation

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

The patient may experience severe depression.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

Insomnia

Suicidal ideation

Problems concentrating

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs. Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

Late onset of menses

Premenstrual syndrome

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

MAOI plus SNRI

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

She may experience increased trauma.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

Weight gain can be problematic.

Sedation is very common.

Induction of mania is rare.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

Stop the venlafaxine

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

QUESTION 51

A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

It can affect her menstruation.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

Sedation may be problematic.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

He has fibromyalgia.

He has arrhythmia.

He uses alcohol.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

The patient has hepatic impairment.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

“You should not consume processed meats.”

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

Patient with PTSD

Patient with partial seizures

Patient with galactose intolerance

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

mirtazapine (Remeron)

doxepin (Silenor)

alprazolam (Xanax)

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following? I don’t think I had this question

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

Omega-3-fatty-acids

Soybean lecithin

Inositol

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently.. The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

Respiratory depression

Sedation and restlessness

Sweating and nausea (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

A patient is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is: I didn’t have this question

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74 ?

The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

What do you do when you feel fear?

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis? It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders (Correct)

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression. She has apathy and no joy in life. What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system corre

Question 5: Health Care

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

Question 6: Health Care

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

Question 7: Health Care

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

Question 8: Health Care

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

Question 9: Health Care.

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

Question 10: Health Care

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality. B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality. D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

What is the first step in the delegation process?

A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

What is the mos

What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility C) The age difference between the client and the nurse D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

A) Crime scenes B) Women’s shelters C) Emergency rooms D) Correctional institutions

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses B) During the last 6 months of life C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries D) During and shortly after being born

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

A) False B) True

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

A) Aggressive B) Assertive C) Dishonest D) Submissive

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client. B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client. C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting. D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver. B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message. C) The sender sends the message. D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

A) Hippocrates B) Emperor Darius C) Cyrus the Great D) William Harvey

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

A) Transcendental Meditation B) Guided Imagery C) Therapeutic Talking D) Visualization

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

A) Client, health, environment, nursing B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior. C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past. D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence. D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care. B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality. C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care. D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

A) False B) True

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

A) All of the above B) Sensitivity C) Understanding D) Communication

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

A) True B) False

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities. D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

A) True B) False

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Planning D) Diagnosis

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

A) Minority Model B) Purnell’s Model C) Non-English Model D) Bio-Cultural Model

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A) False B) True

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

An ethical code does which of the following?

A) dictates decisions B) provides a framework for decision-making C) sets firm rules D) provides a group of legally binding values

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

A) LPN B) CNA, level II C) CNA, level III D) RN

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

A) Partially compensated care B) Supportive developmental care C) Self-care D) Wholly compensated care

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

A) Laws B) Values C) Morals D) Ethics

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

A) Visualization B) Therapeutic Touch C) Hypnosis D) Guided Imagery

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

A) Quality Improvement B) Root Cause Analysis C) Case Management D) Leapfrog

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

A) False B) True

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

A) Magnet hospital B) Shared decision-making environment C) system of improvements and quality care D) Just culture organization

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

A) Choose your battles B) Confront the conflict C) Postpone the conflict D) Ignore the conflict

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.” B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.” C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.” D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.” B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.” C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.” D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

A) The client’s next of kin B) The client C) The client’s spouse D) The client’s only child

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.” B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.” C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.” D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

A) Passive Obedience B) Active Obedience C) Health Care Aversion D) Communication Synergy

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

A) Scientific rationalism B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

A) False B) True

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

A) Computer glitches B) Inexpensive computer systems C) Improved communication D) May be used by multiple users at one time

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

A) Provide health screenings B) Respond to emergency situations C) Prescribe medications D) Develop health-care plans

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

A) Assessment B) Diagnosis C) Evaluation  D) Planning

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

A) Medicare B) Exclusive Provider Organization C) Long-term care insurance D) Medicaid

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

A) Rehabilitation Center B) Long-term care facility C) Home with homecare D) Assisted living

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health. C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death. D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available C) Join professional organizations in large numbers D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

A) False B) True

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture D) All of the above

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

A) Religion B) Spirituality C) Truth D) Meditation

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

A) False B) True

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

A) Conviction of a serious crime B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in. B) It reflects only the past medical history. C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received. D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

A) Capitated Payment System B) Managed Care Organization C) Preferred Provider Organization D) Prospective Payment System

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

A) Institute of Medicine B) Department of Health C) Board of Nursing  D) American Nurses Association

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

A) Desire for greater control over one’s health B) Traditions passed on from parents C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

A) Easy access to computers B) Consumer concerns about access to health care C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

A) True B) False

A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

A) Skill level of each staff member B) Staff preferences for specific clients C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station D) Developmental needs of clients

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

A) Primary intervention B) Assistive intervention C) Secondary intervention D) Tertiary intervention

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies. B) The client is relatively stable. C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift. D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

A) Physician record keeping B) Interdepartmental communication C) Documentation D) Medication administration

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help. B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it. C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek. D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

A) Refers the problem to a supervisor B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience C) Uses the incident as a threat D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

A) More portable B) Fewer privacy issues C) Unbreakable D) Reduces redundancy

Question 11: Health Care

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 12: Philosophy

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

Question 13: Philosophy

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 14: Philosophy

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 15: Sociology

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 16: Computer Studies

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

Discussion Questions

Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

Question 17: Computer Science

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

“WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
“Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
“Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 18: Computer Science

DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

What is the best description of a conceptual model?
A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
Which statement best reflects interaction design?
Interaction design is a new discipline
Interaction design is multidisciplinary
Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
Interaction design is an application of common sense.
What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in humancomputer interaction?
Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
All of the above.
According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
They rate it as more honest
They rate it as less honest
They rate it as more likeable
They rate it as less likeable.
What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
Learners may feel that they are being patronised
Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
Which of the following options best represents the core values of usercentred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
Developing and testing in several cycles
All of the above.
When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
All of the above.
How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chestimplanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
They emphasize controlled experimentation
They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
They do not directly involve users.
What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
Seven plus or minus two (59 users)
Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
At least 10 users.
What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
The idea that experts need to work handinhand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
Effectiveness
Learnability
Helpfulness
Safety.
What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
The return on investment of the usercentred design process.
The opportunity cost of not using usercentred design.
An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
Powerful functionality
User experience
Access to content
Conceptual design.
Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
Conversation
Knowledge of a physical desktop
Embedded computing
Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
Restaurant menu
Touchscreen interface
A paper diary
Mobile technology.
What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
Gesture and body movements
Haptic (touch) interface
Exploring and browsing
Infrared position detection.
Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
People can actually hold much less than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
People can actually hold much more than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about contextaware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
Context is hard to define
The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
Interfaces that apologize to their users
Interfaces that look and behave like people.
The character Rea is an example of what?
A realestate agent
A zoomorphic interface
A persuasive technology
An embodied agent.
Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
By coloring the water when usage was high
By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
By sounding chimes when water usage was high
None of the above.
Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
Using different theories with which to interpret data.
Using multiple researchers in a usercentred evaluation.
Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
The data collected are rich and complex.
Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

A psychometric scale
A Likert scale
A questionnaire
An openresponse questionnaire item.
What is a “participant observer”
An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
An observer who watches participants.
A participant who watches observers.
Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
“Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
Four different data gathering techniques were used.
Participatory design was used.
Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
5
5.5
6
None of the above.
What is an affinity diagram?
A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from thinkaloud protocols.
Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
Look for critical incidents to report.
What are web analytics?
Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
Webbased methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
Webbased methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

Usercentred design
Systems design
Genius design
Conceptual design.
Should endusers always have a high degree of participation in software development?
Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of endusers, which should be universally applied.
Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
Never: endusers do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
None of the above.
What is the Volere shell?
An operating system similar to Unix.
A template for specifying system requirements.
A framework for defining personas and scenarios
A template for creating cultural probe packages.
What is Contextual Inquiry?
A component of Contextual Design.
A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
Participant observation in relevant use contexts
A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
“An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
Use case
Essential use case
Storyboard
Scenario.
Which of the following is a problem with lowlevel prototyping?
Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
They take too long to build.
User expectations can be set too high.
None of the above.
What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
It should support a wide range of user tests.
It should look like the final product.
It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
It should be easy to throw away.
Where would a cardbased prototype best fit in the design process?
After conceptual design, before scenario design
After scenario design, before storyboarding.
After storyboarding, before lowlevel prototyping.
After lowlevel prototyping, before highlevel prototyping.
What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
Conducting user tests.
Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
End users and designers
Designers and usability experts
Usability experts and marketing personnel
Designers and marketing personnel.
How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
Interface metaphors.

Question 19: Mathematics

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 20: Business

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

2012 2011

Return on Equity 13% 12%

Return on Assets 8% 9%

Profit margin 20 18%

Asset turnover 0.40 0.50

Days in inventory 72 days 55 days

Days in debtors 42 days 42 days

Current ratio 1.6 1.5

Quick ratio 0.7 1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio 1.4 1.0

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

Credit sales

86,500

Cash sales

6,100

Credit purchases

93,200

Cash received from debtors

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

55,890

Cash purchases

4,300

Discount received from

7,500

creditors

Discount allowed to debtors

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

DR CR

$ $

Bank Overdraft 10,000

Accounts Receivable 200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts 1,000

Inventory 100,000

Prepaid Rent 10,000

Property, Plant and 450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE 200,000

Accounts Payable 60,000

Bank loan 50,000

Contributed Capital 310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013 34,000

Sales revenue 4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold 265,000

Interest Expense 5,000

Wages Expenses 80,000

Rent Expense 5,000

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
$5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

Date Cash Purchases Cash Sales Balance

1 June 100 units @ $10

10 June 80 units @ $12

18 June 140 units @ $20

25 June 30 units @ $14

30 June 50 units @ $25

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

Item Cost Classification

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

½ mark each entry

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

direct labour cost of $200 000
raw materials purchased of $400 000
total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

31 January 1 January

(ending) (beginning)

Raw materials inventory $80 000 $95 000

Work in progress inventory $110 000 $60 000

Finished goods inventory $255 000 $75 000

Required:

Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

Question 21: Business

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

Question 22: Business

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

planning
staffing
controlling
organizing

Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
create a mission statement.
identify new menu items to offer.
define strategic objectives.

Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

A shopper service is a(n):

service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

preparing
serving
issuing
storing
purchasing

A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

product specification.
portion control percentage.
algorithm.
standard recipe.

Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

yield percentage worksheets
standard purchase specifications
standard recipes
standard portion size specifications

If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

5.0.
4.0.
0.4.
0.25
The information is not enough

Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

reforecasting
bottom-up budgeting
top-down budgeting
mark-up budgeting

Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

general manager’s salary
rent expense
property taxes
food costs

At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

lower than in September.
higher than in September.
relatively the same as in September.
impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

$25,000 net income.
$10,000 net income.
$0 (breakeven).
$10,000 net loss.
The information isn’t enough

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

consumer demand
menu mix
supply levels
competition

A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

$11.67
$12.60
$14.76
cannot be determined

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

RU Prime-rib burger

10 Servings

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

ground prime rib

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

*1 gallon = 16 cups

The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

$5.40
$1.80
$2.00
$6.00

The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

$3.40
$14.70
$3.50
$3.20

If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

$5.14
$10.00
$9.14
$9.71
cannot be determined

After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

inelastic.
high.
elastic.
low.

The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

Decrease prices.
Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
All of the above are reasonable strategies.
None of the above are reasonable strategies.

Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

puzzles.
plowhorses.
stars.
dogs.

The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

$10.

The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

chef
purchasing agent
receiving agent
storeroom clerk

Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

purchase specification
audit trail
delivery invoice
inventory checklist

In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

highest price.
popularity of a menu item.
suitability for intended use.
greatest value.

A stockout can occur as a result of:

employing a perpetual inventory system.
over-purchasing.
inadequate menu engineering.
under-purchasing.

With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

usage rate plus the minimum level.
usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

The order point quantity of this item should be at:
100lb
200lb
300lb

Question 6: Business

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

Question 7: Health Care

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

Question 8: Health Care

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

400lb

The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

500lb
600lb
300lb
200lb

Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

delivery invoice.
daily receiving report.
purchase order.
standard purchase specification sheet.

To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

supplier delivery personnel.
assigned staff from the property.
the food and beverage controller.
either a or c above.

How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
Directs are recorded in inventory records.

Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

issuing
storing
purchasing
accounting

When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

form
time
informational
place

According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

Self-distribution
Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
Catalog online ordering

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

Physical Inventory

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

Amount in

product

Storage unit

storage

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

24.10/bag

In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

3.83 cases
3.50 cases
3.36 cases
3.30 cases

According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

$212.87
$200.00
$194.54
$192.20
$337.70

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

The cost per servable pound is:

$10.13

$10.00
$8.00
Cannot determine

How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

129 lb

131 lb
103 lb
Cannot determine.

If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

$12.00

$ 11.00
$12.50
$ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

Carried forward: __0______

Date

Out

Balance

1/7

1/9

1/10

1/12

1/15

According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
(1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

Question 23: Business

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

26) The end result of activity is known as

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

30) Suboptimization occurs when

Question 24: Business

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

A decrease to work in process inventory
B. A decrease to applied overhead
C. An increase to finished goods
D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

The production of textbooks
B. The production of town homes
C. The pasteurization of milk
D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

Debit Manufacturing Overhead
B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
B. The cost of the wheels
C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

Planning, directing, and controlling
B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
C. Planning, directing, and selling
D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

Work in process, finished goods raw materials
B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

machine hours
B. direct labor
C. direct material dollars
D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

overhead rate
B. product activity
C. cost driver
D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

computing the activity-based overhead rate
B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
C. identifying the activity-cost pools
D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
C. the labeling of activities as value-added
D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

$60,000
B. $90,000
C. $150,000
D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $1,920,000
D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $2,000,000
D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

Buy; savings = $10,000
B. Make; savings = $20,000
C. Make; savings = $10,000
D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

incremental costs are $1 per unit
B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
C. differential costs are $2 per unit
D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

37.5%
B. 150%.
C. 266.6%
D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

$28,000
B. $18,000
C. $6,000
D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

is required under GAAP
B. is used for external reporting purposes
C. is also known as full costing
D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

Direct labor
B. Direct materials
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

$18
B. $16
C. $27
D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
C. not employ any standards
D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

$2,400 favorable
B. $5,600 unfavorable
C. $3,200 unfavorable
D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

$15 per direct labor hour
B. $18 per direct labor hour
C. $19 per direct labor hour
D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

$2,000
B. $4,000
C. $3,000
D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

standard hours allowed
B. actual overhead costs incurred
C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

variable overhead costs
B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
C. all manufacturing costs
D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

$12,500
B. $25,000
C. $27,500
D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

600
B. 580
C. 630
D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

$57,525
B. $63,525
C. $42,350
D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

customers
B. largest competitor
C. selling company
D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

all cases
B. its early years
C. the long run
D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

it considers customer demand
B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
C. it is simple to compute
D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

Question 25: Economics

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

A resource is anything that:
A) can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.

Scarcity in economics means:
A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C) scarcity.
D) the margin.

A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C) at the margin
D) after the fact

A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B) trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces

When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

(Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.

(Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D) E to B.

When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B) complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.

Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C) an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C) when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.

Exam #2

The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) B to E

The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

Use the following to answer question 9:

Figure: DVD Market

(Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.

Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) not change.
D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A) price elastic.
B) price inelastic.
C) price unit-elastic.
D) perfectly price inelastic.

Use the following to answer question 17:

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

(Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.

Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00

The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6

If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A) price-inelastic
B) price unit-elastic
C) price-elastic
D) positive

To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A) less than 0
B) equal to 0
C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
D) greater than 0

A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A) horizontal
B) downward-sloping
C) upward-sloping
D) vertical

The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A) between 1 and 0
B) less than 0
C) equal to 0
D) greater than 0

To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A) average.
B) top.
C) margin.
D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

(Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10

If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D) the market is producing too much of the good.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 12

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 16

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 18

0 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

Question 41

0 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

Question 43

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

Question 48

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 50

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31: Psychology

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

Question 32: Psychology

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
2
3
5
16
Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
correlational analysis of trait adjectives
factor analysis of trait adjectives
selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
finds groups of variables that can be factored
finds groups of variables that have similar means
Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
Extraversion & “Surgency”
Conscientiousness & “Morality”
Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
Openness to Experience & “Culture”
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
values are cognitions, traits are not
traits appear to have more dimensions than values
unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

Justice
Transcendence
Humanity
Creativity
Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
Realistic & Enterprising
Conventional & Social
Artistic & Investigative
Realistic & Artistic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
20%
40%
60%
80%
Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
projection
repression
sublimation
denial
Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
Unconscious, ego, repression
Unconscious, id, reaction formation
Preconscious, superego, regression
Preconscious, superfly, fixation
Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
being unfalsifiable
being unscientific
being deterministic
being simplistic
Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
fate
the weather
hard work
bad mood
Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
rank order stability increases with age
Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
it increases with age.
it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
Shame & doubt
Isolation
Guilt
Inferiority
Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

convergent validity
content validity
internal consistency
retest reliability
Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
infrequency scale
incompatibility scale
lie scale
defensiveness scale
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
poor predictive validity
poor inter-rater reliability
susceptible to faking good bias
susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

Question 33: Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

Question 34: Psychology

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

Exam #3

The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility

The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.

Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475

Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy

Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth

A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run

Use the following to answer question 15:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

(Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total

If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.

A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale

In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to

Question 26: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
7. Intervention plan for the family
8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
9. Prognosis for the family
10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

Question 10: Science

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

Question 11: General

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

Instructions

Select trade agreement, market and sector
Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

Starting your research
Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

Required sources (at least 6):

At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

How To Prepare an Oral Research Presentation:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LzIJFD-ddoI

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

Required sources (at least 10):

At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
One printed book (such as the textbook)

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level

B-level

C-level

D-level

Unsatisfactory

Mark

Business opportunity

Identifies significant opportunity

Identifies good opportunity

Identifies adequate opportunity

Identifies some opportunity

Does not identify a clear opportunity

Research objectives, methodology, and sampling

Excellent

Good

Adequate

Acceptable

Unsatisfactory

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively

Uses professional sources sufficiently

Uses professional sources adequately

Uses some professional sources

Does not use professional sources

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors

Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors

Writing is unclear, with too many errors

Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors

/0.5

Total:

Group members:

________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

Criteriononsetation points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc	A-level	B-level	C-level	D-level	Unsatisfactory	Mark
Content: Business opportunity	Effectively presents the opportunity	Sufficiently present the opportunity	Adequately presents the opportunity	Present the opportunity acceptably	Does not clearly identify the opportunity	/2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Unsatisfactory	/2
Documentation: Use of professional sources	All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation	/1
Organization	Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily	Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful	Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful	Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation	Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation	/1
PowerPoint quality	Attractive, easy to follow, no errors	Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors	Attractive, easy to follow, many errors	Not attractive, many errors	Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors	/1
Speaking skills (articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Inadequate	/1
Length of presentation	Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime	Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime	Does not use 10 minutes adequately	/1
Q&A	Handles the questions effectively	Handles the questions properly	Handles the questions adequately	Handles the questions satisfactorily	Does not handle the questions satisfactorily	/1
Total:						/10

Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

throughout

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors

Documents sources using APA format with many errors

Does not use APA format adequately

Does not use APA format

/0.5

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Question 15: General Question

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-excel-show-work-including-formulars-considering-investment-stock-market-identified-tw-q39604624

Question 16: Other

Unit 4 DB AM

Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example

Unit IV Essay

Marketing Plan: Part II

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
- In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
Include a competitive and industry analysis.
- This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
- In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

Question 17: Accounting

The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.

Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:

Work in process, beginninginventory 250 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (50% complete)

Units started during June 800 units

Work in process, ending inventory: 150 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (75% complete)

Costs for June 2010:

Work in process, beginning inventory:

Directmaterials $180,000

Conversion costs $270,000

Direct materials costs added duringJune $1,000,000

Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000

prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials

prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs

prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress

prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending

Question 18: Engineering

If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.

Question 19: General Question

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/heights-women-aged-20-29-follow-approximately-n-642-28-distribution-men-age-heights-distri-q32003221

Question 20: Chemistry

A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?

Question 21: Business

Assignment

– Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.

– Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.

– Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):

What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.

Rules

The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.

Question 22: Mathematics

A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.

Question 23: Mathematics

If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%

Question 24: English

Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.

Question 25: Economics

The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?

Question 26: Business

Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done. Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree. However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.

REQUIRED:

What costs are relevant to your decision? Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
Comment on response of 2 classmates. Agree or disagree

Question 27: Business

Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?

Question 28: Religious Study

Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each

Question 29: Other

Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?

Question 30: Psychology

Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!

In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!

Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.

Question 31: Literary Studies

Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility

Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.

Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:

Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?

Some Research Topics:

Equity in Casting
Equity in film
Equity in theatre
Representation in film
Hollywood Diversity Report
Effects of tv on minorities
Effects of tv race and gende
Women and advertising
How woman is portrayed in film
Masculinity in TV and Film
Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth

Question 32: Political Science

Instruction

Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?

Course Name	Course POLS 393-01 Online		Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN
Class Time	This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Class Location	https://texsu.blackboard.com/webapps/login/ Student Username Is: last name + first name initial + last 4 digits of T# Student password is: 6 digit birth date (MMDDYY)
Course Prerequisites
Instructor	Linda D. Smith
Office Location	PA 402	Office Hours		By Request
Instructor Email	Linda.Smith@tsu.edu	Instructor Phone		713.313.5261
Preferred Methods of Contact	Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.
Blackboard Help	For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853

Course Description
Course Purpose	This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation. While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives	1) Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought 2) Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought. 3) Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.

Material
Textbooks	W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford) Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale) Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books) Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover) James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon) Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon) Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media) Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)
Required Software	Microsoft Word
Required Technology	Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus. Please check their operating hours. 1. Fairchild Tiger Hub 2. Student Center Lab, 2^nd Floor 3. Labs within colleges

Grading

Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.

Grading Scale

A+,A, A-
B+ B B- C+ C C- D+		Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course
D		(Refer to Catalog)
D-
F

Major Assignments and Grade Distribution

Response Questions	Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric.	60% of grade
Final Project	Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals. Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard.	30% of grade
Class Participation	You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question).	10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
	Total:	100% or 100 Points

Course Outline

This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.

Overview / Course Responsibilities

All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1) Discussion Board Assignment

(2) One Discussion Board Response (minimum)

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Course Schedule

Date

Chapter / Focus

Assignments

8/26

I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought

None

09/02

II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk

Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3

Response question #1

Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*

Response questions #2, 3

Responses due 09//15

09/16

Du Bois, ch. 7-10

Response question #4

Du Bois, 11-Afterthought

Response questions #5, 6

Responses Due9/22

09/23

III. American Terrors

Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*

Response question #7

Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),

ch. 1-14

Response question #8

Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”

Response questions #9, 10

Responses

due

09/29

09/30

Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”

Response questions #11, 12

Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”

Response question #13

Responses Due 10/06

10/07

IV. Black Internationalism

Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82

Response questions #14, 15

Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*

Response questions #16

Response Due 10/13

10/14

V. The Civil Rights Revolution

King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*

Response questions #17, 18

Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.

Response question #19

Responses Due 10/20

10/21

Baldwin, concluded.

Response questions #20, 21

Malcolm X: “Message to the Grassroots” (http://teachingamericanhistory.org/library/document/message-to-grassroots/); “The Ballot or the Bullet”*

Response question #22

Responses Due 10/27

10/28

Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*

Response question #23

Response Due 11/03

11/04

Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2

Response questions #24, 25

King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6

Response question #26

Responses Due 11/10

11/11

VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges

Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic

Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21^st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*

Response questions #27, 28

Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2

Response questions #29, 30

Response Due 11/17

11/18

Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.

Response question #31

Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3

Response question #32

: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6

Response question #33

Response Due 12/01

11/25

VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future

Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*

Response question #34

http://muse.jhu.edu/journals/theory_and_event/toc/tae.17.3S.html: Essays by Melvin Rogers, Michelle Smith, Lisa Miller, and Vesla Weaver

https://www.nytimes.com/2019/06/19/us/politics/slavery-reparations-hearing.html By Sheryl Gay Stolberg

Response Due 12/08

Essential Policies
Attendance Policy	All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted. Each week you will have three assignments due: (1) Readings (2) Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs) (3) Reply to at least two classmates blog post I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Assignment Policies	Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation	Students may may share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy	Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy	The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory. Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.

Question 33: Sociology

Instruction

Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!

Question 34: Economics

Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:

Instruction

The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand

Question 35: Other

I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.

PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method

CHECK FIGURE

(4) Ending work in process: $40,800

Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.

		Percent Completed
	Units	Materials	Conversion
Work in process, beginning…	50,000	60%	30%
Started into production………	470,000
Completed and transferred out	450,000
Work in process, ending………	60,000	70%	20%

Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:

	Materials	Conversion
Work in process, beginning…	$24,500	$9,500
Cost added during June……….	$377,600	$274,200

The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.

Required:

Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.

What is an overhead cost?

Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process

Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost

2. What is a cost driver?

Whatever causes a change in overhead cost

A phenomenon driving costs down for your business

An already budgeted expense

There is no such thing as a cost driver

202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…

Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.

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Question 1: General Question

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

Question 2: General Question

Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.

Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.

Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.

Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.

Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is

Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.

Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to

Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?

Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.

Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.

Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.

Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is

Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)

Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.

Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.

Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.

Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.

Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price

Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000

Question

Instruction

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies

The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.

To prepare for this Discussion:

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Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.

Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.

Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.

Post a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.

Question 3: General Question

Question 1

6 out of 6 points

According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:

Question 2

6 out of 6 points

Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:

· Question 3

6 out of 6 points

This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.

· Question 4

6 out of 6 points

The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:

· Question 5

6 out of 6 points

La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:

· Question 6

6 out of 6 points

Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:

· Question 7

6 out of 6 points

Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):

· Question 8

6 out of 6 points

According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.

· Question 9

6 out of 6 points

According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.

· Question 10

6 out of 6 points

The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:

· Question 11

Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?

· Question 12

6 out of 6 points

Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.

· Question 13

6 out of 6 points

As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:

· Question 16

6 out of 6 points

Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?

· Question 17

6 out of 6 points

Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:

· Question 18

6 out of 6 points

Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:

· Question 19

6 out of 6 points

One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:

· Question 20

According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:

· Question 21

6 out of 6 points

Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):

· Question 22

6 out of 6 points

A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:

· Question 23

6 out of 6 points

Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:

· Question 24

Needs Grading

Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.

· Question 25

Needs Grading

Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?

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Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.

Learning Resources

Readings

Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.

Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.

Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.

Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security Council. (2010). Quadrennial homeland security review report. Retrieved from http://www.iaem.com/documents/QHSRReportFeb2010.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.

Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc

Optional Resources

Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2

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Question 2: Business questions

Business Interview Case Study

How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?

We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.

You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?

You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?

First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.

Question 4: History

Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?

Question 5: Biology

Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology final exam answers south university

Question 6: Mathematics

Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.

The after-tax CD earnings rate is %

Question 7: Sociology

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

Question 8: Business

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^®, Prezi, or Microsoft^® Sway^® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

Question 9: Business

answer survey questions only need 2 solution

SCREEING:

Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)

If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)

Age:

18-24
25-34
35-44
45-54
55-64
Over 65

Gender: Male Female

Children: If none, Do you want children?

Highest level of Education:

High School or Equivalent
Some college-no degree
Technical School
Associate’s Degree
Bachelor’s Degree
Graduate Degree

Household Income:

>$25K
$25K – $50K
$50K – $75K
$75K – $100K
$100K – $150K
$150K+

Social Media use:

Facebook
Instagram
Twitter
LinkedIn

ONLINE BEHAVIOR

Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?

HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE

What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?

Do you have any concerns about your health?

GENETIC TESTING

Have you done genetic testing yet?
If not, why?
What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
What would you not want to learn about yourself?

iii. What features would you want from the process/product?

1. If yes, why did you get the testing?
2. Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
3. What was the process for the purchase?

iii. What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?

What have you done with your raw data?

Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?

What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?

I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.

The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective? 
You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?

I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results. 

Question 3: English

An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown

Instruction

Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.

Graded Assignment

The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2

Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 55 points

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(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)

Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)

You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)

Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
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Question 4: Biology.

500 words on importance of prenatal care

Question 5: Political Science

Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States

Question 6: Health Care

Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides

Instruction

As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.

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Question7: Other

3 page paper with NO REFERENCES

Instruction

I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided

Question 8: Psychology

Attached Files:

o PSY201 Case Study Assignment and Rubric.docx (14.47 KB)

Due: Midnight Sunday.

Analyze a case study from Children On Track – Case Scenarios. Adapted / Reprinted with permission by the Best Start Resource Center.

Choose ONE of the following cases:

o Case # 1 Eric

o Case #2 Giselle

o Case #6 Sammy and Willow

Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
Write your answers in a Word document.

Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below. Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.

Unit 5 – Case Study

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Resource: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13; Staffing Metrics Evaluation Grading Guide

Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.

Choose an organization with which you are familiar.

Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.

Describe the metrics selected for discussion.

Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.

Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.

Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

Question 12: Education

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

Question 13: Health Care

In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format, critically evaluate the following scenario:

Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.

Subjective Data

Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
Respiratory: Pulmonary crackles; decreased breath sounds right lower lobe; coughing frothy blood-tinged sputum; SpO2 82%.
Gastrointestinal: BS present: hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin.
IV furosemide (Lasix)
Enalapril (Vasotec)
Metoprolol (Lopressor)
IV morphine sulphate (Morphine)
Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator (ProAir HFA)
Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent HFA)
Oxygen delivered at 2L/ NC
Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.

Question 14: Religious Study

BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.

Selected Answer:

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.

Selected Answer:

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:

Selected Answer:

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Peter believers are identified as

Selected Answer:

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.

Selected Answer:

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?

Selected Answer:

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christ is the

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves

Selected Answer:

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is

Selected Answer:

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples

Selected Answer:

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.

Selected Answer:

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

___________ was the persevering church

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

James warns believers about

Selected Answer:

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.

Selected Answer:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.

Selected Answer:

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.

Selected Answer:

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”

Selected Answer:

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.

Selected Answer:

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.

Selected Answer:

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.

Selected Answer:

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?

Selected Answer:

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.

Selected Answer:

True

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of

Selected Answer:

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?

Selected Answer:

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”

Selected Answer:

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it

Selected Answer:

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.

Selected Answer:

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:

Selected Answer:

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.

Selected Answer:

True

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

_____________ was the powerless church

Selected Answer:

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.

Selected Answer:

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.

Selected Answer:

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.

Selected Answer:

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.

Selected Answer:

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.

Selected Answer:

False

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the prosperous church

Selected Answer:

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of

Selected Answer:

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

fruitless trees

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than

Selected Answer:

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the persecuted church.

Selected Answer:

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.

Selected Answer:

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.

Selected Answer:

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.

Selected Answer:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself

Selected Answer:

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Question9: History

I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you

Instruction

the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced

Name: Guirlene Hyppolite

The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.

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Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:

Check off Selections	Concept/Theme	Lesson/Milestone Alignment
	The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations	Week 1, Milestone 1
	The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800)	Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
	The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)	Week 6, Milestone 3
	The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts	Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
	The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas)	Week 4, Milestone 2
	The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945)	Week 8
	The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization	Week 5
	The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism)	Week 7, Week 8
	The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)	Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
	The impact of Cold War ideological divisions	Week 8
	The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world	Week 9

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Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.

Concept/Theme Selection #1

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Concept/Theme Selection #2

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

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Concept/Theme Selection #3

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Concept/Theme Selection #4

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

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Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Question 10: English

Instruction

I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.

Question 11: General

Understanding Terrorism Wk 8

Instruction

Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.

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Question12: Other

Week 12: Signature Assignment

Instruction

Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question13: Other

Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach

Instruction

Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question14: Other

Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

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Question 15: Other

Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection

Instruction

Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question16: Other

Week 8: Quantitative Research Design

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question17: Other

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Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question18: Other

Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

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Question19: Other

Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question1: Finance

If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Question 2: Engineering.

separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane

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Question 3: Computer Science.

Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.

Question 4: Other

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).

What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

Question5:Finance

In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.

How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

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Question 6: Business

Chaebol and family ownership in Korea

The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).

I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.

Question 7: Mathematics

Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)

Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).

Question8: Accounting

QUESTION ONE

Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.

To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.

REQUIRED:

Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:

accounting rate of return on the project
payback on the project
net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
internal rate of return on the project

The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.

Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)

Required:

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Question 9: Finance

Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.

Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.

What is the NPV of this venture?

Question 10: Other

Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.

You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:

Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building

Question 11: Finance

Question 12: Physics

Question 13: Psychology

Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.

TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story

Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.

In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.

Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.

Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.

Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.

Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.

Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Thesis Generator

Annotated Bibliography

Grading Criteria: Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project

Resources

Question 14: Accounting

Question 15: Mathematics

(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.

Question 16: Engineering

need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question

Question 17: Psychology

Wk 4 Discussion

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

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Question 18: Business

Db And assignment

Unit 2 DB

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.

Unnit 2 assignment

Instructions

Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.

Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.

Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.

Your essay should be formatted in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

Question 19: Business

Unit 1 Assignment

Instructions

Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.

Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.

Respond to the following questions:

Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
How can you apply information in this article to your field?
How did this article fit your ethical view?

Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.

Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.

You may find this presentation, “Right References,” a great resource for guidance in making references: https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/references2014

Format the article review in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

Question 20: Other

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“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable. Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)

Continuation……

Question 21: Statistics

The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.

50	63	42	28	30
37	29	61	43	43
27	50	28	28	50
62	34	53	21	32
19	41	60	57	22
35	46	32	30	25
36	52	57	29	35
42	57	35	61	46
21	49	26	40	19
18	25	23	47	28

Range:

Class Width:

Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example: .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0.

Class Limits	Class Boundaries	Midpoint	f	cf	rf	crf
–	–
–	–
–	–
–	–
–	–

Question22: Germany

Name: 10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5

Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.

Verbs and Tenses:

Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:

German	English
einen Spaziergang machen	to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen	Vist the Film Museum
	to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen	to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen	To vist the rhine tower
	to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen	to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
	to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen	To vist the city museum
	to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen	to go to the ‘Aquazoo’

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Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?

Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!

Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.

Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.

Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.

Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen

Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.

das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive

Ich besuche das Filmmuseum Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen

Wir gehen in den Südpark Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen

Er besichtigt den Rheinturm Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen

Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht

Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.

Meine Freunde und ich trinken

einen Kaffee im Café. __________

Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.

Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP

Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.

Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb

goes to the end of the sentence.

wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf

Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf

heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen

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ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten / dort
ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug

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Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)

Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:

on the weekend
first
after that
on the weekend
then
in the evening
on Friday afternoon
today
tomorrow
yesterday
next week
this morning

Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning

with the time phrase. Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)

Morgen werde ich den Rheinturm besuchen.

________________________________________________________________________________

Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:

Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.

________________________________________________________________________________

Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:

P 112 Lesen 4

P 113 Lesen 4

In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.

Conjunctions (with meanings)	Time Phrases

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Cases

CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative

Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)

Masculine

Feminine

Neuter

Plural

Nominative

der

ein

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Accusative

den

einen

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Dative

dem

einem

der

einer

dem

einem

den + n

keinen + n

* ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.

* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.

mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your- informal ) Ihr (your – formal)

Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.

Note:

If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the direct object. (receiving the action)

If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement). Where at – DAT Where to – ACCU

Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)

machen.

Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.

When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.

Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)

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Question 23: Statistics

Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent). Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64. Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.

Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married. Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word. Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.

Question 24: Engineering

Solve

Question 25: Psychology

Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning

Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.

You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.

Include the following in your paper:

At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.

Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Video: Chechen Refugee Camps

Transcript: Chechen Refugee Camps

Video: Post War Conditions in Iraq

Transcript: Post War Conditions in Iraq

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Question 26: Psychology

Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research

Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

Textbook sources:

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 27: Psychology

Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research

In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?

Textbook sources:

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 28: Statistics

A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes. The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.

The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city. Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.

Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.

Question 29: Chemistry

Complex metric Titration

A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL

Question 30: Chemistry

Gravimetric Analysis

Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5

Question 31: Computer Science

SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019

Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019

Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).

Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.

The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the G-language word to check:

Suppose that the user enters the word:

###

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!

The output should appear as follows:

Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language

CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.

Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).

Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.

Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should

allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
allow for multi-digit integer operands

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the infix expression to evaluate:

Suppose that the user enters the expression:

(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().

The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:

infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +

result: 12

infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)

postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +

result: 35

infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10

postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +

result: -312

infix: 3 * (4 + 5)

postfix: 3 4 5 + *

result: 27

infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)

postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /

result: 6

Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.

Marks will be based on:

Completeness of your submission
Correct solution to the problem
Following good coding style
Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the

submission of uncompressed source files only)

The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).

In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.

files:

The Client Program:

Question 32: Business

Fourth ENT assignment.

– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.

NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.

Question 33: Business

How to make $2000 from $20 in a year.

As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)

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Question 34: Mathematics

Probability

After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2

leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
started) after 15 minutes.
• Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
at random with equal probability.
What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?

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Question 35: Mathematics

ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION

Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation

Return on investment. Net present value

Question 36: Mathematics

Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)

Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Question 37: Economics

How easy is it to start a business in India?

I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.

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Question 38: Business

Discussion 4

William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.” Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.

Discussion 5

Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)

Question 39: Mathematics

Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.

Question 40: Physics

A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.

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Question 41: Physics

Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)

Question 42: Statistics

Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.

Question 43: Mathematics

A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?

Question 47: Mathematics

Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection

Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant. This is for a high school project.

Question 48: Psychology

Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News

CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides

Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.

Create an 2-slide presentation that conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.

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TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity

Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.

Format your document according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Question 49: History

Major influences on development of the Renaissance

Instructions

This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?

Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:

significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).

You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.

Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.

You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.

Details

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Question 50: Statistics

Simulation

The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).

x(from 0 to 1000)

y(from 0 to 500)

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Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

specific job skills and competencies
employee qualifications
the breadth of training offered and available

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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario.

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

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In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:

Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

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Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

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Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

Hide Folder Information

Turnitin®

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.

Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

Write an Introduction describing your topic.
Write the Statement of the Problem section.
Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
Describe your method of sampling.
Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

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Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

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Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?

What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?

What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
Industry and Market Feasibility
Product or Service Feasibility
Financial Feasibility
Entrepreneurial Readiness
Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

Assignment:

Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

Assess the organization’s current status:

o Leadership

o Board members

o Structure

o Number of employees

Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation

Include the following in your outline:

Organizations(Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel^®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

Q28. New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization” So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

Provide an example of empirical probability ?

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points

According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points

Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points

Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points

Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points

The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points

A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points

Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:

Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.

•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
Back to Top
Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent Ã¢clocksÃ¢ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnÃ¢t this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
Bottom of Form

Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about eﬀect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?

Q3. Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394

Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work

CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.

Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.

Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.

REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family

Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed

This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional

social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.

Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau

http://www.santafenewmexican.com/news/local_news/n-m-poverty-rate-down-but-is-still-among-worst/article_5da80fa0-d4cd-5fe7-b0c8-3e05f44a7daf.html pulled 11/27/2018

New Mexico Report – 2018

2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18

Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

• Question 1

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

• Question 2

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

• Question 3

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

• Question 4

In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.

• Question 5

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

• Question 6

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

• Question 7

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

• Question 8

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.

• Question 9

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

• Question 10

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

• Question 11

In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

• Question 12

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.

• Question 13

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

• Question 14

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

• Question 15

2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.

• Question 16

In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”

• Question 17

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

• Question 18

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

• Question 19

Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

• Question 20

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

• Question 21

In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.

• Question 22

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

• Question 23

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.

• Question 24

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

• Question 25

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

• Question 26

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

• Question 27

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.

• Question 28

In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.

• Question 29

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

• Question 30

1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

• Question 31

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.

• Question 32

In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

• Question 33

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

• Question 34

In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.

• Question 35

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.

• Question 36

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.

• Question 37

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

• Question 38

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

• Question 39

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

• Question 40

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

• Question 41

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.

• Question 42

In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.

• Question 43

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

• Question 44

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.

• Question 45

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

• Question 46

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

• Question 47

Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.

• Question 48

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.

• Question 49

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

• Question 50

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first

generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and

God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.

Question 30
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

He hung on the cross.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

Question 38
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on

Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly

arrangement of the local church.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff

____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium

____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain

____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease

____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone

____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics

____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness

____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home

____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam

____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships

____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea

____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

• Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

• Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

• Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

• Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

• Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

• Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

• Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

• Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

• Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

• Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

• Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

• Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

• Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

• Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

• Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

• Question 22

1 out of 1 points

• Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:
False

• Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

• Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

• Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

• Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

• Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

• Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

• Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

• Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

• Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

• Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

• Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

• Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

• Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

• Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

• Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

• Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

• Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

• Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

• Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

• Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

• Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

• Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

• Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT

GENDER STUDIES.

Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.

Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below

THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.

View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.

Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.

Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

Q5. Discussion Board Forum:

pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below

DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.

Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.

Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.

Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.

Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.

Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA

Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse

Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient

CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)

1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?

Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.

HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
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Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
2/27 5/25/2019
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
3/27 5/25/2019
An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
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Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
5/27 5/25/2019
A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
6/27 5/25/2019
A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
7/127 5/25/2019
A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
11/27 5/25/2019
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
12/27 5/25/2019
When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
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An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
14/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
17/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
18/27 5/25/2019
Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
19/27 5/25/2019
While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who

Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?

Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation

Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.

____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement

____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory

____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease

____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin

____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement

____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.

____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria

____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).

____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis

____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)

____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease

____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease

____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.

____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles

____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta

____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.

____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.

____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)

____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.

____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave

____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4

____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal

____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute

____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate

____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node

____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.

____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention

____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.

____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity

____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation

____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis

____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.

____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.

____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin

____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.

____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance

____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule

____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.

____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.

____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.

____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure

____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air

____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.

____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure

____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis

____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation

____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)

____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)

____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)

____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25

____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal

____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30

____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.

____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis

____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory

____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic

____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated

____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic

____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion

____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease

____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency

____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.

____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation

____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure

____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.

____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Matching

Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity

____ 198. Proto-oncogene

____ 199. Pleomorphic

____ 200. Anaplasia

____ 201. Caretaker gene

____ 202. Autocrine stimulation

Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent

____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction

____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Match th

Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]

Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1

Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive

Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication

Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer

Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.

Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support

Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in

Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few

Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –

Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy

____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners

____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing

____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level

Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin

____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues

____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects

____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues

____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range

____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range

____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long

____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action

____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists

____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow

____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed

____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual

____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.

____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion

____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above

____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above

____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive

____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs

____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time

____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor

____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug

____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”

____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration

____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose

____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.

____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally

____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration

____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response

Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form

____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug

____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders

____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment

____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy

____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above

____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated

____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English

____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective

____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration

____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.

Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings

____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity

____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin

____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state

____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above

____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them

____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy

____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above

Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male

____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function

____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D

____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen

____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E

____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response

____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV

____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F

____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer

____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication

____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants

____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G

____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives

____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction

____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F

Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices

____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations

____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds

____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders

____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting

____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.

____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.

____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above

____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms

____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.

____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance

____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence

____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above

Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption

____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities

____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization

____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care

____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction

____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy

____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States

Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin

____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug

____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug

____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify

Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium

Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month

Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors

Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:

A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis

Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD

To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
…

Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…

LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948

article title

volume and issue information

journal title

author

Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?

paraphrase

hanging quote

direct quote

Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan

Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.

Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score

Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%

Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%

PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions

Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.

• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:

Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that

Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.

Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.

Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:

Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief

Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism

Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules

Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms

Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.

Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.

In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.

In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.

In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.

While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.

A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.

Questions to Consider

1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?

2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?

3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.

4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.

Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59

Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.

RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:

Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer: