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Question 1:        General

 

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

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Question 1: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

 

Question 2: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

 

Question 3: General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

Question 4: General Question

 

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

 

Question 5: General Question

 

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of  Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

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Question 6: Mathematics

 

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

 

Question 7: Mathematics

 

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

  1. Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
  2. Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

 

Question 8: Mathematics

 

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

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Question 9: Mathematics

 

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17              1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

 

A.3.10

 

B.9.61

 

C.7.03

 

D.49.50

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men.  Assume α = 0.05.  What is the test value?

Women                Men

Sample size        50           80

Mean effect       7              6.95

Sample variance               3              4

 

A.t = 0.151

 

B.z = 0.455

 

C.t = 3.252

 

D.z = 0.081

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 3 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

 

Females               Males

Sample size        20           18

Sample mean    3.8          2.5

Sample variance               3.5          2.2

 

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

 

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 8 –         4.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 4 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

 

A.smallest number of outliers

 

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

 

C.largest number of points on the line

 

D.largest sum of squared residuals

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

 

A.highly correlated

 

B.mutually exclusive

 

C.directly related

 

D.inversely related

 

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Answer Key:

 

 

Question 6 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

 

A.render the study useless

 

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

 

D.lie outside the sample

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

 

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

 

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

 

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

 

D.a curved relationship among the variables

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 8 of 17               0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

 

A.5

 

B.unknown

C.10

 

D.0

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 9 of 17               2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area.  The following are the results of his random sampling.  Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees           Spruce trees

Sample size        30           35

Mean trunk diameter (cm)          45           39

Sample variance               120         140

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Test value:    2.121  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

What is the critical value?

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Critical value:    1.311  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 10 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

 

Store     Shelf Space(X)   Weekly Sales(Y)

1              10           2.0

2              10           2.6

3              10           1.8

4              15           2.3

5              15           2.8

6              15           3.0

7              20           2.7

8              20           3.1

9              20           3.2

10           25           3.0

11           25           3.3

12           25           3.5

 

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Find the equation of the regression line for these data.  What is the value of the standard error of the estimate?  Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank.  Do not use a dollar sign.  For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry.   0.308

 

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 11 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

 

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

 

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

 

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank.  Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign.  For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry.   525.4

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 5 of 8 –         0.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 12 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

 

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

 

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

 

Answer Key:

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Question 13 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15           12           3              12           28           6              8              2

percent change for CEO                6              17           -4            12           32           -1            7              2

 

 

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry.  1.010

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 8 –         2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Question 14 of 17             2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group        Control group

sample size         35           50

mean sleep improvement           12.8        9.1

sample variance               56.3        61.2

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test?  Choose one.

 

  1. There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  2. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  3. There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
  4. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

 

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples.  Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

 

 

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This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size).  The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

 

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

 

 

 

 

Part 7 of 8 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is   ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 8 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 16 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 17 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

 

A.1/600

 

B.1/2300

 

C.1/300

 

D.1/700

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

 

A.0.25

 

B.0.90

 

C.0.40

 

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 3 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

 

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

 

C.the Central Limit Theorem

 

D.subjective probabilities

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 4 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

 

A.5

 

B.8

 

C.15

 

D.30

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

 

  1. mutually exclusive

 

  1. complementary

 

  1. independent

 

  1. exhaustive

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 6 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

 

A.6.00

 

B.1.50

 

C.4.00

 

D.10.00

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

 

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

 

A.0.0009

 

B.0.9991

 

C.0.8967

 

D.0.0024

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 8 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x              0              1              2              3              4              5

P (X=x) 0.20        0.25        0.20        0.15        0.10        0.10

 

Find P( X   3)

 

A.0.80

 

B.0.85

 

C.0.15

 

D.0.20

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 9 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

 

A.60

 

B.50

 

C.7.1

 

D.5.9

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

 

A.0.081

 

B.0.243

 

C.0.027

 

D.0.003

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 6 –         2.0/ 4.0 Points

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Question 11 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.  .7443

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X             1              2              3              4              5

P(X)       0.20        0.10        0.35        0.05        0.30

 

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

 

Mean =    2.26

 

Answer Key:

 

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

 

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

 

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Question 13 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.   0.6550

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 14 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry.   0.54

Answer Key:

 

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Part 4 of 6 –         4.0/ 4.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry  900

Answer Key:

 

Question 16 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry.  0.10

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 17 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role?  1              2              3

Yes         60           110         30           200

No          40           215         45           300

100         325         75

 

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry.  0.30

Answer Key:

 

Question 18 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry.  0.3825

 

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

 

 

Part 5 of 6 –         0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 6 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 20 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

 

True

 

False

Answer Key:

 

Question 11: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

 

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

 

A.27.2 <  < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

 

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

 

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

 

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

 

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and    = 0.20 is

 

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

 

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute    where t20 has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

 

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

 

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

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A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

 

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

 

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12: Computer Science

 

Assignment    2:         Forensic          Lab     Design
worth 100      points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
  2. Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
  3. Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
  4. Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
  5. Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
  6. Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
  • Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
  • Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
  • Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

 

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Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

 

Question 14: Business

 

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

 

Question 15: Business

 

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

 

Question 16: Business

 

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

 

Question 17: Business

 

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

 

Question 18: Business

 

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

 

 

Question 19: Health Care

 

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

 

Question 20: Religious Studies

 

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

 

Question 21: Mathematics

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 22: Business

 

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document.  The  article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

 

Question 23: General Question

 

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

 

Question 24: General Question

 

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

 

Question 25: General Question

 

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

 

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza. 

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

 

  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

  • Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. 

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

 

 

Question 27: General Question

 

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 28: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

 

Question 29: Business

 

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

 

Question 30: Literary Studies

 

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

 

 

 

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

 

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

 

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

 

 

  1. If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

 

  1. The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected.  How might this be

explained?  How might this be changed?

 

  1. In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

 

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

 

 

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

 

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Question 2:        Healthcare

 

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

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Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More.  This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods.  Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi.  A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients.  Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses.  The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi.  These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based.  The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item.  The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen.  This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors.  Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores.  Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product.  While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much.  A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution.  To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets.  The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail.  This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel.  Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up.  Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel.  The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler.  Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up?  If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism?  Why or
why not?  If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel.  Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market.  Be specific in your response.  Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter.  Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products?  How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix?  Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam   Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults   Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper  (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

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Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

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1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

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Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

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A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

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A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on  healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations.  (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2.         A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3.         The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4.         When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5.         The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6.         Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7.         The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8.         The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9.         When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10.       Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12.       The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13.       A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14.       Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15.       Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16.       What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17.       During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18.       When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19.       The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20.       The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21.       The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22.       A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23.       Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24.       A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25.       A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26.       A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27.       In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28.       The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29.       The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30.       Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1.         A = first-level priority problem

2.         B = second-level priority problem

3.         C = third-level priority problem

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.         The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

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Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

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(1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i)  Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii)  Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii)  Table of Contents
iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

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What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
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This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

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Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

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Question 3:        Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

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Question 4:        Other

 

  1. Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

 

  1. Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format  5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

 

  1. Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

 

  1. Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

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(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s  (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

 

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

  • not to use unearned privilege
  • not to participate in oppression
  • to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

  • As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
  • “What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
  • “Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
  • Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

 

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

  • Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
  • How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
  • What was the day like for you?
  • Why is every day not like this for you?
  • How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

 

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Question 5:        Other

 

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12:                Economics

 

Production function that uses one variable function

 

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Question 13:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

  1. In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
  2. Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
  3. What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for  segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.)  Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, &  Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

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Question 14:      Business

 

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

 

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

 

 

Question 15:                Mathematics

 

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

  1. e^(ix) *e(iy)
  2. e^(ix)^n
  3. (e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

 

 

 

 

Question 16:                Engineering

 

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

 

 

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

 

Question 17:      Finance

 

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends   $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

 

Asset Liabilities
Current Asset Current liabilities
    Cash 3,285,600     Account payable $ 6,977,700
    Account receivable

Inventory

5,910,800

6,627,300

    Note payable

Total

14,342,600

21,320,300

       Total

Fixed Assets

$15,823,700 Long-term debt

Owner’s equity

36,400,000
Net plant and equipment $101,481,200     Common stock and paid-     in surplus 5,580,000
    Retained earnings 54,004,600
 

Total asset

 

117,304,900

       Total

Total liabilities and equity

59,584,600

117,304,900

 

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Question 18:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 19:      Mathematics

 

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

 

Question 20:      Other

 

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

 

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 21:      Finance

 

  • Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
  • If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
  • If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
  • What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

 

Question 22:      Business

 

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

  1. Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
  2. Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in.  Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

 

Question 23:      History

 

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

 

Question 24:      Other

 

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

 

 

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Question 25:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture.  Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures.  Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession.  The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison.  Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences.  When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate.  Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement.  If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them.  If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

 

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

 

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

 

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Question 26:      Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

Question 27:      Psychology

 

Essay 1 Questions

 

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

 

  1. In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

 

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation.  Below is an abbreviated example.

 

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

 

Signal (NS) Opening the refrigerator
UCS Sound of an alarm
UCR Jumps
CS Opens refrigerator
CR Jumps

 

  1. Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

 

  1. In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

 

  1. Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

 

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

 

 

 

Question 28:                Business

 

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

 

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Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

  • Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
  • Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

 

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

 

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

 

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

Question 29:      Psychology

 

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

 

 

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

 

Question 30:      Business

 

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

  1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
  2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
  3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
  4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

 

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Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
  • Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

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Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

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Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

 

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used.  All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

 

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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

  • Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
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Question 1:        Communications

 

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 2:        Health Care.

 

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

 

Question 3:        Health Care

 

Final Exam Nurs 6531

 

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

 

Question 4:        Health Care

 

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

 

QUESTION 1

  1. A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

A.

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

B.

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

C.

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

D.

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?”   I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 2

  1. Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters.   (The answer wording is different.

A.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

B.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

C.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

D.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

  1. When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

A.

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

B.

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

C.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

D.

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

  1. During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

A.

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

B.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

C.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region.    This is wrong

D.

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

 

 

 

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  1. While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

A.

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

B.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

C.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

D.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

  1. Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

A.

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

B.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

C.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

D.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

  1. Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

A.

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

B.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered.    Correct answer

C.

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

D.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

  1. It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

A.

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

B.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

C.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

D.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 9

1.      As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

A.

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

B.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

C.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

D.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points  

QUESTION 10

1.      The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

A.

The patient smokes cigarettes.    This is correct!

B.

The patient has hypertension.

C.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

D.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points  

QUESTION 11

1.      A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

A.

Alert staff to possible seizures

B.

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

C.

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

D.

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points  

QUESTION 12

1.      A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

A.

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level  Correct answer

B.

Order a liver function test

C.

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

D.

Order a stat platelet count

1 points  

QUESTION 13

1.      A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

A.

To promote the availability of serotonin

B.

To decrease serotonin

C.

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

D.

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points  

QUESTION 14

1.      The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

A.

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

B.

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

C.

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

D.

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 15

1.      Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

A.

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

B.

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.” 

C.

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”  

D.

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.” 

1 points  

QUESTION 16

1.      A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

A.

Benzodiazepine

B.

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

C.

Ketamine

D.

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points  

QUESTION 17

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

A.

Full agonists

B.

Antagonists

C.

Partial agonists

D.

Inverse agonists

1 points  

QUESTION 18

1.      A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

A.

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

B.

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”  

C.

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.” 

D.

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points  

QUESTION 19

1.      The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

A.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

B.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

C.

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

D.

Anticonvulsants

1 points  

QUESTION 20  ?

1.      Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

A.

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.”  Not correct

B.

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

C.

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

D.

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points  

QUESTION 21

1.      A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy?    I did not have this question

A.

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

B.

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

C.

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting 

D.

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points  

QUESTION 22

1.      Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

A.

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

B.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

C.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists.   Correct answer

1 points  

QUESTION 23

1.      Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

A.

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

B.

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

C.

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

D.

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points  

 

 

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QUESTION 24

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

A.

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

B.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

C.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

D.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 25

1.      A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

A.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

B.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

C.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

D.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points  

QUESTION 26

1.      The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

A.

Hypersexuality

B.

Amenorrhea

C.

Dystonia

D.

Tardive dyskinesia   correct answer

A.

 

1 points  

QUESTION 27

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

B.

Asenapine to Risperidone

C.

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

D.

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 28

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

A.

Quetiapine

B.

Paliperidone

C.

Lurasidone

D.

Clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 29

1.      Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

A.

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

B.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

C.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 30

1.      Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

A.

An underlying depressive disorder

B.

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one   This is correct

C.

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

D.

All of the above

1 points  

QUESTION 31

1.      The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

A.

Long-term use of antipsychotics

B.

Genetic disposition

C.

Age

D.

A and C

2333326

 

E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

  1. The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

A.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

B.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

C.

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

D.

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

  1. Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

A.

5HT2 antagonism

B.

D2 antagonismThis was wrong  0/1

C.

Alpha-2 antagonism

D.

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

  1. A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

A.

Norepinephrine

B.

Dopamine

C.

Serotonin

D.

A and C

 

 

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E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

  1. Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

A.

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

B.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

C.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

D.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

  1. The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

A.

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Patient with a bipolar II designation

C.

Patient with a bipolar III designation

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

  1. Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

A.

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

B.

The patient may experience severe depression.

C.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

D.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

A.

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

B.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

C.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

D.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

  1. Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

A.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

B.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

C.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

D.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

  1. Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

A.

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

B.

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

C.

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

D.

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

A.

Insomnia

B.

Suicidal ideation

C.

Problems concentrating

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

  1. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

A.

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

B.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

C.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

D.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs.   Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

  1. The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was  Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

A.

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

B.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

C.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

D.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

  1. A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

A.

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

B.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

C.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

D.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

  1. After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

B.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

C.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

D.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

  1. A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

A.

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

B.

Late onset of menses

C.

Premenstrual syndrome

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

  1. A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

A.

MAOI plus SNRI

B.

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

C.

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

D.

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

  1. Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

A.

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

B.

She may experience increased trauma.

C.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

D.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

  1. A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

A.

Weight gain can be problematic.

B.

Sedation is very common.

C.

Induction of mania is rare.

D.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

A.

Stop the venlafaxine

B.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

C.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

D.

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 51

  1. A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

A.

It can affect her menstruation.

B.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

C.

Sedation may be problematic.

D.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

  1. Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

A.

He has fibromyalgia.

B.

He has arrhythmia.

C.

He uses alcohol.

D.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

  1. A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

A.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

B.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

C.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

D.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

  1. A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

The patient has hepatic impairment.

B.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

C.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

D.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

  1. The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A.

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

B.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

C.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

D.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

  1. A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

A.

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

B.

“You should not consume processed meats.”

C.

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

D.

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

  1. A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

A.

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

B.

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

C.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

D.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

  1. Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

C.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

D.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

  1. The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

A.

Patient with PTSD

B.

Patient with partial seizures

C.

Patient with galactose intolerance

D.

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

  1. Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

A.

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

B.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

C.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

D.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

  1. A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

A.

mirtazapine (Remeron)

B.

doxepin (Silenor)

C.

alprazolam (Xanax)

D.

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

  1. A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

B.

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

C.

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

D.

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

A.

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

B.

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

C.

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

D.

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

  1. A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following?   I don’t think I had this question

A.

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

B.

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C.

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

D.

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

  1. A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

A.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B.

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C.

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

  1. A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

A.

Omega-3-fatty-acids

B.

Soybean lecithin

C.

Inositol

D.

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

  1. The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

A.

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

B.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

C.

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

D.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

  1. The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

A.

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

B.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

C.

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

D.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

  1. A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

A.

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

B.

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

C.

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

D.

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

  1. During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

A.

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

B.

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

C.

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

D.

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

  1. The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently..  The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

A.

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

B.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

C.

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

D.

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

  1. After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

a.

Respiratory depression

b.

Sedation and restlessness

c.

Sweating and nausea   (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

d.

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

  1. A patient  is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is:  I didn’t have this question

A.

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

B.

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

C.

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

D.

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74  ?

  1. The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

A.

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

B.

What do you do when you feel fear?

C.

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

D.

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

  1. A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

A.

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

B.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

C.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

D.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

 

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis?   It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders  (Correct)

 

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression.  She has apathy and no joy in life.  What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system   corre

 

Question 5:        Health Care

 

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

 

Question 6:        Health Care

 

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

 

Question 7:        Health Care

 

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

 

Question 9:        Health Care.

 

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

 

Question 10:      Health Care

 

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

 

  1. True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

 

  1. Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

 

  1. An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

 

  1. What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

 

  1. True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

 

  1. Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

 

  1. A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

 

  1. With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
  2. What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

 

 

  1. These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

 

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

 

  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

 

  1. When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

 

  1. This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

 

  1. Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

 

  1. Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

 

  1. Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

 

  1. Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

 

  1. Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

 

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

  1. A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality.
B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care
C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality.
D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

 

What is the first step in the delegation process?

  1. A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment
B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated
C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care
D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

 

What is the mos

 

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What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

  1. A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment
B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility
C) The age difference between the client and the nurse
D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

 

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

  1. A) Crime scenes
B) Women’s shelters
C) Emergency rooms
D) Correctional institutions

 

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

  1. A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes
B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does
C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities
D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

 

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

  1. A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse
B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift
C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues
D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

 

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

  1. A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses
B) During the last 6 months of life
C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries
D) During and shortly after being born

 

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

  1. A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy
B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion
C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries
D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

 

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

  1. A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes
B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier
C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge
D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

 

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

  1. A) Aggressive
B) Assertive
C) Dishonest
D) Submissive

 

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

  1. A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client.
B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client.
C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting.
D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

 

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

  1. A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver.
B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message.
C) The sender sends the message.
D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

 

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

  1. A) Hippocrates
B) Emperor Darius
C) Cyrus the Great
D) William Harvey

 

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

  1. A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client
B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours
C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections
D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

 

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

  1. A) Transcendental Meditation
B) Guided Imagery
C) Therapeutic Talking
D) Visualization

 

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

  1. A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid
B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system
C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act
D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

 

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

  1. A) Client, health, environment, nursing
B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office
C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers
D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

  1. A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client
B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met
C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history
D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

 

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

  1. A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately
B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior.
C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past.
D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

 

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

  1. A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing
B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination
C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence.
D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

 

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

  1. A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care.
B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality.
C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care.
D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

 

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

  1. A) All of the above
B) Sensitivity
C) Understanding
D) Communication

 

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

  1. A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget
B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home
C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities.
D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

 

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

  1. A) Evaluation
B) Assessment
C) Planning
D) Diagnosis

 

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

  1. A) Minority Model
B) Purnell’s Model
C) Non-English Model
D) Bio-Cultural Model

 

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

  1. A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning
B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health
C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs
D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

 

An ethical code does which of the following?

  1. A) dictates decisions
B) provides a framework for decision-making
C) sets firm rules
D) provides a group of legally binding values

 

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

  1. A) LPN
B) CNA, level II
C) CNA, level III
D) RN

 

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

  1. A) Partially compensated care
B) Supportive developmental care
C) Self-care
D) Wholly compensated care

 

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

  1. A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data
B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge
C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory
D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

 

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

  1. A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities
B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family
C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs
D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

 

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

  1. A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings
B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom
C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids
D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

 

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

  1. A) Laws
B) Values
C) Morals
D) Ethics

 

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

  1. A) Visualization
B) Therapeutic Touch
C) Hypnosis
D) Guided Imagery

 

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

  1. A) Quality Improvement
B) Root Cause Analysis
C) Case Management
D) Leapfrog

 

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

  1. A) Magnet hospital
B) Shared decision-making environment
C) system of improvements and quality care
D) Just culture organization

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

  1. A) Choose your battles
B) Confront the conflict
C) Postpone the conflict
D) Ignore the conflict

 

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

  1. A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.”
B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.”
C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.”
D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

 

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

  1. A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.”
B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.”
C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.”
D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

 

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

  1. A) The client’s next of kin
B) The client
C) The client’s spouse
D) The client’s only child

 

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

  1. A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.”
B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.”
C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.”
D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

 

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

  1. A) Passive Obedience
B) Active Obedience
C) Health Care Aversion
D) Communication Synergy

 

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

  1. A) Scientific rationalism
B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality
C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts
D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

 

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

  1. A) Computer glitches
B) Inexpensive computer systems
C) Improved communication
D) May be used by multiple users at one time

 

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

  1. A) Provide health screenings
B) Respond to emergency situations
C) Prescribe medications
D) Develop health-care plans

 

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

  1. A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Evaluation 
D) Planning

 

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

  1. A) Medicare
B) Exclusive Provider Organization
C) Long-term care insurance
D) Medicaid

 

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

  1. A) Rehabilitation Center
B) Long-term care facility
C) Home with homecare
D) Assisted living

 

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

  1. A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient
B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health.
C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death.
D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

 

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

  1. A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing
B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available
C) Join professional organizations in large numbers
D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

 

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

  1. A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture
B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements
C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture
D) All of the above

 

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

  1. A) Religion
B) Spirituality
C) Truth
D) Meditation

 

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

  1. A) Conviction of a serious crime
B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing
C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care
D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

 

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

  1. A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in.
B) It reflects only the past medical history.
C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received.
D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

 

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

  1. A) Capitated Payment System
B) Managed Care Organization
C) Preferred Provider Organization
D) Prospective Payment System

 

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

  1. A) Institute of Medicine
B) Department of Health
C) Board of Nursing 
D) American Nurses Association

 

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

  1. A) Desire for greater control over one’s health
B) Traditions passed on from parents
C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies
D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

 

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

  1. A) Easy access to computers
B) Consumer concerns about access to health care
C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills
D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

 

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) True
B) False

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A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

  1. A) Skill level of each staff member
B) Staff preferences for specific clients
C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station
D) Developmental needs of clients

 

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

  1. A) Primary intervention
B) Assistive intervention
C) Secondary intervention
D) Tertiary intervention

 

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

  1. A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies.
B) The client is relatively stable.
C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift.
D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

  1. A) Physician record keeping
B) Interdepartmental communication
C) Documentation
D) Medication administration

 

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

  1. A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help.
B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it.
C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek.
D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

 

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

  1. A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

 

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

  1. A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors
B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs
C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity
D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

 

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

  1. A) Refers the problem to a supervisor
B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience
C) Uses the incident as a threat
D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

 

 

 

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

  1. A) More portable
B) Fewer privacy issues
C) Unbreakable
D) Reduces redundancy

 

 

 

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Question 11:      Health Care

 

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 12:      Philosophy

 

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

 

Question 13:      Philosophy

 

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 14:      Philosophy

 

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 15:                Sociology

 

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 16:                Computer Studies

 

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

 

Discussion Questions

  1. Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
  2. Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
  3. Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

 

 

Question 17:                Computer Science

 

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

 

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

  • “WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
  • “Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
  • “Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  2. Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
  3. Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
  4. Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

Question 18:                Computer Science

 

 

 

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DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

 

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

  1. What is the best description of a conceptual model?
  2. A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
  3. Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
  4. A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

  1. The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
  2. Which statement best reflects interaction design?
  3. Interaction design is a new discipline
  4. Interaction design is multidisciplinary
  5. Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
  6. Interaction design is an application of common sense.
  7. What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
  8. Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
  9. Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
  10. Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
  11. Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
  12. How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in human­computer interaction?
  13. Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
  14. Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
  15. Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
  16. Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
  17. What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
  18. It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
  19. As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
  20. People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
  21. All of the above.
  22. According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
  23. They rate it as more honest
  24. They rate it as less honest
  25. They rate it as more likeable
  26. They rate it as less likeable.
  27. What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
  28. Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
  29. Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
  30. Learners may feel that they are being patronised
  31. Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
  32. Which of the following options best represents the core values of user­centred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
  33. Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
  34. Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
  35. Developing and testing in several cycles
  36. All of the above.
  37. When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
  38. Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
  39. Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
  40. Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
  41. All of the above.
  42. How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
  43. They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
  44. They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
  45. They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
  46. Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chest­implanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
  47. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
  48. They emphasize controlled experimentation
  49. They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
  50. They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
  51. They do not directly involve users.
  52. What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
  53. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  54. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  55. Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
  56. Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  57. According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
  58. Seven plus or minus two (5­9 users)
  59. Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
  60. A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
  61. At least 10 users.
  62. What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
  63. The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
  64. The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
  65. The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
  66. The idea that experts need to work hand­in­hand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

 

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DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

  1. Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Learnability
  4. Helpfulness
  5. Safety.
  6. What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
  7. Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
  8. The return on investment of the user­centred design process.
  9. The opportunity cost of not using user­centred design.
  10. An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
  11. According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
  12. Powerful functionality
  13. User experience
  14. Access to content
  15. Conceptual design.
  16. Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
  17. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  18. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  19. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
  6. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  7. What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
  8. Conversation
  9. Knowledge of a physical desktop
  10. Embedded computing
  11. Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
  12. Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
  13. Restaurant menu
  14. Touchscreen interface
  15. A paper diary
  16. Mobile technology.
  17. What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
  18. Gesture and body movements
  19. Haptic (touch) interface
  20. Exploring and browsing
  21. Infrared position detection.
  22. Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
  23. Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
  24. Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
  25. Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
  26. Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
  27. Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/­ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
  28. We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
  29. People can actually hold much less than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  30. People can actually hold much more than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  31. This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
  32. What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about context­aware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
  33. Context is hard to define
  34. The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
  35. Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
  36. The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
  37. What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
  38. It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
  39. It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
  40. It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
  41. The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
  42. What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
  43. Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
  44. Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
  45. Interfaces that apologize to their users
  46. Interfaces that look and behave like people.
  47. The character Rea is an example of what?
  48. A real­estate agent
  49. A zoomorphic interface
  50. A persuasive technology
  51. An embodied agent.
  52. Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
  53. By coloring the water when usage was high
  54. By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
  55. By sounding chimes when water usage was high
  56. None of the above.
  57. Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
  58. Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
  59. Using different theories with which to interpret data.
  60. Using multiple researchers in a user­centred evaluation.
  61. Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
  62. What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

  1. Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
  2. Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
  3. The data collected are rich and complex.
  4. Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
  5. What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
  6. Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
  7. Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
  8. People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
  9. Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
  10. A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

  1. A psychometric scale
  2. A Likert scale
  3. A questionnaire
  4. An open­response questionnaire item.
  5. What is a “participant observer”
  6. An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
  7. A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
  8. An observer who watches participants.
  9. A participant who watches observers.
  10. Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
  11. Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
  12. Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
  13. “Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
  14. Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
  15. What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
  16. Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
  17. Four different data gathering techniques were used.
  18. Participatory design was used.
  19. Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
  20. In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
  21. 5
  22. 5.5
  23. 6
  24. None of the above.
  25. What is an affinity diagram?
  26. A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
  27. A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
  28. A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
  29. A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from think­aloud protocols.
  30. Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
  31. Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
  32. Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
  33. Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
  34. Look for critical incidents to report.
  35. What are web analytics?
  36. Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
  37. Web­based methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
  38. Web­based methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
  39. Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
  40. How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
  41. Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
  42. Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
  43. Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
  44. Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
  45. Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

  1. User­centred design
  2. Systems design
  3. Genius design
  4. Conceptual design.
  5. Should end­users always have a high degree of participation in software development?
  6. Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of end­users, which should be universally applied.
  7. Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
  8. Never: end­users do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
  9. None of the above.
  10. What is the Volere shell?
  11. An operating system similar to Unix.
  12. A template for specifying system requirements.
  13. A framework for defining personas and scenarios
  14. A template for creating cultural probe packages.
  15. What is Contextual Inquiry?
  16. A component of Contextual Design.
  17. A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
  18. Participant observation in relevant use contexts
  19. A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
  20. “An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
  21. Use case
  22. Essential use case
  23. Storyboard
  24. Scenario.
  25. Which of the following is a problem with low­level prototyping?
  26. Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
  27. They take too long to build.
  28. User expectations can be set too high.
  29. None of the above.
  30. What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
  31. It should support a wide range of user tests.
  32. It should look like the final product.
  33. It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
  34. It should be easy to throw away.
  35. Where would a card­based prototype best fit in the design process?
  36. After conceptual design, before scenario design
  37. After scenario design, before storyboarding.
  38. After storyboarding, before low­level prototyping.
  39. After low­level prototyping, before high­level prototyping.
  40. What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
  41. Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
  42. Conducting user tests.
  43. Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
  44. Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
  45. You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
  46. Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

  1. After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
  2. Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
  3. Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
  4. Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
  5. End users and designers
  6. Designers and usability experts
  7. Usability experts and marketing personnel
  8. Designers and marketing personnel.
  9. How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
  10. GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
  11. GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
  12. GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
  13. Interface metaphors.

 

 

 

 

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Question 19:                Mathematics

 

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 20:                Business

 

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

 

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

 

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

  1. The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
  2. There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
  3. Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
  4. A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
  5. In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
  6. The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

 

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

 

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

  1. What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
  2. Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
  3. Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

 

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

 

2012     2011

Return on Equity    13%       12%

Return on Assets     8%        9%

Profit margin            20        18%

Asset turnover          0.40      0.50

Days in inventory      72 days 55 days

Days in debtors        42 days 42 days

Current ratio               1.6       1.5

Quick ratio                  0.7       1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio      1.4       1.0

 

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

 

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

 

 

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

 

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

 

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

 

 

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

 

 

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

 

 

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

 

 

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

 

 

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

 

 

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

 

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

 

 

 

Credit sales

 

86,500

Cash sales

 

6,100

Credit purchases

 

93,200

Cash received from debtors

 

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

 

55,890

Cash purchases

 

4,300

Discount received from

 

7,500

creditors

 

Discount allowed to debtors

 

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

 

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

 

DR         CR

 

$            $

Bank Overdraft                         10,000

Accounts Receivable   200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts       1,000

Inventory                    100,000

Prepaid Rent              10,000

Property, Plant and      450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE      200,000

Accounts Payable                            60,000

Bank loan                                         50,000

Contributed Capital                            310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013              34,000

Sales revenue                                     4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold         265,000

Interest Expense                5,000

Wages Expenses              80,000

Rent Expense                     5,000

 

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

  • Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
  • The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
  • An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
  • On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
  • It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
  • $5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

 

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

 

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

 

Date          Cash Purchases         Cash Sales        Balance

1 June                                                                100 units @ $10

10 June         80 units @ $12

18 June                                       140 units @ $20

25 June          30 units @ $14

30 June                                        50 units @ $25

 

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

 

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

 

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

 

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

 

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

 

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

 

Item                                                                      Cost Classification

 

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

 

 

½ mark each entry

 

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

  • direct labour cost of $200 000
  • raw materials purchased of $400 000
  • total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

 

31 January               1 January

(ending)                 (beginning)

Raw materials inventory                                       $80 000                     $95 000

Work in progress inventory                                   $110 000                   $60 000

Finished goods inventory                                      $255 000                   $75 000

 

Required:

  1. Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
  2. Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

 

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

 

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

 

 

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

 

 

 

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Question 21:                Business

 

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

 

Question 22:                Business

 

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

 

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

 

  1. A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

 

  1. planning
  2. staffing
  3. controlling
  4. organizing

 

  1. Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

 

  1. identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
  2. create a mission statement.
  3. identify new menu items to offer.
  4. define strategic objectives.

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

 

  1. Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
  2. Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

 

  1. Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

 

  1. Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

 

  1. Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

 

  1. Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

 

  1. Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
  2. Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

 

  1. Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

 

  1. A shopper service is a(n):

 

  1. service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

 

  1. Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
  2. system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

  1.  control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

 

  1. The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

 

  1. comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

 

  1. evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
  2. assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

 

  1. determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

 

  1. Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

 

  1. preparing
  2. serving
  3. issuing
  4. storing
  5. purchasing

 

 

  1. A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

 

  1. product specification.
  2. portion control percentage.
  3. algorithm.
  4. standard recipe.

 

  1. Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

 

  1. yield percentage worksheets
  2. standard purchase specifications
  3. standard recipes
  4. standard portion size specifications

 

 

 

  1. If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

 

  1. 5.2
  2. 5.0
  3. 2.5
  4. 1.2

 

  1. To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

 

  1. 5.0.
  2. 4.0.
  3. 0.4.
  4. 0.25
  5. The information is not enough

 

  1. Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

 

  1. reforecasting
  2. bottom-up budgeting
  3. top-down budgeting
  4. mark-up budgeting

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

 

  1. general manager’s salary
  2. rent expense
  3. property taxes
  4. food costs

 

 

 

  1. At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

 

  1. lower than in September.
  2. higher than in September.
  3. relatively the same as in September.
  4. impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

 

 

 

  1. At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

 

  1. $25,000 net income.
  2. $10,000 net income.
  3. $0 (breakeven).
  4. $10,000 net loss.
  5. The information isn’t enough

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

 

  1. consumer demand
  2. menu mix
  3. supply levels
  4. competition

 

  1. A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

 

  1. $11.67
  2. $12.60
  3. $14.76
  4. cannot be determined

 

 

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

 

RU Prime-rib burger

 

10 Servings

 

 

 

 

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

Unit

ground prime rib

3

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

1

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

3

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

1

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

10

 

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

1

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

 

*1 gallon = 16 cups

 

  1. The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

 

  1. $5.40
  2. $1.80
  3. $2.00
  4. $6.00

 

 

  1. The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

 

  1. $3.40
  2. $14.70
  3. $3.50
  4. $3.20

 

 

  1. If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

 

  1. $5.14
  2. $10.00
  3. $9.14
  4. $9.71
  5. cannot be determined

 

  1. After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

 

  1. inelastic.
  2. high.
  3. elastic.
  4. low.

 

 

 

  1. The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

 

  1. Decrease prices.
  2. Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
  3. Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
  4. All of the above are reasonable strategies.
  5. None of the above are reasonable strategies.

 

  1. Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

 

  1. puzzles.
  2. plowhorses.
  3. stars.
  4. dogs.

 

  1. The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

 

  1. $4.
  2. $6.
  3. $8.

 

 

  1. $10.

 

  1. The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

 

  1. $6
  2. $8
  3. $10
  4. $12

 

 

  1. In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

 

  1. chef
  2. purchasing agent
  3. receiving agent
  4. storeroom clerk

 

  1. Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

 

  1. purchase specification
  2. audit trail
  3. delivery invoice
  4. inventory checklist

 

  1. In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

 

  1. highest price.
  2. popularity of a menu item.
  3. suitability for intended use.
  4. greatest value.

 

 

  1. A stockout can occur as a result of:

 

  1. employing a perpetual inventory system.
  2. over-purchasing.
  3. inadequate menu engineering.
  4. under-purchasing.

 

 

 

 

  1. With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

 

  1. usage rate plus the minimum level.
  2. usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
  3. lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
  4. lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

 

 

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

 

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

 

  1. The order point quantity of this item should be at:
  2. 100lb
  3. 200lb
  4. 300lb

 

 

Question 6:        Business

 

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

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Question 7:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

 

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

 

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  1. 400lb

 

  1. The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

 

  1. 50
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

 

  1. The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

 

  1. 500lb
  2. 600lb
  3. 300lb
  4. 200lb

 

  1. Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

 

  1. Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
  2. Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

 

  1. Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

 

  1. As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

 

 

 

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  1. Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

 

  1. delivery invoice.
  2. daily receiving report.
  3. purchase order.
  4. standard purchase specification sheet.

 

 

 

  1. To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

 

  1. supplier delivery personnel.
  2. assigned staff from the property.
  3. the food and beverage controller.
  4. either a or c above.

 

 

  1. How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

 

  1. Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
  2. Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
  3. Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
  4. Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

 

  1. Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

 

  1. Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
  2. Directs are recorded in inventory records.

 

  1. Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
  2. Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

 

 

  1. Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

 

  1. issuing
  2. storing
  3. purchasing
  4. accounting

 

  1. When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

 

  1. form
  2. time
  3. informational
  4. place

 

 

  1. According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

 

  1. Self-distribution
  2. Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
  3. Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
  4. Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
  5. Catalog online ordering

 

 

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

 

Physical Inventory

 

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

 

 

Amount in

 

 

product

Storage unit

storage

 

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

$

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

$

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

$

24.10/bag

 

 

  1. In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

 

  1. 3.83 cases
  2. 3.50 cases
  3. 3.36 cases
  4. 3.30 cases

 

  1. According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

 

  1. $212.87
  2. $200.00
  3. $194.54
  4. $192.20
  5. $337.70

 

 

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

 

 

 

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

 

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

 

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

 

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

 

  1. The cost per servable pound is:

 

  1. $10.13

 

  1. $10.00
  2. $8.00
  3. Cannot determine

 

 

  1. How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

 

  1. 129 lb

 

  1. 131 lb
  2. 103 lb
  3. Cannot determine.

 

 

  1. If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

 

  1. $12.00

 

  1. $ 11.00
  2. $12.50
  3. $ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

 

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

 

Carried forward: __0______

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Date

In

 

Out

Balance

1/7

3

 

 

 

 

3

1/9

 

 

 

 

2

1

1/10

 

 

 

 

1

0

1/12

5

 

 

 

1

4

1/15

 

 

 

 

2

2

 

 

  1. According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

 

  1. 2

 

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 0

 

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

 

  1. What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
  2. The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
  3. (1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
  4. Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

 

 

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Question 23:                Business

 

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

 

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

 

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

 

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

 

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

 

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

 

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

 

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

 

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

 

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

 

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

 

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

 

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

 

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

 

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

 

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

 

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

 

  1. How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

 

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

 

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

 

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

 

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

 

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

 

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

 

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

 

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

 

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

 

26) The end result of activity is known as

 

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

 

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

 

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

 

30) Suboptimization occurs when

 

Question 24:                Business

 

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

 

 

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

  1. The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
    B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
    C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
    D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

  1. The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
    D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

  1. A decrease to work in process inventory
    B. A decrease to applied overhead
    C. An increase to finished goods
    D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

  1. The production of textbooks
    B. The production of town homes
    C. The pasteurization of milk
    D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

  1. Debit Manufacturing Overhead
    B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
    C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
    D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

  1. It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
    B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
    C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
    D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

  1. The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
    B. The cost of the wheels
    C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
    D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

  1. Planning, directing, and controlling
    B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
    C. Planning, directing, and selling
    D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

  1. Work in process, finished goods raw materials
    B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
    C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
    D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

  1. machine hours
    B. direct labor
    C. direct material dollars
    D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

  1. overhead rate
    B. product activity
    C. cost driver
    D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

  1. computing the activity-based overhead rate
    B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
    C. identifying the activity-cost pools
    D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

  1. Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
    B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
    C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
    D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

  1. the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
    B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
    C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
    D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

  1. identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
    B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
    C. the labeling of activities as value-added
    D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

  1. $60,000
    B. $90,000
    C. $150,000
    D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $1,920,000
    D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $2,000,000
    D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

  1. Buy; savings = $10,000
    B. Make; savings = $20,000
    C. Make; savings = $10,000
    D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

  1. Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
    B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
    C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
    D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

  1. incremental costs are $1 per unit
    B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
    C. differential costs are $2 per unit
    D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

  1. 37.5%
    B. 150%.
    C. 266.6%
    D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

  1. The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
    B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
    C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
    D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

  1. $28,000
    B. $18,000
    C. $6,000
    D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

  1. is required under GAAP
    B. is used for external reporting purposes
    C. is also known as full costing
    D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

  1. Direct labor
    B. Direct materials
    C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
    D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

  1. $18
    B. $16
    C. $27
    D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

  1. Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
    B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
    C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
    D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

  1. a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
    B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
    C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
    D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

  1. offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
    B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
    C. not employ any standards
    D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

  1. $2,400 favorable
    B. $5,600 unfavorable
    C. $3,200 unfavorable
    D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

  1. $15 per direct labor hour
    B. $18 per direct labor hour
    C. $19 per direct labor hour
    D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

  1. $2,000
    B. $4,000
    C. $3,000
    D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

  1. standard hours allowed
    B. actual overhead costs incurred
    C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
    D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

  1. variable overhead costs
    B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
    C. all manufacturing costs
    D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

  1. the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
    B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
    C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
    D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

  1. $12,500
    B. $25,000
    C. $27,500
    D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

  1. 600
    B. 580
    C. 630
    D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

  1. $57,525
    B. $63,525
    C. $42,350
    D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

  1. customers
    B. largest competitor
    C. selling company
    D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

  1. all cases
    B. its early years
    C. the long run
    D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

  1. it considers customer demand
    B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
    C. it is simple to compute
    D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 25:                Economics

 

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

 

  1. A resource is anything that:
  2. A) can be used in production.
  3. B) you pay for.
  4. C) is in scarce supply.
  5. D) can be consumed.

 

  1. Scarcity in economics means:
  2. A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
  3. B) the wants of people are limited.
  4. C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
  5. D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

 

  1. Opportunity cost is:
  2. A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
  3. B) the dollar payment for a product.
  4. C) the benefit derived from a product.
  5. D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

 

  1. Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
  2. A) $10,000
  3. B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
  4. C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
  5. D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

 

  1. We are forced to make choices because of:
  2. A) exploitation.
  3. B) efficiency.
  4. C) scarcity.
  5. D) the margin.

 

  1. A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
  2. A) at the fringe
  3. B) in the beginning
  4. C) at the margin
  5. D) after the fact

 

  1. A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
  2. A) prices; sells
  3. B) trade-offs; produces
  4. C) trade-offs; consumes
  5. D) shortages; produces

 

  1. When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
  2. A) is constant.
  3. B) is measured in dollar terms.
  4. C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
  5. D) usually decreases.

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

 

 

 

9.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

  1. A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
  2. B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
  3. C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
  4. D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
  2. A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
  3. B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing  opportunity costs.
  4. C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant  costs of guns and butter.
  5. D) linear because of constant costs.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
  2. A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
  3. B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
  4. C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
  5. D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

 

  1. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
  2. A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
  3. B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
  4. C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
  5. D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

 

  1. In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
  2. A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
  3. B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
  4. C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
  5. D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

 

  1. Free trade between countries:
  2. A) should be based on absolute advantage.
  3. B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
  4. C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
  5. D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

 

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

 

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
  2. A) 1 unit of oranges.
  3. B) ¼ unit of oranges.
  4. C) 4 units of oranges.
  5. D) 10 units of oranges

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
  2. A) economic growth.
  3. B) technical efficiency.
  4. C) resource underutilization.
  5. D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

 

  1. Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
  2. A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
  3. B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
  4. C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
  5. D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

 

  1. The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
  2. A) a fall in the price of videos
  3. B) an increase in the price of videos
  4. C) an increase in the supply of videos
  5. D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

 

  1. The law of demand states other things equal:
  2. A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

 

  1. B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
  2. C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
  3. D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

 

  1. A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
  2. A) buyer’s incomes.
  3. B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
  4. C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
  5. D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

 

  1. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
  2. A) increase the demand for good A.
  3. B) increase the demand for good B.
  4. C) decrease the demand for good A.
  5. D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

 

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

 

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B.
  3. B) B to A.
  4. C) C to A.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. (Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) C to A.
  3. B) A to B.
  4. C) B to E.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
  2. A) substitutes.
  3. B) complements.
  4. C) both expensive.
  5. D) both inexpensive.

 

  1. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
  2. A) a decrease in the price of paper
  3. B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
  4. C) an increase in college enrollments
  5. D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

 

  1. A good is normal if:
  2. A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
  3. B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
  4. C) when income increases, the demand increases.
  5. D) income and the demand are unrelated.

 

 

 

 

 

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Exam #2

 

  1. The typical supply curve illustrates that:
  2. A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
  3. B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
  4. C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
  5. D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
  2. A) expectations regarding future prices
  3. B) the technology of production
  4. C) the cost of production
  5. D) consumer tastes

 

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

 

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to C
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) B to E

 

  1. The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
  5. D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. Excess supply occurs when:
  2. A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
  3. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
  4. C) the price is below equilibrium price.
  5. D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
  5. D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

 

Use the following to answer question 9:

 

Figure: DVD Market

 

 

  1. (Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
  2. A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
  3. B) an increase in demand.
  4. C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
  5. D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

 

  1. In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
  2. A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
  3. B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
  4. C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
  5. D) The price of salsa triples.

 

  1. Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
  2. A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
  3. B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
  4. C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
  5. D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

 

  1. Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
  2. A) increase.
  3. B) decrease.
  4. C) not change.
  5. D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

 

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

 

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
  2. A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
  3. B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
  4. C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
  5. D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

 

  1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
  2. A) price elastic.
  3. B) price inelastic.
  4. C) price unit-elastic.
  5. D) perfectly price inelastic.

 

Use the following to answer question 17:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

 

 

  1. (Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
  2. A) $30.
  3. B) $45.
  4. C) $60.
  5. D) $90.

 

  1. Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
  2. A) 1.17
  3. B) 1.50
  4. C) 0.85
  5. D) 1.00

 

  1. The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
  2. A) 500
  3. B) 50%
  4. C) 3.5
  5. D) 2.6

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  1. If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
  2. A) price-inelastic
  3. B) price unit-elastic
  4. C) price-elastic
  5. D) positive

 

  1. To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
  2. A) less than 0
  3. B) equal to 0
  4. C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
  2. A) horizontal
  3. B) downward-sloping
  4. C) upward-sloping
  5. D) vertical

 

  1. The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
  2. A) between 1 and 0
  3. B) less than 0
  4. C) equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
  2. A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
  3. B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
  4. C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
  5. D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

 

  1. According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
  2. A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  3. B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  4. C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  5. D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

 

  1. To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
  2. A) average.
  3. B) top.
  4. C) margin.
  5. D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

 

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

 

 

  1. (Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
  2. A) $68.50
  3. B) $100
  4. C) $50
  5. D) $10

 

  1. If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
  2. A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
  3. B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
  4. C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
  5. D) the market is producing too much of the good.

 

Question 10

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

 

 

Question 11

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following books are General Epistles

 

Question 12

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 13

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

 

Question 14

 

1 out of 1 points

 

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

 

 

 

Question 15

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

 

 

 

Question 16

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

 

 

Question 17

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

 

 

Question 18

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

 

 

 

Question 19

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

 

 

 

Question 20

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

Question 21

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

 

 

 

Question 22

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

 

Question 23

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

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Question 24

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

 

Question 25

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

 

 

Question 26

 

1 out of 1 points

 

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

 

 

 

Question 27

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 28

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

 

 

Question 29

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

 

 

 

Question 30

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

 

 

 

Question 31

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

 

 

Question 32

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

 

 

 

Question 33

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

 

 

Question 34

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

 

 

 

Question 35

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

 

 

Question 36

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 37

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

 

 

 

Question 38

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

 

 

 

Question 39

 

1 out of 1 points

 

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

 

 

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

 

 

Question 41

 

0 out of 1 points

 

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

 

Question 42

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

 

Question 43

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

Question 44

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

 

Question 45

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

 

 

Question 46

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

 

 

 

Question 47

 

1 out of 1 points

 

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 48

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

Question 49

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

 

 

 

Question 50

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 31:                Psychology

 

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

 

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

  • Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
  • Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
  • Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

 

Question 32:      Psychology

 

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

 

 

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

  1. How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 16
  6. Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
  7. correlational analysis of trait adjectives
  8. factor analysis of trait adjectives
  9. selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
  10. selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
  11. Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
  12. finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
  13. finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
  14. finds groups of variables that can be factored
  15. finds groups of variables that have similar means
  16. Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
  17. Extraversion & “Surgency”
  18. Conscientiousness & “Morality”
  19. Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
  20. Openness to Experience & “Culture”
  21. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
  22. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  23. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  24. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  25. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  26. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
  27. For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
  28. For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
  29. For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
  30. Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
  31. Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
  32. the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
  33. values are cognitions, traits are not
  34. traits appear to have more dimensions than values
  35. unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
  36. Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

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  1. Justice
  2. Transcendence
  3. Humanity
  4. Creativity
  5. Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
  6. Realistic & Enterprising
  7. Conventional & Social
  8. Artistic & Investigative
  9. Realistic & Artistic
  10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

  1. extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
  2. shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
  3. the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
  4. 2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
  5. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
  6. Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
  7. Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
  8. Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
  9. High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
  10. Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
  11. 20%
  12. 40%
  13. 60%
  14. 80%
  15. Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
  16. projection
  17. repression
  18. sublimation
  19. denial
  20. Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
  21. the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
  22. it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
  23. fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
  24. it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
  25. One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
  26. Unconscious, ego, repression
  27. Unconscious, id, reaction formation
  28. Preconscious, superego, regression
  29. Preconscious, superfly, fixation
  30. Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
  31. being unfalsifiable
  32. being unscientific
  33. being deterministic
  34. being simplistic
  35. Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
  36. the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
  37. pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
  38. self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
  39. emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
  40. Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
  41. fate
  42. the weather
  43. hard work
  44. bad mood
  45. Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
  46. High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
  47. High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
  48. Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
  49. Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
  50. Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
  51. it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
  52. it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
  53. having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
  54. defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
  55. Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

  1. Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
  2. Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
  3. Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
  4. Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
  5. Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
  6. mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
  7. there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
  8. rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
  9. rank order stability increases with age
  10. Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

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  1. it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
  2. it increases with age.
  3. it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
  4. it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
  5. According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
  6. Shame & doubt
  7. Isolation
  8. Guilt
  9. Inferiority
  10. Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
  11. entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
  12. entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
  13. incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
  14. incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

  1. convergent validity
  2. content validity
  3. internal consistency
  4. retest reliability
  5. Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
  6. re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
  7. discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
  8. convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
  9. internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
  10. Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
  11. infrequency scale
  12. incompatibility scale
  13. lie scale
  14. defensiveness scale
  15. Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
  16. poor predictive validity
  17. poor inter-rater reliability
  18. susceptible to faking good bias
  19. susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
  20. Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
  21. originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
  22. pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
  23. determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
  24. hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

 

 

 

 

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Question 33:                Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

 

 

Question 34:      Psychology

 

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

 

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Exam #3

 

  1. The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
  2. A) marginal utility
  3. B) maximum utility
  4. C) average utility
  5. D) required utility

 

  1. The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
  2. A) greater than that from the first.
  3. B) equal to that from the first.
  4. C) less than that from the first.
  5. D) not comparable to that of the first.

 

  1. Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
  2. A) 150
  3. B) 200
  4. C) 350
  5. D) 475

 

  1. Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
  2. A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
  3. B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
  4. C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
  5. D) MUx = MUy

 

  1. Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
  2. A) 50
  3. B) 10
  4. C) 5
  5. D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

 

  1. While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
  2. A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
  3. B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
  4. C) not be maximizing her utility.
  5. D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

 

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

 

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

 

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

 

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

 

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
  2. A) 10
  3. B) 15
  4. C) 20
  5. D) 30

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
  2. A) fifth
  3. B) sixth
  4. C) seventh
  5. D) eighth

 

  1. A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
  2. A) long run
  3. B) fixed run
  4. C) short run
  5. D) nominal run

 

Use the following to answer question 15:

 

Figure: Short-Run Costs

 

 

  1. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
  2. A) average total
  3. B) average variable
  4. C) marginal
  5. D) total

 

  1. If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
  2. A) average total cost is increasing.
  3. B) average total cost is decreasing.
  4. C) average total cost is unchanged.
  5. D) marginal cost is decreasing.

 

  1. A firm’s marginal cost is:
  2. A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
  3. B) the slope of the total cost curve.
  4. C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
  5. D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

 

  1. When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
  2. A) economies of scale
  3. B) diseconomies of scale
  4. C) constant returns to scale
  5. D) variable returns to scale

 

  1. In the model of perfect competition:
  2. A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
  3. B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
  4. C) no individual or firm has enough power to

 

 

 

 

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Question 26:                General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

 

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

 

Lysosomes

 

Peroxisomes

 

Ribosomes

 

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

 

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

 

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

 

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

 

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

 

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

 

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

 

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

 

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

 

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

 

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

 

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

 

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

 

Respiratory distress

 

Sun intolerance

 

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

 

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

 

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

 

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

 

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

 

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

 

a)Oncotic pressure

 

b)Buffering

 

c)Net filtration

 

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

 

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

 

c)Capillary oncotic

 

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

 

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

 

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

 

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

 

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

 

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

 

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

 

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

 

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

 

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

 

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

 

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

 

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

 

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

 

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

 

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

 

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

 

a)Hypopolarization

 

b)Hyperexcitability

 

c)Depolarization

 

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

 

a)20:1

 

b)1:20

 

c)10:2

 

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

 

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

 

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

 

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

 

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

 

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

 

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

 

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

 

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

 

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

 

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

 

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

 

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

 

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

 

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

 

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

 

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

 

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

 

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

 

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

 

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

 

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

 

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

 

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

 

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

 

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

 

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

 

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

 

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

 

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

 

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

 

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

 

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

 

 

Question 9:        Psychology

 

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

 

 

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

  1. Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
    3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
    4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
  2. Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
    7. Intervention plan for the family
    8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
    9. Prognosis for the family
    10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

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Question 10:      Science

 

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

 

 

 

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Question 11:      General

 

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

 

  • Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
  • Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
  • Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
  • Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

 

Instructions

 

  1. Select trade agreement, market and sector
  2. Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
  3. Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

  1. Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

 

  1. Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
  2. Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
  3. The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
  4. Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
  5. Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

 

  1. Starting your research
  2. Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
  3. Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
  4. Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
  5. Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
  6. Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
  7. Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
  8. Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.voyage.gc.ca

www.intercultures.ca

www.strategis.gc.ca

www.transparency.org

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

 

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  1. Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

 

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

 

Required sources (at least 6):

  1. At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

 

  1. Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

  • Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
  • Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

 

  1. Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

 

Required sources (at least 10):

  1. At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
  3. One printed book (such as the textbook)

 

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Business opportunity Identifies significant opportunity Identifies good opportunity Identifies adequate opportunity Identifies some opportunity Does not identify a clear opportunity /1
Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

 

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively Uses professional sources sufficiently Uses professional sources adequately Uses some professional sources Does not use professional sources  

/1

 

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

 

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors Writing is unclear, with too many errors Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors  

/0.5

Total: /5

Group members:

  1. ________________________________
  2. ________________________________
  3. ________________________________
  4. ________________________________

 

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Content: Business opportunity Effectively presents the opportunity Sufficiently present the opportunity Adequately presents the opportunity Present the opportunity acceptably Does not clearly identify the opportunity /2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

Documentation: Use of professional sources All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation  

/1

Organization Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation  

/1

PowerPoint quality Attractive, easy to follow, no errors Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors Attractive, easy to follow, many errors Not attractive, many errors Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors  

/1

Speaking skills

(articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)

 

 

Excellent

 

 

Good

 

 

Adequate

 

 

Acceptable

 

 

Inadequate

 

 

/1

Length of presentation Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime Does not use 10 minutes adequately  

/1

Q&A Handles the questions effectively Handles the questions properly Handles the questions adequately Handles the questions satisfactorily Does not handle the questions satisfactorily /1
Total: /10

 

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Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

throughout

 

 

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors Documents sources using APA format with many errors Does not use APA format adequately Does not use APA format  

/0.5

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