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Question 1: Business

 

Discussion Topic:

Discuss TWO positive economic effects and TWO negative economic effects on the U.S. economy when the U.S. imposes tariffs on importation of foreign goods. – Only ONE discussion post is required. – Discussion must be elaborate and well-written to earn full points — minimum of 1-page length expected.

 

 

Question 2: Health Care

 

1.list four or more of the most important facts, strategies, ideas, or perspectives to keep in mind for future practice. 2. How does this information connect with other courses you’re taking now, have taken previously, or with other life experiences? 3. How can you continue to build skills for tailoring your communication to support diverse types of clients? 4. Describe how your background shaped your health-related attitudes and behaviors and how this might help and hinder your efforts to help others. 5. Pretend you are counseling someone who is very low income and was raised by very low-income parents. Name three hidden rules that might affect their food and nutrition perspectives and describe how would you tailor your communication with them to adjust for those perspectives? 6. Define racial and ethnic health disparity. 7.Outline 3 or more possible causes of health-care provider biases. 8. Name two or more reasons reducing health disparities is important. 9. Name three or more ways clinical dietitians might help reduce health disparities. (see the article and know that this question and the next 2 are on the practical final) 10. Name three or more ways foodservice dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 11. Name three or more ways public health dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 12.Using the case study in the Academy article and assuming you have graduated and are now a nutrition professional, outline three ways you would help James Vaughan. (see the cases study at the end of the article) 13. Warm-Up Question – Module 7: What are the fundamental counseling skills and how do you plan to build skill for applying them? attachment

 

Question 3: Engineering

 

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Satellite Communications. Refer to the following potential transmitter configurations and calculate the overall reliability of each configuration. There is an additional cross-strapping switch in the second configuration. Does this improve the reliability? First diagram: TWTA R-0.85 EPC R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 TWTA R=0.85 R=0.9 Second diagram: TWTA R-0.85 R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 SWITCH R-0.99 TWTA R-0.85 はt:  R=0.9

 

Question 4: Statistics

 

You have been granted with a chance of profit. Someone from your family lent you $100,000 without any interest rate, for one year. You have two options to invest this capital, so that when you pay your debt back next year, the earnings from the investments would be your profit. You can either invest in a government bond, or a risky stock. Return and risk score of the bond and the stock are shown below.

Return

Bond – 3%

Stock – 8%

Risk Score

Bond – 2

Stock – 5

The average risk score of your portfolio cannot exceed 3.2. On the other hand, the same relative asked you to decide your portfolio such that the amount you invested in the bond cannot exceed the amount you invested in stock by more than $40,000.

  1. )  Formulate an LP model that solves for the portfolio with maximum return without

exceeding an average risk score of 3.2 and the amount you invest in bonds can be at

most $40,000 more than the amount you invest in stock. (4 points)

  1. )  Solve your model using graphical method. (4 points

 

Question 5: Business   

 

 400-500 words. 

The internet is a disruptive innovation that has facilitated online retailing. It also, however, has presented challenges to brick-and-mortar retailers. How might retailers such as Nordstrom, Neiman Marcus, or Macy’s change their in-store experience in order to (a) continue to attract a flow of customers into their stores; (b) expand sales using direct selling and store displays of the actual merchandise? If the Internet continues to grow and sales of brick-and-mortar retailers decline, how might the retailers attract, train, and retain high-quality employees if the industry is perceived as declining?

 

 

 

 

Question 6: Accounting

 

The trial balance of Bellemy Fashion Center contained the following accounts at November 30, the end of the company’s fiscal year.

BELLEMY FASHION CENTER
Trial Balance
November 30, 2010

Debit Credit
Cash $28,700
Accounts Receivable 33,700
Merchandise Inventory 45,000
Store Supplies 5,500
Store Equipment 85,000
Acc. Depreciation – Store Equipment $18,000
Delivery Equipment 48,000
Acc. Depreciation – Delivery Equipment 6,000
Notes Payable 51,000
Accounts Payable 48,500
Common Stock 90,000
Retained Earnings 8,000
Sales 757,200
Sales Returns and Allowances 4,200
Cost of Goods Sold 495,400
Salaries Expense 140,000
Advertising Expense 26,400
Utilities Expense 14,000
Repair Expense 12,100
Delivery Expense 16,700
Rent Expense 24,000

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$978,700
$978,700

Adjustment data:

Store supplies on hand totaled $1,500.
Depreciation is $9,000 on the store equipment and $6,000 on the delivery equipment.
Interest of $11,000 is accrued on notes payable at November 30.
Other data:
Salaries expense is 70% selling and 30% administrative.
Rent expense and utilities expense are 80% selling and 20% administrative.
$30,000 of notes payable are due for payment next year.
Repair expense is 100% administrative.

Journalize the adjusting entries.

Prepare an adjusted trial balance

Prepare a multiple-step income statement and retained earnings statement for the year and a classified balance sheet as of November 30, 2010.
Journalize the closing entries
Prepare a post-closing trial balance

 

Question 7: Health Care

 

You are to observe a child between the ages of birth and 24-months old for at least 20 minutes. Take notes on what you see and hear the child doing. Make sure you comment (with examples) on his/her language development, motor development (fine and gross), social/emotional development, and cognitive development. IMPORTANT:  Each domain (cognitive, social/emotional, motor, and language) must have its own paragraph with information relevant to the three questions listed below:

Questions to answer when observing the child’s development from the perspective of each of the four domains listed above:

  1. What did s/he do in this domain? 2. What did I expect an infant at this age to do? 3. Is s/he on target developmentally in this domain? What evidence did I observe to support my opinion?

Early in your paper, be sure to include the age and gender of the infant as well as the day/time and location of your observation.

CRITICAL INSTRUCTION: You may NOT observe your own child.

PART TWO: THE PAPER

The paper must be done using Microsoft Office.  No exceptions!  Do NOT use the “Write Submission” tool inside the Dropbox link.

It must at least 1+1/2 pages in length but no more than 2 pages in length.

 

Question 8: Sociology

 

Joseph Kony was the leader of a Ugandan resistance group namely Lord’s Resistance Army – The three theories I have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – THE THEORIES ARE RATIONAL CHOICE THEORY, Agnew’s Strain Theory AND Merton’s Strain Theory ( Merton’s Typology of Adaptions)

Instruction

-Pick a group or individual involved in a transnational or international crime. Joseph Kony is the individual -The paper must go into depth about the person or group’s actions and directly relate them to 3 criminological theories. You must explain: – Background information on the group/individual (upbringing, location, formation of group, activities individual/group, etc.) – The three theories you have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – Explain how specific actions taken by the group/individual are explained by each of the three theories you have chosen. – The limitations of each of your theories in their applicability to the individual/group 5 pages, singled spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, 1 inch margins, APA Format, academic sources (journals)

 

Question 9: Business

 

Please perform a Digital Audit of Fox Quilt and its marketing strategy, SEO, SEM, Social Channels, Audit of Website. Basically everything outlined here: https://www.startupgrind.com/blog/the-why-and-how-of-a-digital-marketing-audit/ The company website and detail can be found here: https://www.foxquilt.com/ Please provide the finding in a POWERPOINT Presentation

 

Question 10:        Business

 

  • Create a project charter and identify the key constraints of the project (scope, budget, timeline, quality, people resources, etc.).
  • Using the scenario from this unit, create a spreadsheet that lists all the project risks you see based on what you currently know about the project. List at least 15 risks. For each project risk, provide a:
    • Detailed description
    • Category (schedule, strategy, people, etc.)

Note: This list will be used in later activities throughout the course.

Your submitted assignment (250 points) must include the following:

  • A 2-4 page typed document that includes:
    • A project charter and identification of key constraints
    • At least 15 risks listed in a spreadsheet with a detailed description and the category of each

 

 

 

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Question 11:        Economics

 

  • There are five buyers and five sellers in a perfectly competitive market. Each buyer wishes to purchase one single unit of the good. The willingness to pay displayed by these buyers is presented in the following table:

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Buyer 12345 Willingness to Pay $4 $8 $2 $5 $7

Each firm sells also only one unit of the good. The cost of producing that unit for these firms is denoted by the following table:

Seller 12345 Production Cost $7 $2 $3 $5 $4

  • a)  Suppose that the price for this good is set as P = 3. Is there excess demand or supply in this market? Explain.
  • b)  Assumethatincaseofindifferencebothsellersandbuyersproceedtosupplyand demand in this market. What is the equilibrium quantity we will observe in this market and the range of prices that would support that quantity? Explain.
  • c)  Determine the value of the maximum total surplus that we can observe in this market. Explain.

A perfectly competitive market where the laws of demand and supply hold is in equilibrium. Answer the following questions.

  1. c)  Suppose finally that less buyers take part in this market. The price elasticity of supply is estimated to be εQs,P = 1/4. What happens to the total revenues earned by sellers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those revenues on a graph.
  2. b)  Supposenowthatproductioncostsincreaseinthismarket.Thepriceelasticityof demand is still estimated to be εQd,P = 3/2. What happens to the total expenditures incurred by consumers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those expenditures on a graph.

 

Question 12:        Linguistics

  1. For each set of data below, choose the cognate from the daughter language which most closely resembles the original form in the parent language based on the general guidelines for applying the comparative method as presented in Chapter 5 and on class handouts. (6 x 3 points each = 18 points)

Example:

Answer: The language A cognate “septam” is closest to the original form in the parent language. Directionality suggests that the initial consonant is s since many languages have s > h, an example of lenition. Further, word-final deletion whereby m > Ø is more phonetically more plausible than word- final consonant insertion; we are given no indication of a morpheme boundary in septam so we assume that this is the bare root). Although the guideline of “majority wins” might suggest we choose a form with a as the first vowel, this guideline is overruled because there is evidence to the contrary in the form of two phonological rules which allow us to derive the forms in Language B and Language C.

Language A Language B Language C
septam sɑpta hɑpta
Language A Language B Language C
ek eka ak
Language A Language B Language C
rɑdə radis ratis
Language A Language B Language C
estema steŋ steŋa
Language A Language B Language C
naqa na:qa na:ka
Language A Language B Language C
preklis prellis prɛllis
Language A Language B Language C
ki či či

1

  1. Reconstruct Proto-Language Z, which has daughter languages A, B and C, on the basis of the data below. Provide the proto-form for each set of cognates and give the sound changes which occurred in each daughter language, noting any rule ordering requirements. (11.5 points for proto-forms; 14.5 points for rules)
Data Number Proto-Form Language A Language B Language C Gloss
1. * sipak sifah hibak hand
2. * biraŋ biraŋ bilaŋ foot
3. * unus unus unuh knee
4. * pusut fusut puhud elbow
5. * uvi ubi ubi head
6. * tukal tuhal tugal hair
7. * rasam rasam laham eye
8. * kalup halup kalub nose
9. * duŋu duŋu duŋu ear
10. * iruk iduh iduk mouth
11. * surup suruf hulup tooth
12. * baŋit baŋit baŋit tongue
13. * dilap dilaf dilap skin
14. * puri fudi pudi breast
15. * atap ataf adap liver
16. * lavu labu labu blood
17. * bukas buhas bugah water
18. * barak badak badag earth
19. * damar damar damal stone
20. * arat arat alat river
21. * lipit lifit libid mountain
22. * nalip nalip nalib sky
23. * davak dabak dabag sun

2

Question 13:        English

 

Paper #1 Guide:(USE THESE AS A TOPIC TO DISCUSS WHEN TYPING THIS PAPER) Why do companies conduct cybersecurity risk assessments? What do they find out from these assessments? Why should companies increase cybersecurity awareness among their employees? How can they do this? What are the benefits of regularly updating applications (apps), of password control, and of VPNs? What are the benefits to a company and to individual employees of creating a culture of cybersecurity, where employees continue to use best practices outside of the office?

 

Paper #2 Guide: YOU MUST TYPE A PAPER ANSWERING THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS BUT TRANSITION INTO EACH QUESTION; MY MBTI TYPE IS: EXTROVERT; MY HOLLAND TYPE SUGGEST I SHOULD BE IN THE WORK FIELD OF BUILDING What is the difference between a job and a career? How does this relate to your own career plans? What values do you believe are the most important for your overall career satisfaction? What is your MBTI type and how does this relate to your career? What is your Holland type and how does this relate to your career? What skills would you most like to use in your future career? Which of these skills do you need to develop? How will you develop these skills? What areas have you identified for future exploration and research What are your current thoughts about work and career at this point in the class?

 

 

Question 14:                 History

 

Answer in detail one of the following three questions in a 2,500-3,000 word essay.  Be sure to answer each part of the question.  If you consult any outside sources, please use footnotes and attach a “Sources Cited” final page to your exam.

 

In your answer, the first paragraph should sum up your main points and include a one-sentence thesis statement.  Your answer should be submitted as a .docx file

 

  1. What were the most important technological development and the most important strategic change in the U.S. Navy (and Marines) 1890-1945? Why were they the most significant?
  2. Choose just one technological development as well as just one strategic change as the basis for your essay.
  3. In your answer, discuss the changes in technology and strategy that the Navy/Marines went through during this period, making certain to describe how Mahan affected the Navy especially.
  4. Discuss as well the effects that wars and combat had on the Navy/Marines and these issues during this period.
  5. Support your answer with facts: do not just assert.

 

 

 

Question 15:                 General

 

4CCS1PPA Programming Practice and Applications

Coursework 3: Predator/Prey Simulation

Michael K ̈olling, Josh Murphy, Jeffery Raphael Questions? programming@kcl.ac.uk

Your task is to extend a predator/prey simulation. You should use the foxes-and-rabbits-handout project (available for download from KEATS) as a basis for your own project, and modify and extend it to make it more interesting. Note that this is slightly different from the book project, so please use the version from KEATS, not from the book projects.

You must replace the Fox and Rabbit classes with different kinds of predator and prey to simulate a different habitat (for example, under water, in a jungle, or in a fantasy world). You may add additional classes to those included in the existing project.

This project is a pair programming task. You must work in pairs. Information about pair pro- gramming is provided separately. We will not accept submissions by individuals.

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1 Core tasks

You should aim at completing all core tasks. They are as follows.

  • Your simulation should have at least five different kinds of acting species. At least two of these should be predators (they eat another species), and at least two of them should not be predators (they may eat plants). Plants can either be assumed to always be available (as in the original project), or they can be simulated (see below).
  • At least two predators should compete for the same food source.
  • Some or all of the species should distinguish male and female individuals. For these, the creatures can only propagate when a male and female individual meet. (“Meet” means they need to be within a specified distance to each other, for example in a neighbouring cell.) You will need to experiment with the parameters for breeding probability to create a stable population.
  • You should keep track of the time of day. At least some creatures should exhibit different behaviour at some time of the day (for example: they may sleep at night and not move during that time).

You should implement the core tasks first before you move on to the extension tasks.

1

2 Challenge tasks

Once you have finished the core tasks, implement one or more extension tasks. You can either choose from the following suggestions, or invent your own. You will be graded on a maximum of four extensions.

  • Add plants. Plants grow at a given rate, but they do not move. Some creatures eat plants. They will die if they do not find their food plant.
  • Add weather. Weather can change, and it influences the behaviour of some simulated aspects. For example, grass may not grow without rain, or predators cannot see well in fog.
  • Add disease. Some animals are occasionally infected. Infection can spread to other animals when they meet.

If you invent your own extension tasks, check with your class supervisor before implementing them. You can get their comments to ensure they your idea is not too simple or too difficult.

To get full marks on this assignment you must demonstrate exceptional technical aptitude with the challenge tasks you implement.

3 Submission and Deadline

The submission consists of two parts: your code and a report documenting it. The code and report must be submitted before the deadline, by both members of your pair. Both the source code and the report should clearly state the names of both authors.

The Code

You have to submit a Jar of your project to the “Assignment 3: Code Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the due date. The Jar file must contain your source code, i.e., the *.java files. Your code will be assessed for:

  1. Program Correctness —The application meets all of the program specifications, i.e., the student has completed all of the base tasks including following submission instructions (e.g., the student submitted a Jar file of their BlueJ project).
  2. Code Elegance —The application is written in such a way that the code is reusable and efficient (i.e., memory usage and complexity). The application appropriately uses loops and functions to reduce code complexity and/or repeated code. The application does not have hard-coded solutions or poorly designed solutions. A poorly designed solution is overly complicated, utilises excessive amounts of memory or utilises a slower approach to a problem.
  3. Documentation —The application is sufficiently documented. Good documentation/comments should explain what the code does and how it does it. Comments can also be used to highlight nuances in your solution, e.g., a segment of code that only works under certain conditions.
  4. Readability —The application is easy to understand and uses good programming practices.

The report

The report must be submitted to the “Assignment 3: Report Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the deadline. The report should be no more than four pages long. Marking the assignment will involve an interview in your lab class. More detail about the interview will be provided separately. The report must clearly state the names and student numbers of all students who worked on the submission. The report should also contain the following :

2

  • A description of your simulation, including the types of species that you are simulating, their behaviour and interactions.
  • A list and description of all extension tasks you have implemented.
  • Code limitations/problems, e.g., code segment that uses a hard coded solution.

The report will be marked out of 100. Additional details on how marks are given can be found in the Marking Rubric. Once your submission is marked and written feedback has been returned to you, you will have the opportunity to get additional verbal feedback on your submission from your lab TAs.

4 Deadline

After submitting your work on KEATS, check that (1) your Jar file and report (pdf) has been successfully uploaded and (2) that the Jar file contains all of your source files.

3

 

Question 16:                 Business

 

Leveraging Search Technologies -Identify an organization that is using at least one online search technology. You may use an organization you know from your personal experience or one that you discover while doing research. Briefly describe the organization, and then answer the following questions: -Of the various types of search technologies, which ones is the organization utilizing? -Why is the organization using these technologies? What are the benefits? -What are some metrics the organization could use to evaluate how effective these technologies are in supporting organizational objectives? Explain. -Identify areas in which the organization could expand or improve upon using the search technology. Explain what they could do and why they should do it.

 

Instruction

4 – 5 pages not including the following: Title Page Abstract Page Reference Page

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 17:        Health Care

 

Article Review: Each student is required to submit five (5), typed, one (1) page summary of a professional, peer-reviewed journal article. The article review should address the following topics: • Article Review #1 – One Health • Article Review #2 – Pesticides OR Toxic Metals • Article Review #3 – Radiation OR Water Pollution • Article Review #4 – Air pollution OR Food Safety • Article Review #5 – Solid Waste Management or Occupational Health Only one article review may be submitted on each topic. Recent (published within the last five years) professional peer-reviewed journal articles must be used. Please indicate the topic addressed in the upper right-hand corner of each abstract submitted along with your name and include a complete citation. Grade will be based on content, format, timeliness, citations, and grammar.

 

Question 18:        Business

 

Peter and Andrew are brothers. Since childhood, they have wanted to convert a barn on their grandfather’s farm into a hunting and fishing lodge that would provide modest but comfortable accommodations for sportspersons using nearby recreational lands. Andrew has suggested that they bring his friend, Paul, into the business, as well. While Peter and Andrew would develop the property, Paul has experience in the hospitality industry and could manage the day-to-day operations. Peter and Andrew would also want to make the lodge available to local church groups for worship retreats. They haven’t yet discussed this with Paul, because they know he is not comfortable with most churches and their positions on social issues. The men are now discussing how to form the new business, and have narrowed their choices to a general partnership or a limited liability company (LLC). What would you advise, and why? Consider and discuss issues such as:

  • What personal liability will the owners have for the obligations of the business (contracts, debts, lawsuit judgments, etc.)
  • Should Paul be included as a co-owner, or in some other role? On what do you base that decision?
  • How would contributions to the new business be valued?
  • How would profits and losses be distributed?

Refer to the Assignment Instructions folder of the course for general directions and grading rubrics for Discussion Boards, including requirements for word length, scholarly sources, and integration of a Biblical worldview.

Identify your conclusion in the subject line of your post (General Partnership, LLC, etc.). Do not use attachments, as these are cumbersome and inhibit the discussion process.

Suggested Readings:

2 Corinthians 6:14–18 (For this passage, you should consult some trusted exegetical commentaries, many of which may be found on www.ccel.org.)

 

 

 

Discussion Board Forum Instructions

There are 3 Discussion Board (DB) Forum assignments in this course. Each DB Forum will be completed in 2 parts: 1) a minimum 300-word thread in response to the presented case study, and 2) minimum 100-word replies to the threads of 2 classmates. All posts must be supported by research and Biblical worldview sources.

Thread

To begin a discussion assignment, review the case study presented in the forum and consider the questions at the end. Research sources in support of your answers. At least 2 sources, cited in-text and in a reference list, in current APA format, must be used, and can include the Bible. Then, compose a post that addresses those questions and incorporates your research as well as Biblical integration. (Note that the reference list does not count toward the word count requirements.) The purpose of this research criterion is to encourage you to contribute academic content to the course; failure to do so will result in a substantial deduction from your grade. First-person voice is allowed, but your writing must otherwise be as professional as possible. It must be free of spelling, punctuation, usage, citation, and grammar errors.

When you have finished composing your post in a word processor, create a thread in the forum and copy and paste your content into the thread.

Replies

Read the threads posted by your classmates. Choose 2 threads, selecting at least 1 that presents the opposite conclusion of your thread. Compose a reply for each using a word processor. Each response must incorporate at least 1 scholarly source to support your conclusions and ideas, as well as Biblical application. Note that “I like what you said,” “that’s a good comment,” and “I disagree with your comment” do not count as a complete reply. State reasons that support your conclusions, adding additional ideas/thoughts, or providing alternative ideas/thoughts. Communication must follow Student Expectations.

With a thread opened on your computer screen, click on “Reply” and then copy and paste your reply into the message box. To enhance the dynamic nature of discussion, replies must be posted on different days (as stated above).

NOTE: Attachments must not be used for posts or replies because they inhibit the flow of discussion. Accordingly, posts and replies posted as attachments will be given a grade of 0.

Post-First

This course utilizes the Post-First feature in all Discussion Board Forums. This means you will only be able to read and interact with your classmates’ threads after you have submitted your thread in response to the provided prompt. For additional information on Post-First, click here for a tutorial.

Each forum discussion takes place over a period of 2 module/weeks:

 

 

Question 19:                 Business

 

Please assign the following parameters

  1. 1)  Requires separation of business and personal finances
  2. 2)  Flexible on the Tax Reporting
  3. 3)  Shareholders
  4. 4)  Ownership is in %
  5. 5)  Allowable in all US States
  6. 6)  Preferred by VCs
  7. 7)  Recognized Internationally
  8. 8)  More flexible in terms of management ownerships
  9. 9)  Business Pays Corporate Income Tax
  • 10)  Shareholders Must be US citizens
  • 11)  Can have unlimited amount of shareholders
  • 12)  Limited to 100 shareholders
  • 13)  Pass-Through taxes to the personal ones
  • 14)  Does not require filing paperwork with the State
  • 15)  Does not protect you from personal liability
  • 16)  Need a DBA (“Doing Business As”) if you are using a different name than incorporated while doing business

Possible Answers:



  1. LLC
  2. S-Corp
  3. C-Corp
  4. Sole Proprietorship
  5. LLC AND C-CORP
  6. LLC or S-Corp
  7. LLC or S-Corp or C-Corp

2- Fill the Blanks:

The total amount of shares the company is allowed to issue are [ ].

The number of shares that are issued or sold is called [ ] (or also referred to as [ ]) .

[ ] are not counted as part of the alloted shares because they represent a future right to purchase.

However, one must ensure that the sum of outstanding [ [ ].

Answers:

  • Outstanding
  • Allotted
  • Outstanding Options
  • Options + Shares
  • Authorized Shares
  • Authorized

3- To get a true picture of how many shares the company may have, if all goes well, one needs to use the concept of Full Dilution.

] do not exceed the total number of

To figure that, one needs to add:

Choose from the following:



Allocated Shares
Shares resulting from Convertible Preferred Stock Outstanding Options
Authorized Shares
Warrants
Preferred Stock

the largest to the smallest:

4- Order the amount of shares from

Possible Answers

  • Alloted Shares
  • Authorized Shares
  • Outstanding Shares
  • Issued Shares

————————————————————————————————————–

5- Using FlatIron (A company ) as an example, please fill in the blanks.
(feel free to use whatever search tools you my find, from CrunchBase to the company’s web site to general search and SEC/EDGAR website:

 

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The company was incorporated in (2 letter acronym for the State) the State of [ ] in the year (YYYY) [ ] and is HQ in the Great State of [ ].

———————————————————————————————————— ————

Using FlatIron (A company some of you cited in week-2) as an example, please fill in the blanks

Lead Round A investor was [ ] (2 letter acronym) and the total round was for $[ ]M (just the number, no decimals)

Lead Round C was [ ] for $[ ]M

Lead Round B investor was [ ] (2 letter acronym) and the total round was for $[ ]M (just

the number, no decimals)

 

 

 

Question 20:                 General Question

 

The CEO has asked you and Jane to create a chart that he might use as part of his decision process in deciding what countries in which to locate overseas factories. He also wants an accompanying recommendation summary from an HR perspective.

 

Question  21:                Health Care

 

Reflect back over the past eight weeks and describe how the achievement of the course outcomes in this course have prepared you to meet the MSN program outcome #, MSN Essential VIII, and Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies Professor and class, Program Outcome #4: Evaluate the design, implementation, and outcomes of strategies developed to meet healthcare needs (MSN Essentials III, IV, VIII). MSN Essential VIII: Clinical Prevention and Population Health for Improving Health •Recognizes that the master’s-prepared nurse applies and integrates broad, organizational, client-centered, and culturally appropriate concepts in the planning, delivery, management, and evaluation of evidence-based clinical prevention and population care and services to individuals, families, and aggregates/identified populations. Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies 1. Critically analyzes data and evidence for improving advanced nursing practice. 2. Integrates knowledge from the humanities and sciences within the context of nursing science. 3. Translates research and other forms of knowledge to improve practice processes and outcomes. 4. Develops new practice approaches based on the integration of research, theory, and practice knowledge.

 

Question 22:                 English

 

GILGAMESH & LIKE WATER FOR CHOCOLATE EXAM

MANDATORY QUESTION – Answer the following question for 20 points. Explain your response as completely as possible. Be sure to develop your answer with supporting details and examples from the readings.

Examine and evaluate the validity of Campbell’s three phases of the journey in Like Water for Chocolate and Gilgamesh: departure, fulfillment & return. Are all three parts necessary to complete the hero’s journey? Explain.

CHOOSE TWO GILGAMESH QUESTIONS – Answer any two of the following questions. Explain each answer as completely as possible. Be sure to develop each response with as many details as you can use for support. (20 points each)

  1. How are Enkidu and Gilgamesh characterized at the beginning of the story? How is Enkidu changed? How does he, in turn, affect Gilgamesh? What does this change for both characters symbolize?
  2. Even though the relationship between Gilgamesh and Enkidu is central to the text, there are a number of female characters. These include Shamhat (the “prostitute”), Rimat-Ninsun (Gilgamesh’s mother), Ishtar (Queen of Heaven, goddess of love and war), Siduri (the tavern keeper), and Utnapishtim’s wife. How are these women portrayed? What notions about the “nature” of women are embodied in the text?
  3. Washing, purifying, and changes of clothes often play important roles in rites of passage. Where do these activities occur in the Gilgamesh? What significance do you think they have?

CHOOSE TWO LIKE WATER FOR CHOCOLATE QUESTIONS – Answer any two of the following questions. Explain each answer as completely as possible. Be sure to develop each response with as many details as you can use for support. (20 points each)

  1. Discuss the magical properties of food and cooking in this book. In what way is food a central metaphor in the novel—what does it represent?
  2. Discuss the images of heat and fire (as a symbol of desire) found throughout the novel. How does heat affect different characters? Are heat and fire sources of strength, or destruction?
  3. Compare the two male figures—Pedro and John Brown. What is each of the men’s relationship with Tita? Why does she make the choice she does?

BONUS QUESTION – Answer the following bonus question for 5 additional points. Explain your response as completely as possible. Be sure to develop your answer with supporting details and examples from the play.

What do both Gilgamesh and Like Water for Chocolate portray about the nature of men and women? What does this suggest about the nature of men and women today?

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Question 23:                 Other

 

Instruction

In a 2-3-page reflection essay, 12 font double spaced, do not need to cite outside resources, why do you think that avoiding unwanted thoughts, feelings, and memories increases or sustains pain, symptoms, and distress? How do you think directly experiencing and engaging in pain helps reduce it? What does it mean to “experience and process small increments of non-overwhelming traumatic memory? ( Briere &Scott 103) can send pages from book as it should reflect book and personal opinions.

 

Question 24:        Chemistry

 

Solve the following problems, showing your work for all steps involved.

  1. Write the balanced equation for the positron emission from the Technetium-95 radioisotope.
  2. What are the five common types of radioactive decay? Detail the differences between them.
  3. What are the two types of nuclear reactions? Give an example of a balanced nuclear reaction for each type.

Use these questions as subheadings followed by your answers. This is not an APA paper, and as such, the title and reference pages are not required

 

Question 25:              Chemistry

 

Chapter 18: Amino Acids, Peptides, and Proteins

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The isoelectric point of an amino acid or protein is defined as the:

a.

ability of the amino acid or protein to carry both positive and negative charges.

b.

pH at which the amino acid or protein has a negative charge.

c.

pH at which the amino acid or protein has no net charge.

d.

folded structure of two or more peptides.

 

 

  1. C-reactive protein (CRP) is considered an acute phase protein (APP) because its concentration in blood is increased quickly during inflammation. An example of a negative APP would be:

a.

haptoglobin.

b.

alpha1-antitrypsin.

c.

fibrinogen.

d.

albumin.

 

 

 

  1. The acid-base properties of amino acids are important in their function. Amino acids and proteins are both referred to as ampholytes. This means:

a.

that these must be supplied by dietary intake.

b.

at neutral pH, they have balanced positive and negative charges.

c.

they have side chains.

d.

they are filtered by the kidney glomerulus and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.

 

 

 

  1. The quaternary structure of a protein is the:

a.

arrangement in space of the primary structure.

b.

association of other peptide chains with the main protein.

c.

three-dimensional shape of the polypeptide chain.

d.

order of the amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

 

  1. The plasma protein that demonstrates a decreased serum concentration during an intravascular hemolytic disorder and is used to identify this occurrence is:

a.

haptoglobin.

b.

ceruloplasmin.

c.

albumin.

d.

alpha1-fetoprotein.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following proteins is the most abundant plasma protein in early embryonic life and is also measured to assess hepatocellular carcinoma in adults?

a.

Alpha-fetoprotein

b.

Transferrin

c.

a1-Antitrypsin

d.

Ceruloplasmin

 

 

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  1. Hyperproteinemia is caused by:

a.

gastrointestinal disease.

b.

liver disease.

c.

kidney disease.

d.

dehydration.

 

 

 

  1. An increase in Bence-Jones protein in urine typically indicates the presence of paraproteins. What is Bence-Jones protein?

a.

An alpha2-globulin similar to C-reactive protein

b.

Immunoglobulin light chain fragments

c.

An acute phase reactant protein that appears during an infection

d.

Another name for IgM that activates complement

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following statements concerning albumin is not correct?

a.

Albumin is the most abundant protein in plasma.

b.

Albumin transports many substances in plasma.

c.

Albumin is a negative acute phase protein.

d.

Albumin is involved in plasma reduction and oxidation reactions.

 

 

  1. Known functions of proteins normally present in plasma include all of the following except:

a.

buffering.

b.

emulsification of fat.

c.

transport of iron and copper.

d.

oxygen transport.

 

 

  1. The serum protein that is analyzed to determine the presence of emphysema is:

a.

alpha1-antitrypsin.

b.

ceruloplasmin.

c.

alpha fetoprotein.

d.

haptoglobin.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following proteins are important in the regulation of circulating iron?

a.

Haptoglobin

b.

Ceruloplasmin

c.

Transferrin

d.

Both b and c

 

 

 

  1. You operate a laboratory that receives many patient samples from the renal clinic next door. These patients have serious kidney problems, with causes that range from diabetes and IgA nephropathy to Fanconi syndrome. Would you expect to see elevated or decreased total urine protein from the patients that go to this clinic?

a.

Elevated

b.

Decreased

 

 

 

  1. Albumin concentration in blood can be analyzed in an empty blood collection tube containing no anticoagulant. This means that you are analyzing:

a.

serum that has been obtained when no anticoagulants are mixed with whole blood and then centrifuged.

b.

plasma that has been obtained when no anticoagulants are mixed with whole blood and then centrifuged.

c.

serum that has been obtained by mixing anticoagulants with whole blood and then centrifuged.

d.

plasma obtained by mixing anticoagulants with whole blood and then centrifuging the sample.

 

 

 

  1. Serum proteins or protein complexes that precipitate at temperatures lower than normal core body temperature and that, if precipitated in tissues, result in vasculitis and ischemic injury to peripheral tissues are referred to as:

a.

essential amino acids.

b.

paraproteins.

c.

amyloids.

d.

cryoglobulins.

 

 

 

  1. At a physiological pH of 7.4, most amino acids:

a.

are positively charged.

b.

have no net charge.

c.

are negatively charged.

d.

precipitate out of solution.

 

 

 

  1. At a pH of 4.0, the:

a.

carboxyl and amino groups of an amino acid become unprotonated, causing the amino acid to have a net negative charge.

b.

carboxyl and amino groups of an amino acid become protonated, causing the amino acid to have a net positive charge.

c.

carboxyl group of an amino acid is dissociated and the amino group is protonated, giving the amino acid no net charge.

d.

amino group of an amino acid is dissociated and the carboxyl group is protonated, giving the amino acid no net charge.

 

 

 

  1. The element of protein structure that involves the folding of the polypeptide in three dimensions and the formation of disulfide bonds between cysteines is the _____ structure.

a.

primary

b.

secondary

c.

tertiary

d.

quaternary

 

 

  1. Refractometry is a rapid, semiquantitative method of total protein determination. Which of the following will lead to a faulty interpretation of protein values obtained by refractometry?

a.

Serum protein less that 3.5 g/dL

b.

Lipemia

c.

Bilirubinemia

d.

All of the above

 

 

 

  1. Immunofixation electrophoresis:

a.

combines the techniques of zone electrophoresis, isotachophoresis, isoelectric focusing, and gel electrophoresis in small-bore fused silica capillary tubes.

b.

involves exposure of electrophoresed proteins to antisera against different immunoglobulin heavy and light chains with resultant precipitation.

c.

involves transfer of separated proteins to a strip of nitrocellulose by electroblotting followed by an immunochemical reaction with a specific antibody.

d.

uses electrophoresis in two dimensions to assess global changes in protein expression.

 

 

 

  1. A malignant neoplasm that is composed of plasma cells that exhibit monoclonality and are diffusely present in the bone marrow is referred to as:

a.

multiple sclerosis.

b.

monoclonal immunoglobulinemia.

c.

multiple myeloma.

d.

plasmacytoma.

 

 

  1. The addition of sulfosalicylic acid for a qualitative turbidimetric protein determination of a urine specimen is done to:

a.

dilute the protein in the specimen, because it is typically high and beyond the range of standards.

b.

remove interfering substances from the specimen.

c.

increase the volume of the specimen, because it is difficult to obtain adequate volume.

d.

precipitate a protein in the specimen that might be missed by albumin urine dipstick methods.

 

 

 

  1. Analyses of free light chains, particularly immunoassays that measure the ratio of free k- to free l-light chains, are sensitive indicators of:

a.

disorders of immunoglobulin synthesis such as multiple myeloma.

b.

albumin increase such as that observed in dehydration.

c.

b-globulin disorders such as decreased LDL.

d.

increased C-reactive protein such as that observed following myocardial infarction.

 

 

 

  1. The reference method for protein determination that converts nitrogen to ammonium ions by acid digestion is the:

a.

biuret method.

b.

refractometry method.

c.

Kjeldahl method.

d.

absorption of light at 280 nm.

 

 

 

  1. The proteins that are deposited in tissues as aggregates and that form b-sheet structures with eventual damage to the tissues are referred to as:

a.

paraproteins.

b.

complement proteins.

c.

amyloid.

d.

Bence-Jones protein.

 

 

 

  1. A healthy 27-year-old pregnant woman in the second trimester sees her obstetrician for a routine visit. Blood and urine samples are obtained. Total serum protein and protein electrophoresis are performed on the blood sample and total urine protein is also analyzed. The results of the serum protein electrophoresis indicate a substantial increase in the a-globulin region of the electrophoretogram. Which of the a-globulins might this be and why?

a.

It is likely alpha1-antitrypsin because of the presence of increased surfactant.

b.

It is likely alpha2-macroglobulin because of decreased serum estrogen.

c.

It is likely alpha1-acid glycoprotein because of the presence of progesterone.

d.

It is likely alpha1-fetoprotein due to fetal development.

 

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  1. A tumor of plasmacytoid cells that is diagnosed as Waldenström macroglobulinemia produces a paraprotein that is an:

a.

IgA.

b.

IgE.

c.

IgG.

d.

IgM.

 

 

 

  1. The most abundant complement protein component that is common to all three pathways of complement is:

a.

C1.

b.

C3.

c.

C5.

d.

C7.

 

 

 

  1. What is the globulin concentration of a specimen given the following information: total protein, 6.5 g/dL, and albumin, 3.8 g/dL?

a.

2.7 g/dL

b.

10.3 g/dL

c.

1.7 g/dL

d.

You cannot determine the globulin concentration from the information given here.

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

Using each answer only once, match the metabolic disorder with the related plasma protein abnormality.

a.

Wilson disease

b.

Intravascular hemolysis

c.

Inflammation

d.

Chronic renal disease

 

 

  1. Elevated serum C-reactive protein

 

  1. Elevated retinol-binding protein

 

  1. Decreased serum ceruloplasmin

 

  1. Decreased haptoglobin

 

 

 

Question 26:                 Chemistry

 

Chapter 14: Enzyme and Rate Analyses

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In regard to the expression of enzyme activity, a katal is:

a.

a unit that describes the amount of substrate in moles converted to product in 1 minute.

b.

a unit that describes the amount of enzyme that is consumed in 1 minute.

c.

a unit that describes the amount of enzyme that will catalyze a mole of substrate in 1 second.

d.

the substrate concentration at which the enzyme yields half the maximum velocity of the reaction.

 

 

 

  1. When a coenzyme binds to an enzyme, the enzyme portion of the resulting molecule is referred to as the:

a.

activator.

b.

holoenzyme.

c.

apoenzyme.

d.

prosthetic group.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following is a correct statement describing a property of an enzyme?

a.

Enzyme activity is not altered by heat denaturation.

b.

Enzymes affect the rate of a chemical reaction by being altered to fit into the active site of a substrate.

c.

Enzymes are protein catalysts that decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

d.

Enzymes contain a site to which the product binds during an enzymatic reaction.

 

 

 

  1. Statin drugs lower cholesterol by competitive inhibition of the cholesterol-synthesizing enzyme HMG-CoA reductase. A competitive inhibitor binds:

a.

the enzyme at a site other than the active center, thereby decreasing the Vmax of the reaction.

b.

to the active center of the enzyme, with no effect on the Vmax of the reaction.

c.

to the entire enzyme-substrate complex, thereby decreasing the Km.

d.

to the active center of the enzyme, thereby causing the Km to increase.

 

 

  1. How does pH alter an enzymatic reaction rate?

a.

By affecting key amino acids in the enzyme protein at the active center and other sites

b.

By causing thermal inactivation through reconfiguration of the prosthetic group

c.

By promoting the formation of the most active state of the enzyme

d.

By decreasing the Km needed for maximum velocity to be reached

 

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  1. Regarding enzyme kinetics, the substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is equal to 0.5 Vmax is referred to as:

a.

Km.

b.

Vmax association constant.

c.

1/n.

d.

first order concentration.

 

 

ANS:  A

Km, the Michaelis-Menten constant, is the experimentally determined substrate concentration at which v = 0.5 Vmax.

 

DIF:    1                    REF:   Page 224-225                                 OBJ:   1 | 10

 

  1. Zero-order kinetics occurs during the beginning of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction when a substrate concentration is high and the rate of the reaction is _____ on the _____ concentration.

a.

dependent; substrate

b.

dependent; coenzyme

c.

independent; substrate

d.

independent; enzyme

 

 

 

  1. True isoenzymes, which are multiple forms of an enzyme that possesses the ability to catalyze an enzyme’s characteristic reaction, are formed by:

a.

alteration of a carbohydrate side chain.

b.

the existence of more than one gene locus coding for the structure of the enzyme protein.

c.

association with other proteins and cofactors.

d.

changes in the phosphorylation pattern of associated proteins.

 

 

  1. During embryonic and fetal development, changes in isoenzyme distribution patterns are common. These changes are thought to result from:

a.

mutation-driven gene expression that reoccurs in adult malignancies.

b.

altered production due to a genetic defect.

c.

increased production and secretion from all undifferentiated proliferating cells.

d.

differential expression and changes in the relative activities of gene loci within developing cells.

 

 

 

  1. Regarding enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis-Menten plot of the relationship between reaction velocity and substrate concentration is correctly expressed as which one of the following formulae?

a.

n = Vmax[S]/Km + [S]

b.

n = Km[S]/Vmax + [S]

c.

n = Vmax + [S]/Km[S]

d.

n = Km + [S]/Vmax[S]

 

 

 

  1. Activators increase the rates of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. In some cases, these activators interact with the nonenzymatic component of the reaction such as the substrate. However, in most cases the activator:

a.

acts as an uncompetitive inhibitor by binding to the product.

b.

binds to the enzyme similar to the enzyme/substrate combination.

c.

alters the enzyme’s chemical properties to produce an altered product.

d.

destroys enzyme activity by denaturing the protein.

 

 

 

  1. In a continuous-monitoring assessment of an enzyme reaction rate, which one of the following is the preferable measurement?

a.

Measurement of the decreasing concentration of substrate

b.

Measurement of the increasing concentration of product

c.

Direct measurement of enzyme protein

d.

Calculation of Km and Vmax

 

 

 

  1. When determining the activity of an enzyme in serum as in a bisubstrate reaction, measurement of two different substances can be made. One measurement determines the decrease in substrate concentration acted upon by the enzyme and the other:

a.

analyzes the disappearance of enzyme used in the reaction.

b.

measures the increase in the concentration of a second substrate.

c.

measures the increase in the concentration of the second product formed.

d.

measures the amount of enzyme/substrate complex formed.

 

 

 

  1. In the reciprocal plot pictured below, the solid line indicates a normal enzyme reaction with no inhibition, and the dotted line indicates a decrease in Vmaxand no change in Km. This plot is an example of which type of inhibition?

a.

Competitive

b.

Noncompetitive

c.

Uncompetitive

d.

The type of inhibition cannot be determined with this information.

 

 

 

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  1. The reciprocal plot pictured below indicates a decrease in Vmax and a decrease in Km. The solid line indicates a normal enzymatic reaction. What type of enzymatic inhibition is this?

a.

Competitive

b.

Noncompetitive

c.

Uncompetitive

d.

The type of inhibition cannot be determined with this information.

 

 

 

  1. Regarding measurement of a property related to substrate concentration such as fluorescence production, the assay that, although more technically demanding, theoretically provides the most accurate measurement of enzyme activity is the:

a.

fixed-time assay.

b.

equilibrium method.

c.

discontinuous-monitoring assay.

d.

two-point kinetic method.

 

 

 

  1. An example of a posttranslational modification of an enzyme that produces an enzyme isoform would be:

a.

association of different types of subunits in various combinations in an oligomer.

b.

modification of genes at different loci.

c.

alteration of carbohydrate side chains.

d.

the existence of different allelic genes.

 

 

 

  1. Immobilized enzymes are used analytically in various electrochemical techniques. The use of an ion-selective electrode that is coated with an enzyme that produces ions when placed in a substrate solution is a type of:

a.

potentiometric measurement.

b.

immunoassay.

c.

equilibrium method.

d.

consecutive enzymatic reaction.

 

 

 

  1. Any condition, such as extreme temperature or extremes of pH, which changes the shape of the enzyme protein structure generally causes loss of enzymatic activity. This is referred to as:

a.

activation.

b.

inhibition.

c.

denaturation.

d.

optimization.

 

 

 

  1. In regard to factors that govern the rate of an enzymatic reaction, first-order reaction kinetics occur at that part of the reaction during which the rate of the reaction is:

a.

directly proportional to the substrate concentration.

b.

proportional to the concentration of the enzyme present.

c.

independent of either the enzyme or substrate concentration.

d.

dependent upon the pH and temperature of the system.

 

 

 

  1. The use of several enzymatic reactions linked together to provide a means of measuring the activity of the first enzyme or the concentration of the initial substrate is referred to as a(n):

a.

equilibrium reaction.

b.

consecutive enzymatic reaction.

c.

self-indicating reaction.

d.

enzyme immunoassay.

 

 

  1. The interaction of the amino acid side chains with the arrangement of the a-helices and b-sheets to form a three-dimensional protein structure is called the _____ structure of the protein.

a.

primary

b.

secondary

c.

tertiary

d.

quaternary

 

 

 

  1. All enzymes are classified to one of six classes based on the reaction they catalyze. Based on this classification, creatine kinase is a member of which one of the following enzyme classes?

a.

Hydrolase

b.

Oxidoreductase

c.

Ligase

d.

Transferase

 

 

 

  1. Varying different factors and studying their effects on an enzymatic reaction rate in the assessment of most favorable reaction conditions for an enzyme assay is referred to as:

a.

optimization.

b.

standardization.

c.

quality control.

d.

variable control.

 

 

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. In an enzyme immunoassay such as ELISA, the specificity of the labeled enzyme is the most important aspect of the measurement.

 

 

Question 27:                 Chemistry

 

Chapter 06: Specimen Collection, Processing, and Other Preanalytical Variables

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When a coagulated blood sample is separated by centrifugation, the liquid component is separated from the cells. This “serum” is the:

a.

liquid component with all clotting factors present in it.

b.

liquid component with no clotting factors in it.

c.

unclotted cellular component.

d.

clot.

 

 

 

  1. An example of an uncontrollable preanalytical variable would be:

a.

improper specimen collection.

b.

preanalytical errors.

c.

prolonged bed rest.

d.

an individual’s age.

 

 

 

  1. The best use of a saliva specimen would be for which one of the following analyses?

a.

Measurement of blood group substances to determine secretor status and genotype

b.

Determination of whether the specimen is an effusion or an exudate

c.

Early gestational age diagnosis of inherited genetic disorders

d.

Characterization of the type of arthritis present in an individual

 

 

  1. Hemolysis will cause potassium _____ when analyzed.

a.

and lactate dehydrogenase (LD) values to appear increased

b.

value to appear increased and LD value to appear decreased

c.

value to appear decreased and LD value to appear increased

d.

and LD values to appear decreased

 

 

  1. The type of urine specimen that is best for detection of abnormal amounts of certain analytes such as chorionic gonadotropin for pregnancy testing is a:

a.

random and untimed specimen.

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24-hour collection.

c.

clean, early morning, fasting specimen.

d.

catheter specimen.

 

 

 

  1. Arthrocentesis is a technique used to collect:

a.

pleural fluid.

b.

blood.

c.

synovial fluid.

d.

amniotic fluid.

 

 

 

  1. An amniotic fluid specimen for bilirubin analysis is received in the laboratory in a clear plastic collection tube. How will this affect the results of the bilirubin analysis?

a.

There will be no effect on the bilirubin analysis results, because this specimen is properly collected.

b.

Because the tube is not darkened, light will cause the bilirubin to be photo-degraded and the results will be falsely decreased.

c.

Because there is no additive in the tube, the amniotic fluid cells will hemolyze, leading to a false increase in bilirubin.

d.

Because the tube is made of plastic, the amniotic fluid will clot, and no analysis can be performed on a clotted sample.

 

 

 

  1. As an anticoagulant, heparin acts to:

a.

chelate calcium.

b.

inhibit platelet aggregation.

c.

antagonize vitamin K.

d.

activate antithrombin.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following anticoagulants is considered unacceptable for a blood sample that will be used for DNA amplification in the polymerase chain reaction?

a.

Heparin

b.

EDTA

c.

Iodoacetate

d.

Acid citrate dextrose

 

 

 

  1. An individual has several laboratory tests ordered and is having blood collected. After applying the tourniquet, the phlebotomist has to answer the phone and write down a message, leaving the tourniquet in place for approximately 3 minutes. How will this affect this individual’s serum composition of total protein and potassium?

a.

Both will be increased.

b.

Total protein will be increased and potassium will be decreased.

c.

Total protein will be decreased and potassium will be increased.

d.

Both will be decreased.

 

 

 

  1. An individual has several laboratory tests ordered and is having blood collected. After applying the tourniquet, the phlebotomist has to answer the phone and write down a message, leaving the tourniquet in place for approximately 3 minutes. How will this affect this individual’s serum composition of bilirubin?

a.

It will be increased.

b.

It will be decreased

c.

It will not be affected.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following analytes shows no difference in composition between a serum and a plasma specimen?

a.

Lactate dehydrogenase

b.

Potassium

c.

Cholesterol

d.

Total protein

 

 

  1. A blood collection tube containing a specific amount of additive is only half filled with blood instead of being completely filled. Will this collection affect laboratory test results?

a.

There will be no effect on the results because the additive is “calibrated” for any amount of blood in the tube.

b.

There will be a significant effect on the test results because the additive must be mixed with a full tube of blood to achieve its appropriate effect.

 

 

 

  1. When collecting a timed urine specimen for laboratory analysis:

a.

all of the urine must be collected at once into one large container instead of using smaller separate containers that are emptied into the large container.

b.

the container used for collection must be maintained at room temperature throughout the entire collection period.

c.

it is acceptable and best practice to collect the urine into one container containing two different mixed preservatives if more than one test is ordered.

d.

the individual’s bladder must be emptied first at the beginning of the time of collection, and this urine is discarded.

 

 

 

  1. A skin puncture of an individual’s finger is ordered for hematocrit analysis and is to be collected into a capillary tube. It is cold in the phlebotomy area, and the phlebotomist notices that the individual appears cold and pale. What should the phlebotomist do to stimulate blood circulation to the finger so an acceptable finger stick specimen will be obtained?

a.

Slap the individual’s hand to warm it up.

b.

Tie a tourniquet around the individual’s finger.

c.

Warm the finger for 3 minutes using a warming device.

d.

Massage the finger and hand.

 

 

 

  1. An example of a preanalytical error would be:

a.

mislabeling a tube of blood with an incorrect name.

b.

using expired reagents in an analysis.

c.

sending the test results to the incorrect physician.

d.

failing to run controls with unknown samples.

 

 

 

  1. The best additive in a collection tube for enhancing the vitality and recovery of white blood cells for isolation of genomic DNA is:

a.

sodium citrate.

b.

heparin.

c.

oxalate.

d.

acid citrate dextrose.

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

Using each answer only once, match the color of the evacuated blood collection tube stopper with the additive in that tube.

a.

Yellow

b.

Lavender

c.

Gray

d.

Green

 

 

 

 

 

Question 28:                 Law

 

25 out of 25 points

Explain in your own words the purpose for Rule 7.6 and give an example of the specific type of conduct that is prohibited by the rule.

 

25 out of 25 points

Select three scriptures that support the purpose and prohibitions contained in Rule 7. Explain the moral principles contained in the scriptures selected that support the ethical principles contained in Chapter 7.

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 7.4 prohibits a lawyer from stating or implying that the lawyer is certified as a specialist in a particular field of law in which no certification has been issued. How is this rule different from rule 7.1? According to this rule explain whether a lawyer is prohibited from advertising that the lawyer has expertise in a certain field when there is no certifying agency?

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 7.1 reads, “A lawyer shall not make a false or misleading communication about the lawyer or the lawyer’s services. A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.” Explain in your own words the purpose of this rule. Also, explain the purpose and meaning of the last phrase “A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.”

 

Question 29:                 Law

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.3, in part, declaims “The lawyer shall not give legal advice to an unrepresented person, other than the advice to secure counsel, if the lawyer knows or reasonably should know that the interests of such a person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interests of the client.” What is the duty of a lawyer towards unrepresented persons? To what extent may a lawyer advise an unrepresented person? At what point is a lawyer-client relationship formed?

 

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.2 says “In representing a client, a lawyer shall not communicate about the subject of the representation with a person the lawyer knows to be represented by another lawyer in the matter, unless the lawyer has the consent of the other lawyer or is authorized to do so by law or a court order.” What is meant by “authorized to do so by law or a court order?” What are some examples of this authorization? Furthermore, list several examples of what would constitute forbidden communication with a represented party. Detail why this rule is required.

 

 

15 out of 25 points

In your own words, explain the purpose for the rules governing “Transactions with Persons Other Than Clients.” Select two scriptures that support the ethical principles contained in this section explaining how the scriptures support the specific ethical principles.

 

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.1b states that “a lawyer shall not knowingly: fail to disclose a material fact to a third person when discourse is necessary to avoid assisting a criminal or fraudulent act by a client, unless disclosure is prohibited by Rule 1.6.” What is meant by a material fact? What is the intent and purpose of this rule? How does this rule correlate with scriptural commands towards interactions with each other?

 

 

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Question 30:        Law

 

State the general purpose for the Model Rules contained in the reading and study materials. Then analyze the specific rules governing “Meritorious Claims and Contentions,” “Expediting Litigation,” and “Candor toward the Tribunal.” Include the purpose for each rule, specific examples of when the rules are violated, and the biblical principles that coincide with the prohibitions that are contained in the rules.

 

 

Question 31:        Political Science

 

Topic – Public Housing

Objectives:

  • To learn to find and analyze research to assist in examination of critical social problems.
  • To learn to apply research to the development of responses to critical social problems.
  • To learn and develop skills for writing scholarly papers in the APA style.

Article:

  • These papers will be written on an article of your choosing on the assigned topic.
  • Must be from a Peer Reviewed Journal (research).
  • Research* what is considered a “Peer Reviewed Journal”.
  • Article must present a research study with findings applicable to your topic.

*There are several search engines that focus on academic (scholarly) writing –I like “Google Scholar”

Find 5 articles from your research that fit the requirements of the short paper above.

  • You will list the articles in the bibliography of your Short Paper using the appropriate APA style.
  • Select one of these articles about which you write you Short Paper for submission.
  • Follow the Short Paper Instructions in the “Writing Tools” module.

Paper:

  • 2 pages in length–the goal is to be clear and concise.
  • 1 inch margins –top, bottom, left, and right
  • 5 spacing
  • 11 point
  • Calibri font

 

Question 32:                 Business

 

GROUP PROJECT

 

Scenario:  Your team has been hired to provide financial analysis for a start-up company, Bobble in Style, which produces customized bobble heads. The bobble heads are made out of less rigid materials and are more true to life than those of competitors. The company inventors, Mr. and Mrs. Lee, are going to pitch their idea to Shark Tank in a few months, but first they need to have a better understanding of the business financials. The Lee’s are already creating and selling their product from their home-based office and work area. They know what costs are involved with making the bobble heads on a small scale, but they don’t have an understanding of financial figures beyond basic costs. They need you to make sense of various financial figures for them.

The Project:  There are several financial analysis tasks involved with this project, which are outlined below (#1-8). Once you have worked through each task, you will need to produce a PowerPoint presentation to introduce and highlight your findings. Your PowerPoint presentation should include a title slide, an executive summary slide(s), subsequent slides that illustrate your findings, any additional recommendations that you would like to make, and a conclusion slide. The PowerPoint presentation should be approximately 15-25 slides in length. Include notes in the presentation as needed.  You will also need to create a written executive summary (one page in length). Your final submission will include the PowerPoint presentation, the executive summary, and an Excel file with relevant calculations. The specific financial analysis tasks and related information are listed below (#1-8).

Working in a Group:  Your instructor will assign you into a group during Week 4. This allows time for students to drop/add during the first 3 weeks of the course. Starting early will allow for adequate time to develop timelines and assign responsibilities as a team. Group Projects provide the opportunity to work with your classmates and are a necessary part of the Financial Management workforce. Please use this occasion to demonstrate your strengths and allow group members to do the same. Critically thinking and creativity are vital to your success in the work place and this project is a great chance to build those talents.

It is a group project so you will need to coordinate with various members of your group on how to progress with the project. Often students are reluctant to work in groups, but as you have experienced in the workplace, working in a group will not be an option. You will learn together and find out more about flexibility and sharing of responsibilities with the project. All team members should contribute to the financial analysis tasks. A timeline for completion of these tasks should be determined by the team. The completed PowerPoint presentation should be cohesive and professional in appearance. You may decide to split the Executive Summary and PowerPoint presentations between all members, or you may decide to have 2 students focus on the Executive Summary Word document and content for the associated PowerPoint slide while the rest of the team members focus on the PowerPoint presentation. The decision should be based on what works best for your team. Also determine a timeline for this portion of the assignment. Consider how editing will be done within your team. Use the grading rubric to help guide your work!

 

  1. Financial Statements: Develop an Income Statement for 20XX, Cash Flow Statement for 20XX, and Balance Sheet as of the end of 20XX based on the data provided below for year 20XX. All sales are collected when the sale is made and all expenses are paid when the expense is incurred. Explain the purpose of each financial statement.
    1. Income Statement Data for 20XX:
      • Units produced and sold = 420
      • Sales ($80 per unit selling price) = $33600
      • Cost of goods sold ($30 per unit, all variable costs) = $12600
      • Labor = $0 (Mr. and Mr. Lee were the only ones working and did not pay themselves)
      • Advertising fees =$2000
      • Bank fees = $150
      • Phone/internet = $1200
      • Shipping ($3 per unit) = $1260
      • Utilities = $900
      • Office supplies = $800
      • Interest expense on note payable = $350
      • Depreciation expense (straight line) = $800
      • Income tax rate = 26 %
    2. Other Financial Data for 20XX:
      • Proceeds from sale of equipment = $3000. The equipment originally cost $1000 and had accumulated depreciation of $200.
      • Purchase of equipment = $1600 (The machine is purchased on the last day of 20XX so no depreciation expense is recorded.)
      • Repayment of note payable = $5000
      • Consider any data relevant from the income statement.
    3. Balance Sheet Data for Beginning of 20XX:
      • Cash and cash equivalents = $10000
      • Accounts receivable = $0 (Cash is received at time of sale)
      • Raw materials inventory = $10500
      • Equipment = $5000 (This includes the $1000 cost of the equipment sold in 20XX).
      • Accumulated depreciation = $1,000 (This includes the accumulated depreciation of 200 for the equipment sold in 20XX.
      • Accounts payable = $0 (Cash is paid at the time of purchase.)
      • Note payable = $5000 (This is the note payable which is repaid in 20XX)
      • Common stock = $15000
      • Retained earnings = $4500

 

 

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  1. Financial Ratios: Calculate the following financial ratios and explain the meaning of the results.
    1. Net Profit Margin
    2. Quick Ratio
    3. Debt-to-Equity Ratio
  2. Cost Classification: The Lee’s have provided you with the following costs and relevant information that are assumed for year 20XY.
  3. Classify each of the costs (a. through j.) below under C. as a variable cost or a fixed cost.
  4. Explain the importance of distinguishing between variable and fixed costs.
  5. Prepare a budgeted income statement, assuming 600 units to be produced and sold, a per unit selling price of $85, an income tax rate of 28% and the following information.
    1. Cost of goods sold of $35 per unit
    2. Labor = $400/month
      • One part-time employee will be hired to take care of packaging and shipping. This employee will be paid $10 per hour. He or she is estimated to work 40 hours total per month.
    3. Advertising fees = $3,000
    4. Bank fees = $200
    5. Phone/internet = $150 per month
    6. Shipping = $3 per unit
    7. Utilities = $100 per month
    8. Office Supplies = $900
    9. Conference Exhibitor Fee = $3000
    10. Travel Expenses for Conference (e.g. airfare, meals, taxi) = $1200
  6. Net Present Value: The Lees are considering adding a new piece of equipment that will speed up the process of building the bobble heads. The cost of the piece of equipment is $42000. It is expected that the new piece of equipment will lead to cash flows of $17000, $29000, and $40000 over the next 3 years. If the appropriate discount rate is 12%, what is the NPV of this investment? Explain the findings.
  7. Budget Preparation: The Lees believe that production and sales could double after being on Shark Tank which is scheduled in December of 20XY. They want to be prepared for this. Based on the budgeted income statement calculated above for 20XY, create a new budgeted income for 20XZ assuming that the production and sales is double the level of 20XY.
  8. Incremental Analysis: If production does increase dramatically after their presentation on Shark Tank, the Lees will need more space for production. They have two options. Option 1 is to rent out a spacious warehouse nearby. If they pursue this option, there rent will be $1200 per month and utilities are estimated to cost an additional $350 per month. Their second option, Option 2, is to rent a smaller storefront space that is also nearby. The storefront rent is $1350 per month. However, utilities will likely only cost an additional $150 per month. They want to compare their options over one year’s time (since each rental contract is a 1 year commitment). What is the incremental analysis if the Lees choose Option 1 over Option 2?
  9. Break-Even Analysis: You have been asked to calculate how many units need to be sold to break even, based on the costs provided in task #3. Assume that only one conference will be attended and the estimated expenses associated with this conference are on target. Use the information in task #3 except do not consider taxes.)
  10. Contribution Margin: Based on the Break-Even Analysis just performed, what is the contribution margin per unit and the total contribution margin?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 33:        Mathematics

 

Must complete all the parts to this problem: PART 1: Output the table from Excel, copy and paste the table into your word document. PART 2: State the Null and Alternative Hypothesis for the one-way ANOVA. PART 3: What is your decision for the test? State if the Null Hypothesis is rejected or not, then write 1 concluding sentence why using the p-value. PART 4: A ta 5% significance level, Is Earnings Per Share significantly different for chemical and petroleum companies? To get full credit for this question, you must give the value of the LSD along with the mean difference. Then write 1 – 2 sentences answering the question.

 

 

NURSING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

Which of the following is considered a component of lipids?
A. Plasma cells
B. Fatty acids
C. Nucleic acids
D. Zinc

  1. Fatty acids

Down’s syndrome affects chromosome ____.

chromosome 21

Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart?

Right ventricle

Excessive consumption of alcohol is most likely to damage which organ of the body over a long period of time?

Liver

Which of the following is not considered a type of radiation ray?
A. Gamma
B. Beta
C. Alpha
D. Infrared

  1. Infrared

A molecule of hemoglobin can hold how many molecules of oxygen in the blood for transport?

 

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4

Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing?
A. Pump handle motion
B. Lever action
C. Inspiration
D. Expiration

  1. Pump handle motion

Animals that eat meat almost exclusively are known as:

Carnivores

The physical expressions of a gene are known as an organism’s:

Phenotype

Neurons connect together at a ______.

Synapse

. Which of the following is another word for the kneecap in the human body?
A. Pisiform
B. Meniscus
C. Popliteal bursa
D. Patella

  1. Patella

Which of the following describes the shoulder joint
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Saddle joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Pivot joint

  1. Ball and socket joint

The organ of Corti is found in what area of the body?

Ear

The condition of rickets is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?

Vit. D

A steroid is considered a ______.

Lipid

The X cranial nerve is the ____ nerve.

Vagus

Which of the following pH ranges is a strong base?
A. 1.3-2.0
B. 4.5-5.2
C. 7.1-9.0
D. 11.2-12.0

  1. 11.2-12.0

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation?

Left Ventricle

The movement of food through the intestines is known as:

Peristalsis

The enzyme maltase does the following:
A. Breaks down lactose to glucose
B. Turns glucose into maltose
C. Breaks down maltose to glucose
D. Turns glucose into lactose

  1. Breaks down maltose to glucose

High levels of bilirubin in the blood stream can result in:

Jaundice

The symbol B on the periodic table stands for:

Boron

The symbol Mn on the periodic table stands for:

Manganese

The symbol Ca on the periodic table stands for:

Calcium

Vinegar is also known as:

Acetic acid

_____ reactions produce heat.

Exothermic

Which of the following match the definition: The pressure (P) is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of a gas.
A. Archimedes’ principle
B. Charles’ law
C. Boyle’s law
D. Anderson’s principle

  1. Boyle’s law

The combination of sodium and chlorine to form NaCL is considered a/an ___ bond.

Ionic

Outer shell electrons are known as ______ electrons.

Valence

P1V1 = P2V2 represents:

Boyle’s law

Which of the following is not considered a primary color of light?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow

  1. Yellow

The two bones found in the area between the knee and ankle in humans are known as:

Fibula and Tibia

When the chromosomes line up in mitosis this is known as which phase?

Metaphase

Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive?

Lysosomes

Organs repair themselves through a process of?

Mitosis

Which of the following is considered a model for enzyme action?

Lock and Key model

Which of the following statements about enzymes is not true?
A. Enzymes are catalysts.
B. Almost all enzymes are proteins.
C. Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH.
D. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions.

  1. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions.

Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true?
A. Prostaglandins promote inflammation.
B. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels.
C. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla.
D. Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever.

  1. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels.

Prostaglandins :

When tissues are damaged, white blood cells flood the site to try to minimize tissue destruction. Prostaglandins are produced as a result.PGE2 causes uterine contractions and has been used to induce labour.

Hardening of the arteries is known as:

Atheriosclerosis

The top number on a blood pressure reading indicates:

Systolic pressure : The first number is called the systolic pressure and is the pressure when your heart is pumping out blood. The second lower number is called the diastolic pressure and is the pressure when the heart is resting.

Litmus paper that is blue will turn/stay _____ in the presence of a strong base.

Blue

Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs?

Surfactant

Which of the following is not considered a function of the kidneys?
A. Secretion
B. Reabsorption
C. Transport
D. Filtration

  1. Transport

The functional unit of the kidney is known as?

Nephron

Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas?
A. Volume
B. Mass
C. Pressure
D. Particles

  1. Particles

Liquids that evaporate quickly are known as _____ liquids.

Volatile

What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth?

Esophagus

Vacuole :

Provides storage space for cell

Ribosome :

Site of protein synthesis

Cell membrane :

Is selectively permeable

Mitochondrion :

Site of energy production

Nucleus :

Holds the DNA of the cell

Enzymes :

are made of proteins and can speed up reactions.

A cell is in a solution in which the concentration of solutes is higher inside the cell than outside the cell. The cell will likely :

swell up and possibly burst. Hypotonic

Yeast is used to make bread rise because :

the yeast carries out fermentation, which produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Which statement below does not have the same truth value as the others?
(A) RNA is single-stranded.
(B) RNA contains uracil.
(C) DNA codes for proteins.
(D) DNA cannot be altered.

(D) DNA cannot be altered.

Which of the following is a way in which mitosis differs from meiosis?
(A) Mitosis takes place to form sex cells.
(B) Meiosis creates cells with half the number of chromosomes than the original cell.
(C) Telophase does not take place in mitosis.
(D) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis occur via mitosis.

(B) Meiosis creates cells with half the number of chromosomes than the original cell.

The ribs are _____________ to the lungs in the human body.

anterior

Which of the following statements is true?
(A) The digestive system can do its job without the use of accessory organs.
(B) The digestive system uses sphincters to contain substances being digested at certain points of the digestive tract.
(C) Mechanical digestion is more important than chemical digestion.
(D) The juices that are used to digest food can be effective at any point along the digestive tract.

(B) The digestive system uses sphincters to contain substances being digested at certain points tract.

The heart and veins have valves to ensure that :

blood flows in only one direction.

Of the processes below, which one is a different level of defense from the other three?
(A) a low pH in the stomach
(B) cilia present in the trachea
(C) cells within the body recognizing a pathogen
(D) mucus present in the nasal cavity

(C) cells within the body recognizing a pathogen

The movement of air through the respiratory system depends on :

the movements of the diaphragm.

Which pathway/order is correct?
(A) sperm: testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra
(B) egg: vagina, uterus, ovary, fallopian tube
(C) development: morula, blastula, zygote, egg
(D) development: fertilization, ovulation, ejaculation

(A) sperm: testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Vitamin D and calcium are needed for strong healthy bones.
(B) Ligaments keep bones joined together.
(C) Skeletal muscle is needed for voluntary movements.
(D) Cartilage’s rigidity helps maintain structure.

(D) Cartilage’s rigidity helps maintain structure.

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Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The autonomic nervous system allows humans to decide how to use involuntary muscles.
(B) The brain and the spinal cord are part of the central nervous system.
(C) Nerve impulses can send signals faster than chemical signals traveling through the blood.
(D) Neurotransmitters are needed to help send signals between nerves.

(A) The autonomic nervous system allows humans to decide how to use involuntary muscles

Inside the kidney one does find :

glomeruli and nephrons

The purpose of the endocrine system is to :

release chemical signals into the body as to regulate functions.

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 3 than an acid with a pH of 6?

A pH of 3 is one thousand times as strong.

Plant cells are different from animal cells because plant cells :

have a cell wall.

Two organisms live in a symbiotic relationship from which both benefit.This is best described as :

mutualism.

The scientific name for a house cat is Felis catus. This indicates the house cat’s :

genus and species.

What is the apex (heart)?

The inferior point and points towards the hip

What is a sulcus?

depression or fissure in the surface of an organ (brain or heart)

epicardium :

the outer most layer of the heart

myocardium :

middle layer of the heart

Describe cardiac muscle cells :

branched, unicellular, contain intercalated discs, linked by gap junctions.

What causes striations in cardiac muscle cells?

contains thick and thin filaments (actin and myosin) which are banded

Why do cardiac muscles appear red in color ?

rich in mitochondria and oxy.

What are intercalated disks?

interlocking adjacent cells and linked together by a gap junctions which help action potential and help transfer force from cell to cell

Where is the Interatrial septum?

between the left and right atrium

What connects the atria to the ventricles?

The tricuspid atrioventricular valve and bicuspid atrioventricular valve

What veins empty blood into the right atrium?

Superior Vena Cava (SVC), Inferior Vena Cava (IVC), Coronary Sinus (CS)

papillary muscles :

project from the inner surface of the ventricles to help the valves close to prevent back flow

What happens to the AV valves when the ventricles begin to contract?

They will close prevent back flow into the left atrium

What are the ridges and grooves in the wall of the ventricles called?

Trabeculae Carneae

 Test your knowledge with this preview of 5 practice questions

  1. Which of the following is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer?
    1. Smoking
    2. Chlamydia infection
    3. Family history of cervical cancer
    4. Human papillomavirus
  2. A 36-year-old woman who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily seeks advice about contraception. Which of the following contraceptive methods should she avoid? Select all that apply.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Vaginal ring
  2. Combined hormone pills
  3. Intrauterine device
  4. Progestogen-only pill
  5. All contraceptives except condoms and diaphragms
  1. A schizophrenic client has frequent hallucinations and is becoming increasingly withdrawn. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for hallucinations? Select all that apply.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Communicate frequently with the client to help present reality.
  2. Use distracting techniques.
  3. Ask client to describe the hallucinations.
  4. Encourage client to participate in reality-based activities, such as playing cards.
  5. Tell client to ignore the hallucinations.
  1. A client with asthma is to be discharged and must take nebulizer treatments at home. Which of the following is the best method to ensure that the client understands how to use and clean the equipment after the nurse completes a demonstration?
    1. Provide the client with written instructions
    2. Provide the client with a telephone number to call if questions arise
    3. Ask the client if he has any questions.
    4. Ask the client to do a return demonstration
  2. When conducting a physical examination of a 62-year-old female, the nurse notes nodules on the dorsolateral aspects of the distal interphalangeal joints (Heberden’s nodes) of the right hand. Which of the following diseases does this finding suggest?
    1. Acute tenosynovitis
    2. Gout
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Osteoarthritis

MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS

 

An expectation that team members are responsible for their activities and must report outcomes transparently

Accountability

The implicit and explicit power that a manager or employee has to fulfill an organizational function or role

Authority

The level of individual discretion that an employee has to make decisions

Autonomy

A trusted intermediary that facilitates mutually agreed upon outcomes for two or more parties

Broker

A design structure that relies on senior-level managers to collect information broadly, in order to make decisions on behalf of the entire company

Centralized Organization

A predefined structure order of authority that determines how decisions are made and communicated

Chain of Command

The synchronization of an organization’s functions to ensure efficient use of resources in pursuit of goals and objectives

Coordination

A compendium of policies intended to ensure transparency and fulfillment of duties to stakeholders

Corporate Governance

A design structure that relies on all employees to collect and communicate information, in order to make decisions and recommend changes

Decentralized Structure

When a manager grants power and authority to another team member

Delegation

A design structure that groups together processes and jobs based on functions, products, or customers

Departmentalization

The process through which managers divide labor based on tasks and functions

Differentiation

A design structure that groups processes and jobs based on clearly defined market segments or geography

Divisional Organization

The degree of which policies and procedures determine specific jobs and functions

Formalization

Independent workers that supply organizations with talent for projects or time-bound objectives

Free Agents

A hierarchical structure where employees are managed through clear levels of authority

Functional Organization

A vertically organized structure of power relationships, where the top level holds clear levels of authority.

Unites the different parts of the company, brings units in tune w/ company’s underlying principles, core purposes, goals, and objectives

Hierarchy

Horizontal coordination between functions, departments, and organizational activities

Integration

A design structure that facilitates horizontal integration and collaboration

Matrix Organization

A group of independent companies that organize themselves to appear as a larger entity

Network Organization

A visual document that communicates how a company is organized

Organizational Chart

A highly adaptive structure defined by horizontal integration, distributed decision making, and employees with a high degree of generalization

Organic Organization

The optimum number of direct reports that a person can manage effectively

Span of Control

Focusing a group or individual’s activities based on strengths, aptitudes, or skills

Specialization

A performance context where policies and procedures seek to create uniform results

Standardization

A work arrangement in which an employee is given flexibility in terms of work location; and often hours as well

Telecommuting

A philosophy that each employee is given reports to and is accountable to only one manager

Unity-of-Command Principle

A structure, characterized by hierarchical authority and communication channels

Vertical Organization Structure

A group of employees who work across barriers consisting of time, distance, and organizational boundaries, while being linked together by information and communication technologies

Virtual Team

*What is the opposite of ORGANIC?

Mechanistic

*Example of Vertical Approach

Chief of Police–>Captain–>branches off into three different divisions–>each division branches off into more specific roles

*Authority, Chain of Command, Corporate Governance, Broker, Organization Chart, Network Organization, Unity-of-Command Principle—>These all relate to what approach???

*Vertical approach

*Decentralized Structure, Departmentalization, Functional Organization, Autonomy, Divisional Organization, Matrix Organization—>These are relate to what approach??

*Horizontal approach

*____________ is a system of tasks, reporting relationships, and communication that links people and positions within an organization

Organizational Structure

*____________ describes the ___________ __________ of how an org should ideally work as designed

Organizational chart, formal structure

*1. Division of work
2. Supervisory relationships
3. Span of control
4. Communication channels
5. Major sub units
6. Staff positions
7. Levels of management

7 Parts of an Organizational Chart

*______________ _____________ group people with similar skills into the same department. (Also known as departmentalization)

Functional Structures

*________________ _______________ group together people who work on similar products, work in same geographical region, serve same customers, or perform same process.

Divisional Structures

*Focus/purpose of Functional Structures?

Cost EFFICIENCY

*Focus/purpose of Divisional Structures?

EFFECTIVENESS

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of–>
1. Expertise focused on division (products, customers, regions, process)
2. Coordination across functions within divisions
3. Problem solving for product or service delivery

Advantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of—>
1. Expertise focused functional skills (accounting, HR, etc.)
2. Training within functions promotes skill development
3. Efficient use of human resources

Advantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Inefficiencies from duplication of resources
2. Poor communication across divisions
3. Achieve divisional goals instead of organizational goals

Disadvantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Poor communication across departments
2. Poor problem solving for product or service delivery

Disadvantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*What type of decision making is characterized by top management keeping strong control w/ formal authority and formal rules?

Centralized Decision-Making

*What type of decision making is characterized by being distributed throughout the organization using informal authority and informal rules?

 

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Decentralized Decision-Making

*What type of org is characterized by formal authority and mechanistic design?

Vertical/Rigid Organization

*What type of org is characterized by informal authority and organic design?

Horizontal/Adaptive Organization

^Traditionally, organizational power structures were…. democratic, horizontal, autocratic, or collaborative?

Autocratic

^Why must orgs strike a balance between differentiation and integration in creating an org structure…… to ensure managers have absolute control/responsibility, to allow the organization to adapt to changing environments, to spread responsibility among all employees regardless of rank, or to facilitate positive relations between workers/managers?

To allow the organization to adapt to changing environments

^The degree of integration in an org structure directly corresponds to the degree of ___________ in it. Efficiency, unity, autonomy, or coordination?

Coordination

^As a company grows/branches into divisions, what should be ensured for a successful transition of its org structure to compensate for continued unity?….. Delegation of power and authority to staff, formalization of specific jobs/functions, coordination of a company’s functions/operations, or standardization of policies and procedures?

Standardization of policies and procedures

^A managers span of control concerns…. their hierarchical rank within the org, the number of subordinates that report to a manager, the duties a manager is delegated, or the overall time the manager has been at the company?

The number of subordinates that report to a manager

^Which describes a vertical org structure…. Balanced, decentralized, diffuse, hierarchical?

Hierarchical

^Good corporate governance…. promotes good relations w/ management and subordinates, prevents power from being too centralized, ensures the chain of command is respected, or ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled?

Ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled

^What the Unity-of-Command Principle prevent…. accountability/transparency, disorganization/confusion, centralization of authority, or ethical breakdowns/lapses?

Disorganization and confusion

^Network organizations allow for…

Independent companies to more easily work with each other

^How does a decentralized structure differ from a centralized structure?…. There are no chains of command for employees to follow, all employees are expected to collect/communicate info, org structures change frequently to meet emerging needs, or all employees share equal power and authority in decision making?

All employees are expected to collect/communicate info

^Departmentalization aims to group processes and jobs based most on…. efficiency, authority, similarity, or productivity?

Similarity

^What type of organization would benefit a company that seeks high levels of collaboration between departments but w/ clear chains of command?…. Bureaucratic, divisional, matrix, or functional?

Matrix

^In a divisional org, decision-making authority is typically ___________ than in a function organization. Less autonomous, more diffuse, more centralized, or less shared?

More diffuse

^What benefit do adaptive approaches provide organizations?… They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works,
they allow for considerable autonomy among diff divisions while providing high levels of accountability,
they provide significant centralization of authority while diffusing responsibility,
or they provide orgs w/ the ability to rapidly transform their chain of command while retaining high degree of authority?

They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works

^Accountability depends on ___________. Leadership, transparency, skill, or autonomy?

Transparency

^Primary benefit of a company that allows employee telecommuting?… Prevents ethical breakdowns, provides high degree of flexibility, reinforces transparency, or increases profits by reducing worker costs?

Telecommuting provides a high degree of flexibility

^Free agents are _________ workers. Salaried, permanent, contract, or part-time?

Contract

^Which of these should the manager of a virtual team do to reduce barriers?…. Carefully select team members that are social and extroverted, organize team by setting defined goals for each member and allowing them to work autonomously, use information and communication technology, or plan face-to-face team-building meetings?

Use information and

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