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Question 1:       Art

Write about this sculpture.

Statue of Hercules (Lansdowne Herakles), about A.D. 125, Roman

https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

Follow instruction. (it said artwork from a museum visit, due to virus crisis we change to online observation which is the link i provide above)

Include this:

compare this sculpture with this below

  • –  post
  • –  facial expression
  • –  muscular
  • –  heroism

Statue of a Victorious Youth, 300–100 B.C., Greek. https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

INSTRUCTION:

PURPOSE: to apply what you have learned from the course about formal elements to a single work of art. Skills:This assignment will help you hone the following skills:

  • Observation in visual analysis
  • Interpretation and application of observations to problem solving
  • Articulation of ideas using art historical terminology
  • Clear writing to express and single point

Knowledge:

  • Components of composition
  • How elements of design interact
  • The creative process in the visual arts

TASK: To complete this assignment you will:

  • Observe and note formal elements you see. Consult the list of formal elements and principles of composition below.
  • Build an argument that shows how each element you discuss contributes to the effect you are claiming the work has.
  • Keep in mind that formal elements never work alone
  • Consider how the artist uses each element on your list. Ask yourself if the artist uses that element in a consistent way (which has the effect of unifying the subjects represented), or if the artist is using that element to differentiate, and so to create a specific contrast, between two or more areas.
  • Do NOT arrive at a thesis (the claim that you are going to support) for your essay until you have finished making observations about patterns in the use of each formal element and have thought about how those observations “add up.”
  • It might be helpful to consider the element of emphasis first. Ask yourself: Does the art/object have one main point of emphasis? Or are there two or more points of equal emphasis? Alternatively, is there no point of emphasis? Your answer to these questions should help you determine where the artist wants to direct initially your attention. Make a note of it.
  • Compose a formal analysis, 750 words (approximately 3 pages, 12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)
  • You may wish to organize your discussion of formal elements by principles of composition that may result from the use of the formal elements, see below.
  • Be concise. In your first paragraph, clearly state what you think is the work’s main idea or effect—in other words, how the artist is characterizing his or her subject (or what qualities of the subject the artist is revealing). The first paragraph is the only place where a discussion of subject matter belongs. In subsequent paragraphs, support this thesis with evidence of how the various formal elements of the work contribute to that specific effect or idea.
  • Focus just on those formal elements that have the most impact in your case. You should, however, address no fewer than three formal elements (items 1 through 7 below) in a substantial manner. It is a good idea to organize your paper so that you discuss one formal element per paragraph after your initial paragraph, which should state your thesis. If relevant to your analysis, you may use a principle of composition as a topic for organizing your discussion of several formal elements.
  • Make sure that each paragraph in which you consider a formal element shows how the artist’s use of that formal element contributes to the overall effect or idea you are claiming (in your thesis, or first paragraph) the artist has achieved.
  • Do not write in narrative format, describing your experience.
  • Format your paper
  • MUST be 750 words (12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)

NOTES:

  • This is not a research assignment. You will not be rewarded, and could be penalized, for writing about irrelevant matters.
  • If the mechanics of writing is not your strength, please note that art history is a writing-based discipline. It is, therefore, recommended that, prior to handing in your assignment, you make time to visit the Learning Resource Center on the second floor of the University Library for assistance.
  • Plagiarism: Students will automatically fail the course and may be referred for further disciplinary action should the student be found plagiarizing. The 2016-17 University Catalogue, under “Student Conduct and Discipline: Academic Integrity,” at http://catalog.csupomona.edu/content.php?catoid=4&navoid=766#Academic_Integrity, defines plagiarism thus:

“Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication—Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication is intentionally or knowingly presenting words, ideas, or work of others as one’s own work. Plagiarism includes copying homework,

copying lab reports, copying computer programs, using a work or portion of a work written or created by another but not crediting the source, using one’s own work completed in a previous class for credit in another class without permission, paraphrasing another’s work without giving credit, and borrowing or using ideas without giving credit.”

*Note from the catalog’s definition of plagiarism that plagiarism may refer to copying the work of a fellow student. So, if you study with another student, make sure you do the actual assignment INDEPENDENTLY!

Formal Elements

*Refer to class notes to review various formal elements and how they work.

  1. Color (hue)
    a. color saturation

High saturation of color helps to create intensity. b. interaction of colors

This includes the impact of complementary and analogous colors.
*Note: Formal analysis does not involve symbolic interpretations of colors. In other words, do not make statements such as “yellow symbolizes optimism.” The formal effect of colors always

depends on their relationship to other colors.

  1. Value
    Low value = dark (black or tones of colors). High value = light (white or tints of colors).

Remember that contrast of value is the only compositional dynamic that creates emphasis in a painting.

  1. Line
    a. actual: can have character: thick, thin, curving, straight, etc.

They can also direct the eye and indicate movement.

Do not confuse line with brushwork.
b. implied: can indicate movement or they can simply ensure

that the viewer makes connections among certain objects in the painting.
c. axis: refers to the dominant implied line in a painting (horizontal vertical, or

diagonal). Remember that diagonal axis usually imply dynamism, movement.

  1. Scale (remember: in painting, there are two kinds of scale to consider)
    a. when speaking of the scale of the painting as an object, consider whether the painting creates,

for example, an intimate or a distant relationship between you, the viewer, and the subject.
b. When speaking of scale as the relative sizes of objects in the painting, consider the impact

of significant disparities of scale. Does the artist, for example, suggest that one object overwhelms, is more powerful, than another?

  1. Brushwork
    If it’s visible, brushwork shows how the artist laid down paint (spontaneously, smoothly,

erratically, roughly, etc.). This gives the depiction of the subject a particular energy.

  1. Medium (materials)
    Medium could be important if the choice of medium is unusual. If so, it
    may be used to emphasize particular physical properties (transparency, roughness, etc.) or

cultural associations (opulence, humbleness, etc.).

  1. Point of view
    How objects or figures are arranged in relation to you, the viewer, is an indication of the

perspective (literally and figuratively) that the artist wants us to have in relation to that subject.

Principles of composition
*not themselves formal elements, but are created by the use of formal elements.

  1. Emphasis (focal point).
    Note: This is a good one to discuss first, since it tells you whether or not the artist is communicating that a particular part of the composition is more important than other parts. Keep in mind that, in a painting, there may be one or multiple or no points of emphasis.
  2. Contrast (any element may be used contrastingly in a composition). Be sure to specify what sort of contrast you mean.
  3. Rhythm (repetition of line or shape—a form bounded by line—creates rhythm) 10. Unity (referring to compositional coherence)
    11. Balance (referring to the equal distribution of visual weights)
  4. Construction of space. Does the artist create spatial recession (depth) or flatness, or a combination of both? If you consider the construction of space in your essay, you should articulate the compositional cause(s) and expressive effect(s) of the spatial recession or flatness you find.

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Question 2:       Economics

 

Drawing diagrams and describing them on the topic of “Impact on AD/AS” (Macroeconomics.)

 

Impact on AD / AS:

Economic event Primary Impact on AD / AS
(draw a diagram)
Explanation (what caused the change, and make sure you say what happens to the price level and real GDP)
The Central Bank has announced an increase in interest rates.    
The price of oil worldwide is decreasing.    
The Rouble has fallen in value against many of the major currencies.    

 

Government has announced a new plan to build 3 new high-speed rail lines.

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Average wage rates in the economy are rising.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Consumer confidence surveys show that households expect a prolonged recession.  At the same time, firms also expect a prolonged recession.    
The discovery of new raw material sources

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Foreign countries purchase an unusually large quantity of Russian lumber.

 

 

 

 

 

   
The vegetable growing areas of Russia experience an extended drought.

 

 

 

 

 

   

 

 

 

Question 3:       Health Care

 

In a well-constructed paragraph explain & describe the biases in this Case-Control study?

  1. Case-Control study: A researcher plans to investigate the efficacy of a new pancreatic cancer screening tool, using a Case-Control study design. She selects patients from 10 physicians’ offices, and places them into two groups. The Control group has no family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive one screening per year using the typical method. The Case group has a family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive two screenings per year, using the new technique.

 

 

Question 4:       History

 

INSTRUCTIONS:  Paper must be: Two to three pages in length; APA format; at least two references must be used- the text book does not count; include a reference page——–title page and abstract are not required.

 

This is the textbook that goes with the class.

Text: Racial and Ethnic Relations, Census Edition Author(s): Feagin, J., R., &

Feagin, C. B.

ISBN: 0-205-02499-8 ISBN-13: 978-0-205-02499-5

Edition / Copyright: 9TH 12 – Current Edition

Publisher: Pearson

 

Question: EXAM QUESTION:  Discuss how the Holocaust has impacted the Jewish people today and how it may impact future generations.  Specific examples. If you feel the Holocaust had no past or future impact support your stance with solid research.  What impact has the push to deny the Holocaust had on society?

 

 

 

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Question 5:       Business

 

This assignment has 2 parts which needs to be done separately. Part 1: You’ve developed a very popular, up-scale but reasonably priced, clothing fashion line for young people. You produce designs in a number of countries, manufacturing in low-cost locations, and with retail outlets in major U.S. and European cities. Demand is popping and you have access to plenty of production capacity and capital. Answer the following questions:(A) How should you organize the business outside of the U.S.? (B)Should you set-up reasonably independent companies, subsidiaries, in each foreign market?(C)What would that do and not do for you?(D)Or, do you want to impose a strict brand image, procedures, and central planning from headquarters, where your offices are?(E)What are the pros and cons of this approach?….

 

Instruction

Part2: Explain the First Mover Advantage and the six modes of entry into foreign markets. Identify a foreign market that you will be entering. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Identify the best market entry strategy that you will be using for the foreign market of your choice……NO MINIMUM WORDING

 

Question 6:       Biology

 

Format: Formal essay MLA, Times new roman, 12 pt, double spaced, 1000 words. Intro, body paragraphs for evidence, conclusion. – Topic: Compare and contrast the characters in “Boys and girls” by Alice Munro and “The Cask of Amontillado” by Edgar Allan Poe to demonstrate the different way Realism and romanticism portray characters. – Please include a works cited page with the two short stories and other articles and references to back up the claims. (At least minimum of 2 other references minus the short stories) – Make sure you read the short stories and understand the main characters in each of them before writing (Boy and Girls is realism and The Cask of Amontillado is Romanticism)

 

Question 7:       Management

 

Management Team Decision

PURPOSE – The purpose of this exercise is for your team to assess the importance of certain policies to an organizational culture and to weigh the effects of changing policies that account for the unique character of that organizational culture. This exercise also pushes you to consider how external issues (sociocultural, demographic) affect the internal environment of the firm.

As a team take a perspective (“for pets” or “against pets”) and discuss the reasons in support of that perspective. For example, a group of “for pets” would only discuss reasons to keep the pet policy.

DOG DAY BLUES

One of the reasons you accepted a management position at MicroTek several years ago was the company’s laidback culture. A loose organizational structure enables employees to move freely between projects, and the open office space encourages informal encounters and generates a feeling of teamwork. And among the very generous corporate perks is a policy allowing employees to bring their pets to work. It is not uncommon to see a small animal sitting in an employee’s in-box drinking from a hamster lick. Several employees bring their dogs, large and small, to the office.

As the company has grown, thanks in part to its informal culture, more and more people are taking advantage of the pet policy, and problems are arising. Food is swiped from desks, animals are rooting through trash bins, and dogs are marking territory on the partitions that surround their owners’ desks. Visiting customers often try to mask startled (at best) or disapproving (at worst) looks when they tour your facility for the first time—and even the second and third times. During a recent breakfast meeting, when a board member refused to share her bagel with the CEO’s dog, the dog relieved itself on her briefcase. At least one employee has complained of allergic reactions due to the high levels of pet dander in the office air, but rather than change the policy, you installed a high-power air cleaner.

Despite the challenges, you have resisted changing the pet policy because it symbolizes both the company’s relaxed culture and MicroTek’s commitment to its employees’ work–life balance. This afternoon, however, you were notified that your office does not meet the required indoor air quality standards. Apparently, the cleaner you installed can’t handle all the pet dander. To meet the standards, you’ll need an even more powerful air cleaner that costs between $100,000 and $200,000. That would be a significant investment in the pet policy! And who knows if it would solve the allergy problem. Is the policy worth the cost?

You ask yourself, “How committed am I to the pet policy?” Is the pet policy just trendy (or avant-garde), or does it say something deeper about your company?

For this Management Team Decision, assemble three or four students to act as the management team for MicroTek. Include both pet owners and people without pets to avoid any bias. Before you begin the exercise, have each team member privately write down answers to each of the following questions. By sharing your individual responses, you may be able to have a more varied and rounded discussion.

 

Questions

 

  1. Do you buy the expensive air cleaner or eliminate the pet policy? Why or why not?

 

  1. If you choose to stop allowing animals at the office, what effect, if any, do you think the change will have on the company’s culture?

 

  1. Can you think of a way to allow people to bring pets to work without upgrading the air cleaner or violating workplace air quality regulations?

 

 

Question 8:       Communication

 

The Power of Connection: Building a Personal Learning Network

Relationships are all there is. Everything in the universe only exists because it is in relationship to everything else. Nothing exists in isolation. We have to stop pretending we are individuals who can go it alone.
—Margaret Wheatley, Turning to One Another: Simple Conversations to Restore Hope to the Future

The rise of social media and its power to instantaneously connect people to others is a testament to just how interconnected the world has become. Social media has become an important way to form and maintain relationships. Many people use social media platforms such as Facebook and Twitter to keep in touch with family, friends, and colleagues. Businesses search for new ways to connect with current and future customers. How many people, however, have recognized the potential of social media as a powerful learning tool?

Forward-thinking educators have begun purposefully building online social networks, known as Personal Learning Networks (PLN)s, of colleagues and experts in the field. Rather than see social networks as an annoyance or way of wasting time, these educators have made them an invaluable means of personal and professional growth. Business professionals can benefit from following their lead. Creating a PLN often is a guide for professionals and committed lifelong learners to help build relationships with others from all over the world. With careful work and commitment to building and maintaining a PLN, the possibilities for connection are endless.

To prepare for this Assignment, review the materials in the Learning Resources and consider novel ways in which you might use technology to foster new connections and seek information and advice.

 

Learning resources:

  1. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/01/24/education-twitter-profiles/
  2. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/04/17/pln-twitter/
  3. https://technologyembedded.wordpress.com/2012/05/20/twitter-101/

 

 

TASK

Submit a 4- to 5-page paper in which you create the plan for your PLN. Your paper should include the following:

  • A description of what networks and tools you will use to create your PLN, including a brief rationale for each
  • Information you will present in your professional profile (which may be placed on one or more social media platforms), including specific text you will use to identify yourself and your interests for those who might be interested in following you or joining your PLN
  • A categorized, annotated list of at least 5people or groups that you might add to your PLN (through their Twitter feed, blog, LinkedIn page, etc.), including the following for each person or group:
    • A brief (1–2 paragraphs) rationale for why you would include the person or group in your PLN
    • A brief (1 paragraph) description of the process by which you found the person or group you added to your PLN, e.g., by browsing a group’s Twitter feed and then deciding to add it to your own PLN, by locating another person the group’s feed follows, by finding a group on Facebook and deciding to send a friend request to an individual within that group, etc.
  • Support your work with a minimum of two specific citations per page from this week’s Learning Resources and/or additional scholarly sources.

Be sure to use the APA Course Paper Template (6th Ed.) to complete this Assignment.Please Note: For each page of your paper, you must include a minimum of two APA-formatted scholarly citations.

 

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Question 9:       History

 

19th Century Europe was shaped by the ideas of liberalism, conservatism, nationalism and socialism.  Discuss this statement and provide specific examples to illustrate your points about these forces.

Your essay should be at least 1200 words and should include two citations from the text and two from the primary sources to be read for this assignment.  I don’t want any more citations than this, as I want to hear your ideas and words.  Choose compelling quotes from the text and the primary sources.

Required Course Textbook(s):

Making of the West, Value Edition, Combined Edition: 5th

  1. ISBN: 9781319065461
  2. Author: Hunt
  3. Publisher: MPS (Macmillan Publishers)
  4. Formats: PAPERBACK
  5. Copyright Year: 2017

Check the sites below for proper citation formatting.

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/747/01/ (Links to an external site.)

And for APA:

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/ (Links to an external site.)

*************************************************************************************

Primary sources to consider:

Nationalism

Germany

http://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/Halsall/mod/arndt-vaterland.asp (Links to an external site.)

Conservatism:  Divine Origins of Constitutions

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/1810demaistre.html (Links to an external site.)

Scientific Socialism

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/marx-summary.html

 

 

Question 10:              Biology

 

  1. A client’s spouse states “I’ve noticed that my spouse doesn’t sleep well anymore and sometimes can’t find the right words when we’re visiting.” The nurse should correctly respond:

 

  1. a) “Does anyone in your family have Alzheimer’s disease?”
  2. b) “How long have you noticed these changes?”
  3. c) “These are common changes associated with age.”
  4. d) “Do you think your spouse is depressed?”

 

Application

Learning Outcome 2

 

 

 

  1. A client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre syndrome and the nursing diagnosis Spontaneous Ventilation,Impairedhas been identified. In planning care for this client, the nurse will prioritize the following interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 the least:

 

1) Careful airway suctioning to prevent infection

2) Client education regarding residual problems

3) Monitor arterial blood gases to identify changes.

4) Maintain hydration and caloric intake.

 

 

 

  1. A client comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision and muscle spasms that come and go, which have been occurring over the past several months. The client is scheduled for an MRI and lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF. A critical piece of the client history for the nurse to note is that:

 

  1. a) The client is from Canada.
  2. b) The client has a family history of epilepsy.
  3. c) The client has been depressed.
  4. d) The client’s father had Parkinson’s disease.

 

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  1. A nurse working in a fertility clinic reviews the health history of a client whose father had Huntington’s disease. What statement by the nurse would best address this client’s risk factors?

 

  1. a)      “Have you ever been tested for this disease?”
  2. b)      “What do you know about testing for this disease?”
  3. c)       “Are you sure you want to have children?”
  4. d)      “Your child has a 50% chance of getting this disease.”

 

 

 

  1. A home health nurse visits a client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease who lives at home with a spouse. In order to meet the needs of the spouse, the nurse suggests:

 

  1. a)      Making arrangements for the client to visit the local senior citizen’s center in the afternoon.
  2. b)      Providing the client a list of daily activities to complete.
  3. c)       Finding respite care to come into the home several days a week.
  4. d)      Finding placement in a long-term care facility.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease has lost 5 pounds over the past month. The best nursing intervention would be:

 

  1. a)      Recommend referral to a nutritionist.
  2. b)      Make sure the client is put on a mechanical soft diet.
  3. c)       Give the client food choices he can select.
  4. d)      Provide quick snacks throughout the day.

 

 

  1. A client complains of periods of confusion and forgetfulness at times, and reports clear thought process at most times of the day. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “You probably have nothing to worry about, it’s most likely stress-related.”
  2. b)      “Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older.”
  3. c)       “Have you started any new medications since the symptoms began?”
  4. d)      “You should probably have an MRI of your brain.”

 

 

  1. A client states “My doctor said sometimes I would have an on/off problem with this medication—what does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “There will be times when you are depressed (off) and when you are happy (on).”
  2. b)      “You will have to take breaks from this medicine by stopping (off) and starting it (on) again, so you don’t build up a tolerance to it.”
  3. c)       “The on times will be when your symptoms are under control, the off times are when you will have increased problems with symptom management.”
  4. d)      “I’m not a pharmacist, so I shouldn’t be answering this question.”

 

 

 

  1. A client with myasthenia gravis is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Teaching about this medication should include immediately reporting:

 

  1. a)      Increased weakness.
  2. b)      Problems with increased drooling.
  3. c)       Orthostatic hypotension.
  4. d)      Headache.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease becomes very agitated in the evenings. Appropriate nursing interventions would include:

 

  1. a)      Use of anti-anxiety medications or tranquilizers.
  2. b)      Moving the client to an area of activity to provide distraction.
  3. c)       Playing soft music in the client’s room.
  4. d)      Recommending the client be moved to a more secure environment.

 

Learning Outcome 4

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 47

 

 

  1. When the nurse was assessing a client for neurological changes from a head       trauma, which eye assessments are included? Select all that apply.

 

  1.         Ptosis
  2. Extraocular movements
  3.        Accommodation
  4. Color of iris
  5. Nystagmus

 

 

  1. When teaching a community health class about eye safety, which statement by one of the participants would   reflect a need for additional teaching?

 

  1. “I will wear goggles whenever I work around equipment such as lawnmowers, saws, and trimmers.”
  2. “When I play sports, I should wear protective eyewear to minimize risks of eye injury.”
  3. “When working with chemicals, if a splash occurs, I should first call 911 and then go to the emergency facility.”
  4. “When working or playing in the outdoors, I should wear shades that have UV protection even if the day is cloudy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. The client was complaining of dizziness and disequilibrium with head      movements. The nurse understands which nursing diagnosis would be the top            priority based upon these findings?

 

  1.        Fluid Balance, Deficit
  2. Adjustment Impairment
  3. Coping, Ineffective
  4. Falls, Risk for

 

 

  1.            When the nurse is planning the health history questions to ask a client about     possible hearing changes that might have occurred due to frequent sinus         infections, which question would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1.        “Do you have any pain in your ears?”
  2. “Have you ever had drainage from your ears?”
  3. “Does anyone in your family have congenital deafness?”
  4. “Have you noticed a change in your hearing, such as muffling of sounds?”

 

 

 

  1. When the nurse is assessing for a possible conductive hearing loss, which            assessment would be the first one to perform?

 

  1.        Inspection of the external ear
  2. Weber test
  3. Rinne test
  4. Tympanogram

 

 

 

  1. The nurse suspects that a bone-conductive hearing loss is present in the client.                 Which diagnostic would best differentiate between bone conduction loss and air                conduction loss?

 

  1. Rinne test
  2. Weber test
  3.        Assessment of balance and body position
  4. Palpation of mastoid process

 

 

  1. When planning home management for a client who recently lost vision after eye trauma, which of the following would be most appropriate to evaluate the emotional status of the client?

 

  1. “Do you feel depressed about your vision loss?”
  2. “Tell me how your change in vision has affected how you feel about           yourself.”
  3. “Have you made arrangements for someone to help you around the house?”
  4. “You know; a lot of people do very well with little help once they get home.”

 

 

  1. When explaining a tonometer test results of 28 mm Hg to a client, the nurse would use which explanation to be most accurate? The tonometer measures the pressure in the:
  2. Posterior chamber of your eye, which is too low and requires medication to increase the pressure to prevent blindness from retinal damage.
  3. Inner ear, to evaluate the semicircular canals functions related to nerve damage, and 28 mm Hg is “within the normal range.”
  4. Pressure in the middle ear that builds up with Mastoiditis, and 28 mm Hg is very high, and needs to be treated with surgical insertion of tubes to drain the fluid behind the tympanic membrane.
  5. Anterior chamber of the eye that builds up from overproduction or decreased drainage of the aqueous humor, and could lead to possible retinal changes due to above-normal pressures, like yours, if not treated.

 

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****NOTE TEXT contradicts itself for two different norms are given on page 5 of chapter 47 and page 39 of chapter 48…. Please clarify which range is desired for consistency in text readings.

 

 

  1. When performing the caloric test, nystagmus develops in the left eye while        irrigating the right ear. The nurse evaluates the client further for which condition    that contributes to the results of the caloric test?

 

  1. Alcohol, CNS depression, or barbiturate use
  2. Increased anterior pressure in the left eye
  3. Nothing further, since nerves are intact in the inner ear
  4. Increased pressure from brain lesions

 

 

  1. When assessing a 75-year-old client, which findings would require immediate    action by the nurse? A statement about:

 

  1. Floaters being present at times.
  2. Additional light and “reading glasses” being needed more often.
  3. The development of a white circle around colored part of eye.
  4. Frequent falls from tripping over items in the floor.

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 48

 

  1. A young female who has a 2-year-old and a new baby has just lost all vision in one eye following a vehicle trauma. The client asks what she will do, since she has no help when she goes home. The nurse would choose which nursing diagnoses when planning care? Select all that apply.
  2. Post-Trauma Syndrome
  3. Grieving, Actual/Anticipatory
  4.    Family Processes, Interrupted
  5.    Self-Esteem, Situational Low
  6. Injury, Risk for

 

 

  1. Upon admission when orienting a client who has been blind since birth to the hospital room, which activity by the nurse would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Orient the client both verbally and physically to the layout of the room.
  2. Describe everything in detail about how the equipment works.
  3. Tell the client you will leave the light on 24 hours a day.
  4. Place signs to remind staff to not move equipment without telling the client.

 

 

 

  1. Which instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give to a client with acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus? Select all that apply.

 

  1. You should wash your hands before cleansing the eye and giving eyedrops.
  2. You can rub your eyes with a clean, soft cloth for itching.
  3. You can soak your lids with warm saline to soften crusts and exudates.
  4. You should not share towels, make-up, or contact lens with anyone else.

 

 

 

  1. Following a severe corneal ulcer, the client had keratoplasty (corneal transplant). What nursing care should be included in the plan of care? The client should: (Select all that apply.)
  2.     Wear an eye-shield the first 24 hours and then at night until several weeks postoperatively as directed by healthcare provider.
  3. Be instructed to avoid lifting, sneezing, coughing or bending over at the waist.
  4. Report any change, such as increased pain, drainage, bleeding, floaters, and cloudiness noted.
  5. Be instructed on how to administer eyedrops and ointments in a sterile manner.
  6. Be educated on the need for mydriatics during the postoperative period.

 

 

 

  1. Before teaching about home management for clients with open-angled glaucoma, which order would be questioned by the nurse?
  2. Timolol (Timoptic), beta-adrenergic blocker, for a 60-year-old with congestive heart failure (CHF)
  3. Dorzolamide (Trusopt), a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, for a client with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  4. Acetazolamide (Diamox) for a 20-year-old male
  5. Brimonidine (Alphagan), an adrenergic agonist, for a healthy 40-year-old

 

 

  1. In a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should assess for             which complications that might be present? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Retinitis pigmentosa with retinal atrophy
  2. Kaposi neoplasms of the external surfaces of the eyelid
  3.    Cotton-wool spots around the optic nerve
  4. Exudative macular degeneration
  5. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

 

 

  1. Following myringotomy for acute otitis media, which topic would be appropriate for teaching about home management by the nurse?

 

  1. Ear irrigations should be placed on the wall of the external canal, and not on the tympanic membrane.
  2. Air travel and sudden barometric shifts will not affect the surgical procedure.
  3. Sterile cotton-tipped swabs can be used to clean the ear drainage.
  4. Shampooing and swimming are not restricted after a couple of weeks.

 

 

  1. The client with otosclerosis would be expected to have which potential finding by the nurse during assessment?

 

  1. Rinne test results that bone conduction is equal or greater than air conduction
  2. Severe vertigo is present when questioned.
  3. Purulent drainage is observed or reported with cyanosis of the tympanic membrane.
  4. Diminished hearing is noted in the lower tones, such as a man’s speaking voice.

 

 

  1. A client with severe symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing deficit,              nausea, and vomiting would have which nursing diagnosis as a first priority?

 

  1. Nutrition, Imbalanced, Less than Body Requirements
  2. Trauma, Risk for
  3. Disturbed Sleep Patterns
  4. Sensory Perception, Disturbed: hearing

 

 

 

  1. A client with a nursing diagnosis ofCommunication: Impaired, Verbal related to hearing deficit would expect which action in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Speak face-to-face, but do not overarticulate your words.
  2.    Offer alternative methods of communication, such as paper and pencil.
  3. Speak loudly and in a higher pitch for easier understanding of words.
  4. Restate in exactly the same words if not understood the first time.
  5. Do not use facial and hand gestures that are distracting while talking.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Chapter 49

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled to undergo a prostate biopsy. When providing education concerning postoperative care related to the procedure, which of the following should be included?

 

  1. Avoid strenuous activity for 24 hours.
  2. There may be discomfort for 24–48 hours after the procedure.
  3. The client can immediately return to his preprocedure activity level.
  4. The names of sexual contacts must be collected.

 

 

 

 

  1. A male client reports to the clinic with an open area on his penis. Which of the following questions will be most important to include in the data collection?

 

  1. “Have you had sexual intercourse recently?”
  2. “Do you think you have a disease?”
  3. “Are you promiscuous?”
  4. “When did you initially notice this open area?”

 

 

  1. While providing care to the parents of a baby boy who has the chromosomal makeup of XXY, which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?

 

  1. The boy will have an enlarged penis and scrotum.
  2. The boy will be at increased risk for the development of testicular cancer.
  3. The child will be sterile.
  4. The child might have altered development of secondary sex characteristics.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is obtaining a health history on a client complaining of recent-onset impotence. During the interview, which of the following questions will be most beneficial in identifying a potential cause of the manifestation?

 

  1. “Does this occur often?”
  2. “How does your partner feel about this problem?”
  3. “For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?
  4. “Are you on any medications?

 

 

 

  1. A female client has reported to the clinic for an initial gynecological examination. The client reports feeling nervous. When beginning the interview, which of the following questions would be most appropriate?

 

  1. “How many sexual partners have you had?”
  2. “Are you OK?”
  3. “How often are you intimate with your partner?”
  4. “What concerns do you have about today’s examination?”

 

 

 

  1. A client is approximately 4 weeks pregnant. The client reports noting a scant amount of vaginal bleeding. The examination reveals the cervix is closed. Based upon your knowledge, which of the following hormones do you anticipate will be lower than expected for the client?

 

  1. Progesterone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Prostaglandin
  4. Luteinizing hormone

 

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of the following might adversely impact the testing?

 

  1. The use of deodorant
  2. The use of facial makeup
  3. The administration of medications used to increase bleeding times
  4. Eating breakfast the morning of the test

 

 

 

  1. When providing education to a client concerning breast self-examinations, the client asks what days are best to perform the examination. What information should be included in the response given to the client?

 

  1. It does not matter what day the examination is performed.
  2. It is best to perform the examination on the first day of the menstrual period.
  3. It is best to perform the examination in the days just prior to the menstrual period.
  4. The examination is best performed after the menstrual period.

 

 

  1. When obtaining the health history of a 60-year-old female, the client reports noting small red lesions on her vulva. Based upon your knowledge, which of these diagnoses is most likely correct?

 

  1. Herpes simplex
  2. Primary syphilis
  3. Secondary syphilis
  4. Vulvar carcinoma

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is teaching a client how to perform a testicular self-examination. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. Any painful lump should be reported.
  2. Tenderness of the scrotal sac contents should be reported.
  3. Most men have one testicle that is significantly larger than the other.
  4. It is best to do the examination upon arising on the designated day.

 

CHAPTER 51

 

  1. A 41-year-old client has reported to the clinic with clinical manifestations consistent with menopause. The client states that her menstrual periods have become irregular, with the last period occurring approximately four months ago. What information should be provided to the client concerning the use of contraceptives?

 

  1. Contraceptives should continue to be utilized.
  2. Contraceptives are no longer needed.
  3. Contraceptives will only be needed in the months after menstruation is experienced.
  4. Contraceptive use will only be needed for another two months.

 

 

  1. The client who has been experiencing the clinical manifestations associated with menopause voices an interest in using alternative and complementary therapies to manage them. What initial response by the nurse is indicated?

 

  1. “Those seldom work.”
  2. “Many women report success with these measures.”
  3. “What types of therapies are of interest to you?”
  4. “Have you discussed this with the physician?

 

 

  1. During the teaching session for a client who recently had a hysterectomy, the client states that she is nervous about taking the estrogen replacement therapy prescribed by her physician. She states that she is worried about developing breast cancer later in life. Which of the statements by the nurses will be most appropriate?

 

  1. “The risk of breast cancer is somewhat increased for women with a family history who opt to take estrogen replacement therapy.”
  2. “The risk of breast cancer is not increased for women who have had a hysterectomy and take estrogen replacement medications.”
  3. “Perhaps you should consider an estrogen–progestin combination therapy.”
  4. “Taking estrogen replacement is not required after a hysterectomy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. A 30-year-old woman reports increasing difficulty during the days preceding the onset of her menstrual cycle. Which of the following might assist in the management of her condition? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Increase dietary sugar intake to promote energy.
  2. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
  3. Reduce caffeine.
  4. Utilize guided imagery.

 

  1. A client who has been experiencing premenstrual syndrome reports to the clinic with a diet diary she has kept over the past several weeks. Which of the following findings should be reviewed with the client, with a recommendation made for dietary modification?

 

  1. Daily intake of caffeine-free soda
  2. Daily intake of low-fat yogurt
  3. Foods rich in magnesium
  4. Daily intake of white bread

 

 

  1. A woman is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further education?

 

  1. “I can expect to go home a few hours after the procedure.”
  2. “I might experience some abdominal pain after the procedure.”
  3. “There might be some vaginal bleeding after the procedure.”
  4. “Shoulder pain should be reported, as it might signal a complication.”

 

 

 

  1. A 13-year-old female reports to the school nurse with concerns about her menstrual cycle. The client states that she has not yet started her period, and asks if this is normal. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s response?

 

  1. The client should be referred to a gynecologist for a pelvic examination.
  2. The client should have started her period by now.
  3. It is not abnormal for the client to have not yet started her period.
  4. The client should be tested for hormonal imbalances.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is collecting data during a routine clinic visit. The client reports she has experienced bleeding between her menstrual periods. What initial action by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

  1. Determine the timing of the bleeding episodes.
  2. Determine the amount of the bleeding episodes.
  3. Assess for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
  4. Review the length of the client’s normal menstrual cycles.

 

 

  1. A client has been experiencing anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding. The client is 25 years of age, and is concerned about maintaining her fertility. Based upon your knowledge, which management technique likely would be employed first?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Progestin therapy
  3. Therapeutic D and C
  4. Endometrial ablation

 

 

  1. A client is preparing to be discharged to home after a hysterectomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the teaching session has been successful?

 

  1. “I will need to report temperature greater than 101 degrees.”
  2. “I might experience vaginal bleeding for about one week.”
  3. “I will need to report any hot flashes, as they indicate my hormone replacement therapy is not effective.”
  4. “I will still need to see my physician for gynecological examinations.”

 

 

 

Chapter 52

 

 

  1. A client recently diagnosed with herpes simplex II asks how to best manage the lesions. What information should be given to the client?

 

  1. The use of soap should be restricted.
  2. It is safe to use a solution of 50% rubbing alcohol and 50% water to clean the lesions.
  3. Wearing nylon panties will reduce discomfort.
  4. Gentle soap and water can be used to clean the lesions.

 

 

 

  1. A client recently treated for pelvic inflammatory disease asks how she can best prevent a recurrence of the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The physician will prescribe prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
  2. The use of condoms will be beneficial.
  3. Annual gynecological examinations should be scheduled.
  4. Douching after intercourse will assist in removing potential pathogens from the genital area.

 

 

  1. A client treated for pelvic inflammatory disease is preparing for discharge. During the teaching session, the use of tampons is discussed. Which of the following statements by the client indicate the understanding of the content provided? Select all that apply.

 

  1. “I will be able to wear tampons.”
  2. “The use of tampons is forever prohibited.”
  3. “Tampons must be changed at least every four hours.”
  4. “I should wear pads at night.”

 

 

  1. A pregnant client reports to the clinic and learns she has tested positive for herpes simplex. The nurse develops a plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority?

 

  1. Injury, Risk for related to the disease process
  2. Knowledge, Deficient related to the diagnosis
  3. Anxiety related the diagnosis
  4. Family Processes, Interrupted related to the effects of the diagnosis on her relationship with her partner

 

 

 

  1. A client has been diagnosed with latent syphilis. During the counseling session, the client asks about transmitting the disease to his spouse. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. “You will need to abstain from sexual relations until treatment is completed.”
  2. “You will need to wear a condom.”
  3. “At this late stage, the disease is contained to only you.”
  4. “At this stage of the disease, transmission is by contact with blood.”

 

 

 

  1. During a gynecological examination and testing, a female client is diagnosed with a Chlamydial infection. The client denies any symptoms of the disease, and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The client has most likely had the infection for about 1–3 weeks.
  2. The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, since no symptoms are present.
  3. The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.
  4. Symptoms typically begin a few months after the infection enters the body.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is planning to teach a course about sexually transmitted infections. What information concerning genital warts should be included?

 

  1. Handwashing will aid in the reducing the spread of genital warts.
  2. Genital warts will result in cervical cancer for the majority of women who get them.
  3. Women who have certain types of genital warts should be vaccinated against other types.
  4. The risk for the development of penile cancer is high in men diagnosed with genital warts.

 

 

  1. A client asks which method of contraception will provide the greatest protection against sexually transmitted infections. What method can the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Male condoms
  3. Sponges
  4. Spermicides

 

 

  1. A client reports to the clinic with a painless, ulcerated area on her labia. Based upon your knowledge, what diagnosis do you anticipate?

 

  1. Herpes simplex II
  2. Syphilis
  3. Condylomata acuminata
  4. Gonorrhea

 

 

 

  1. A client with herpes simplex II is concerned about sexual relations. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The infection can be transmitted only when the lesions present.
  2. The infection can be prevented with condom use.
  3. Sexual relations must be avoided during the prodromal period and for at least 10 days after the lesions are healed.
  4. Sexual activity is permissible once the lesions have dried out.

 

 

 

Question 11:     Literary Studies

 

Choose ONE of the following paired images and poems from the “Poetry and the Visual Arts” section of the textbook (NOTE: This is the section with the thicker, glossy pages in the center of the textbook; the pages have letters rather than numbers) Choice #1: American Gothic – Analyze the painting by Grant Wood and the poem by John Stone. In what sense can Stone’s poem be regarded as an analysis of the painting? Does Stone see Grant’s depiction of the two figures as a satire or a celebration? What symbolic elements are found in the painting? Choice #2: Girl Powdering Her Neck – Analyze the woodblock print by Kitagawa Utamaro and the poem by Cathy Song. What does Song’s poem add to the visual information provided in Utamaro’s woodcut? What is the relationship of the final three lines to the rest of the poem and what effect does it have on the reader? Choice #3: Vietnam Veterans Memorial Wall – Analyze the photograph of the memorial from the Library of Congress and the poem “Facing It” by Yusef Komunyakaa. What is the significance of the poem’s title and how are the speaker’s war experiences reflected in the war memorial? Does the speaker’s response to the memorial indicate that the conception and composition of the memorial were successful or unsuccessful as a public memorial? Remember you must: Adhere to MLA format The Bedford Handbook provides a guide (MLA Chapters 48 to 51) Paper should range between 1,300 and 1,500 words Upload your assignment to Turnitin

 

 

 

 Question 12:    General Question

 

5-page research essay in MLA format answering the question “Is the United States on the same trajectory as Italy in the spread of the coronavirus?” must have 3 sources minimum and a work cited page

 

Question 13:     Health Care

 

Development is best explained by a model that
a. concentrates on one aspect of development
b. uses behavior as its focus
c. includes biological, psychological, and social influences
d. restricts itself to the observable

 

Humans have a remarkable potential for change, but resiliency has
a. limitations
b. defined markers
c. unlimited capacity
d. known characteristics

 

A 10-year-old girl peeks in her older sister’s diary, but later feels guilty. She tells herself, “I shouldn’t have done that. It wasn’t right.” According to Freud, which moral component of the personality is responsible for her feelings about her behavior?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Preconscious

 

What is Freud’s “pleasure principle”?
a. the notion that unconscious forces govern our behavior is the pleasure principle
b. childhood pleasures have a strong influence on adult personality
c. individuals act to gratify instinctual desires and to avoid pain
d. personality is shaped by how individuals indulge their sexual urges

 

Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development is based on
a. the notion that the personality develops early in childhood
b. the premise that humans interact with an ever-widening circle of people
c. the need to avoid developmental crises
d. the idea that early social experiences determine later ones

 

Which of the following crises in the life cycle is the cornerstone of Erikson’s theory?
a. Trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. identity formation versus identity diffusion

 

Which of the following statements refers to Piaget’s universalist constructivist theory?
a. humans passively assimilate their understanding of the world
b. humans construct reality through their understanding of the world
c. humans have inborn schemata that help them understand the world
d. humans construct reality by being acted on by the environment

 

What is Piaget’s definition of adaptation?
a. intelligence
b. assimilation and accommodation
c. ability to effectively negotiate environmental demands
d. all of the above

 

In his explanation of cognitive development, Vygotsky stressed
a. assimilation
b. social interactions
c. reinforcement
d. schema

 

Vygotsky believed language gradually becomes ___ and directs behavior
a. structured
b. pragmatic
c. internalized
d. reinforced

 

In Brofenbrenner’s model of human ecology, the school, the neighborhood, and peer group belong in which system?
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

The American cultural value placed on the primacy of the biological family is an example of a(n)
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

Maslow believed that our needs are best seen as a(n)
a. ellipse
b. hierarchy
c. interlocking circle
d. polygon

 

Using our abilities to the limits of our potential refers to
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. conditioning
d. self-actualization

 

The environment responds to human behavior and either reinforces it or eliminates it. This theory is known as
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

The importance of modeling is emphasized in
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

It is important to remember that different is not
a. unique
b. deficient
c. appreciated
d. diffuse

 

___ is a belief that interactions among all aspects of development require analysis
a. Piagetian psychology
b. operant conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. developmental contextualism

 

Which of the following is an example of between-group differences in gender research on language development?
a. Girls develop language more rapidly than boys.
b. Girls do better than boys on subtests of anagrams, synonyms, speech production, and word knowledge.
c. Although dyslexia is more common in boys, some girls develop dyslexia
d. Gender accounts for 1% of the variability in language development

 

Research on aggression supports which of the following statements?
a. Boys are more hostile than girls.
b. For men, physical aggression is about inflicting harm.
c. For women, physical aggression is about defending their social status
d. physical aggression is related to perceptions of social power.

 

Which of the following is not associated with homelessness?
a. hunger and poor nutrition
b. developmental delays
c. health problems
d. lowered intelligence

 

A major characteristic of successful schools in poor economic locations is
a. an emphasis on academic achievement
b. classroom television
c. building conditions
d. proximity to the center of the city

 

What are genes?
a. Long strands of DNA
b. the sequences in which nucleotide bases are arranged
c. multiple combinations of nucleotide bases
d. the functional units of DNA

 

Skin cells contain
a. 46 chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 46 autosomes
d. 23 sex chromosomes

 

which process is responsible for the genetic variability among human organisms?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. fertilization
d. capacitation

 

Where does fertilization occur in the female?
a. uterus
b. vagina
c. fallopian tubes
d. ovaries

 

the critical period of organogenesis occurs doing
a. the embryonic period
b. the germinal period
c. the fetal period
d. at the time of conception

 

Research suggests that insufficient folic acid in the mother’s diet may contribute to the failure of the neural tube to close, resulting in spina bifida. At which point in prenatal development does the neural tube close?
a. fourth week
b. eighth week
c. fourth month
d. sixth month

 

the causes of infertility are:
a. unknown
b. male
c. female
d. male or female

 

estimates are that one in every __ American couples are infertile
a. two or three
b. three or four
c. five or six
d. seven or eight

 

a major concern for sperm banks is control of
a. disease
b. donor availability
c. confidential information
d. technological innovation

 

for all assisted reproductive technologies ____ is critical
a. location
b. climate
c. timing
d. contingency

 

genes make up ___% of DNA
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

 

the human genome project is an attempt to map
a. all human genes
b. cellular materials
c. nucleotides
d. cell divisions

 

an example of a single-gene genetic disorder is
a. down syndrome
b. turner syndrome
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. sickle-cell anemia

 

an example of a chromosomal disorder is
a. spina bifida
b. chronic disease syndrome
c. phenylketonuria
d. turner syndrome

 

how is prematurity defined?
a. infants are premature if born before 37 weeks, regardless of weight
b. infants are premature if they weigh less than 2500 g at birth, regardless of age
c. infants are premature if they weigh less than 1500 g and are born before 37 weeks
d. prematurity is based on the relationship between weight and gestational age

 

the organ system that is most critical to the premature infant’s outcome is
a. the heart
b. the lungs
c. the brain
d. the nervous system

 

Which characteristic makes regular use of alcohol during pregnancy a teratogen?
a. alcohol interferes with fetal cell division and growth throughout pregnancy
b. alcohol alters the development of the fetus’s central nervous system during the last trimester
c. women who abuse alcohol are less likely to be well nourished
d. all of the above are correct

 

what is the best-known cause of deafness in newborns?
a. cocaine use by the mother during pregnancy
b. mother’s contraction of rubella during the first trimester
c. mother’s exposure to radiation during the last trimester
d. mother’s exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV)

 

when a natural mother retains input into the adoption process, it is called ___ adoption
a. selected
b. congruent
c. accommodated
d. open

 

Couples considering adoption should think carefully about the ___ of the child
a. weight
b. age
c. size
d. cognition

 

At what point after birth do typical infants double their birth weight?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

 

you notice that a new mother feeds her baby boy by propping a bottle on a pillow next to him. why do you want to discourage this practice?
a. the baby will have difficulty regulating the flow of formula
b. the baby is not learning how to organize his behavior
c. the mother and the baby are not learning to read each other’s signals
d. all of the above are correct

 

you observe a baby lying on her abdomen, raising her head, shoulders, and upper abdomen while supporting herself with her forearms. about how old is this baby?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

 

a new mother who is breastfeeding her baby asks you if her baby can see her. what is your answer?
a. no. babies cannot see clearly until they are about 6 weeks old
b. yes. babies have 20/20 vision at birth
c. no. visual acuity is about 20/100 at birth
d. yes. objects that are within close range, especially your face, are perfectly clear

 

apgar scores are recorded at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. what do they measure?
a. heart rate, respiratory effect, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color
b. first and second periods of reactivity
c. behavioral states: sleeping, waking, and crying
d. gestational maturity, such as flexion of extremities, quality of skin, and development of eyes, ears, and genitals.

 

which of the following is an example of contingency seeking in newborns?
a. infants learn to adjust their rate of sucking by using the mother’s voice as a reward.
b. infants prefer complex patterns of black and white
c. newborns discriminate their mother’s voice from the voices of other women
d. infants turn their head to search for a sound

 

the final area of the brain to develop is the
a. occipital lobe
b. association area
c. sensory area
d. auditory area

 

nervous system development commences in a process called
a. neural induction
b. tubular processes
c. neural migration
d. neuronal balance

 

Human infants exhibit reflexes because
a. their nervous systems are not fully mature
b. some infant reflexes are building blocks for voluntary motor behavior
c. some reflexes are designed to protect them from potential harm
d. of all of the above

 

to elicit the babinski reflex, you stroke the sole of a baby’s foot, beginning at the heel and moving towards the toes. the toes flex, as if they are going to grab your finger. is this normal?
a. no. if the baby is younger than 1 year, the toes should fan out and extend
b. yes, if the baby is older than 1 year, the toes will flex.
c. both a and b are true
d. neither a nor b is true

 

According to piaget, what are the four accomplishments of the sensorimotor period?
a. rolling over, sitting up, crawling, and walking.
b. time, spatial relationships, cause and effect, and object permanence
c. visual acuity, binocular vision, depth perception, and spatial relationships
d. primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, and tertiary circular reactions

 

you are watching a baby who is sitting up in her mother’s lap. the baby is playing with a box of animal crackers, by shaking it, hitting it on the arm of the chair, and patting the lid with her hand. what age range and what substage of piaget’s sensorimotor period is this baby in?
a. age 1-4 months, primary circular reactions
b. age 4-8 months, secondary circular reactions
c. age 8-12 months, coordination of secondary circular reactions
d. age 18-24 months, beginning of representational thought

 

When parents feel that other adults, including their own parents, are looking over their shoulder and telling them how to bring up their child, this phenomenon is called
a. ghosts in the nursery
b. generational interest
c. parental transference
d. social sharing

 

most children begin to speak their first words at an age of approximately
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

 

which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. children instantly tune into their environment
b. children give clues to their personalities
c. children, from birth, engage in reciprocal interactions
d. all children are temperamentally similar at birth

 

Role refers to ___ about behavior
a. observations
b. insights
c. expectations
d. comments

 

The special bonding between an infant and usually the mother is called
a. detachment
b. attachment
c. relating
d. symmetry

 

 

The person most associated with the attachment movement is
a. sigmund freud
b. b. f. skinner
c. jean piaget
d. john bowlby

 

the three components of an emotion are feelings, internal changes, and
a. behavior
b. continuity
c. congruence
d. assimilation

 

The true social smile appears at an age of approximately
a. 4 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks

 

You are going down the stairs behind a little boy who is placing both feet on each step as he goes while holding the railing. about how old is he?
a. 3 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. 6 years old

 

Which skill that is essential for reading readiness develops between ages 3 and 6?
a. using hands as tools
b. copying and tracing figures
c. visuomotor scanning
d. recognizing the letters of the alphabet

 

You are pouring juice for a 4-year-old and 10-year-old into two different glasses: one short and wide, the other tall and narrow. the 4-year-old insists on having the tall narrow glass despite assurances from the 10 year old that the two glasses have the same amount of juice. which term is used to describe the 4 year olds understanding of this situation?
a. centration
b. appearance reality
c. cause by association
d. difficulty with conversation

 

Which of the following is an example of a child’s difficulty with conversation during the preschool period?
a. thinks a ball of clay gets bigger when it is rolled into a snake
b. given two rows of m&ms with 10 candles in each row, will say the row more spread out has more
c. says the glass with the most juice is the taller one, even if the child just saw the juice poured from a shorter but wider glass
d. all of the above

 

montessori’s ideas concerning __ periods are important in planning preschool programs
a. lengthy
b. class
c. sensitive
d. daily

 

preschool educators are alert to match materials and methods to appropriate ages because of the theory put forth by
a. piaget
b. freud
c. skinner
d. pavlov

 

the rules of ___ describe how to put words together to form sentences
a. phonology
b. semantics
c. grammar
d. pragmatics

 

“daddy camed home” is an example of
a. overextension
b. mispronunciation
c. overregulation
d. delayed language

 

Parents who value compliance with their authority and set nonnegotiable standards for their children’s behavior are examples of ___ parenting, according to Baumrind
a. authoritative
b. authoritarian
c. permissive
d. neglectful

 

Which of the following factors contribute to how parents parent?
a. childhood experiences of parents
b. personality characteristics of children being parented
c. working environment of parents, especially fathers
d. all of the above

 

which of the following conditions is not necessarily associated with homelessness?
a. health problems
b. hunger
c. poor nutrition
d. low intelligence

 

Recent additions to the number of homeless are
a. mothers and young children
b. single fathers
c. individuals with alcohol problems
d. individuals with drug problems

 

One of the major adjustments a child may experience following the divorce of parents is to
a. siblings
b. transitions
c. relatives
d. synchronicity

 

Even after their divorced parents remarry, some children still believe their natural parents will reunite. this belief is called
a. hopeful planning
b. wishful thinking
c. reconciliation fantasies
d. psychic cognition

 

Erikson called it the period of initiative versus guilt; that is, children recognize that they make choices and are responsible for their behavior. plato referred to it as “a constitutional government within them.” freud thought that the superego, as “a garrison in the conquered city of the id,” is similar. to which developmental task of the preschool years are they referring?
a. agency
b. sense of self
c. mastery of aggression
d. self-control

 

Which of the following is an example of a 4 year old’s concept of self?
a. i am a better swimmer than my brother
b. people like me because i play fair
c. i like to swim
d. i am better at drawing than at coloring

 

By what age do children typically develop gender identity?
a. 18 months
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

 

preschoolers tend to engage in sex-typed behaviors, such as boys playing with trucks and girls playing with dolls, how do developmentalists explain this phenomenon?
a. males and females have inborn sex-typed tendencies
b. preschoolers are rewarded for exhibiting sex-typed behaviors
c. girls are more rigidly socialized to exhibit certain behaviors than are boys
d. preschoolers are developing concepts of gender constancy and role

 

The most common type of play during early childhood is ___ play
a. physical
b. unrestricted
c. social
d. pretend

 

Children play for fun, learning, and
a. emotional release
b. cognitive dissonance
c. physical alignment
d. social graces

 

by what age can children typically ride a two wheeled bicycle?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years

  1. 7 years

 

Malnourished children in the united states tend to be obese, not thin, because
a. they consume a lot of junk food
b. they watch too much television
c. they eat too many packaged foods
d. all of the above

 

What did Piaget mean by concrete operations?
a. children’s thinking is perceptually bound
b. causal reasoning is based on association
c. children’s thinking is very matter of fact
d. children can do mentally what had to be done physically before.

 

Boys of about ages 9 to 10 love to collect and sort baseball cards. which characteristic of concrete thought contributes to this activity?
a. hierarchical classification skills
b. matrix classification skills
c. abstract thinking
d. set identity

 

sternberg’s theory is based on
a. context
b. gender
c. age
d. biology

Gardner’s theory of intelligence includes __ types of equal intelligence
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight

 

a well-known model of problem solving is
a. HOME
b. DUPE
c. NATO
d. SAC

 

Everyone should attempt to internally represent solutions to problems
a. true
b. false
c. uncertain

 

kohlberg used a method called
a. cognitive structuring
b. contextual determinism
c. moral dilemmas
d. contingencies of reinforcement

 

Gilligan believed that kohlberg’s work was too ___ oriented
a. age
b. culture
c. neutral
d. male

 

LEP refers to those students whose primary language is not
a. English
b. Spanish
c. French
d. Vietnamese

 

To work with LEP students, many school systems are trying to decide between ESL programs and
a. separate systems
b. bilingual education
c. native-born instructors
d. curricular insertion

 

by about what age do children develop reciprocity in their friendships?
a. 6 years
b. 8 years
c. 10 years
d. 12 years

 

Which of the following statements best describes children’s games during middle childhood?
a. children are inflexible about the rules of competition
b. rules help keep aggression in check
c. competition can foster social, mental, and physical development
d. all of the above are correct

 

Good schools are characterized by their emphasis on
a. building conditions
b. recreational facilities
c. amount of materials
d. academic success

  1. academic success

 

The author of an influential study of school effectiveness was
a. rutter
b. piaget
c. brunner
d. skinner

 

Creativity is also known as
a. critical thinking
b. convergent thinking
c. divergent thinking
d. vertical thinking

 

Among the characteristics of creativity are visualization, thinking processes, and
a. knowledge
b. contingency
c. laterality
d. symmetry

 

What is the sensitive period of the development of language?
a. up to 2 years old
b. up to 4 years old
c. up to 6 years old
 

Which triad of factors contributes to resilience in children at risk?
a. family discord, low socioeconomic status, poor school environment
b. cohesive family, easy-going personality, competent adults in community
c. mothers who work, absent fathers, good social skills
d. being in foster care, concerned case worker, visits with mother.

 

Developmental disabilities represent alterations in the typical developmental sequence of which three areas?
a. fine motor, gross motor, intelligence
b. problem solving, language, motor coordination
c. motor; cognitive, neurobehavior
d. neurobehavior, intelligence, gross motor

 

Which of the following characteristics describes children who are gifted?
a. above average IQ
b. high levels of creativity
c. high levels of commitment to task
d. all of the above

 

 

Question 14:     Nursing

 

Nursing/Community Health: Questions and Answers

Questions and Answers

  1. A nurse conducting a community health education program stresses that Lyme disease is caused by a _____________.
  2. Spirochete
  3. Virus
  4. Parasite
  5. Helminth

 

  1. When conducting a community education program related to Lyme disease, the nurse stresses that if left untreated, Lyme disease result in which of the following?
  2. Respiratory failure
  3. Acute renal failure
  4. Cardiac dysrhythmias
  5. Permanent skin lesions

 

  1. Maria brought her 10-year-old child to the clinic. She was concerned that the child could develop Lyme disease because a deer tick was found on the child. The nurse tells Maria that infection with Lyme disease is likely if the deer tick
  2. Was large
  3. Was attached to the child’s skin for at least 24 hours
  4. Caused bleeding
  5. Remained attached for at least 1 hour

 

  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus is
  2. An acute autoimmune disease
  3. The result of hyperactivity of killer T cells
  4. A chronic multisystem inflammatory disease
  5. More common in men aged 20 to 30 than in women in that age group

 

  1. The nurse conducting a health education program as part of a PTA meeting stresses that gastrointestinal infections are more likely to occur in people who
  2. Smoke
  3. Are lactose intolerant
  4. Take antacids
  5. Eat a spicy diet

 

  1. During an orientation session for new hires, the nurse educator stresses that some pathogens can survive on bed rails and tables for
  2. 30 minutes to an hour
  3. Weeks
  4. 5-20 minutes
  5. 2-3 months

 

  1. Which of the following statements about a fever is correct?
  2. A fever is generally harmful.
  3. Oral prednisone masks a fever.
  4. A fever suppresses the action of macrophages.
  5. A rectal fever of 99.6 °F in children indicates serious infection.

 

  1. During an in-service in a long-term care facility, the nurse educator stresses that in the elderly (select all that apply)
  2. Infection usually produces a fever above 101°F.
  3. Changes in mental status may indicate an infection.
  4. Fatigue is a possible sign of infection.
  5. A fever 2 degrees above baseline requires immediate attention.

 

  1. What is the most accurate test to detect HIV infection currently on the market?
  2. ELISA
  3. OraSure
  4. Western blot
  5. B-cell analysis

 

  1. Which of the following statements about HIV is true?
  2. HIV infects CD8 T cells.
  3. HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA to DNA.
  4. HIV infections can be completely eradicated by the use of antivirals.
  5. HIV infection initially causes pronounced signs and symptoms.

 

  1. The role of histamine in the inflammatory process includes
  2. Initiating vasoconstriction to limit bleeding
  3. Coating pathogens for easier phagocytosis
  4. Promoting hyperthermia
  5. Increasing capillary permeability

 

  1. Which of the following statements about chronic inflammation is true?
  2. Chronic inflammation lasts 5 to 7 days.
  3. Chronic inflammation results in granuloma formation.
  4. Chronic inflammation results from viral infections.
  5. Chronic inflammation produces copious amounts of serous exudate.

 

  1. Granulocytes
  2. Produce antibodies
  3. Include killer T cells
  4. Contain enzymes capable of killing bacteria
  5. Arrive at the site of cell injury in approximately 24 hours

 

  1. Macrophages
  2. Are involved in debris cleanup at the inflammatory site
  3. Are responsible for producing allergic reactions
  4. Live approximately 120 days
  5. Are immature monocytes

 

  1. Which of the following statements about B cells is correct?
  2. B cells provide cell-mediated immunity.
  3. B cells produce antibodies.
  4. B cells release histamine.
  5. B cells live approximately 3 months.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about suppressor T cells is true?
  2. Suppressor T cells turn off antibody production.
  3. Suppressor T cells mature in the bone marrow.
  4. Suppressor T cells are the most numerous type of T cell.
  5. Suppressor T cells release lymphokines that destroy pathogen cell walls.

 

  1. The antibody classified as IgE is responsible for
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Protecting the lungs from infection
  4. Activating complement
  5. Allergic reactions

 

  1. Research has indicated that chemokine receptors (CCR5 and CXCR4)
  2. Are found on human immunodeficiency virus particles
  3. Allow the human immunodeficiency virus to enter CD4 cells
  4. Protect HIV-positive individuals from developing opportunistic infections
  5. Are responsible for neoplasm development

 

  1. The complement system
  2. Causes the release of histamine from mast cells
  3. Causes clot formation at the site of cell injury
  4. Is another name for T cells
  5. Includes bradykinin

 

Question 15:              Health Care

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

BASIC CONCEPTS

 

  1. What does the term “host” mean?

a.

The person infected by a virus.

b.

The type of virus known as a retrovirus.

c.

The type of virus known as a common virus.

d.

The type of infection that occurs only in immunosuppressed people.

 

 

 

  1. Why do most people become ill with a specific viral infection only once?

a.

Once a virus is killed by the body, it is gone from the earth forever.

b.

During a viral infection, the body changes the virus to be less virulent.

c.

Antiviral drugs change the viral DNA so it cannot infect the same person again.

d.

During a specific viral infection, the person’s immune system improves protection against that virus.

 

 

  1. Which statement about antiviral drugs is true?

a.

They are all most effective at killing viruses.

b.

They are all effective against any type of infection.

c.

They all work by slowing the replication of viruses.

d.

They are all only effective in people with strong immune systems.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is only given by oral inhalation?

a.

Cyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Zanamivir (Relenza)

c.

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

d.

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

 

 

 

  1. Which specific virus causes mononucleosis?

a.

Cytomegalovirus

b.

Hantavirus

c.

Epstein-Barr virus

d.

West Nile virus

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is most likely to have more severe central nervous system side effects, including worsening of glaucoma?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Amantadine

c.

Valacyclovir

d.

Zanamavir

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is highly likely to cause birth defects when taken by a pregnant woman?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Zanamivir

c.

Rimantadine

d.

Ribavirin

 

 

 

  1. What is the major difference between retroviruses and common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses cannot be killed by antiviral therapy, but common viruses can.

b.

A retrovirus usually can cause disease over and over again in the same person.

c.

A retrovirus carries the enzyme reverse transcriptase, and common viruses do not.

d.

Retroviruses will respond to antibacterial drugs as well as to all the antiviral drugs.

 

 

  1. Which class of antiretroviral drugs works by preventing new viral particles from leaving the infected cell?

a.

Entry inhibitors

b.

Fusion inhibitors

c.

Protease inhibitors

d.

Reverse-transcriptase inhibitors

 

 

 

  1. Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?

a.

Nausea

b.

Vivid dreams

c.

Intolerance to fatty foods

d.

Swelling of the face or throat

 

 

 

  1. Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Darunavir (Prezista)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug does not work on all strains of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and therefore the patient must be tested before using the drug to make sure it will work?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug increases the risk for muscle weakness in older patients who are also taking a “statin” type of lipid-lowering drug?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. What is the purpose of antiviral drug therapy?

a.

To make the patient immune to infection by viruses.

b.

To reduce infection by killing the virus causing disease.

c.

To reduce illness duration by controlling viral reproduction.

d.

To prevent opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed patients.

 

 

  1. Which statement about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is true?

a.

Everyone with AIDS has HIV infection but not everyone with HIV infection has AIDS.

b.

Everyone with HIV infection eventually dies of it because the disease cannot be cured.

c.

With successful antiretroviral therapy, HIV-infected patients become HIV-antibody negative.

d.

When HIV disease becomes AIDS, the infection is in the blood and treatment must be given intravenously.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drug is now prescribed for preexposure prophylaxis to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Edurant

c.

Crixivan

d.

Truvada

 

 

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. How are viral infections different from bacterial infections?

a.

Bacterial infections can be spread from one person to another, whereas viral infections cannot be spread directly.

b.

Bacterial infections can be cured by treatment with some anti-infective drugs, whereas viral infections are not cured by anti-infective therapy.

c.

Viruses only cause disease in a person who is immunocompromised, whereas bacteria can cause disease even among immunocompetent people.

d.

Viruses are the less mature form of a bacterium, so there is essentially no difference between viral infections and bacterial infections.

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed any antiviral drug?

a.

“Take the drug exactly as prescribed and for as long as prescribed.”

b.

“Never take any antibacterial drugs while you are on antiviral therapy.”

c.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

d.

“Avoid unnecessary exposure to this drug by stopping it when you have no symptoms for 24 hours.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) acyclovir (Zovirax). Which question is most important to ask before giving the first dose of this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed oral valacyclovir (Valtrex)?

a.

“Avoid coffee and other caffeinated beverages.”

b.

“Wear long sleeves and a hat when going outdoors.”

c.

“Take this drug 1 hour before or 4 hours after eating a full meal.”

d.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been prescribed amantadine (Symmetrel) has all of the following health problems. For which problem should you contact the prescriber before giving the first dose?

a.

Asthma

b.

Influenza

c.

Glaucoma

d.

Diabetes mellitus

 

 

 

  1. A 2-year-old patient with respiratory syncytial virus is prescribed aerosolized ribavirin (Virazole). Which visitor should you ensure is not in the patient’s room during the aerosol treatments?

a.

16-year-old brother

b.

81-year-old grandmother

c.

32-year-old pregnant mother

d.

36-year-old father who has diabetes

 

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking interferon is also prescribed ribavirin (Virazole). Which laboratory blood test result for this patient do you report immediately to the prescriber?

a.

Red blood cells (RBCs) 2.2 million/mm3

b.

White blood cells (WBCs) 6000/mm3

c.

Sodium 134 mEq/L

d.

International normalized ratio (INR) 1.6

 

 

 

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  1. Which precaution about zanamivir (Relenza) therapy do you teach a patient who also uses a bronchodilator for asthma control?

a.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily while using this drug.”

b.

“Use the bronchodilator 15 minutes before taking the zanamivir.”

c.

“Avoid taking the zanamivir within 2 hours of using the bronchodilator.”

d.

“Take your pulse daily while on this drug because when taken with a bronchodilator heart rhythm problems are common.”

 

 

 

  1. For what reason does adefovir dipivoxil have a black box warning?

a.

It induces type 2 diabetes mellitus.

b.

It increases the severity of hepatitis B symptoms.

c.

It is highly toxic to both the liver and the kidneys.

d.

It has a high likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects and fetal damage.

 

 

 

  1. Which common side effects should you watch for when a patient is taking adefovir dipivoxil?

a.

Numbness and tingling in extremities

b.

Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

c.

Dizziness and light-headedness

d.

Increased confusion

 

 

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Understanding        REF:    p. 142

 

  1. What specific precaution would you teach the family of a patient prescribed amantadine?

a.

“Be sure that the patient performs mouth care four to six times daily.”

b.

“Remind the patient that monthly follow-up lab tests will be needed.”

c.

“Contact the prescriber immediately for any worsening of depression or thoughts of suicide.”

d.

“Ensure that the patient takes in at least 1000 mL more fluids that he or she puts out.”

 

 

 

  1. How are retroviruses different from common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses respond to antibacterial drugs but common viruses do not.

b.

Retroviruses have a greater efficiency of infection than common viruses.

c.

Common viral infections can be cured while retroviral infections can only be controlled.

d.

Common viruses can infect anyone whereas retroviruses can only cause infection in an immunosuppressed host.

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to begin highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the most important question to ask this patient before beginning therapy?

a.

“Do you have any symptoms now of active infection?”

b.

“Is there any possibility that you are pregnant?”

c.

“Are you currently sexually active?”

d.

“What other drugs do you take?”

 

 

 

  1. A patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for a year has the following blood laboratory test values. Which value do you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

White blood cell count 3500 cells/mm3

b.

Lactate dehydrogenase 990 IU/L

c.

Sodium 132 mEq/L

d.

Hematocrit 32%

 

 

 

  1. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease and is taking a “cocktail” consisting of protease inhibitors, nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors, and nonnucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors. Which statement made by the patient indicates that more teaching about the drug therapy is needed?

a.

“Using three drugs at the same time enhances suppression of viral replication.”

b.

“There is no problem using these drugs during the last trimester of my pregnancy.”

c.

“Because this drug combination kills HIV, I do not need to worry about transmitting the virus.”

d.

“If the virus becomes resistant to this cocktail, another combination of drugs may be required to reduce my viral load.”

 

 

 

  1. Which test results indicate that a patient’s antiretroviral therapy is effective?

a.

White blood cell count 5000 cells/mm3

b.

Blood urea nitrogen level 15 mg/dL

c.

Blood positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies

d.

CD4+ to CD8+ ratio increased

 

 

  1. A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy informs you that she is now pregnant. What advice regarding drug therapy do you give this patient?

a.

“Stop taking these drugs for your entire pregnancy.”

b.

“Stop taking these drugs for the first trimester and start again for the second and third trimesters.”

c.

“Continue to take these drugs throughout your pregnancy exactly as they have been prescribed.”

d.

“It will be necessary to double your dosages of these drugs to ensure your unborn baby is adequately protected.”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important question to ask before giving the first dose of darunavir to a patient newly prescribed this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. A child is prescribed emtricitabine (Emtriva) 120 mg orally. The drug on hand is emtricitabine suspension 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters do you prepare for a correct dose?

a.

2

b.

6

c.

12

d.

20

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) reports diarrhea. Which dietary change should you suggest for this patient?

a.

“Avoid fatty and fried foods.”

b.

“Increase your intake of fiber.”

c.

“Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal.”

d.

“Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 L/day.”

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking lamivudine (Epivir) for 6 months reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes. What is your best action?

a.

Document the report as the only action.

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Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

c.

Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and take a multiple vitamin daily.

d.

Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.

 

 

 

  1. Which health problem must you be specifically alert for in pregnant women who are prescribed any nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)?

a.

Headache

b.

Lactic acidosis

c.

Diabetes mellitus

d.

Nausea/vomiting

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking efavirenz (Sustiva) reports a sore throat, fever, and blisters. What is your best action?

a.

Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

b.

Document the report as the only action.

c.

Remind the patient that these are symptoms of opportunistic infection.

d.

Reassure the patient that these are common and expected side effects of the drug.

 

 

  1. Which food, drink, or herbal supplement do you warn a patient who is prescribed nevirapine (Viramune) to avoid?

a.

Caffeinated beverages

b.

Grapefruit juice

c.

St. John’s wort

d.

Dairy products

 

 

 

  1. How do protease inhibitor (PI) drugs prevent viral replication?

a.

They are counterfeit bases that prevent reverse transcriptase from synthesizing the DNA needed for viral replication.

b.

They inactivate the enzyme that allows the viral genetic material to be integrated into the human host’s cellular DNA.

c.

They prevent the production of proteins needed for viral particles to leave the cell and infect other cells.

d.

They prevent initial infection by blocking the receptor the virus uses to enter target cells.

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking indinavir (Crixivan) for a year has just been told that the organism is now resistant to this drug. The patient expresses worry to you that this means the disease will now progress to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and death will soon follow. What is your best response?

a.

“Your health care provider can change this drug to the intravenous form, which prevents viral replication even in HIV that has developed drug resistance.”

b.

“Although the HIV is now resistant to this drug, other antiretroviral drugs are likely to be effective in controlling your disease.”

c.

“The HIV easily becomes drug resistant. That is why the drug combinations are switched so often.”

d.

“That is a possibility because these drugs do not kill the virus. It is best to be prepared.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune) has all of the following side effects. Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

Nausea

b.

2 lb weight loss

c.

Clay-colored stools

d.

Dizziness on standing

 

 

 

  1. A pediatric patient is prescribed nelfinavir (Viracept) 450 mg orally. The available drug is 50 mg/scoop. How many level scoops do you measure into the patient’s pudding to administer the correct dose?

a.

9 scoops

b.

6 scoops

c.

3 scoops

d.

2 scoops

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach an older patient who is prescribed atazanavir (Reyataz)?

a.

“Be sure to take this drug at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after taking an antacid.”

b.

“Weigh yourself daily and notify your prescriber if you gain more than 2 lb in 1 week.”

c.

“Check your pulse for a full minute daily and notify your prescriber if it becomes irregular or slow.”

d.

“Check your calves daily for swelling or redness. If these symptoms appear, go to the emergency department immediately.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

a.

“After the drug is mixed, store it away from light.”

b.

“Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug.”

c.

“Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant.”

d.

“Mix the drug with tap water, then rinse the drug’s original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture.”

 

 

 

  1. A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry) is not being prescribed for her. What is your best response?

a.

“This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it.”

b.

“This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant.”

c.

“This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs. It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems.”

d.

“This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach older adults who are prescribed maraviroc (Selzentry)?

a.

“If an injection site infection occurs, do not reuse that site until the skin has healed completely.”

b.

“Take the drug with food or milk to reduce the likelihood of GI side effects.”

c.

“Change positions slowly when moving from a sitting to a standing position.”

d.

“Store the drug at room temperature.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient prescribed raltegravir (Isentress) reports all of the following problems or changes since starting this drug. Which problem or change do you report to the prescriber?

a.

Abdominal cramps and bloating

b.

Muscle aches and weakness

c.

Urinating more at night

d.

Loss of taste for sweets

 

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  1. What precaution is most important to teach a patient newly prescribed to take Truvada?

a.

“Continue to use safer sex practices.”

b.

“Avoid caffeine and any fatty or fried foods.”

c.

“Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids daily.”

d.

“If you develop muscle or joint aches, notify your prescriber immediately.”

 

 

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drugs have greater effectiveness when administered with ritonavir? (select all that apply)

a.

Edurant (rilpivirine)

b.

Emtriva (emtricitabine)

c.

Invirase (saquinavir)

d.

Lexiva (fosamprenavir)

e.

Prezista (darunavir)

f.

Reyataz (atazanavir)

g.

Tivicay (dolutegravir)

h.

Ziagen (abacavir)

 

 

 

  1. Which patient outcomes are major goals of antiretroviral therapy? (select all that apply)

a.

Prevention of opportunistic infections

b.

Conversion to an HIV-negative antibody status

c.

Reduction of the number of viral particles in the patient’s blood

d.

Increase in CD4+ cells

e.

Decrease in CD8+ cells

f.

Prevention of disease spread

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz) at a dose of 7 mg/kg. The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to receive 300 mg of ribavirin by oral suspension. The drug on hand is ribavirin oral suspension with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed 45 mg of enfuvirtide by subcutaneous injection. The available drug is a premixed solution of enfuvirtide with a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

 

Question 16:     Business Management

 

Chapter 9   Foundations of Group Behavior

 

1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

  1. A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
  2. B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
  3. C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
  4. D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
  5. E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

 

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

  1. A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
  2. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
  3. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.

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  1. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
  2. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

 

3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.

  1. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
  2. B) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
  3. C) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
  4. D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
  5. E) creation of timelines and rationale

 

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

  1. A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
  2. B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
  3. C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
  4. D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
  5. E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

.

 

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is the territory of the ________ theory.

  1. A) social exchange
  2. B) expectancy
  3. C) social identity
  4. D) reinforcement
  5. E) equity

 

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

  1. A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
  2. B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group’s performance.
  3. C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
  4. D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group.
  5. E) It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

 

7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

  1. A) In-group homogeneity
  2. B) Xenocentrism
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Black sheep effect
  5. E) Hindsight bias

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

 

9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying “you guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

11) In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  3. C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

 

12) Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

13) Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

14) Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) adjourning
  2. B) performing
  3. C) storming
  4. D) forming
  5. E) norming

15) Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?

  1. A) introduction
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) evolution
  5. E) norming

16) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

  1. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
  2. B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
  3. C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
  4. D) intragroup conflict within the group
  5. E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

 

17) By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

  1. A) norming
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) adjourning
  5. E) performing

 

18) During the third stage of group development ________.

  1. A) conflicts over leadership are common
  2. B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
  3. C) intragroup conflicts occur
  4. D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
  5. E) groups disband

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

  1. A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
  2. B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  3. C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
  4. D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
  5. E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

 

20) When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

  1. A) storming
  2. B) norming
  3. C) inertia
  4. D) forming
  5. E) performing

21) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

  1. A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  2. B) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.
  3. C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
  4. D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
  5. E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

 

22) Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
  2. B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
  3. C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
  4. D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
  5. E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

 

23) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

  1. A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
  2. B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
  3. C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
  4. D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and group shift to break out of the phases of inertia.
  5. E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

 

24) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

  1. A) forming
  2. B) inertia following the first meeting
  3. C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
  4. D) storming
  5. E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

25) The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

  1. A) the phase of inertia before transition
  2. B) the determination of the group’s direction
  3. C) the transition to plan the major changes
  4. D) a period of accelerated activity
  5. E) the adoption of new perspectives

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26) The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

  1. A) performing
  2. B) inertia
  3. C) equilibrium
  4. D) transition
  5. E) first meeting

 

27) Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

  1. A) better perspectives and patterns
  2. B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
  3. C) promotion of diversity
  4. D) deadlines and time constraints
  5. E) role perception and expectation

 

28) Role perception is defined as ________.

  1. A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
  2. B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
  3. C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  4. D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
  5. E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

 

29) Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice’s ________.

  1. A) role fuzziness
  2. B) role ambiguity
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) role perception
  5. E) role status

 

30) Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

  1. A) fuzziness
  2. B) expectation
  3. C) conflict
  4. D) perception
  5. E) enhancement

 

31) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) similarity
  3. C) role expectation
  4. D) uncertainty reduction
  5. E) dispersion of responsibility

32) When ________, the result is role conflict.

  1. A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
  2. B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
  3. C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
  4. D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
  5. E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

 

33) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

  1. A) role conflict
  2. B) social loafing
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) role fuzziness
  5. E) group shift

.

 

34) Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?

  1. A) status
  2. B) norms
  3. C) dyads
  4. D) goals
  5. E) cliques

 

35)  Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

  1. A) dress codes
  2. B) rules in informal groups
  3. C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
  4. D) distribution of pay
  5. E) the manner in which a job must be done

 

36) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

  1. A) appearance
  2. B) social arrangement
  3. C) performance
  4. D) reference
  5. E) organizational

 

37) A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

  1. A) performance norms
  2. B) appearance norms
  3. C) resource allocation norms
  4. D) reference norms
  5. E) leisure norms

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38) ________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.

  1. A) Deviance
  2. B) Conflict
  3. C) Divergence
  4. D) Conformity
  5. E) Appearance

 

39) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference
  3. C) organizational
  4. D) control
  5. E) nominal

 

40) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

  1. A) nominal group
  2. B) organizational group
  3. C) control group
  4. D) intervention group
  5. E) reference group

41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

  1. A) undue hardship
  2. B) deviant workplace behavior
  3. C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
  4. D) progressive discipline
  5. E) wrongful termination

 

42) Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

  1. A) It is involuntary in nature.
  2. B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
  3. C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
  4. D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
  5. E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

43) Status refers to the ________.

  1. A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
  2. B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
  3. C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
  4. D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  5. E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

44) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

  1. A) control over the resources needed by the group
  2. B) contribution to goals
  3. C) ability to conform to group norms
  4. D) personality
  5. E) talent

 

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

  1. A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
  2. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.
  3. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
  4. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
  5. E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

 

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the performance of the group?

  1. A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
  2. B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
  3. C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
  4. D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
  5. E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

 

47) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) social facilitation

.

 

48) When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) in-group favoritism

49) Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

  1. A) difficult task assignments
  2. B) high collective efficacy
  3. C) severe time constraints
  4. D) dispersion of responsibility
  5. E) heavy workload

50) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

  1. A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
  2. B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
  3. C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
  4. D) increasing the size of the group
  5. E) increasing the group’s workload

 

51) Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing? 

  1. A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.

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  1. B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
  2. C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
  3. D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
  4. E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

 

52) ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

  1. A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.
  2. B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
  3. C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
  4. D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
  5. E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

 

53) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

  1. A) Assertiveness
  2. B) Social dominance
  3. C) Authoritativeness
  4. D) Cohesiveness
  5. E) Diversity

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

  1. A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
  2. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.
  3. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
  4. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
  5. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

 

55) ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

  1. A) Homogeneity
  2. B) Diversity
  3. C) Conformity
  4. D) Civility
  5. E) Universality

56) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

  1. A) increased ambiguous responsibility
  2. B) increased conformity pressures
  3. C) increased diversity of views
  4. D) increased dispersion of accountability
  5. E) increased pace of decision making

 

57) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

  1. A) acceptance of solution
  2. B) speed
  3. C) efficiency
  4. D) clear responsibility
  5. E) legitimacy

Answer:  A

 

58) Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual decision making.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) creativity
  3. C) acceptance of final solutions
  4. D) speed
  5. E) accuracy

 

59) ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

  1. A) Group shift
  2. B) Social loafing
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Cyber loafing
  5. E) Groupthink

60) Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

Explanation:  D) Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

 

61) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?

  1. A) increasing the group size
  2. B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
  3. C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
  4. D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
  5. E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

 

62) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

  1. A) social desirability bias
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) halo effect
  4. D) social loafing
  5. E) in-group favoritism

 

63) Group shift is seen when ________.

  1. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
  2. B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
  3. C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  4. D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.

 

64) The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

  1. A) conformity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

65) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome, and even profitably use, this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Mark’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that Eu Air should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
  2. B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for Eu Air to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.
  3. C) Mark agreed with Joe’s opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
  4. D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with Eu Air.    
  5. E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing Eu Air to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

66) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced group shift in the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
  2. B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.
  3. C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
  4. D) Mark was of the opinion that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
  5. E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

.

67) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Joe’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
  2. B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
  3. C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
  4. D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price sensitive group of customers.
  5. E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

68) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced group shift during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
  2. B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
  3. C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
  4. D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.
  5. E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

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69) Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) electronic meeting groups

 

70) Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) in-group favoritism
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

 

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

  1. A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
  2. B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
  3. C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
  4. D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
  5. E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

 

72) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) in-group

 

73) Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference group
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) nominal group
  5. E) groupthink

 

74) Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

  1. A) nominal and electronic
  2. B) brainstorming
  3. C) brainstorming and electronic
  4. D) electronic and interacting
  5. E) interacting and brainstorming

 

75) ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use here?

  1. A) heuristics and algorithm approach
  2. B) nominal groups approach
  3. C) electronic meeting approach
  4. D) reference groups approach
  5. E) brainstorming

 

Question 17:              Finance

 

 

  1. If a stock has a beta of 0.78 would its required rate of return be higher or lower than the required return for the average stock on the market? Why? Would it be more or less risky than holding a fund that replicated the S&P 500 Index ? Why?

 

 

 

  1. The nominal risk free rate (RRF) equals 0.55%. The market risk premium is equal to 6.0%. The Beta of Harrah’s Inc. is 1.33. Use the CAPM to calculate the required rate of return for Hershey stock (Rs)?

 

 

  1. If you are a risk-averse investor and you decide to hold a single stock, which stock would you prefer? Use the Coefficient of Variation (CV) to determine your answer. Explain your final choice.

 

  1. A stock with an expected return of 20% and a standard deviation equal to 10%.
  2. A stock with an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation equal to 3%.
  3. A stock with an expected return of 16% and a standard deviation equal to 16%

 

 

  1. Assume you have a portfolio with the stocks and their information:
Stock Total $ invested Beta Expected Return Portfolio weight
DuPont $125,000 1.00 12%  
McDonald’s Corp $150,000 0.55 8.6%  
Ford $600,000 1.33 11%  

 

 

  1. a) Calculate Beta of the Portfolio.
  2. b) Calculate the Expected return for the portfolio using the CAPM and the beta value for the portfolio. Assume the market risk premium (Rm – Rrf) equals 6% and the Risk free rate (Rrf) equals the rate on a 2 year treasury 1.25%.
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Question 18:              Finance

 

SHOW YOUR WORK.

  1. Assume you own 10 shares of Johnson and Johnson. You paid $43/sh. You sold the stock one year later for $40/share. During the year you held the stock, you earned no Dividends. What was your total dollar return? What was your percentage return?

 

  1. Assume a share of preferred stock pays a constant dividend of $1.25. If the required return is 6.5%, what is the expected price of this preferred stock?

 

  1. A share of common stock will pay a dividend of $2.00 at the end of this year so D1= $2.00. If the expected long-run constant growth rate for this stock is 4 percent, and if investors require an 6 percent rate of return (Rs=6%), what is the expected price of the stock?

 

 

  1. Martian stock is expected to grow at 8% in year 1, 9% in year 2 and 6% in year 3.It is then expected to grow at a constant rate of 3% in the years that follow. The required rate of return (Rs) equals 9%. The company just aid a Dividend of $1.55 at the end of last year so (D=$1.55. What is the expected price of this stock? If the stock was selling on the market for $45, would you buy it based on your calculations? Explain your answer.

 

Question 19:     General Question

 

Instruction

James shows up to work approximately five minutes late this morning, walks silently (but quickly) down the hallway and begins to punch in at the time clock located by the front desk. Sarah, the front desk manager, says, “Good morning, James,” but James ignores her, punches in, and heads into the shop to his workplace. Sarah rolls her eyes, picks up the phone, and dials the on-duty manager to alert her that James just arrived and should be reaching his desk any moment. The message should take the form of an email; however, you will submit your assignment to the online course shell. The professional email message must adhere to the following requirements: 1. Content: Address the communication issue from the scenario. Request a face-to-face meeting to discuss the issue (at a specific time). Concentrate on the facts of the situation and avoid using overly emotional language. Assume your recipient is learning about the situation for the first time through your communication. 2. Format: Use a descriptive subject line or heading. Include an appropriate and professional greeting / salutation. Use email form including: To:, From:, Subject:, and Signature. 3. Clarity / Mechanics: Focus on clarity, writing mechanics, and professional language/style requirements. Run spell/grammar check before submitting. 4. Your assignment must: This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details. 5. Submitting your assignment: Submit your assignment through the online course shell only. 6. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: Plan, create, and evaluate professional documents. Deliver professional information to various audiences using appropriate tone, style, and format. Analyze professional communication examples to assist in revision.

 

Question 20:     Law

 

 

The book review essay should include all the following – each roman numeral represents a required heading for the paper:

 

  1. Title Page – Include name, date, and course information.

 

  1. Introduction – one-page maximum
  2. Summary of the work

 

  • Family Experience – a minimum of four pages in length.
  1. In the book, Dave referred to his mother as both ‘mother’ and

‘mom’. What prompted the change? Support with at least two

specific examples from the work.

  1. Why do you suppose Dave was the object of his abuse by his

mother? Provide a specific example from the text to support your work.

  1. Describe the relationship between Dave and his father. Support

with at least two specific examples from the work.

  1. In what ways did Dave not feel a sense of belonging in his family?

Support with at least two specific examples from the book.

  1. What do you suppose was Dave’s worst experience of abuse? Provide a specific example from the book.
  2. Why do you suppose Dave continued to fight?

 

  1. Contribution to the field of Victimology – one-page minimum
  2. Purpose of the work – how does it increase awareness about Dave’s experience.
  3. How does this work contribute to Victimology?

 

  1. Conclusion – Summary of your thoughts – one-page maximum

 

  1. Reference Page – Pelzer book and any supporting readings included in the book review.

 

The book review essay must be typed, double-spaced, Times New

Roman 12 fonts, with 1″ margins all around. You must include a

title page.

 

Question 21:     Economics

 

A snack food chain runs a promotion in which shoppers are told that 1 in 4 kid’s meals include a prize. A father buys 2 kid’s meals and neither has a prize. The father concludes that because neither has a prize the chain is being deceptive.

What are the null and alternative hypothesis?

 

Describe a Type I error in this context.

 

 

Describe a Type II error.

 

 

A retailer maintains a website that it sues to attract shoppers. The average purchase amount is $80. The retailor is evaluating a new website that would, it hopes, encourage shoppers to spend more. Let µ represent the average amount spent per customer at its redesigned website. Mark each statement as True or False.

The appropriate null hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new designs is µ = $80.

 

The appropriate alternative hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new design is  µ > $80.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The makers of Mini-Oats Cereal have an automated packaging machine that can be set at any targeted fill level between 12 and 32 ounces. Every box of cereal is not expected to contain exactly the targeted weight but the average of all boxed filled should. At the end of every shift, 16 boxes are selected a random and the mean and standard deviation of the sample are computed. Based on these sample results, the production control manager determines whether the filling machine needs to be readjusted or whether it remains all right to operate. Use α = 0.05 and assume the population is normally distributed.

Establish the appropriate null and alternative hypothesis to be tested for boxes that are supposed to have an average of 24 ounces.

 

 

 

 

At the end of a particular shift during which the machine was filling 24 ounce boxes, the sample mean of 16 boxes was 24.32 ounces with a standard deviation of 0.70 ounces. Assist the production control manager in determining if the machine is achieving its targeted average.

 

Question 22:              Law

 

The research paper will be based on a recent case before the courts. You must identify the case and how it relates to the topics covered in this course. You must use the proper citation for the case you selected, as well as the APA style for your entire paper. The paper must be a minimum of five pages (not counting the cover and reference pages), double spaced, 12-point font. Your thesis must be concise, explaining your position. I am interested in why you chose a particular case to analyze The case is Florida v. Jardines and the topic is the fourth amendment against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause

 

Question 23:              Religious Studies

 

The Journey Paper Instructions

  1. Go somewhere (the park, the lake, etc.), any place that you won’t be disturbed or distracted.

For Step 1, write out your prayer. Be transparent, honest, and thoughtful in your prayer. Pray specifically toward the purpose of discovering and uncovering thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

  1. You are encouraged to press through and go deeper into yourself to find the hidden meanings of your emotions, thoughts and self-statements.
  2. Follow the remaining steps: (Use a present situation, not one from the past that you have already worked through.)

Step 2: Describe the unpleasant situation that disturbs you.

Step 3: List any destructive behaviors stemming from the unpleasant situation.

Step 4: Describe how others responded to your behaviors and how relationships were affected.

Step 5: What are the negative and harmful emotions you feel in regard to the situation? (You may feel several emotions. Write them all down.).

Step 6: Ask yourself the following questions:

  1. What is the worst thing about this situation?
  2. How does this situation affect me personally?
  3. What is the basis, the essence of the problem?
  4. What is the main thing in this problem that makes me feel so bad?
  5. Exactly what is it that feels so bad about this?
  6. What is the worst of this feeling?

Step 7: Move even deeper through your emotions toward your deepest felt sense, and record all your feelings.

Step 8: (1) Examine your thoughts. Ask, “What am I telling myself?” (2) Ask, “Why am I feeling this way?” (Realize that there is a strong possibility that the reason you feel as you do is that you are taking the situation personally.)

Step 9: Ask, “In the list of strongholds, what is the faulty thinking regarding my security and my worth as a person that causes me to take this situation so personally?” Once you have detected the faulty thinking, how can it be rejected and corrected?

Step 10: First, forgive anyone who may have created the situation, and thank God you that you can learn and grow as a result of it. Second, now that you have detected the basic fallacy in your thinking regarding the problem situation, reject the fallacy. See your textbook for the “how to”.

  1. List at least two specific scriptures that are especially meaningful to you that can be used to reprogram and renew your mind.
  2. Paper requirements.
  • Written in paragraph (narrative form), covering all of the above.
  • 5-7 full pages >1″ margin, top, bottom, left, right.
  • Times New Roman, 12 point font.
  • Double Spaced
  • Cover Sheet, must meet APA style standards. (See the library or internet if you are unfamiliar with this style.)

 

Question 24:     Health Care

 

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

 

Question 25:     Science

 

Instruction

Topic: The Effect of COVID-19 on the Climate Elaborate on the topic, describe and give insights. Please follow the Rubic structure when writing the paper. Please be creative!

 

Question 26:     Business Management

 

Write a small paragraph about one particular company that used business risk plan that made them overcome business threat or risk. It has to a real example and how they did overcome it

 

Question 27:     History    

 

Instructions: – Your response should be in essay format. Write as much as possible telling me who, what, why, where, and how. Use complete sentences and multiple paragraphs (3 – 5) . 1. Discuss the experiences of Mexican and Mexican Americans during the Great Depression. What was so unique about their experiences and how did they compare to other ethno racial groups throughout the country? What did the federal government do specifically to this community and? What was the purpose of the government’s action? Be detailed and provide examples 2. Describe the Mexican Revolution of 1910. Who were the leaders of the revolutionary groups and who were they opposing? What was the cause or causes of this war? What was the position regarding this conflict? What was the outcome of this war and what did that mean for the relationship between the and Mexico? Provide details and list examples to supplement your response.

 

Question 28:              Psychology

 

Chapters 11, 3, 4, 5

Chapter 11

  1. With which of Maslow’s claims do contemporary researchers find fault?

 

  1. Which of the following behaviors is explained by set-point theory?

a

  1. What does research on the effects of testosterone on sexual desire reveal?

 

  1. Callie was excellent at darts, so when she challenged her friend Erik to a game, she gave

him the opportunity to pick how far a    way he stood from the dartboard. Consider the

study by Atkinson and Litwin (1960) described in the text in which people high and low

in the need to achieve and to avoid failure got to stand wherever they wanted relative to

a target. If Erik was high in the need to achieve and low in the need to avoid failure,

where would he choose to stand?

 

  1. Imagine you wanted to motivate your younger brother to do a good job keeping his

room tidy. One way to do so might be to increase his sense of autonomy. Which of the

following could help you achieve that end?

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  1. According to research described in the text, which of the following statements is false?

 

  1. Which of the following words is most synonymous with ​personal agency​?

 

  1. Considering the specificity, level of challenge, and proximity of the following goal

statements, which would be most motivating?

 

  1. You’ve just failed a math exam. Considering Carol Dweck’s research on mindsets, which

of the following thoughts could keep you from becoming discouraged about your future

math performance?

  1. Which of the following is true of autonomy?

 

  1. Sophia and Bella joined the local orchestra and had their first performance. During

practice, they performed equally well, but on the day of the show, Bella made several

mistakes, whereas Sophia played better than she ever had. Considering Zajonc’s work

on social facilitation, which of the following could best explain this difference?

 

  1. According to research described in the text, what do grades measure?
  2. Which of the following motives and motivational orientations is categorized as an

approach motivation?

 

 

  1. What is the key function of the behavioral inhibition system?

 

  1. Cocaine increases the activity of which of the following chemicals in the reward center of

the brain?

 

Chapter 3

  1. The hippocampus of London taxi drivers is larger than that of the average driver. What

feature of the brain does this best illustrate?

 

  1. The effects of Phineas Gage’s accident on his intellect and personality illustrated which

of the following about the brain?

  1. Which part of MacLean’s triune brain is responsible for regulating bodily functions

critical to survival?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following areas would cause your movements to become

uncoordinated, even clumsy?

 

  1. Of the following, which structure of the limbic system would be most active if you were

to walk into your most challenging class and notice students clearing their desks, as if

preparing to take a test (one for which you aren’t prepared!)?

 

  1. On which of the following properties of the body does fMRI capitalize to produce

images?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following lobes would make it difficult for you to touch your

finger to your nose with your eyes closed?

  1. The rich interconnections between _____ lobes and other areas of the brain enable us to

possess uniquely human capabilities, including the ability to think about ourselves and

consider how others view us.

  1. This area of the frontal lobes enables you to concentrate on taking this self-test, while

simultaneously blocking out irrelevant stimuli.

 

  1. That we’re able to coordinate complex activities is due largely to the fact that the brain is

 

  1. Which of the following was ​not​a finding in research comparing brain activation among

English and Chinese speakers doing arithmetic?

 

  1. Which particular structure of the neuron can be as long as a meter (a little over 3 feet),

allowing neurons to send information across relatively long distances?

 

  1. The incredible speed with which action potentials are able to rush down the length of an

axon is enhanced by which of the following structures?

  1. When used by neurons in the spinal cord, this neurotransmitter controls muscles, and

when used by neurons in the brain, it regulates memory.

  1. Unexplained weight gain would most likely be related to a decrease in the functioning of

which of the following glands?

 

Chapter 4

  1. Research by Turkheimer and colleagues (2003) indicated that genes had a small

influence on intelligence in poor environments but a large effect in high-SES

environments. What does this suggest about the relative effects of nurture and nature?

  1. Among cultures that encourage the drinking of milk, nature selects for the gene that

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enables members of that culture to digest lactose. Among cultures for which milk is not

important, few people possess this gene. These facts support which of the following

ideas about the relation between biology and culture?

  1. Which of the following traits is likely to be the most heritable?
  2. If the only difference between MZ and DZ twin pairs is their genetic similarity, then the

difference in the degree to which the two twin types resemble each other

psychologically must be caused by

  1. Based on research by Bouchard and colleagues (1990) on the psychological similarity of

twins raised apart, we would estimate that the correlation for twins raised apart on the

trait of conscientiousness would be approximately

  1. Based on twin studies, we know that the heritability of personality traits is not 1.00. This

leaves room for what other kind of influences?

 

  1. Heritability studies indicate that variations in genes do account, in part, for variations in

personality. Which of the following would be reasonable to conclude based on this

finding?

  1. Using the metaphor of books to describe your body’s cells, what part of the book

represents DNA?

  1. In molecular genetic methods, sometimes researchers know exactly what allele they are

interested in. At other times, they conduct a(n) ________ to identify the genetic basis of a

behavior of interest.

  1. Recent advances in molecular genetic analyses of monozygotic twins indicate that

identical twins

  1. The process of natural selection isincompatible​with which of the following ideas? ​
  2. Which of the following patterns of preferences for mates should we expect to observe,

according to evolutionary psychologists?

  1. Which of the following wouldnot​be supportive of the mental-modules hypothesis? ​
  2. In an interesting illustration of culture’s influence on biology, researchers found that

among people living in the Caucasus Mountains, there was little genetic diversity

because of the

  1. Although shared family environments account for none of the variability in sexual

orientation, one theory is that variations in which of the following types of environment

may be influential?

 

 

Question 29:              Linguistics

 

  1. Phonetics is one of the linguistic subfields dealing with human speech sounds; it isconcentrated on what three aspects of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated, how they pattern, and how humans hear them
  2. b) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how humans perceive them
  3. c) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how they pattern
  4. d) None of the above

 

 

  1. What aspect of articulation is responsible for voice (for sounds that are voiced)?

 

 

a)The tongue, specifically, the tongue dorsum

  1. b) The tongue, specifically, the tongue tip
  2. c) The tongue, specifically the tongue blade
  3. d) The pharynx
  4. c) The vocal folds
  5. d) both (a) and (c)
  6. e) Both (c) and (d)
  7. f) None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following English sounds are voiced?

a.[s] and [t]

b.[k] and [f]

c.[m] and [v]

d.[j] and [g]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (c) and (d)

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made with the tongue dorsum (i.e., the back of the tongue)?

a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made at the velar place of articulation?

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a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “bid” and “bed” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “Luke” and “look” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “beat” and “boot” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

 

  1. Phonology is another linguistic subfield that deals with human speech sounds; it is concentrated on aspect of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated
  2. b) Their physical properties
  3. c) Their perception by human listeners
  4. d) Their patterning
  5. e) None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following are minimal pairs?

a.“boot” and “beat”

b.“cash” and “dash”

c.“crawl” and “drawl”

d.“treat” and “dream”

e.“tip” and “tips”

f.“go” and “went”

 

g.“fish” and “fishing”

h.both (a) and (b)

i.both (b) and (c)

j.(a), (b), and (c)

k.(e), (f), and (g)

l.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following words contains a consonant cluster?

 

 

  1. a) “traps”
  2. b) “tea”
  3. c) “bowl”
  4. d) “though”

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fish” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishing” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishcakes” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.None of the above

 

 

  1. The word “fishcake” is an example of what word formation process?

 

 

  1. a) blending
  2. b) coinage
  3. c) compounding
  4. d) clipping
  5. e) backformation
  6. f) None of the above

 

  1. Describe why the sentence “I saw the man with a telescope” is ambiguous, and say what the two possible meanings are.

 

 

 

  1. Describe why “acquisition” is a better term than “learning” to describe the development of language in a child.

 

 

 

  1. Watch the 55-minute documentary “The Human Language Series: Acquiring Language”. Then, discuss what is meant when linguists say that language is“innate”. This understanding of the nature of human language started with Noam Chomsky in the 1950s, and it is now central to all of linguistics.

 

Your response should be at least 100 words. You can find the video on YouTube here:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j_KlekPZZ6k

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Question 30:     Other

 

Full 10-page criminology paper based on rational theory and how it affects the location, Chicago. Crimes, prevention, solutions, and etc.

 

Question 31: Other

 

Directions:

  1. Using this document, please insert your name in the space above.

 

  1. The midterm will consist of 2 essays and 1 long answer question. You will have a choice of 2 questions for each of the 2 essays. Your answers must be based on material from the course readings, so please make sure to reference your readings when applicable. Your midterm is designed to measure your understanding of the reading and your ability to work with the ideas presented by the authors in the response to the questions.

 

YOU MAY NOT CONSULT WITH ANYONE ABOUT ANY ASPECT OF THE EXAM. However, questions about clarity should be submitted via “Got Questions” on Blackboard. You may not consult web sources that are not part of the course materials while you are answering the exam.

 

  1. When you have completed your exam, please sign (electronically) the statement below that indicates that this is entirely your own work.

 

  1. Essay 1 (Length: 2 ½ to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the punitive criminal justice policies implemented at the end of the 20th century and their impact on the criminal justice system (including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections).

Or

    1.  Discuss the impact of public opinion, punitiveness, politics and the news media on the criminal justice system.

 

  1. Essay 2 (Length: 2 ½  to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the relationship between politics and criminal justice policy.

Or

    1. Select a controversial criminal justice issue and use the policy community framework to outline the participants, networks and relationships that will likely influence the policy-making process.

 

  1. The Long Answer (Length: 2 ½; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Briefly describe the first six stages of planned change (analyzing the problem, setting goals and objectives, designing the program, developing an action plan, monitoring program implementation and evaluating outcomes). What are the major questions we need to ask at each stage?

 

 

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