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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

Question 1: Mathematics

Math 111 – S2020 – Covering Week 14 – Weekly Assignment

Directions: Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work. Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so. All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering. Your final answer must be circled.

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem. Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between and its antiderivative. Give examples.

(5 points) Using the knowledge that , explain why the indefinite integral must have the “added at the end. Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

Two students are studying on campus. Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library. Zach texts John that he’s hungry. John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer. Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time. Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

Given Zach travels with the velocity and John travels with velocity where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach. In other words, and

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer? How long does it take John to get there?

( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by and the x-axis. Determine the area bound by by and the x-axis.

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

( 6 points)

Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
Evaluate the definite integral to find the area bound by and the x-axis.
Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

For on the interval using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval. Which will overestimate? Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values. You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

Question 2: Finance

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

(iii) Provide for auditors remuneration
(iv) Income tax expense
(v) Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
(vi) Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

(vii) Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
(viii) Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
(ix) On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

(a) Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
(21 Marks)
(b) Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
(4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

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Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

Question 3: Mathematics

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

	A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
	A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
	A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
	A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
	A 95% confidence interval with

A.	2.262
B.	2.861
C.	1.671
D.	2.045
E.	2.571
F.	2.205
G.	1.665

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best). For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications. State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better. State the null and alternative hypotheses.

For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

	a.	Type I Error
	b.	Type II Error
	c.	We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
	d.	We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

	The critical value at 90% confidence is
	Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
	The value of 1-P should be set equal to
	The organization must select an SRS of at least

A.	1.645
B.	0.50
C.	0.50
D.	423
E.	1.96
F.	1.976
G.	.25
H.	.75
I.	466
J.	1692

Question 4: Chemistry

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

Temperature of Air (^oC) (x-axis)	Volume of Air (mL) (y-axis)
100	140
20	110
4	105

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________^oC

Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

Answer:

Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3^oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 ^oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

Answer:

Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

Answer:

Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

Answer:

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

1. Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

2. Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

3. Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t₁ vs. v₁, t₂ vs. v₂ and t₃ vs.v₃). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

	Temperature (°C)	Volume of Water (mL)	Volume of Air (mL) (Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)
Part 1 (t₁, v₁)
Part 2 (t₂, v₂)
Part 3 (t₃, v₃)	Temperature of Boiling water:		Total Volume of Flask:

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

Absolute Zero: _____________^oC

Question 5: Other

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted. While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
Major divisions are clear visually.
All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

No misspellings or typos are present.
Writer uses complete sentences.
Work is writer’s original text.
Grammar and punctuation are correct

Question 6: History

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

Question 7: Law

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus. You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

II.

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female. In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination. Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City. The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

III.

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram. Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

Question 8: Computer Science

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

Question 9: General

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

A B C

Adversity Beliefs About A Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events) (Our thoughts) (how we feel and behave)

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

Question 10: Other

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity. I am giving you quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons. Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image. Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core? (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms:

aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different. Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life? Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law. Take all this to the next step. Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

Part II

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

Question 11: Religious Studies

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

Question 12: Finance

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

	Year 1	Year 2	Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project:	€1,800,000	€2,900,000	€2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project:	€350,000	€390,000	€280,000

BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

Question 13: Business Finance

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

Question 14: Finance

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

Question 15: Engineering

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

Question 16: Mathematics

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

Question 17: Computer Science

Assignment 3 Question

Further Background

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

Complete the Following

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

Agile Methodologies

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

Plan and Monitor Project

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA	STANDARDS
CRITERIA	High Distinction	Distinction	Credit	Pass	Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why. 6 marks	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00)	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09)	Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49)	Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89)	Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)
Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project. Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration. Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration. 6 marks	Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (5.10-6.00)	Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (4.50-5.09)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. (3.90-4.49)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors. (3.00-3.89)	Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong. Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong. Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong. (0.00-2.99)
Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures) 2 Marks	Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49)	Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29)	Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation 1 Marks	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00)	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84)	Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74)	Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64)	Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

Question 18: Business

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

Question 19: General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

Question 20: General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

Question 21: General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

Question 22: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 23: Statistics

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor. The participants are divided by gender. Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

Question 24: Music

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

They taught themselves.

They learned in school.

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

None of the above

Machismo

It was difficult for them to learn the music

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

immigration

drug dealing

social diseases

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

Form

Texture

Pitch

Timbre

4.Rhythm

Volume and articulation of sounds

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

Frequency of the tone

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

Refers to the dancer him/herself

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

Body

Time

Space

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

. Idiophones

. Chordophones

1.Aerophones

Vibrations of air columns

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

Vibrations of strings

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

A piano solo

An opera

An open drum circle

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

the sung farewell in a corrido.

a statement of protest in popular song.

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

Diaspora

Essentialization

Stereotype

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

Triple meter

Compound meter

Huapango

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

Tecnobanda

Quebredita

Chicken scratch

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

Gloría Rios

Amparo Ochoa

Judith Reyes

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

Emilio Zapata

Jorge Negrete

Agustín Lara

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

Idiophone

Membranophone

Aerophone

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

Bajo sexto

Mandolin

Guitarrón

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

giving space to women composers.

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

Question 21 options:

Kunqu

Zarzuela

Opera

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

Zapateado

Ceili

Baile

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

May 5th.

April 15th.

September 16th.

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

Music, verse, and instrumentation

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

Music, verse, and choreography

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

Question 25 (1 point)

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

True

False

Question 26 (1 point)

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

True

False

Question 27 (1 point)

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

True

False

Question 28 (1 point)

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Question 29 (1 point)

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Question 30 (1 point)

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

True

False

Question 31 (1 point)

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

True

False

Question 32 (1 point)

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

True

False

Question 33 (1 point)

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

True

False

Question 34 (1 point)

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

True

False

Question 35 (1 point)

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

True

False

Question 36 (1 point)

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

True

False

Question 37 (1 point)

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

True

False

Question 38 (1 point)

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

True

False

Question 39 (1 point)

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

True

False

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Question 25: Business

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled. For example:

What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

Question 26: Business

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

Question 27: Business

For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 28: Economics

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

Question 10

0 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 1

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 3

10 out of 10 points

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

Question 29: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 30: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 31: Psychology

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

Grogginess

Blurred vision

Headaches

Dryness of the mouth

The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

transfer information into long-term memory.

remember significant events from the distant past.

perform basic mathematical calculations.

remember one’s own name.

One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

is generally reversible

is not reversible

involves a slow increase in symptoms

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

can result from short term use

can result from low doses

occurs in less than 2% of patients

may often be irreversible

Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

A familiar person is actually a double.

You are a famous or important person.

People are out to get you.

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

The rights of mentally ill individuals

The rights of society to be protected

both of these

neither of these

Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

NGRI

GBMI

both of these

neither of these

In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

schizotypal personality disorder

schizoaffective disorder

schizophreniform disorder

brief psychotic disorder

One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

both of these statements are correct

neither of these statements are correct

Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

children tend to outgrow ADHD

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

restricted behavior pattern

social impairment

ritualistic behavior

maintenance of sameness

Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

an anxiety disorder

a mood disorder

a split personality

obsessive-compulsive disorder

The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

careless mistakes

fidgeting

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

all of these

If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

head trauma

Parkinson’s disease

Huntington’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

Disorganized speech

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

psychological testing

mental status exam

autopsy

reported observations of the patient by family members

Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

hallucinations

delusions

both a and b

neither a nor b

Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

dementia

Alzheimer’s

delirium

amnesic disorder

In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

hallucinations.

delusions.

both of these

neither of these

One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

None of the above

Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

Which of the following statements is true?

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

None of these

The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

is based on well controlled studies

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

has no scientific evidence

Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

stimulant medication

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

over-involvement

criticism

emotional distance

Hostility

Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

have a genetic component

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

are unique to children

Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

at birth

by age one

by age three

by teen years

At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

jealous

erotomanic

somatic

persecutory

The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

variable home structure

unshared environment

environmental phenomenon

unique perceptive interpretation

Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

Question 32: Psychology

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

the development of primary sex characteristics

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

hypothalamus

pituitary gland

thyroid hormones

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

epiphyses.

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

estrogens

androgens

thyroid glands

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

infants.

toddlers.

elementary schoolchildren.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

greater in girls than boys.

about the same in both genders.

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

Lilly, someone who began dating early

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

body fat.

hormones.

diet and exercise.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

sex differences in body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

appearance of facial hair

growth of testes and scrotum

growth of penis

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

genetically inherited.

often determined culturally.

a major embarrassment for most boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

underarm hair.

menarche.

acne.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

androgens only; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; testes

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

regular ovulation

development of the nipples of the breasts

growth of pubic hair

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

nutritional deficiencies

excessive exercise

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

genetic factors.

environmental factors.

None of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

good nutrition

family conflict

peer pressure

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

her most stressful days of the month

days she feels most sexually aroused

her biological sister living in a different city

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

endocrine trend.

menarche trend.

secular trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

secular trend.

longitudinal trend.

physiologic trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

sanitation.

infectious diseases.

genetics.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

cross-sectional

cross-sequential

secular

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

cross-sectional study.

cross-sequential study.

correlational study.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

early maturation

stressful life events

the delayed phase preference

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

family relationships.

nutrition.

activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

longitudinal design.

adolescent growth spurt.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

mood fluctuations throughout the day

television, computers, and artificial light sources

early school starting times

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

school should be held year-round.

school should begin later in the morning.

school should begin earlier in the morning.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

less likely to be depressed.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

Alison, who is a late mature

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

when the girl reaches menarche early

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

do better in school.

be ostracized by their classmates.

get along with their parents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

greater popularity

a more positive self-concept

greater confidence in one’s self

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

experiment with drugs and alcohol

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

often expected to be more mature than they are.

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

more intellectual curiosity.

greater exploratory behavior.

higher levels of social initiative.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

less frequent temper tantrums

less depression

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

being less popular, especially with boys

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

have a more negative self-image.

succeed in school.

perceive themselves as attractive.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

the developmental readiness hypothesis

the maturational deviance hypothesis

genetic makeup

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

All of the above.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

early; late

late; late

early; early

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

delayed phase preference

secular trend

feedback loop

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

early-maturing Black girls

early-maturing White boys

early-maturing White girls

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

decreases from childhood to adolescence.

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

normal adolescent eating patterns.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

depression

alcohol and tobacco use

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder

obesity.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder.

deprivation syndrome.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

obesity nervosa.

purging.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

to be physically inactive.

suffer from chronic illness.

anorexia nervosa.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

chronic illness.

cardiovascular disease.

risky behaviors.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

suicide

homicide

cancer

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

Hispanic females

White females

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

whether biologic

Question 33: Education

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

Question 34: Health Care

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 35: Health Care

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

Question 36: Health Care

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m² of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

Question 37: Other

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

· Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
· Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

· Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
· Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
· Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

· Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
· Custom Tab Stops
· Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

· Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
· Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

· Custom Margins
· WordArt
· Paragraph Shading
· Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
· Insert and format an image
· A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
· Columns

Submission:

· Print your document
· Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.

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Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score	Item	12	8	4	0
	Content	Content is well chosen and well written	Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content	Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written	Very little relevant content is included in the resume
	Overall Look	Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing	Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional	Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional	Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
	Header/Footer	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document.	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document	Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer	Content is not included in the header or footer
	Tab Stops	Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable	Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable	Custom tab stops make the content less readable	Custom tab stops are not applied
	Styles	Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing	Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Styles make the content less readable	Styles are not applied
	Font Choices	Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing	Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Font choices make the content less readable	Custom fonts and font styles are not included
	Paragraph and Line Spacing	Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing	Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable	Custom spacing makes the content less readable	Custom spacing is not included
	Other Features	Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism	Did not use any other features

Question 38: Biology

Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

________________________

In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

Which of the following statements are FALSE?
An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
BB X Bb
Bb x bb
BB X bb
Bb x Bb

Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
Because both parents passed on white alleles

In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
male with
male without
female with
female without

14 The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

What is the name of this graphic device?

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’. The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

Question 39: Biology

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

Why study primates?
What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
Why do primates have long growth and development?
What are the primate residence patterns?
What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
What is the importance of grooming?
How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
What is the basic primate social unit?
How do primates communicate?
What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
How do primates acquire food?
How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

- What is a hominin?
- Why did hominins emerge?
- Patchy Forest Hypothesis
- Provisioning Hypothesis
- What is bipedalism?
- What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?

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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

What is honing and non-honing chewing?
What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

Homo hablis
o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

Homo naledi
Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

What are archaic Homo sapiens?
Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

Australopithecines (robust)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

Homo	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019


Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

Question 40: Finance

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

Question 41: Finance

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

Question 1: Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

Substance abuse

Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Compensation
B. Denial
C. Suppression
D. Undoing
Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
Alcohol
B. Barbiturates
C. Heroin
D. Marijuana
Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
Aid in GABA inhibition.
B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonidine
D. Methadone
Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
B. Recurrent flashback events
C. Psychological dependence after initial use
D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
C. Women working in careers outside the home
D. Women working in the home
Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
Depressant.
B. Hallucinogenic.
C. Stimulant.
D. Tranquilizing.
When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
Acetylcholine excess
B. Dopamine depletion
C. Serotonin inhibition
D. Norepinephrine rebound
Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
Caretaking.
B. Codependent.
C. Helpful.
D. Supportive.
During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
How long have you used substances?
B. How often do you use substances?
C. How do you get substances into your body?
D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
E. How much of each substance do you use?
F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
G. What substances do you use?

Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain
Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
B. Control eating impulses
C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
D. Eat only three meals per day
A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
“I trust you not to purge.”
B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
“If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
C. The family is poor
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
Remaining with the client and staying calm
B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
C. Discussing the future with the client
D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
B. Focus discussions on food and weight
C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
Carbonated beverages
B. Aftershave lotion
C. Toothpaste
D. Cheese
Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
B. Provide privacy during meals
C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
C. Use of drugs or alcohol
D. History of previous victimization
A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
Acetate accumulation
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Triglyceride buildup.
D. A below-normal serum potassium level
A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
Client’s physical needs
B. Client’s safety needs
C. Client’s psychosocial needs
D. Client’s medical needs
The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
Accept responsibility for own behaviors
B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
A postoperative infection
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Acute sepsis.
D. Pneumonia.
Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Opiate withdrawal
D. Cocaine withdrawal
A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
D. Epinephrine.
A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
“I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
“Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
B. Depression and physical withdrawal
C. Silence and noncompliance
D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
“I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
Coronary artery spasm
B. Brady arrhythmias
C. Neurobehavioral deficits
D. Panic disorder
A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
Begin after seven (7) days
B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
Keeping the client restrained in bed
B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
D. One who talks about wanting to die
Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
Allergies
B. Cancer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hepatitis A
Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
The student discusses conflicts over drug use
B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
Clozapine (Clozaril)
B. Thiothixene (Navane)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
Al-Anon
B. Make Today Count
C. Emotions Anonymous
D. Alcoholics Anonymous
A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Narcissistic personality disorder
Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
Has only moderate impulse control
B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
Manipulate her husband
B. Gain control of one part of her life
C. Commit suicide
D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
Psychotherapy
B. Total abstinence
C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
D. Aversion therap

Paranoid schizo, schizo

A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
an example of presenting reality.
B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
C. focusing on emotional content.
D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
“I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
D. go to their room until the voices go away.
A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
Assist the client with feeding.
B. Assist the client with showering.
C. Reassure the client about safety.
D. Encourage socialization with peers.
A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
has a more predictable onset of action.
B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
C. produces fewer drug interactions.
D. has a longer duration of action.
A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
“Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
Risk for violence toward self or others
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
C. Ineffective family coping
D. Impaired verbal communication
The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
delusion.
B. looseness of association.
C. illusion.
D. hallucination.
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. haloperidol (Haldol)
D. midazolam (Versed)
A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
“I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
“This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Tardive dyskinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
Aggressive behavior
B. Paranoid thoughts
C. Emotional affect
D. Independence needs
During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
“When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
a false belief about the functioning of the body.
B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
Agranulocytosis
B. Extrapyramidal effects
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
Helping the client to participate in social interactions
B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
Benztropine (Cogentin).
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
C. propranolol (Inderal).
D. haloperidol (Haldol).
A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

Question 2: Heath Care

A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

A) Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
B) Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
C) Encourage the client to go to bed early.
D) Keep the client busy during the day.

A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

A) Provide ample information.
B) Support the client when in delusion.
C) Reduce distracting stimuli.
D) Offer a large-muscle activity

Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

A) Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
B) Administer lithium before meals.
C) Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
D) Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

A) Reactive depression
B) Mania
C) Psychotic depression
D) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

A) Weight gain
B) Lack of energy
C) Memory loss
D) Increased sleep

What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Hyperalertness

Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

A) Euthymia
B) Dysthymia
C) Cyclothymia
D) Psychotic depression

Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

A) Psychosis
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Hallucinations

Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine

Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

A) Behavioral therapy
B) Supportive psychotherapy
C) Interpersonal psychotherapy
D) Cognitive therapy

The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

A) Major depression
B) Seasonal affective disorder
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Reactive depression

The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

A) The central nervous system
B) The autonomic nervous system
C) The limbic system
D) The peripheral nervous system

A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

A) Serotonin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dopamine
The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

A) Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

B) Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

C) Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

D) Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

A) “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
B) “How long have you been taking the medication?”
C) “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
D) “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

Page 6

A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
A) Fruit salad
B) Lobster
C) Pork medallions
D) Spinach and feta salad

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

A) Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
B) Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
C) Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
D) Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

A) Hypertension
B) Dizziness
C) Hallucinations
D) Sexual dysfunction

The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A) “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
B) “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
C) “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
D) “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

A) Vagal nerve stimulation
B) Electroconvulsive therapy
C) Deep brain stimulation
D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

A) Headache
B) Blurred vision
C) Hearing loss
D) Vertigo

Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

A) Do not leave any syringe unattended.
B) Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
C) View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

D) Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

A) “How are you currently feeling?”
B) “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
C) “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
D) “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

A) Hopelessness
B) Risk for Injury
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Coping

Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

A) Client appearance
B) Body language
C) Speech
D) Energy level
E) Work history

The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

A) Thyroid gland and thyroxin
B) Pineal gland and melatonin
C) Pancreas and insulin
D) Pituitary gland and oxytocin

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

A) September/October
B) February/March
C) April/May
D) December/January

When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

A) The disease remits as the client ages.
B) The disease increases as the client ages.
C) The depression increases as the client ages.
D) The manic phase increases as the client ages.

The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

A) A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
B) Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
C) Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
D) Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

A) Antidiabetics
B) Antihypertensives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Antianginals

The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

A) Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

B) Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
C) Limit sodium intake daily.
D) Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
E) Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
F) Monitor intake and output

The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

A) Mania
B) Hypothyroidism
C) A pituitary deficiency
D) A cerebral vascular accident

When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

A) Cold and allergy medications
B) Antiulcer medications
C) Multivitamins
D) Laxatives

Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

A) Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
B) Install skylights.
C) Sleep in a darkened room.
D) Stay indoors during the winter time.

The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
A) Speaking in slow, brief sentences
B) Presenting the reality of the situation
C) Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
D) Being present without speaking

Question 3: Health Care

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

“I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
“I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
“I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
“I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

Bladder distention
Decreased blood pressure
Calf swelling
Diminished bowel sounds
Calf swelling

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
Remove the stockings at least once per shift
Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

Auscultate lung sounds
Measure urine output
Monitor blood pressure readings
Monitor serum electrolyte levels
Auscultate lung sounds

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

“I can concentrate best in the morning.”
“It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
“I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
“You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Touch the face with a cotton ball
Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

Walking briskly
Riding a bicycle
Performing isometric exercises
Engaging in high-impact aerobics

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Erythema on pressure points
Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
A bowel movement every other day

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Check the client for injuries
Move hazardous objects away from the client
Notify the provider
Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

“I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
“Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
“You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
“The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

“Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
“Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
“Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
“Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

Insert an implanted port
Close a laceration with sutures
Place an endotracheal tube
Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

Lacrimal apparatus
Pupil clarity
Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
Visual fields
Visual acuity

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Protective environment

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
Draw up medications together in the same syringe
Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
Cleanse the wound from the center outward
Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

Purulent exudate
Warmth
Skin blanching
Bleeding

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

Critical pathway
Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
Transfer report
Medication administration record (MAR)

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

Protective environment
Airborne precautions
Droplet precaution
Contact precautions

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

Suction the client’s airway
Administer a bronchodilator
Increase the humidity in the client’s room
Assist the client to an upright position

A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

Bend at the waist
Keep his feet close together
Use his back muscles for lifting
Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

The medication
The route
The dose
The frequency

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

Tomato juice
Banana slices
Pancakes
Fried egg

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

“What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
“I blame medical science for not curing me.”
“Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
“Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask the client to consider a direct donation
Withhold the blood transfusion
Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

Role ambiguity
Sick role
Role overload
Role conflict

Role overload

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

“When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
“Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
“At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
“Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

Biofeedback
Aloe
Feverfew
Acupuncture

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

“I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
“I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
“I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
“I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

“We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
“This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
“After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
“We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Tell the client which food should eat first.
Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

“I’m having mild pain.”
“The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
“I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
“The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

“They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
“They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
“They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
“They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Neck vein distention
Urine specific gravity 1.010
Rapid heart rate
Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
Administer a pain medication to the client

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Place the client in a side-lying position
Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
Shave excess hair from the insertion site
Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

Side-lying
Supine
Semi-Fowler’s
Trendelenburg

Question 4: Health Care

1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Turn the patient every 2 hr
i) The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
b) Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
i) The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end of life
c) Hold oral care
i) The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
d) Increase the room’s temperature
i) Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

2) A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

a) Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
i) The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
b) Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
i) A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
c) Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
i) Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
d) Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
i) The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

3) A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Place the client in a side lying position
i) The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
b) Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
i) Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
c) Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
i) The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
d) Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
i) The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

4) A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

a) The client is receiving formula at room temperature
i) Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
b) The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
i) Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
c) The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
i) Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
d) The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
i) It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

5) A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

a) Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
i) A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
b) Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
i) And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
c) Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
i) The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
d) Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
i) The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

6) A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

a) Protective environment
i) Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
b) Airborne precautions
i) Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
c) Droplets precautions
i) Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
d) Contact precautions
i) Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

7) A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
i) The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
b) Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
i) Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
c) Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
i) In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
d) Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
i) Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

8) A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

a) Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
i) The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
b) Complete an incident report
i) The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
c) Consult the facility’s risk manager
i) The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
d) Notify the nursing manager
i) The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

9) A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

a) “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
i) As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
b) “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
i) Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
c) “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
i) Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
d) “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
i) Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

10) A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

a) “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
b) “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
c) “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
i) The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
d) “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
i) With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

11) A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

a) Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
i) The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
b) Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
i) Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
c) Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
i) Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
d) Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
i) An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

12) A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a) “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
i) A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
b) “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
i) Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
c) “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
i) The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
d) “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
i) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

13) A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
i) A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
b) Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
i) Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
c) Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
i) The nurse should not lock the remaining controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
d) Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
i) The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

14) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

a) “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
b) “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
i) This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
c) “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
d) “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
i) This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

15) A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

a) Insert the catheter at 45* angle
i) Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
b) Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
i) The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
c) Shave excess hair from the insertion site
i) The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
d) Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
i) The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

16) A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

a) Use a bed exit alarm system
i) The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
b) Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
i) Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
c) Apply one soft wrist restraint
i) Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
d) Dim the lights in the pt’s room
i) Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

17) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Assist the pt into a prone position
i) The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
b) Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
i) The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
c) Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
i) The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
d) Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
i) The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

18) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a) Numbness of the extremities
i) Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
b) Bradycardia
i) Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
c) Positive Chvostek’s sign
i) A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
d) Abdominal cramping
i) The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

19) A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

a) Crackles
i) Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
b) Rhonchi
i) Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
c) Friction rub
i) Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
d) Normal breath sounds
i) These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

20) A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a) “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
b) “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
c) “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
i) The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
d) “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

21) A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

a) Increase in hematocrit
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
b) Increase in respiratory rate
i) Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
c) Decrease in heart rate
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
d) Decrease in capillary refill time
i) Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

22) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

a) Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
i) The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
b) Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
i) The 1^staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
c) Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
i) If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
d) Administer a pain medication to the client
i) Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

23) A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

a) Role ambiguity
i) Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
b) Sick role
i) Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
c) Role overload
i) The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
d) Role conflict
i) Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

24) A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

a) Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
i) The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
b) Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
i) The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
c) Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
i) The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5^thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
d) Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
i) When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

25) A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

a) During the admission process
i) Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
b) As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
i) Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
c) During the initial team conference
i) Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
d) After consulting with the pt’s family
i) The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

26) A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a) “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
i) Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
b) “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
i) Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
c) “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
i) Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
d) “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
i) Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

27) A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

a) A lesion with uniform pigmentation
i) Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
b) New appearance of petechiae
i) Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
c) A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
i) An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
d) The presence of a papule
i) Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

28) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Insert the needle at a 15* angle
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
b) Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
c) Administering the medication into the abdomen
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
d) Massage the site following the injection
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

29) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a) Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
i) The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
b) Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
i) Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO₂)
c) Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
i) The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
d) Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
i) Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

30) A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

a) Critical pathway
i) A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
b) Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
i) SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
c) Transfer report
i) The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
d) Medication administration record (MAR)
i) The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

31) A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
i) The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
b) Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
i) The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
c) Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
i) The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
d) Massage the injection site after administration
i) The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

32) A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

a) The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
i) The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
b) When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
i) To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
c) The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
i) The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
d) The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
i) The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

33) A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

a) “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
b) “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
i) Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
c) “Does the pain radiate?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
d) “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

34) A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

a) The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
i) The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
b) The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
i) The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
c) The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
i) The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
d) The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
i) The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

35) A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

a) Alginate
i) Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
b) Guaze
i) Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
c) Transparent
i) Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
d) Hydrocolloid
i) Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

36) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

a) Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
i) The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
b) Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
i) The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

Question 5: Health Care

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)   Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)   Tarsals
b)   Tibia
c)   Sphenoid
d)   Scapula
e)   Clavicle

3) Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

a
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

8) How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

10) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

12) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

a)   E
b)   F
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

14) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)   H
c)   I
d)   J
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

16) The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   G
e)   None of the selections are correct

18) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)   D
b)   E
c)   F
d)   I
e)   J

20) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)   E
b)   B
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

22) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

24) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

26) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

28) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

30) This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and C

34) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
a)   B
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

37) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

38)   Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

39) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)   Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

41) Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

a)   C
b)   D
c)   H
d)   I
e)   J

43) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   B
e)   F

45) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

47) This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

Question 6: Biology

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene. Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

Question 7: Chemistry

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

Question 8: Physics

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

Question 9: Psychology

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

What topic and research question did you pursue?
How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
What insights did you gather about your research question?
What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

Question 10: Statistics

Mid Semester Assignment

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

(20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a) What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b) All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c) The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

(14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

(20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

(a) Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b) What is the mean and variance of X?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d) If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e) The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

(37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

(a) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

(b) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

(c) Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

(d) Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

(e) Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

(i) If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

(9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

(a) What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

(b) What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

(c) If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

(d) When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

Question 11: Psychology

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

Question 12: Business

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

Question 13: Business

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

Question 14: Statistics

Assignment #4

A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

Assignment 3

1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
c. What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

3. Use the table below to answer the questions below:

Column A Z score	Column B Area Between the mean and Z	Column C Area beyond the Z score
.12	.0478	.4522
1.40	.4192	.0808
1.41	.4207	.0793
1.42	.4222	.0778
1.43	.4236	.0762
1.44	.4251	.0749
1.45	.4265	.0735
1.46	.4279	.0721
1.47	.4292	.0708
1.48	.4306	.0694
1.49	.4319	.0681

What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student	Year	Criminal Justice Major
1	Sophmore	Yes
2	Senior	No
3	Junior	Yes
4	Freshman	No
5	Freshman	Yes
6	Sophmore	Yes
7	Sophmore	Yes
8	Junior	No
9	Sophmore	Yes
10	Sophmore	No

What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
a sophomore?
a student majoring in sociology?
a freshman or a sophomore?
not a freshman?

What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

Question 15: Sociology

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

Question 16: History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17: General Question

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

Question 18: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 19: Mathematics

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

Question 20: Nursing

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

Question 21: Biology

Why Study Biology?
What is Life?
What About?
How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
Role of Experiments
Experimental Design
Experimental Problems
Higher Levels of Organization
Scientific Names
Categories of Biological Classification
Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
Fungi
Plants
Animals
Animal Cell Features
History of Microscopes & Cells
Cell Theory
Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
Components of Nucleus

Question 22: Accounting

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?

11d. Producer surplus is the

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?

17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:

27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?

29c. The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:

The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:

31c. Frictional unemployment is

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases

34a. Technological improvement causes

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

40d. An increase in the price level will

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?

Question 23: Accounting

1)   The financial system is primarily a means by which   1)
A)   funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)   the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)   business firms distribute their goods.
D)   money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)   Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?   2)
A)   Wells Fargo Bank   B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit   D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)   If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):   3)
A)   liability to both you and Intel.   B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.   D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?   4)
A)   corporate equities   B) life insurance
C) bank deposits   D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)   Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)   profitability   B) risk sharing   C) information   D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)   Economists define risk as
A)   the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)   the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)   the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Economists define liquidity as
A)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)   the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)   the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)   the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)   Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)   computer   B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine   D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)   reduces the difference between the return on three-‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)   relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)   guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)   eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-‐14 Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)   Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)   bonds.   B) dividends.   C) stocks.   D) coupons.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)   Securitization is the process of   11)
A)   issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)   converting loans into securities.
C)   issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)   reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)   If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)   a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   Financial markets   13)
A)   act as go-‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)   channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)   channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)   generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is   14)
A)   a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)   a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)   an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)   Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)   Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)   George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)   Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)   Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)   Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)   primarily through government agencies.
B)   indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)   indirectly through financial markets.
D)   directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)   Bank of America
C)   NASDAQ
D)   Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   bank   B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund   D) insurance company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)   The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)   provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)   provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)   help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)   borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)   Financial intermediaries
A)   include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)   directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)   include banks and other depository institutions.
D)   are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)   A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)   in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)   for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)   in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)   for government securities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)   A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)   both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)   both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)   both involve the use of financial markets.
D)   both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.   B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.   D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)   Economists define money as 24)
A)   cash in circulation.
B)   bonds issued by large corporations.
C)   anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)   deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)   The Federal Reserve System   25)
A)   is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)   is the central bank of the United States.
C)   is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

D) is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)   Monetary policy refers to the government’s   26)
A)   plans for retiring the national debt.
B)   management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

C)   decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
D)   decisions on how much money to spend.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Diversification refers to the   27)
A)   difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)   difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)   difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)   splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)   The purpose of diversification is to
A)   increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)   reduce tax liability.
C)   reduce risk.
D)   reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)   The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)   savers to earn interest tax-‐free.
C)   savers to hold many assets.
D)   borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   Liquidity
A)   was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)   is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)   is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)   is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)   Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)   treasury bond   B) stock
C) money market mutual fund   D) house
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)   Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)   bonds issued by state governments   B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds   D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)   The financial system performs the role of communicating information by   33)
A)   incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)   constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)   providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)   constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)   The distinguishing feature of a well-‐functioning financial market is the
A)   continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)   increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)   continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)   incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)   In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)   the Federal Reserve System.
B)   Congress and the President acting together.
C)   the President.
D)   Congress.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

36)   In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)   Fannie Mae.
B)   Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)   the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)   the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)   A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)   large businesses.   B) federal government.
C) small businesses.   D) state governments.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)   What made the recession of 2007-‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)   it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)   the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)   the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)   the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)   All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)   there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)   large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)   the financial system was disrupted
D)   unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)   Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   the savings of relatives and friends
B)   their own savings
C)   global investors
D)   local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)   All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)   it involves small loans
B)   lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)   many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-‐income countries
D)   the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)   Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)   Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)   Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)   More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)   Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2   Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)   The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)   securitization   B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading   D) microlending
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)   Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)   securitization   B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting   D) lending to households
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)   All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)   coupon payments on bonds   B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks   D) fees on loans

46)   Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both   50)
A)   help regulate the banking system.
B)   reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)   sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)   directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)   All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   alt-‐A mortgages.
B)   mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)   adjustable-‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)   subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52) Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A) when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

C) when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)   All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   lenders loosened lending standards.
B)   borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)   mortgage-‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)   investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15-‐16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)   Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)   those with fixed-‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)   those with adjustable-‐rate mortgages
C)   subprime borrowers
D)   those with alt-‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)   The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed   55)
A)   the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)   the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

C) the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
D) the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)   Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?   56)
A)   J.P. Morgan   B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)   Alt-‐A borrowers were those who
A)   borrowed using “ʺinterest-‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)   did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)   chose adjustable-‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-‐rate mortgages.
D)   used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)   The financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)   American International Group (AIG)   B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)   At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)   declines in the value of mortgage-‐backed securities.
B)   holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)   defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)   not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

60)   Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:   60)
A)   alt A   B) securitized   C) adjustable   D) subprime
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)   The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to   61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)   allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)   increase the return to savers
D)   enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)   An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently   1) is
A)   they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)   they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)   the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)   they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)   By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)   goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)   individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)   individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)   individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)   The most important economic benefit from specialization is that it   3)
A)   eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)   makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)   makes barter possible.
D)   leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   When an economy relies on specialization,   4)
A)   each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)   the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)   each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)   Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must   5)
A)   have an extensive system of higher education.
B)   develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)   be heavily agricultural.
D)   be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)   Barter is   6)
A)   the basis for economic specialization.
B)   the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)   another name for money.
D)   an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Under a system of barter   7)

A)   currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)   goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)   each individual trades output directly with another.
D)   only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8)   Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)   An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)   An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)   An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)   An individual deposits three twenty-‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   In a barter system individuals   9)
A)   will almost invariably specialize.
B)   find it impossible to specialize.
C)   find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)   must be entirely self-‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)   A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)   the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)   taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)   the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)   traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11) Under a barter system
A) each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

B) prices for goods are very stable.
D) each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12) How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)   poorly-‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)   the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)   the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)   the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card. Andy’ʹs problem illustrates the drawback to a barter system known as A) the specialization problem.
B)   the transactions problem.
C)   the many prices problem.
D)   the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)   Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)   Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)   The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)   Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)   Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)   Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)   government rationing
B)   barter
C)   money
D)   the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)   Marlboro cigarettes   B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins   D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)   Money eliminates the need for
A)   people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)   specialization.
C)   the market system.
D)   any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)   Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that   19)
A)   the need for specialization is reduced.
B)   the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)   the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)   transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)   Commodity money can best be described as   20)
A)   standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)   a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21) Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A) the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)   The introduction of money to an economy results in:   22)
A)   a more efficient barter system   B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization   D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   Money can BEST be described as:   23)
A)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)   any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)   commodities that have intrinsic value
D)   paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24) Money is a medium of exchange in that 26)

A)   it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)   other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)   currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)   money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)   checks at commercial banks.
B)   currency.
C)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)   gold coins.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)   When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)   money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)   money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

29)   When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)   money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)   money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   An asset is
A)   the same thing as a liability.   B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

C) anything that never declines in value. D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)   The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money   31)
A)   may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)   serves as a medium of exchange.
C)   is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)   retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)   Wealth is
A)   equal to income.
B)   a flow variable.
C)   the sum of the value of assets.
D)   the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)   The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)   stock of all assets, money is an individual’s stock of currency and currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Question 24: Economics

Real wages in the United States in the long run:
A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
The long-run trend of real wages:
A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
C. has been upward.
D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
A. decreased by 2 percent.
B. increased by 2 percent.
C. increased by 3 percent.
D. increased by 8 percent.
Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
A. total output.
B. stock of capital.
C. output per worker.
D. international trade.
Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
A. the law of diminishing returns.
B. improvements in technology.
C. reductions in wage rates.
D. increases in the quantity of labor.

The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
D. the supply of labor has increased.
If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 3 percent.
C. fall by 3 percent.
D. rise by 11 percent.
If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 4 percent.
C. fall by 4 percent.
D. rise by 8 percent.
Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
Marginal resource cost refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
A. of diminishing returns.
B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
C. of declining MRC.
D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
A. perfectly inelastic.
B. perfectly elastic.
C. highly inelastic.
D. highly elastic.
A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
A. marginal revenue product is zero.
B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
C. marginal resource cost is zero.
D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
B. is a monopsonist.
C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
A. 2 units of labor.
B. 3 units of labor.
C. 4 units of labor.
D. 5 units of labor.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
A. $16.
B. $30.
C. $24.
D. $32.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $24.
D. $30.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
C. is a “wage taker.”
D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. has a principal-agent problem.
B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
A. $2.
B. $3.
C. $4.
D. $16.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $8.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
A. $8.
B. $52.
C. $2.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
A. pure monopolist.
B. discriminating monopolist.
C. monopolistic competitor.
D. pure competitor.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
A. 2 workers.
B. 3 workers.
C. 4 workers.
D. 5 workers.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
A. $16.
B. $24.
C. $32.
D. $48.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
A. $20.
B. $16.
C. $12.
D. $8.

Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
A. upsloping; horizontal
B. downsloping; vertical
C. vertical; upsloping
D. horizontal; upsloping

The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
A. monopsonist.
B. monopolist.
C. bilateral competitor.
D. bilateral monopolist.

In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A. $9.
B. $10.
C. $15.
D. $21.

Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

In monopsony:
A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
B. the work force is highly mobile.
C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
A. worker’s wage rate.
B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

A monopsonistic employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
A. and employment will both be lower.
B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
D. and employment will both be higher.

“Player drafts” of professional athletes:
A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

Which of the following is not correct?
A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
A. $15.
B. $25.
C. $35.
D. $45.

Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
A. W4.
B. W3.
C. W2.
D. W1.

Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
C. industrial unions.
D. craft unions.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and E.
C. B and G.
D. B and F.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and F.
C. B and F.
D. A and F.
Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
A. D minus A
B. D
C. C
D. B

Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
A. D minus A
B. F
C. C
D. B

A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
A. inclusive unionism.
B. exclusive unionism.
C. bilateral monopoly.
D. monopsony.

Occupational licensing:
A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
A. wage rate will rise.
B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
B. employment may either increase or decrease.
C. employment will increase.
D. employment will decrease.

The electricians’ union is a good example of:
A. exclusive unionism.
B. an industrial union.
C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
D. inclusive unionism.

Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
A. increasing the supply of labor.
B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
C. decreasing the demand for labor.
D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
C. increase the demand for construction workers.
D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

Craft unions:
A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
A. be logically indeterminate.
B. be established at the level desired by the union.
C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
D. always be established at the competitive level.

If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
A. a cartel.
B. countervailing power.
C. a bilateral monopoly.
D. an internal labor market.

Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
D. not alter its level of employment.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
D. eight workers would be hired.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
A. below $7.
B. between $5 and $8.
C. above $5.
D. above $8.

Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
B. economy has high unemployment.
C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
B. reduces employment.
C. undermines incentives to work.
D. is deflationary.

Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
D. geographic immobilities.

Compensating differences in wages:
A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
A. differences in worker training and skills.
B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
C. geographic immobilities.
D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

The idea of compensating differences is used:
A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

Data on education and earnings reveal:
A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
B. no relationship between the two.
C. a positive relationship between the two.
D. a negative relationship between the two.

According to age-earnings data,
A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

Human capital is best defined as:
A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
D. the exchange of money for real assets.

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. discrimination

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographical immobility of workers
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. compensating wage differentials

Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographic immobility of workers
B. discrimination
C. noncompeting groups
D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
B. the neglecting or evading of work.
C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
A. equalizing differences.
B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
C. shirking.
D. the free-rider problem.

The idea of efficiency wages is that:
A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
D. increasing the supply of labor.

Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
A. royalties.
B. profit-sharing.
C. bonuses.
D. piece rates.

A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
D. reduce total compensation payments.

Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
C. offset monopsony.
D. address the principal-agent problem.

One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

Question25: Psychology

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

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Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific. ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 26: Chemist

Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution. The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic. A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ; Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3. Be careful with the units!

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

a) Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also. Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
b) Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature. It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time. Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

Question 27: Science

Midterm Exam

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

Answer Key:

Question 28: Health Care

To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29: Health Care

Care of Adults and Older Adults

The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child. When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
Tell her this would be unprofessional.
Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes. When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%. What would you document for the assessment?
Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath. Oxygen saturation at 84%.
Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen saturation at 84%.

Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered. What sources of information would you suggest?
Parents and friends.
A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy). What teaching would you include?
How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss. She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour. She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication. What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
How well she manages through the next five contractions.

Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps. A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged. What would you include in discharge teaching?
Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
Bounding pulse and hypotension.
Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw. She is conscious. Her breathing has become noisy and shallow. Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90. What actions would you take?
Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia. When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted. He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea. What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver. He is jaundiced and malnourished. Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago. Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg. He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis. He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h. How much would he receive in each dose?
150 mg.
200 mg.
400 mg.
None of the above.

Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital. She is in respiratory distress. What initial action would you take?
Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery. She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10. When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.” Which would be the best response to her concern?
“Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
“You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
“When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
“Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells. In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia. When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.” What would be a therapeutic response?
“This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
“You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
“You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
“Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity. What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
The rate and depth of respiration.
The pulse rate and blood pres sure
The effectiveness of pain control
The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10. What actions would you take?
Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
Provide for health teaching opportunities.
When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
A high degree of motivation.
An independent learner.

When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes. What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

Which of the following legal definitions is true?
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
Obligation to the patient.
Reversing of delegation.
Empowerment of the patient.
Accountability for care.

When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
Generalized pallor and eupnea.
Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

You read through your assigned patient’s chart. The history states: “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.” What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage. What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Bradycardia and hypertension.
Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
Early onset of pain.
Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
Ascites and hematemesis.
Pulmonary edema.
Absence of jugular vein distension.
Cramps and watery diarrhea.

Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
Thin sputum and a weak cough.
Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

Nutrients are important for wound healing. Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
Impaction as a result of the surgery.
Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
Respiratory system.
Heart and circulation.
Neuro logic system.
Integumentary system.
A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What have I got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

Question 30: Health Care

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1. Technology competence is:

The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

Question 31: Law

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper.

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

Question 32: Business

Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

Q2. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

Question 33: Business

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

Question 34: English

Notes on plagiarism:

According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:

Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
Copying other students’ notes or answers.
Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

All quotations used must be referenced.

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

Exam Instructions:

There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

Part	Question No.	Marks per section
A		50
B	a	7.5
	b	5
	c	2.5
C		35
TOTAL		100

You are required to answer all THREE parts.

Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

You are required to answer ALL questions

PART A

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS (50marks)

Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

PART B

a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own. (5 Marks)

A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

________________ & ___________________
________________ & ___________________

PART C

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE” . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements. (35 Marks)

The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

/l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 35: History

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

Question 36: General

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

Question 37: Human Resource

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

Restaurant manager
c. School teacher
d. A beginner football player

Question 38: Finance

Instructions:

1	This is an individual assignment.
2	Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3	Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4	It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5	A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are : · Class ID: 24175513 · Enrollment Password: d2fin100
6	The assignment should submit online through LMS
7	You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
Assuming all sales are on credit.
Assume a 365-day year.
Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
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Required:

Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
1. Average age of Inventory
2. Average collection period
3. Average payment period
what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.

The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%

The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.

Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
Cost of cash discount
Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

Answer the following questions:
1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

	Question	Marks (%)
	Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis	10
Section A	Working Capital Management
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	25
	Theory and explanation	15
Section B	Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	30
	Explanation, discussion and analysis	15
	Conclusion and recommendation	5
	Total	100

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

Procedure Summary

Pre-Lab Questions

Experimental Data

1. Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

2. Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

3. Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

Instructions

Experimental Data and Results

Data Table

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