quick assistance with finance assignments, summer 2020 online courses help

 

 

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FINANCE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS( CONTACT OUR EXPERTS)

Q1

Sun Ltd has acquired all the shares of a major manufacturer Moon Ltd. The CFO of the company, Ms. Tania, has shown the board of directors of Sun Ltd, the financial information regarding the acquisition. The directors are not sure whether all the identifiable assets and liabilities of Moon Ltd must be recognised in the consolidated financial statements at fair value. Although the directors are happy about the valuation of these items, they are unsure of a number of other matters associated with accounting for these assets and liabilities.
Issue 1 The Board of directors is wondering should the adjustments to fair value be made in the consolidation worksheet or in the accounts of Moon Ltd.
Issue 2 What equity accounts should be used when revaluing the assets, and should different equity accounts such as income (similar to recognition of an excess) be used in relation to recognition of liabilities?(Hint: This issue is related to BCVR adjustment required to ensure all assets and liabilities are recorded at fair value on the consolidated financial statements)
Issue 3 Do these equity accounts remain in existence indefinitely, since they do not seem to be related to the equity accounts recognised by Moon Ltd itself?
Could you please explain this to the Board (most of them are not accountants)? Please respond by memo (not email) as I would like to present this to the Board. I look forward to hearing from you shortly.
Regards,
Jackson Smith
Director, Sun Ltd
510 William Street,
Melbourne, VIC 3000

Q2

The most recent financial statements for Reply, Inc., are shown here:

 

Income Statement Balance Sheet
Sales $ 26,600 Assets $ 61,000 Debt $ 27,600
Costs 17,900 Equity 33,400
Taxable income $ 8,700 Total $ 61,000 Total $ 61,000
Taxes (40%) 3,480
Net income $ 5,220
Assets and costs are proportional to sales. Debt and equity are not. A dividend of $2,200 was paid, and the company wishes to maintain a constant payout ratio. Next year’s sales are projected to be $31,920.
What is the external financing needed? (Do not round intermediate calculations.)

 

Q3

  1. Discuss the overall purpose people have for investing. Define investment.
  2. As a student, are you saving or borrowing? Why?
  3. Divide a person’s life from ages 20 to 70 into 10-year segments and discuss the likely saving or borrowing patterns during each period.
  4. Discuss why you would expect the saving-borrowing pattern to differ by occupation (for example, for a medical doctor versus a farmer).
  5. Describe the Investment environment in terms of markets, institutions, instruments and participants

 

Q4

  1. What are the five basis principles of finance? Briefly explain them (no more than 250 words). (10 marks) 2. Little Book LTD has total assets of $860,000. There are 75,000 shares of stock outstanding, total book value of $750,000 with a market value of $12 a share. The firm has a profit margin of 6.5% and a total asset turnover of 1.5. a) Calculate the company’s EPS? (6 marks) b) What is the market –to- book ratio? (4 marks) 3. Fifteen years ago, you deposited $12,500 into an investment fund. Five years ago, you added an additional $20,000 to that account. You earned 8%, compounded semi-annually, for the first ten years, and 6.5%, compounded annually, for the last five years. a) What is the effective annual interest rate (EAR) you would get for your investment in the first 10 years? (2 marks) b) How much money do you have in your account today? (4 marks) c) If you wish to have $85,000 now, how much should you have invested 15 years ago? (4 marks

Q5

  1. Using the excel file “NKY as of Feb 12 20201” and “Nikkei Summary, 2-12-2020”, calculate the current value of the index. Please put your final answer on the word document and provide your excel calculation (4 points):
    2) Using the data from the excel “SHCOMP Stratified Data”, let’s try to replicate the index through stratified sampling (18 pts).
    i) First organize the names by GICs Sector. Which sector has the largest weighting and what is that weighting? (2 pts)
    ii) What is the most underrepresented sector in the SHCOMP weighting and what is that weighting (2 pts)?
    iii) In the consumer discretionary sector, what are the two largest companies by Market Cap, and what are their weightings? (4 pts)
    iv) In an excel, recreate the SHCOMP index by first sector and then market cap, taking the two largest names by Market Cap in each sector (ignore any companies that have an N/A for their Market Cap). Allocate to each sector the weighting that each sector had originally in the SHCOMP and then allocate between the two names within the sector based on their proportional weighting to each other. In your excel, include the original titles and the new weights of your new Index. Put a screenshot in your word document please. (10 pts)
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Q6

This assignment is an integral part of the learning conducted in this course. It will harness key
capabilities for successfully extracting, managing, understanding & analyzing financial statement
information. It is also designed to enhance the Graduate Capabilities (GCs) of cognitive, analytical and
communication skills as well as teamwork.
Detailed Instructions:
Students will be allocated a company currently trading in on the ASX. The first task will be to collect the
last 10 years data relating to income statement, balance sheet, cash flow statement and ratios and
collate in excel. You can get the data through Data Analysis Premium

Q7

On June 15, 2005 a corporation issues an 8% bond with a face value of 1,000,000. The bond can be redeemed, at the option of the corporation, on any coupon date in 2016 or 2017 at par, on any coupon date in 2018 through 2020 for amount 1,200,000, or on any coupon date in 2021 through June 15, 2023 at redemption amount 1,300,000. (a) Find the price to yield a…

 

Q8

  1. The Eurekahedge indices are a set of indices that track specific types of hedge funds. In this exercise we want to evaluate and determine the factors that determine the returns generated by EHFI 68, a index specific to Japanese hedge funds versus the major Japanese Index the Nikkei 225 (20 pts):
  2. Using the excel formula, calculate the Beta of EHFI 68 to the Nikkei 225 based on the CAPM. Interpret that result in one sentence. (5 pts)

 

  1. Now using the Covariance method, calculate the Beta of EHFI 68 to four decimal places. (5 pts)

 

  1. Perform a regression between EHFI 68 and the Nikkei 225. What is the adjusted R-squared? What does that imply? Is this what you would expect in the relationship between the two? (5 pts)

 

Q9

Q1. Collect the data from “Yahoo Finance” and answer the following questions (using the instructions given in the next page): a) Collect the market price index (All Ordinaries), Share price for a company (as per instructions given in page 2) and display the data for two sub-periods (Period 1: February 2014 to February 2016; Period 2: October 2016 to October 2018) separately in two separate tables. (2 marks) b) Calculate the return of share prices and market return (from market price index). Display the calculated returns along with the risk free rate of return (given in a separate excel file) in a table for two sub periods. Calculate and tabulate,

Q10

Peterson plc is currently an all-equity firm worth £10 million with 500,000 shares of equity
outstanding. Peterson plans to announce that it will issue £2 million I perpetual debt and use the
proceeds to repurchase equity. The bonds will sell at par with 6 % annual coupon rate.
After the sale of the bonds, Peterson will maintain the new capital structure indefinitely. The
company currently generates annual pre-tax earnings of £1.5 million. This level of earnings is
expected to remain constant in perpetuity. Peterson is subject to a corporate tax rate of 28%.
a. What is the expected return on Peterson’s equity before the announcement of the debt
issue?
b. Construct Peterson’s market value balance sheet before the announcement of the debt
issue. What is the price per share of the firm’s equity?
c. Construct Peterson’s market value balance sheet immediately after the announcement of
the debt issue.
d. What is Peterson’s share price immediately after the repurchase announcement?
e. How many shares will Peterson repurchase as a result of the debt issue? How many shares of
equity will remain after the repurchase?
f. Construct the market value of the balance sheet after the restructuring.
g. What is the required return on Peterson’s equity after the restructuring?

 

Q11

You are required to undertake a: (i) detailed analysis of the financial health of; and (ii) financial
valuation of the company specified below. You need to critically assess the health of the
organisation (as aligned to its stated goals and objectives) and leverage this analysis to value
the equity of the company. In your assessment of the health of the organisation, you need to
also examine the decisions/strategies of the organisation for a range of its stakeholders in view
of the firm’s long-term sustainability considerations. You will then provide a buy, sell or hold
recommendation based on your analysis.
This assignment brings together many aspects of the course, including financial analysis and
assessment of the company in the context of its internal and external environment, financial
statement analysis, risk analysis, estimating the cost of equity capital and stock valuation
techniques. You are expected to undertake detailed research to support your discussions
and assumptions in the report.

Q12

Required: Prepare a common-size statement of financial position for Barry’s Superstore then determine whether the following statements are true or false. Justify your answers by showing the corresponding percentages in the common size statement.
2. The company has high liquidity.
3. The company’s assets are financed primarily by the owners.
4. The company is heavily dependent on external financing.
5. Overall capital structure is healthy and not risky.

 

Q13

Assuming that you are a hospital administrator and you realize that a major piece of medical equipment needs to be replaced in four (4) years time determine how much money needs to be set aside from the hospital’s monthly revenues for the next 48 months in order to pay for the anticipated expenditure which currently has a list price of one and a half million dollars (51.500.000)? The prevailing annual interest rate is four percent (4%) The rate of inflation is assumed to be five percent (5 0%) per year for this type of equipment. The anticipated expenditure will be paid all at once that is, it will not be purchased on ‘credit’ in a manner of speaking

Q14

Assuming that you are a hospital administrator and you realize that a major piece of medical equipment needs to be replaced in four (4) years time determine how much money needs to be set aside from the hospital’s monthly revenues for the next 48 months in order to pay for the anticipated expenditure which currently has a list price of one and a half million dollars (51.500.000)? The prevailing annual interest rate is four percent (4%) The rate of inflation is assumed to be five percent (5 0%) per year for this type of equipment. The anticipated expenditure will be paid all at once that is, it will not be purchased on ‘credit’ in a manner of speaking

 

Q15

State Probability B C D
Very poor 0.1 30% -25% 15%
Poor 0.2 20% -5% 10%
Average 0.4 10% 15% 0%
Good 0.2 0% 35% 25%
Very good 0.1 -10% 55% 35%
a. Construct an equal-weighted (50/50) portfolio of Investments B and C. What is the expected
rate of return and standard deviation of the portfolio? Explain your results.
b. Construct an equal-weighted (50/50) portfolio of Investments B and D. What is the expected
rate of return and standard deviation of the portfolio? Explain your results.

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Q16

You are asked to write a report to provide to CEO on the justification, costs and issues relating to implementation and maintenance of Mobile E-retail services.
1. Determine stakeholders, the commercial set up of the business to supply e retail services and inform range of options available for mobile computing devices. Identify organisational requirements
· Analyse and evaluate appropriate e retail tools and processes.
· Align e retail strategy with business strategies, and business and organisational requirements.
· Identify trends in mobile commerce and inform trends in mobile communication networks.
(Use of PESTEL analysis, Porters 5 force, Wisemans strategy and other tool is necessary in identifying and evaluating strategy to move forward into mobile technology)
2. Implement arrangements for conducting E- retail appropriate to business and organisational requirements by providing the total costs and solutions.
· For the E-retailing solution, implement the mobile commerce system.
3. Identify and conclude the costing and issues relating to mobile electronic infrastructure systems implementation and the solutions.

 

Q17

You are to evaluate and provide report on following.
1. Research and evaluate appropriate electronic technology for the Comic shop
2. Analyse, develop for an effective e business’ solution, e retail solution, mobile business solution
3. Identify and advise electronic supply chain management solution to meet specific organisational needs.
You can provide the research completed in PROJECT to analyse and answer the question
The following task to be included and addressed.

Q18

  1. June Dela Cerna was recently hired as a financial analyst by MBA523 Industries, a manufacturer of electronic components. His first task was to conduct a financial analysis of the firm covering the past two years. To begin, he gathered the following financial statements and other data.
2010 2009
BALANCE SHEETS
ASSETS
Cash P 52,000 P 57,600
Accounts Receivable 402,000 351,200
Inventories 836,000 715,200
Total Current Assets 1,290,000 1,124,000
Gross Fixed Assets 527,000 491,000
Less: Accumulated Depreciation ( 166,200) ( 146,200)
Net Fixed Assets 360,800 344,800
Total Assets 1,650,800 1,468,800
LIABILITIES AND EQUITY
Accounts Payable 175,200 145,600
Notes Payable 225,000 200,000
Accruals 140,000 136,000
Total Current Liabilities 540,200 481,600
Long-Term Debt 424,612 323,432
Common Stock 460,000 460,000
Retained Earnings 225,988 203,768
Total Equity 685,988 663,768
Total Liabilities and Equity 1,650,800 1,468,800

 

Q19

1) What should a firm’s target capital structure do?

  1. a) Maximize earnings per share
  2. b) Minimize the cost of debt
  3. c) Minimize the cost of equity
  4. d) Shift value from creditors to stockholders
  5. e) Minimize the weighted average cost of capital
  6. f) Other, specify

2) Better Home and Garden (BHG) expects an EBIT of $160,000 every year forever. The company currently has no debt, and its unlevered cost of capital is 12%. Its average tax rate is 34%. Capital markets are perfect. The company wants to borrow $352,000 to repurchase shares. The debt will have an interest rate of 8% and will be kept constant forever. What is the approximate value of the firm with debt?

  1. a) 900,000
  2. b) 1,000,000
  3. c) 1,100,000
  4. d) 1,200,000
  5. e) 1,300,000
  6. f) Other, Specify.

3) When a company takes on more and more debt, _____.

  1. a) the value of the firm will decrease consistently
  2. b) the cost of financial distress will eventually be offset by the benefits of debt
  3. c) the value of the firm will increase consistently
  4. d) the benefits of debt will eventually be offset by the cost of financial distress
  5. e) the cost of equity increases while the cost of debt decreases
  6. f) Other, specify

4) A new firm (with no other assets or liabilities) makes an initial investment of $500 and expects to generate a before-tax gross return of $570 after one year. The firm is partially financed with $200 of debt at an expected return of 5%. The appropriate unlevered after-tax cost of capital is 13% and the marginal income tax rate is 21%. What is the approximate adjusted present value of the firm?

  1. a) $350
  2. b) $400
  3. c) $450
  4. d) $500
  5. e) $550
  6. f) Other, specify.

Algebraic Problem (3 points – show your work on the back of this sheet)

5) The large, consistently profitable firm you work for is considering a small project. Your firm is financed by 60% equity and 40% debt. Its cost of equity is 10%. Its cost of debt is 5%. The risk free rate is 5%. Corporate taxes are 40%. The expected rate of return on the market is 11%. Assume CAPM is correct and the project is just as risky as your firm. Recall equation 18-5:

BETA(unlevered firm) = (Equity / ((Equity) + (1 – tax rate)*(DEBT))) * BETA(levered firm)

The project will cost $1000 at time 0, and is expected to produce $1250 at time 1, and no other cashflows. The firm is considering $600 debt at 6% and $400 equity to finance it.

  1. a) What is the cost of equity for the project?,

What is the WACC of the project?, What is the NPV using WACC?

  1. b) What is the APV of the project, including the tax shield (show both calculations)?
  2. c) Explain for what kinds of projects would it make most sense to use WACC vs. APV.
  3. d) Why might it matter that the firm is large and consistently profitable?

 

Q20

Your company is considering spending $3 billion to purchase equipment to build a
spaceship to Mars. The equipment is depreciated straight-line over 8 years, and it costs
$100 million to install. Assume equipment is fully installed within the next year.
Your initial price point for an individual to fly to round-trip to Mars is $150,000 and
your projected sales volume is 85,000 seats. Fixed costs are $328,000,000 and each trip
costs $120,000 in variable costs. Subsequent years’ projections are shown on the next
page.
Your marginal tax rate is 26%. Assume that this is one of many projects for the
company. No special tax treatments are required for years of negative earnings.
An initial working capital investment of $270,000,000 is required.
You will need to upgrade your technology in 5 years when the competition has “leapfrogged” your ship. You will invest an additional $680 million in equipment and an
additional net working capital of $135,000,000. The additional investment will be
depreciated over the remaining three years of the project.
You can sell all of your equipment for $2,500,000 (salvage value) at the end of year 8.
Also, all working capital investments are recouped at the end of year 8 as well.
You have one bond outstanding, one class of common shares, and one class of
preferred stock as shown below. Assume the current capital structure will remain
unchanged with this project.

 

 

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Q21

The assignment is to estimate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for an actual corporation as of the current time. Actual managers would need to know their company’s WACC as a starting point to estimate the discount rate to use in the net present value analysis of new projects (or of termination decisions). You may need to know the technique for application in some case study solutions. The project also develops student skills in using elementary financial management models, in dealing with situations where there are too much or too little data, in employing publicly available data sources with little guidance, and in applying sound judgment when encountering naturally occurring measurement errors.

Q22

Your report must be loaded into Canvas by the due time. It will automatically be assessed by Turnitin, and an originality score will be provided. Requirements Required: Compare the annual reports of two companies over the past three years and present your findings in a business report. Your business report should evaluate the relative financial performance of the two companies based on the financial analysis results and propose strategies for future improvements. The two companies are both in the biotechnology industry, Cochlear Ltd and CSL Ltd. The financial analysis must be conducted using skills and techniques learned in this course. You are required to: • Calculate and analyse the five key categories of financial ratios (due to the word limit, you are NOT required to conduct the horizontal or vertical analysis) • Conduct the DuPont analysis • Evaluate appropriate segments’ profitability for the two companies for 2019. For Cochlear Ltd, the segments are geographical, whilst for CSL Ltd, the two segments are business segments. • Use appropriate graphs to illustrate the relative performance of the two companies, including the trend of the ratios. When interpreting the financial ratios, you are required to compare the ratios with various benchmarks such as prior years, the comparative company and the industry averages. Please present your detailed calculations in an appendix. If you carry out your calculations using an Excel workbook (highly recommended) please copy and paste key excerpts in your appendix. You may also upload your Excel workbook on Canvas, making sure that it is properly formatted and annotated However, it is your Word document that will be assessed, and thus graphs and tables from Excel must be inserted appropriately into your Word document.

 

Q23

Based on Question 2
Analyse the financial statements that have been prepared by Trend Ltd’s financial director. In particular, comment on the following aspects of the company:

  • – Areas of concern in financial performance, focussing mainly on information from the income statement. (17 marks)
  • – Areas of concern in financial health, focussing on ratios dependent on the income statement and the balance sheet. (17 marks)
  • – Areas of concern in cash flow management, focussing mainly on information available from the cash flow statement. (16 marks)

Guidance notes:

You should use your knowledge gained from Readings 23–25, together with the tools and techniques discussed in Reading 26 “Analysing Financial Performance”, to construct your answer. You should select those tools and methods that you feel are appropriate to this question to carry out any relevant calculations. Show the workings out for your calculations. State what each calculation might mean if you identify it as an area of concern, i.e. explain why your figures may be of concern to Trend Ltd.

Make sure that you note the most obvious matters of concern

 

Q24

Conduct a financial analysis of Adidas using the ratios calculated in Task 1 and the additional financial information provided in the assessment resources area for Adidas, and Nike (one of Adidas’s main competitors).
Describe what you observe about Adidas’s performance as well as the performance of its competitors. Explain possible causes for differences in performance and discuss implications for Adidas.
In your analysis, you should also discuss whether, according to their financial performance, Adidas should be concerned about Nike.
Your analysis should not be longer than 2,000 words, excluding bibliography.
If you use information that is not included in the financial statements but elsewhere in the company’s annual report (e.g., notes) or in external sources, please cite the exact location and source of this information.
*Note: it is suggested that you use current trade receivables and current trade payables to calculate trade receivables days and trade payables days ratios in annual reports rather than trade and ‘other’ receivables, and trade and ‘other’ payables to be able to compare like with like.
This assessment is not just testing your ability to calculate the different ratios; it is also assessing your understanding of how to source relevant financial information and make considered decisions about whether and how to deploy it. This is reflected in the following allocation of marks for this question:
· 33 marks for the calculations
· 57 marks for the analysis of the financial performance of Adidas, and Nike
· 10 marks to discuss whether Adidas should be concerned about Nike.
Remember to show all your calculations in detail. Tables should be included within the body of the analysis. We recommend you also submit a spreadsheet showing your calculations, as this will help your tutor to give feedback on your calculations.

 

Q25

Instructions: Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Exam should be submitted in word typed document. 2. Avoid copy paste from references. 3. Plagiarism more than 18% will effects marks. 4. Answer to each question should be answered in the same page (1 Page). 5. Check spelling mistakes, before submitting the exam. 6. Submission is only acceptable through blackboard. 7. Exam window will remain open from 12:00pm to 12:00 am. 8. Each answer should not be less than 150 words and more than 200 words. 9. Use “time new roman” and font size 12.
Ql: What are the key assumptions of financial information that underlie financial statements prepared under US GAAP or IFRS? Explain with two examples. Q2: How under provision might arise? Explain with two examples. Q3: How funded defined benefit plan works? Explain in detail with the help of one example?

Q26

Question 1 (5 marks, 500 words maximum)
Does HBC have sufficient budgetary controls in place to inform management how the project is running versus budget, both in time and money? Explain your answer.
Question 2 (15 marks, 1500 words maximum)
From the short-term and long-term financial and non-financial perspectives of HBC, was the LA Prep project a success?
a. If so, how did you make that determination? Please explain.
b. If not, where and why did the project fail? Please explain.
(Please note that questions a. and b. above are not mutually exclusive. So, please answer both)
c. Who in the HBC should get the accolade or is/are held responsible/accountable for the project’s success and/or its failure? Explain your answer.
Questions 3 (5 marks, 500 words maximum)
What lessons are learned by HBC from the LA Prep project?
Important presentation requirement:
Please note that this is a case study assignment. Therefore, you are required to answer the case questions directly that is, write the case questions first and then provide your answers below each of the case questions. Answers provided by not using the above-mentioned presentations and submission requirement (e.g. answers received in essay format with no direct answers to questions) will be penalised for not complying with submission and presentation requirement.
Please note that a 30% penalty on the total available marks will apply for not complying with one or more of the submissions and presentation requirements which also include the answers’ word limit requirements. Please see the unit outline for other submission and presentation requirements.

Q27

  1. Purpose of the project:
    In this project, you are supposed to be a financial manager to apply the knowledge obtained to estimate the cost of debt, cost of preferred stock, cost of common equity, capital structure, and the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a publicly-traded corporation of your choice. You will use the estimated WACC as the discount rate to perform capital budgeting analysis for a hypothetical project (the information is given below) that is under consideration by the selected company, and decide whether the project should be accepted.
    Outline for the project:
    (1) Executive Summary (10 points)
    – Summarize the major findings, results, and the analysis of the report.
    (2) Financial Ratio Analysis (40 points)
    You are expected to apply the knowledge obtained in Financial Management and Financial Statement Analysis to the key financial ratios of the selected company.
    – Perform trend analysis of the key financial ratios (i.e., liquidity ratios, asset management ratios, debt management ratios, profitability ratios, market value ratios) of the company during the most recent 5-year period.
    – Perform industry (or benchmark companies) comparison analysis of the key financial ratios of the company in the most recent year.
    – Based on the financial ratio analysis results, discuss/evaluate the financial performance of the company.
    (3) Estimate Capital Structure (25 points)
    – Estimate the firm’s weights of debt, preferred stock, and common stock using the firm’s balance sheet (book value) in the most recent year.
    – Estimate the firm’s weights of debt, preferred stock, and common stock using the market value of each capital component in the most

Q28

  1. What are the differences between the mean, median and mode, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of each? 2. The set of data below is from a sample of n = 7. 12, 7, 4, 9, 0, 7, 3 a. Calculate the mean, median, and mode. b. Calculate the range, interquartile range, variance, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation. 3. The set of data below are for a population of N = 10. 7, 5, 6, 6, 6, 4, 8, 6, 9, 3 a. Calculate the population mean b. Calculate the population variance and standard deviation 4. Approximate the mean and standard deviation of the sample data that have the following frequency distribution (hint: use the shortcut formula):

Q29

Case Study: Dick Smith Group
This assignment gives you the opportunity to apply the material covered in ‘Applied Corporate Finance’ (FIN342) to an Australian company that has had a mixed history of success and failure in the Australian marketplace.
The Dick Smith Group of companies (‘DSG’) has had a high profile in the financial press since late 2015. Hence, it represents a good case study to use to analyse a number of corporate financial management issues relevant to this subject.
Dick Smith Holdings Limited (ASX Code: DSH) is the holding company of the Dick Smith Group (DSG) that consists of 11 wholly owned subsidiaries. DSH is the ASX code for the Dick Smith Group of Companies (DSG). In this assignment, Dick Smith, DSG and DSH are used interchangeably to mean the same entity. DSG operated consumer electronics retail stores and an online consumer electronics retail business throughout Australia and New Zealand, operating from more than 390 locations with at least 3,000 employees. The majority of the network was branded as ‘Dick Smith’ stores but also incorporated ‘Move’ bannered stores, ‘Electronics Powered by Dick Smith’ outlets in David Jones stores, and commercial and online businesses.
The company was founded in 1968 by Mr Dick Smith and owned by him and his wife until 1982.
Woolworths Limited purchased Dick Smith Electronics in 1982 and then sold the company to Anchorage Capital Partners in 2012, which floated DSG on the Australian Securities Exchange (ASX) in 2013. The IPO was successful and the share price remained stable at near the offer price of AUD2.20 per share.
In 2015, concerns emerged about trading performance, inventory management and buyer rebates and their collective impact on cash flow. The share price weakened dramatically.
By December 2015, the share price had fallen 80%. On 4 January 2016, DSH (and associated entities) was placed into voluntary administration by the board. Subsequently, a syndicate of lenders appointed Ferrier Hodgson as receivers and managers. The online operations and Dick Smith brand were sold to Kogan (May 2016) and the remainder of the business was liquidated.

 

Q30

Submit a soft copythrough the safeassign icon created in the Blackboard

THE FINANCIAL RATIO ANALYSIS ASSIGNMENT

Ratios analysis is as much an art as it is a science, therefore students must use common sense and sound judgment throughout the analysis. The purpose of this case study is to provide students with the opportunity to retrieve real time financial data via the Web, and analyze the financial performance of selected companies. Students will download the financial data from Qatar stock exchange website and perform ratio analysis for two companies from the same sector selected from the table below.

Company sector
4 Nakilat transportation
5 Qatar Navigation

Students are instructed to follow the path shown below to retrieve the financial profile for the selected company via DSM.

  • Go to Qatar stock exchange website:www.qe.com.qa
  • From the menu, click on listed securities then Financial Statements
  • Choose the year 2018& 2019and hit submit, and then download the annualfinancial reportof the two firms in the same sector.

perform the Ratio Analysis PLUS Graph based upon the following financial ratios:

  • Liquidity Ratios: to measure the company’s ability to pay its bills;
Current Ratio
Quick Ratio
  • Activity Ratios: to measure the company’s ability to utilize its assets;
Inventory Turnover ratio
Average age of inventory
Accounts receivables Turnover
Average collection period
Total Asset turnover
  • Leverage Ratios: to measure the extent to which the company’s assets are financed with debt;
Debt ratio
Times interest earned ratio
  • Profitability Ratios: to measure the company’s ability to generate earnings;
GROS profit margin
Operating profit margin
Net profit margin
Return on total assets
Return on common equity
  • Market Value Ratios: to measure the market perception about the company’s future prospects.
P/BV
P/E
EPS
Book Value/Per Share

After calculating the financial ratios on excel sheet, each group will compare the two companies then write a report on word file highlighting the strength and weakness points for each company.

The recommended layout of your project is suggested to be as follows:

Cover page

Table of contents

Introduction Firm overview

Description of the company

Ratios analysis

Valuation & recommendation

Conclusion (summary of your results)

General Guidelines

1- Reserve the first page (cover page) to group member names, student ID, course name, anduniversity. All group member names should be on the cover page to earn marks.

2- You should write in times new roman font, size 12, with 1.5 spaces.

4- Failure to submit the group members list by the deadline is subject to mark deductions.

5- Failure to submit the soft copy online or the hard copy in class by the due date is subject to mark deductions.

6- Maximum similarity index allowed is 15%.

GOOD LUCK!

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Q31

Main Objective of the assessment The main objective of this assignment is to examine the ability of the students to critically evaluate the financial performance and position of a company and their ability to value the company using a valuation method. This objective will be achieved through the preparation of financial and valuation report of a large listed company in the London Stock Exchange. In the preparation of the report student must demonstrate a critical understanding of the theories and concepts pertaining to the creation of shareholder value and the evaluation of the performance of a company. In this assignment students should use appropriate concepts and rational arguments to interpret strategic and financial data in order to produce suitably critical, well-considered report. Description of the Assessment This assignment is based on companies listed on the London Stock Exchange (LSE). You are required to prepare a report comparing the financial performance and position of two companies over the last five years and also required to prepare a valuation report using one valuation method. Please select two companies from the list of FTSE 350 companies from the following sectors: (a) Construction (b) Information and Communication (c) Mining and Quarrying

Q32

1000-1500 words + references

Part I

Both of your presentations were outstanding and displayed your level of financial knowledge and expertise in the area of financial statement analysis. You have been asked to be a guest lecturer in a course at your alma mater college, CTU. As a result, you will have an opportunity to explain to students how they should tackle financial statement analysis. Prepare a presentation that will include the steps you went through to thoroughly analyze the financial statements so that you could make the recommendation—keeping in mind that you want to simplify the process as much as possible. You do not need to include how to do the financial calculations, but rather how you determined the recommendation based on the information you were given. Provide a list of potential “consultants” and resources they could reference to help them get through the assignments you have just completed.

Part II

Leaders and financial teams in organizations have an obligation to provide financial reports to meet the requirements and guidelines provided by a number of regulating bodies. In addition, they must uphold a high level of professional ethical standards when preparing reports that reflect the health of the organization to its stakeholders.

Include in your PowerPoint Presentation:

  • At least 2 ethical issues that managers and financial teams face when preparing financial reports.
  • What regulations should be considered when making a decision about each issue?
  • Provide an ethical solution for each issue that you introduced.

 

Q33

Part I

Both of your presentations were outstanding and displayed your level of financial knowledge and expertise in the area of financial statement analysis. You have been asked to be a guest lecturer in a course at your alma mater college, CTU. As a result, you will have an opportunity to explain to students how they should tackle financial statement analysis. Prepare a presentation that will include the steps you went through to thoroughly analyze the financial statements so that you could make the recommendation—keeping in mind that you want to simplify the process as much as possible. You do not need to include how to do the financial calculations, but rather how you determined the recommendation based on the information you were given. Provide a list of potential “consultants” and resources they could reference to help them get through the assignments you have just completed.

Part II

Leaders and financial teams in organizations have an obligation to provide financial reports to meet the requirements and guidelines provided by a number of regulating bodies. In addition, they must uphold a high level of professional ethical standards when preparing reports that reflect the health of the organization to its stakeholders.

Include in your PowerPoint Presentation:

  • At least 2 ethical issues that managers and financial teams face when preparing financial reports.
  • What regulations should be considered when making a decision about each issue?
  • Provide an ethical solution for each issue that you introduced.

Submit 15-17 PowerPoint slides with 1,000–1,500 words of speaker’s notes.

 

Q34

700 words and reference page

Congratulations! Tony has promoted you! Now, he is going to take your analysis and information into account. He wants your input and information. Discuss the following:

  • Given all of the financial analysis that you have completed, in what direction would you recommend Tony Fortune take the company?
  • Be sure to justify your answers using both qualitative and quantitative analysis (with the help of financial figures from your financial statements).

**Tony Fortune, a tenured and well-respected turnaround guru, pondered his latest employment offer as he was driving home from an eventful meeting with a number of key electronic equipment executives. He had been asked to assume the presidency at a poorly performing company, Electronic Equipment Venture (EEV), which is owned by Electronic Equipment USA. Certainly he could refuse, but Tony flourished on reinventing and remolding underperforming companies. During the last 10 years, he was instrumental in overseeing three successful business turnarounds, four consolidations of business units, and five successful divestitures. This latest endeavor, based on his understanding, would be a challenge because the board of directors was seeking concrete data that would allow a quick resolution to the company’s problems.

Electronic Equipment Venture is a producer of electronic equipment dating back to the 1970s. During the company’s first 30 years, it was a pioneer in the development, design, and manufacturing of electronic equipment. The competitive environment changed tremendously in the late 1990s, however, and EEV’s market share eroded from 75% to 25% as other firms recognized this untapped market. Reacting to the loss in market share and unacceptable deterioration in profitability, management attempted to revitalize the company by increasing the level of research and development as well as acquiring two smaller but more sophisticated firms.

With the added research and development, along with the additional resources, profitability continued to worsen. Faced with slow stock growth at Electronic Equipment USA, primarily because of EEV, the board of directors has been pressed to make a decision regarding EEV. Recognizing that factual data is crucial to the decision process, the board proceeded with authorizing management to employ the appropriate resources needed to conduct the evaluation and valuation of EEV.

Accepting this challenge and knowing he has only 5 weeks to complete the analysis, Tony spent several days developing a strategy for generating a proper and thorough valuation and evaluation of the firm’s financial position.

Q34

Write 400–600 words that respond to the following questions with your thoughts, ideas, and comments. This will be the foundation for future discussions by your classmates. Be substantive and clear, and use examples to reinforce your ideas.

The public, the Security and Exchange Commission (SEC), and other observers have recently voiced great concern about ethical financial reporting in U.S. corporations. Consequently, many companies, as well as the U.S. Congress, have instituted measures to limit the proliferation of unethical financial reporting.

Because you were the finance team leader, a key element in your evaluation was validating and ensuring that all the material reviewed was ethically sound. Prepare an ethical assurance position paper for the board of directors in which you demonstrate an awareness of what constitutes unethical financial reporting and the impact of such activity.

SCENARIO (just for background info)Tony Fortune, a tenured and well-respected turnaround guru, pondered his latest employment offer as he was driving home from an eventful meeting with a number of key electronic equipment executives. He had been asked to assume the presidency at a poorly performing company, Electronic Equipment Venture (EEV), which is owned by Electronic Equipment USA. Certainly he could refuse, but Tony flourished on reinventing and remolding underperforming companies. During the last 10 years, he was instrumental in overseeing three successful business turnarounds, four consolidations of business units, and five successful divestitures. This latest endeavor, based on his understanding, would be a challenge because the board of directors was seeking concrete data that would allow a quick resolution to the company’s problems.

Electronic Equipment Venture is a producer of electronic equipment dating back to the 1970s. During the company’s first 30 years, it was a pioneer in the development, design, and manufacturing of electronic equipment. The competitive environment changed tremendously in the late 1990s, however, and EEV’s market share eroded from 75% to 25% as other firms recognized this untapped market. Reacting to the loss in market share and unacceptable deterioration in profitability, management attempted to revitalize the company by increasing the level of research and development as well as acquiring two smaller but more sophisticated firms.

With the added research and development, along with the additional resources, profitability continued to worsen. Faced with slow stock growth at Electronic Equipment USA, primarily because of EEV, the board of directors has been pressed to make a decision regarding EEV. Recognizing that factual data is crucial to the decision process, the board proceeded with authorizing management to employ the appropriate resources needed to conduct the evaluation and valuation of EEV.

Accepting this challenge and knowing he has only 5 weeks to complete the analysis, Tony spent several days developing a strategy for generating a proper and thorough valuation and evaluation of the firm’s financial position.

Q35

1200-1500 words plus excel spreadsheet

The financial team has been properly selected and charged to proceed with their analysis of EEV’s financial statements. In the course of their evaluation, they will be assessing the firm’s operating performance, benchmarking their competitors, and looking at the industry using financial ratios as their source of measurement. However, the chief executive officer (CEO) of Electronic Equipment USA agrees with numerous practitioners who promote the use of nonfinancial measures as well as financial measurements to evaluate the performance of a given firm. Nevertheless, Tony agrees that nonfinancial measurements can be valuable, and he tends to support the premise that when evaluating operating performance, benchmarking competitors, and comparing industry results, nonfinancial measurements have little measurable value.

The CEO of the parent company agrees with numerous practitioners who promote the use of nonfinancial measures as well as financial measurements to evaluate the performance of a given firm. Nevertheless, Tony agrees that nonfinancial measurements can be valuable, and he tends to support the premise that when evaluating operating performance, benchmarking competitors, and comparing industry results, nonfinancial measurements have little measurable value.

Tony has asked you to present a position paper comparing the effectiveness and reliability of using financial measures as opposed to nonfinancial measures. Include the following:

  • Provide an analysis of the utilization of assets in terms of efficiency (or inefficiency).
  • What are measurements associated with returns and activity ratios?
    • Explain why you selected each specific measurement.
  • Then, review the electronic equipment industry using financial ratios.
    • Assess the firm’s operating performance against these ratios.
  • Research the financial reports of 1 company in the electronic equipment industry, and compare it with the performance of Electronic Equipment Venture.
  • Include an Excel spreadsheet to support your analysis.
  • Use this information to support your position, and compare the effectiveness and reliability of using financial measures as opposed to nonfinancial measures.

 

Q36

10-15 slides, as well as intro slide and reference slide. 300-400 speaker notes per slide

In its 30-year history, Electronic Equipment Venture (EEV) has seen a number of ups and downs, but the performance has been declining steadily in the past decade. Tony has taken the analyses of the income and balance sheet you provided and spent several days digesting the massive amount of information. This includes the analysis of the company’s financial position, operating results, resource flows, and industry comparison.

Now Tony would like you to condense the information and create a presentation. Tony has asked you to create a strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis and a risk analysis for the company. Using all of the financial statements and the SWOT analysis, provide a recommendation for the direction of the company in both the short term and long term. Be sure to be specific on which financial ratios and figures within the financial statements you are utilizing.

Click here to view the Electronic Equipment Venture balance sheet.

Click here to view the Electronic Equipment Venture income statement.

Assignment Details

In the presentation, include the following:

  1. The ratios used to do the analysis of EEV’s financial performance
  2. Based on your analysis, what you did to improve the performance of EEV
  3. Provide 3-4 recommendations Tony should make to the board for improving performance

The total presentation should include the following:

  • An introduction
  • Statement of situation status
  • Summary of findings
  • 3-4 recommendations

 

Q38

UNIVERSITY NET ZERO SOLAR POWER INSTALLATION PROJECT

In August 2019, La Trobe University announced an ambitious strategy to be the first major

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university in Victoria to become carbon neutral through a number of investments and initiatives

representing part of an overall Net Zero Project. A major component of this wider strategic

initiative is the proposed installation of a network of 7,000 solar panels on the rooftops of 27

buildings at the Melbourne (Bundoora) campus to provide a renewable source of electricity

generation for meeting part of the operating requirements of the campus. Solar panels operate

by absorbing sunlight through photovoltaic cells and generating direct current (DC) energy and

then converting this into usable alternating current (AC) energy using inverter technology. This

planned solar panel system installation will be supported by the connection of inverter and

transmission network infrastructure to convert the DC electricity generated by the solar panels

to AC electricity for distribution across the campus as required for operational purposes, as

well as a solar battery storage system to allow for the consumption of solar-generated electrical

power during periods of no solar energy generation (such as at night). The proposed solar power

generation system will not generate sufficient electricity to fully offset the university campus’

electricity usage requirements, however, savings will be achieved in terms of a proportion of

the university’s energy requirements not having to be purchased under commercial provision

terms from retail providers predominantly via the national electricity grid. The construction

and operation timetable for the solar panel generation system at the Melbourne campus of the

university is outlined in Table 1 below:

Table 1: Project Construction and Operation Summary

Date Project Activity

August 1st2019 Installation of the solar panel arrays and transmission network

infrastructure commences

September 1st2019 Initial generation and usage of solar panel electricity commences

(30% of full system electricity generation capacity is anticipated to be

realised in the 2019 calendar year)

December 31st2020 Full installation of the solar panel arrays and transmission and storage

network infrastructure is completed (70% of the full system electricity

generation capacity is anticipated to be realised in the 2020 calendar

year)

From January 1st

2021 onward

Full capacity operation of the solar panel arrays and transmission and

storage network infrastructure

December 31st2060 The indicated 40-year useful full-operating life of the solar panel and

transmission and storage network infrastructure is reached. The

proposed project ends and ongoing feasibility will be assessed relative

to technology advancements and financing capability.

The following specifications, parameter estimates and forecasts for the solar power electricity

generation project have been developed as part of project planning:

2

? The solar panel array network will involve the installation of 7,000 individual solar panels

each with maximum electricity generating capacity of 400 watts (0.40 of a kilowatt hour

(kWh)) per hour

? The solar panels will cost $500 per panel to purchase (in real terms)

? Weather analysis and modelling of historical sunrise and sunset data suggests that there

will be an average of 11 hours of sunshine during the Summer season, 8 hours of sunshine

during the Winter Season, and 9 hours of sunshine during both the Autumn and Spring

seasons.

? The Summer, Autumn and Spring seasons will have 91 days, on average, and the Winter

season will have an average of 92 days.

? There is expected to be an average daily 10% loss of solar power generating capacity due

to cloudy conditions, rain and bad weather.

? Even with the planned ongoing solar panel and inverter and transmission network

maintenance schedule, the solar panels are expected to decline in generating efficiency by

0.5% per year after the first year of solar energy generation in 2019.

? Annual operating and maintenance expenditure supporting the operation of the project is

estimated to be $650,000 (in real terms) during years of full project operation, with prorata

adjustment in 2019 and 2020 based on projected capacity usage. This expenditure is

primarily associated with salary costs for staff from the Sustainability Division of the

Infrastructure and Operations (I&O) Unit of the university who will be responsible for

managing the project, proportional salary costs for staff from the Department of Accounting

and Data Analytics in the La Trobe Business School responsible for monitoring and

analysing the electricity generation and usage information associated with the project, and

staff and supply costs associated with the maintenance program established for the project.

? The university can claim straight-line depreciation deductions against the usage of the solar

panel, inverter and transmission and storage infrastructure across the 40-year estimated

full-operation useful life period (from 2021-2060) based on the installed cost of the project.

? The university is required to pay taxation expense (in terms of an efficiency dividend) to

the Federal Government of 20% on profits from its individual projects and overall

operations.

? If the solar energy generation project is discontinued at the end of the 40-year useful life in

2060, there will be a $500,000 cost incurred in 2061 for dismantling the solar panel arrays

and inverter and transmission network infrastructure, which are assumed to have no re-sale

value at this time.

? Based on La Trobe University’s AA credit rating, they have a 4.50% per annum (in real

terms) required return on investment projects and funding allocations.

? The inflation rate is estimated to average 2.00% per annum in the future, within the Reserve

Bank of Australia’s targeted range of 1.50-2.50%.

? Preliminary electricity usage analysis by Data Analytics academic staff indicated that the

Melbourne campus uses an average of 100,000 kWh of electricity per day.

? The university has a long-term wholesale electricity supply agreement with AGL Energy

Limited providing it access to electricity from the national grid at a fixed rate of $0.25 per

kWh (in real terms), with no daily supply charges payable.

? AGL Energy Limited has also offered the university a $0.18 per kWh (in real terms) feedin

tariff for any excess electricity generated by the university’s solar energy network system

 

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that is returned to the national electricity grid for alternative usage.

3

? All monetary figures are expressed in December 31, 2018 real dollars.

? All information is as at December 31, 2018 and assume that the project evaluation is being

undertaken as at this date, which is when initial consideration of the project commenced.

? For terminology purposes, 1,000 watts represent 1 Kilowatt (kWh) hour

Estimated equipment and installation cost components for the solar panel energy generation

project at the Melbourne campus are as follows:

Table 2: Forecast Project Capital Investment Costs

Cost Component Amount (in real terms)

Solar Panels $3,500,000

Panel Mounting, Inverter and Transmission

Network Equipment

$6,000,000

Tesla PowerPack Lithium Ion Battery Bank $1,500,000

Contracted Installation Cost $1,250,000

Note that 30% of the project capital expenditure and installation costs are expected to be

incurred by the end of 2019 with the remaining 70% incurred at the completion of the

construction phase at the end of 2020.

The Academic Council of La Trobe University has requested the Finance and Procurement

Division, under the direction of Mr. Mark Smith (the Chief Financial and Operations Officer

of La Trobe University), to prepare a feasibility assessment of the proposed solar energy

generation project.

Required:

This case study requires the completion of the following tasks as part of an integrated

report to be submitted to the Academic Council of La Trobe University:

? The development of a spreadsheet model representing the cash flows associated with

the solar energy generation project, and the assessment of the project using a range

of capital budgeting evaluating techniques.

? The completion and provision of a quantitative risk assessment of the project based

on conducting appropriate sensitivity and/or scenario analyses of the project

valuation focusing on key parameters impacting on the project’s operation, feasibility

and cash flows.

? Based on the project modelling and associated risk assessment processes conducted,

provision of a justified recommendation as to the feasibility of the project.

? The preparation of a concise business case proposal summarising the potential

contribution of the project to the financial and strategic objectives of La Trobe

University.

4

The due date for submission of this Case Study task is no later than Monday 23rdMarch,

2020 at 5.00pm. This Case Study will represent 25% of the final assessment for this

subject and is to be submitted using the upload facility provided on the subject LMS site.

This Case Study is an individual assessment task, and should be a maximum of 1,000-

1,500 words, excluding any calculations, tables, spreadsheets or other exhibits. The Case

Study report should be prepared in a professional manner and include relevant, accurate

and logical information to justify any decision-making and conclusions drawn or

recommendations provided. The Case Study report submission should be accompanied

by the provision of a spreadsheet model developed for the solar power generation project.

 

Q39

All Frute Company bottles and distributes Frute Ade, a fruit drink. The beverage is sold for 50 cents per 16-ounce bottle to retailers, who charge customers 70 cents per bottle. For the year 2014, management estimates the following revenues and costs. Sales $2,500,000 Selling expenses—variable $ 80,000 Direct materials 360,000 Selling expenses—? xed 250,000 Direct labor 450,000 Administrative expenses— Manufacturing overhead— variable 40,000 variable 270,000 Administrative expenses— Manufacturing overhead— ? xed 150,000 ? xed 380,000 Instructions (a) Prepare a CVP income statement for 2014 based on management’s estimates. (Show column for total amounts only.) (b) Compute the break-even point in (1) units and (2) dollars. (c) Compute the contribution margin ratio and the margin of safety ratio. (d) Determine the sales dollars required to earn net income of $624,000.

Q40

  1. Estimate the Economic Value Added (EVA) for your company over the last 3 years, and do the same for at least one of the competitors. Note: While this is not entirely accurate, feel free to assume that the WACC did not change in the last 3 years to simplify the calculations (that is, use the current WACC for these calculations). You still need the historical balance sheet and income statements to compute EVA. B. Discuss the implications of your results in the last question. C . Describe your company’s capital structure over the last 3 years. 2) Describe your competitor(s)’ capital structure over the last 3 years. 3) Compare the capital structures of your company’s and your competitor(s)’. Note: You should analyze mostly leverage ratios in this question (you may already have done some of this analysis for ACR 1). Remember to use the market value of equity to calculate leverage ratios. I would focus mostly on the leverage ratio defined as total debt / (total debt + market value of equity). For this question, you will need historical data on the market value of equity for your companies. The video describing the assignment gives some guidelines on how to do this. D. Is the amount of debt that your company has compatible with the trade-off theory of capital structure? 2) Explain why or why not. In your explanation, a) consider the median leverage ratio of 30% that we discussed in the lecture, and also the specific characteristics of your company and competitors; and b) think about risk, profitability, collateral, the benefits of reducing taxes using interest tax shields, and growth opportunities.

 

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Q41

UCBS7037 Financial Management Assessment
You have been asked by your 60-year-old uncle Isaac to help him assess a new venture. It is
Friday night, and he needs the work finished by Sunday, in preparation for an early Monday
morning meeting, so you know that he will not be able to give you any more information than
he already has (and you will be unable to contact him over the weekend), and therefore you may
need to rely on your own assumptions and estimates for some of the analysis where appropriate.
Isaac lives near Toronto in Canada and recently took early retirement (from a soft drinks
company he joined 25 years ago), leaving the company with a lump sum (after tax) payment of
CAD 800,000. Surprisingly, rather than being depressed by his new state of independence, he is
tired of the bureaucratic life and excitedly contemplating a new career as a retailer of a range of
German fine handmade chocolate. He is confident that he can set up a business to import the
chocolate from Lindau and sell it in Canada. His wife, who he met at business school, is pleased
with his passion for this possible new venture but concerned that it might turn into a financial
disaster. She has suggested that he develop a financial plan to evaluate the venture and its
viability.

Q42

FIN310P Chapter 2 Financial Ratio Assignment
Chapter 2 provides the fundamentals of financial statement analysis. This chapter is an
important building block for our course and your group Financial Analysis project.
Chapter 2 references a company called Global Corporation and provides their financial
statements throughout the chapter. The attached Excel document has all three financial
statements and the financial ratio equations necessary to evaluate Global’s financial situation.
The Attached Excel Document:
Tab 1: Student Investment Comments
Tab 2: Financial Ratio Equations
Tab 3: Balance Sheet
Tab 4: Income Statement
Tab 5: Statement of Cash Flows
Student Requirements:
1. Complete all 36 financial ratios for 2015 & 2016 on tab 2. Each calculation must be linked
back to the financial statements in the Excel document.
2. Explain what caused each ratio to change from 2015 to 2016 on tab 2.
3. Determine if each ratio change from 2015 to 2016 was a “good” or “bad” change for the
shareholders. i.e. did management maximize shareholder wealth?
4. Use your financial knowledge to answer the following question on tab 1. Would you invest in
this company? If so, why?

Q43

ead Case 4.1 Question (b) on page 198 of the textbook. Attached is Intel’s 2013 Form 10-K and annual report (also located under the Financial Documents).Case4.1Intel Case

The 2013 Intel Form 10-K can be found at the following Web site: www.pearsonhighered.com/fraser.

  1. Prepare a summary analysis of the Statements of Cash Flows for all three years.
  2. Analyze the Consolidated Statements of Cash Flows for Intel for 2013, 2012, and 2011
  • NASDAQ-INTC-2013.pdf

 

Q44

You have been asked by your 60-year-old uncle Isaac to help him assess a new venture. It is Friday night, and he needs the work finished by Sunday, in preparation for an early Monday morning meeting, so you know that he will not be able to give you any more information than he already has (and you will be unable to contact him over the weekend), and therefore you may need to rely on your own assumptions and estimates for some of the analysis where appropriate.
Isaac lives near Toronto in Canada and recently took early retirement (from a soft drinks company he joined 25 years ago), leaving the company with a lump sum (after tax) payment of CAD 800,000. Surprisingly, rather than being depressed by his new state of independence, he is tired of the bureaucratic life and excitedly contemplating a new career as a retailer of a range of German fine handmade chocolate. He is confident that he can set up a business to import the chocolate from Lindau and sell it in Canada. His wife, who he met at business school, is pleased with his passion for this possible new venture but concerned that it might turn into a financial disaster. She has suggested that he develop a financial plan to evaluate the venture and its viability.
After a couple of hours with Isaac you have assembled the following information from him: – AlpenChoc, an established artisan manufacturer of fine chocolates with innovative flavours (owned by one of Isaac’s university colleagues), is prepared to give him exclusive rights to sell their products in Canada for a seven-year period in exchange for an upfront payment for those rights; – The chocolate sells in Germany for an average of 120 Euro (€) per kg, and AlpenChoc is prepared to sell them to Isaac at a 40% discount to this price; – AlpenChoc would ship each order to Isaac as soon as they receive payment; – Isaac has found out that shipping from AlpenChoc to Toronto by air freight, would cost on average € 14 per kg and that the time from him placing an order to receiving the goods in Toronto would be two weeks (including the preparation and packing time in Lindau); – Isaac plans to order from AlpenChoc monthly and intends to maintain a minimum stock of one month’s worth of sales to ensure that he will be able to supply a suitable range of chocolates to customers; – He will buy a special refrigerator at a cost of CAD 15,500 to keep the chocolates in good condition, and has found a small industrial room he can rent nearby at a cost of CAD 3,500 per month (payable monthly in advance, plus an initial security deposit of three months’ rent, refundable at the end of his tenancy if there is no damage); – Isaac will sell the chocolates throughout Canada by internet only, and is planning to spend CAD 8,500 with a website designer to develop the e-commerce site; – He has already spent CAD 5,000 on a market study that told him that once established, demand would be about 750 kg a month, although in the first-year sales would start at only 50 kg in the first month before building up slowly through the year to the full level at the end of the year; – The above study assumed an average selling price in Canada of CAD 160 per kg (ignore any impact of sales taxes in your calculations); – Packaging and shipping in Canada would average CAD 6 per kg, and Isaac is not intending to charge that to the customer; – All sales would be by credit card, with the credit card company taking a 1.2% handling fee per sale and remitting the monthly total to Isaac two weeks after the end of each calendar month; – He believes that two part-time students could run the entire operation at a total cost to him (including employer’s social charges) of CAD 2,500 per month; – Isaac understands that, if necessary, he could borrow up to an additional CAD 80,000 at 7% p.a.; – The effective overall marginal tax rate on income from a company set up to undertake this activity would be 25%, payable one year in arrears; Isaac has also told you that he can invest any available cash at an after tax 3% per annum.
Isaac also has a friend, Jade, who owns a small chain of travel agents in the Toronto area. Jade is interested in the venture and she has agreed that if Isaac packages the chocolates in boxes decorated with views of Southern Germany, she would give him a two-year contract to buy one hundred boxes (each containing 250gm of chocolates) from him per month, at a price of CAD 45 each. This would be in addition to the internet sales outlined above and would start immediately. To do this Isaac would need to buy in boxes and decorative paper at a cost of CAD 8 per box, and he has found a used table top wrapping machine that could be bought for CAD 2,200. He would also hire an assistant specifically to pack and deliver the boxes at an additional cost (including employer’s social charges) of CAD 500 per month.
Isaac remembers lectures on discounted cash flow analysis at business school and wonders if that is the best way to assess this opportunity. He has asked you to prepare an analysis while he is away to help him with the decision, making clear any assumptions that you make; the analysis should not exceed a total of 25 pages (everything from the cover page to the final page), and should include:
– A summary of all assumptions and estimates that you have made for your analysis, including justifications where appropriate; – A break even analysis; – A Profit and Loss Statement for the first year of operations and Balance Sheet at the end of the first year; – Monthly cash flow for the first year of operation; – Annual cash flow thereafter; – A clear explanation, in plain English, of how much cash the venture will need to get started; – Any sensitivity analysis that you think would be helpful; – The most that Isaac could offer AlpenChoc as an upfront fee for the exclusive rights for the seven year period (which does not include any chocolates, just the rights) which would leave him no better or worse off than if he had not undertaken the venture, and the amount you suggest he should actually offer them; – Conclusions and recommendations of whether or not he should pursue the offer; – A critical reflection of the analysis that Isaac has asked you to prepare; how you have evaluated the attractiveness of the venture and what, if anything, would you do differently in a financial analysis of this opportunity, and why?
Isaac has explained that he is going to be out of town for a wedding so will be unable to provide any assistance at all, but as he pointed out before leaving “you will find this easy with computers and the internet to help”.
Your report should demonstrate skills of critical reflection, effective communication and balanced judgement; note that this is not a market report. Scripts that are excessively long (i.e. exceeding the page limit) will not be read beyond the point of the page limit; there is no minimum page limit. Do not put your name on the paper.
The overall structure should be as follows:
1. Cover Page (1 page) 2. Table of Contents/List of Exhibits (1 page) 3. Executive Summary 4. Main Report 5. Critical Reflection 5. List of References.
The data in your answer should be clearly laid out in tabular format so that your approach and answer are both plainly evident.
Submissions should be machine readable and in MS-Word only; submit only one file, and include any Excel analysis as images, not e

 

Q45

Polycorp is considering an investment in new plant of $3.15 million. The project will be partially financed with a loan of $2,000,000 which will be repaid over the next five years in equal annual end of year instalments at a rate of 6.25 percent pa. Assume straight-line depreciation over a five-year life, and no taxes. The projects cash flows before loan repayments and interest are shown in the table below. Cost of capital is 12.65% pa (the required rate of return on the project). A salvage value of $255,000 is expected at the end of year five and is included in the cash flows for year five below. Ignore taxes and inflation.YearYear OneYear TwoYear ThreeYear FourYear FiveCash Inflow890,000830,000815,000910,0001045,000You are required to calculate:(1) The amount of the annual loan repayment and produce a repayment schedule.(2) NPV of the project (to the nearest dollar)(3) IRR of the project (as a percentage to two decimal places)(4) AE, the annual equivalent for the project (AE or EAV) (to the nearest dollar)(5) PB, the payback and discounted payback in years (to one decimal place)(6) ARR, the accounting rate of return (gross and net) (to two decimal places)(7) PI (present value index or profitability index) (to two decimal places)(8) Is the project acceptable? You must provide a decision or explanation for each of the methods in parts (2) to (7). Why or why not (provide a full explanation)? Also a brief explanation of your treatment of Salvage Value and Loan Repayments is required.

Q46

  1. Which of the following is considered to be a current liability?

 

  1. Short-term money market instruments

 

  1. Accounts payable

 

  1. Work-in-process

 

  1. Raw materials

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  1. If you deposit $10,000 in an investment that yields 6 percent annually, how many years will it take for

 

your investment to double in value?

 

  1. 15 years

 

  1. 20 years

 

  1. 18 years

 

  1. 12 years

 

 

 

  1. Discounting determines the worth of funds to be received in the future in terms of their

 

  1. cost factor.

 

  1. present value.

 

  1. time factor.

 

  1. future value.

 

 

 

  1. What is the future value of an ordinary annuity if you deposit $1,500 per year for the next 5 years into

 

an account that earns an interest rate of 5 percent annually?

 

  1. $1,914

 

  1. $7,500

 

  1. $8,288

 

  1. $6,322

 

 

 

  1. beta coefficient for a risky stock is

 

  1. greater than 1.0.

 

  1. equal to 1.0.

 

  1. less than 1.0.

 

  1. negative.

 

 

 

  1. Liabilities equal

 

  1. assets minus equity.

 

  1. equity.

 

  1. equity minus assets.

 

  1. assets.

 

 

 

  1. What is the present value of an annuity due if you deposit $1,200 per year for the next

 

5 years into an account that earns an interest rate of 5 percent annually?

 

  1. $5,195

 

  1. $6,703

 

  1. $8,288

 

  1. $5,455

 

 

  1. What is the future value of an annuity due if you deposit $1,500 per year for the next 5 years into an account that earns an interest rate of 5 percent annually?

 

  1. $7,500

 

  1. $11,914

 

  1. $8,703

 

  1. $8,288

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold and administrative expense from net sales?

 

  1. Operating income

 

  1. Total liabilities

 

  1. Inventory cost

 

  1. Accounts receivable

 

 

 

  1. Accountants suggest that assets should be valued at

 

  1. the higher of market or cost.

 

  1. the lower of market or cost.

 

  1. cost.

 

  1. market.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an increase in inventory turnover?

 

  1. The faster collection of accounts receivable

 

  1. An increase in the inventory level

 

  1. Lowered sales

 

  1. A reduction in the price of the product

 

 

 

  1. At an interest rate of 6.25% percent compounded annually, how many years will it take for an investment of $7,000 to grow to $10,000? (Round to the nearest year.)

 

  1. 8 years

 

  1. 6 years

 

  1. 10 years

 

  1. 4 years

 

 

 

  1. To measure risk, the capital asset pricing model uses

 

  1. the volatility of an asset's cash flows.

 

  1. an asset's standard deviation.

 

  1. the term during which the asset is held.

 

  1. beta.

 

 

 

  1. If an account currently has a value of $84,000 and earns an interest rate of 4 percent annually, for how many years can you withdraw $10,000 from the account?

 

  1. 12

 

  1. 20

 

  1. 8

 

  1. 10

 

  1. If annual interest rates are 10 percent, which of the following values will be the greatest?

 

  1. The future value of a $100 investment after 3 years

 

  1. The future value of an annuity after 4 years, if $100 is deposited annually

 

  1. The present value of an annuity that will pay $200 a year, at the end of each of the next 4 years

 

  1. The present value of an investment that will be worth $100 after 2 years

 

 

 

  1. What is the future value of an ordinary annuity if you deposit $500 per year for the next 10 years in an account that earns an interest rate of 4 percent annually?

 

  1. $1,700

 

  1. $5,000

 

  1. $6,003

 

  1. $5,263

 

 

 

  1. What is the required return using the CAPM if the stock's beta is 1.2, and the individual, who expects the market to rise by 13.2%, can earn 6.4% invested in a risk-free Treasury bill?

 

  1. 24.58%

 

  1. 11.62%

 

  1. 14.56%

 

  1. 9.46%

 

 

 

  1. Profitability ratios are used to measure

 

  1. turnover.

 

  1. liquidity.

 

  1. leverage.

 

  1. performance.

 

 

 

  1. A current ratio is presently 2 : 1 for a corporation that sells sporting goods. Which of the following statements about the ratio is correct?

 

  1. The current ratio is affected by exchanging bonds for stock.

 

  1. The current ratio is increased by purchasing a store with cash, with potential to increase corporate sales.

 

  1. The current ratio is unchanged by using cash to retire accounts payable.

 

  1. The quick ratio is smaller than the current ratio.

 

 

 

  1. The current ratio excludes

 

  1. cash equivalents.

 

  1. inventory.

 

  1. accrued interest.

 

  1. paid-in capital.

 

Q48

  1. Your family vacation was great, but it unfortunately ran a bit over budget. All is not lost. You just received an offer in the mail to transfer your $5,000 balance from your current credit card, which charges an annual rate of 18.7 percent, to a new credit card charging a rate of 9.4 percent. You plan to make payments of $510 at the end the month on this debt. How many less payments will you have to make to pay off this debt if you transfer the balance to the new card?

 

  1. You have your choice of two investment accounts. Investment A is a 5-year annuity that features end-of-month $2,500 payments and has an interest rate of 11.5 percent compounded monthly. Investment B is a 10.5 percent quarterly compounded lump sum investment, also good for five years. How much would you need to invest in B today for it to be worth as much as investment A five years from now?

 

  1. Your friend was injured in an accident, and the insurance company has offered him the choice of $25,000 per year for 15 years, with the first payment being made today, or a lump sum.  If a fair return is 7.5%, how large must the lump sum be to leave him as well off financially as with the annuity?

 

  1. You recently inherited $100,000 in a trust fund that pays 6.5% interest.  You must spend the money on your college education, and you must withdraw the money in 4 equal installments, beginning immediately.  How much could you withdraw today and at the beginning of each of the next 3 years and end up with zero in the account?

 

 

  1. You are looking at a one-year loan of $10,000. The interest rate is quoted as 8 percent plus 5 points. A point on a loan is simply 1 percent (one percentage point) of the loan amount. Quotes similar to this one are very common with home mortgages. The interest rate quotation in this example requires the borrower to pay 5 points to the lender up front and repay the loan later with 10 percent interest. What is the actual rate you are paying on this loan?

 

Q49

Taxes are a difficult area in divorce situations, and many attorneys consult with tax advisors on these matters. Here, you will be looking at how a party’s marital status impacts his/her tax rate. Child support and spousal support are funds that one party receives from the other either during the pendency of the divorce or thereafter. How the IRS treats these payments is a significant consideration. Read the scenario below and answer the following questions too.

Dave and Sarah file for divorce. They have been married for over 10 years and have filed their taxes jointly since getting married. What are the tax consequences they may face upon their divorce? After the divorce, Sarah receives spousal support and child support for their children from Dave. Sarah has to file her tax return. Does she have to claim her spousal support and child support? Can Dave get a deduction for the spousal support and child support that he pays?

Justify your ideas and responses by using appropriate examples and references from Westlaw (including primary sources such as cases, statutes, rules, regulations, etc.), government websites, peer-reviewed legal periodicals (not lawyer blogs), which can be supplemented by law dictionaries or the textbook. This means you need to use more than just your text and legal dictionaries.

Additional comments: APA format 250 min word count with at least 1 web resource as well

 

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Q50

Taxes are a difficult area in divorce situations, and many attorneys consult with tax advisors on these matters. Here, you will be looking at how a party’s marital status impacts his/her tax rate. Child support and spousal support are funds that one party receives from the other either during the pendency of the divorce or thereafter. How the IRS treats these payments is a significant consideration. Read the scenario below and answer the following questions too.

Dave and Sarah file for divorce. They have been married for over 10 years and have filed their taxes jointly since getting married. What are the tax consequences they may face upon their divorce? After the divorce, Sarah receives spousal support and child support for their children from Dave. Sarah has to file her tax return. Does she have to claim her spousal support and child support? Can Dave get a deduction for the spousal support and child support that he pays?

Justify your ideas and responses by using appropriate examples and references from Westlaw (including primary sources such as cases, statutes, rules, regulations, etc.), government websites, peer-reviewed legal periodicals (not lawyer blogs), which can be supplemented by law dictionaries or the textbook. This means you need to use more than just your text and legal dictionaries.

Additional comments: APA format 250 min word count with at least 1 web resource as well

 

Q51

  1. If a stock is expected to pay an annual dividend of $20 this year, what is the approximate present value of the stock, given that the discount rate is eight percent and dividends are expected to grow at a rate of two percent per year?

 

  1. If a stock is expected to pay an annual dividend of $20 forever, what is the approximate present value of the stock, given that the discount rate is five percent?

 

3.A company has two million shares outstanding. It paid a dividend of $2 during the past year, and expects that dividends will grow at six percent annually in the future. Stockholders require a rate of return of 13%. What would you expect the price of each share to be today, and what is the value of the company's common stock?

 

Each question must be about 75 words in length.  Please show work.  This needs to be completed 12/14/2015 at 8:00/20:00 pm eastern standard time.

 

Q52

Need help answering these two questions

 

  1. Define the direction of monetary policy in the US over the last 3-5 years. Describing if money supply has increased or decreased? Explain.  Have interest rates increased or decreased? Explain

 

  1. Describe the impact of these monetary policies on the U.S. economy.

 

Q53

“Stabilizing an Economic Struggle” Please respond to the following:

  • In times of a struggling economic situation, determine the key steps that the Federal Reserve should take to help stabilize the economy. Next, explain how your proposed steps will affect money supply, interest rates, inflation rate, aggregate demand, and output. Provide support for your response.

 

Q54

Although the strategic planning process can have numerous benefits for organizations, the process also has its limitations. As organizations determine the most effective methods to accomplish their goals and measure their growth and progress, they may experience setbacks or encounter new issues that cannot be solved with strategic planning. In this Discussion, you examine ethical, financial, and cultural benefits and limitations of organizational strategic planning.

With the organization that you selected for your Final Project in mind:

Post an explanation of ethical, financial, and cultural benefits and limitations of organizational strategic planning. Include how ever-changing stakeholders might impact the strategic plan.

 

Q55

  • Assume the role of a consultant advising a benefits manager for a local telecommunications organization. The company is self-funded and has 25,000 employees, dependents, and retirees eligible for health benefits. The employees are currently enrolled in a managed PPO plan administered by a commercial insurer. The employer’s health plan costs have increased by 15% over the prior year. Therefore, leaders are considering more cost effective options.
    • Identify at least three (3) managed care options that the organization would consider to be cost effective. Next, compare the three (3) options and make a recommendation based on your comparisons.
  • 200 words

 

Q56

Data Communications and Networking Problems PLEASE READ FIRST: Hello. Below are problems that need to be fully solved. Please answer each of the questions asked to the fullest ability with as much information as possible. Show ALL work, such as equations and numbers for problems that require calculations. Please make sure to type everything out, DO NOT have anything handwritten in documents, please. Do not leave any questions blank when returning the work. Please make sure you do them all to the fullest and write the answers to the questions directly below. I need this assignement by 1/23/2015 at 12 PM and NO later! If you have any questions please ask them as soon as possible. Thank you! 1. Answer these questions: a) Is the frequency domain plot of a voice signal discrete or continuous ? b) A signal has a continuous frequency domain plot. Is it a periodic signal ? c) What is the phase shift of a sine wave with minimum amplitude after 1/8 cycle ? d) The highest frequency that people hear is around 18 kHz. The lowest is about 60 Hz. What is then the bandwidth of human hearing system ? Answer here: 2. Show the frequency domain of the following signal: s(t) = 1.242 + 2.4 sin 8??t + 3.1415 sin(18??t + ??/3) Answer here: 3. Draw the time domain representation (first 1/100 s) for the signal shown below in frequency domain: Answer here: 4. A radio channel has 10 MHz of bandwidth. What is the minimum SNR to achieve a data rate of 40 Mbps? Answer here: 5. A channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz and signal to noise ratio of 63. The signal uses 64 levels. What is the maximum data rate achievable on this channel? (use both limits) Answer here: 6. What is the data rate on a channel if the transmission duration of a frame of 1250 kb takes 200 ms ? Answer here: 7. A TV channel has a bandwidth of 6 MHz. What is the number of signal levels if the data rate on the channel is 36 Mbps ? Answer here: 8. A signal passes through n cascaded amplifiers, each with a gain of GdB. What is the…

Q57

Comparing Stock Screeners

There are two primary stock screeners available to beginning investors which are easy to access:

Yahoo Stock Screener: http://screener.finance.yahoo.com/stocks.html
Google Stock Screener: https://www.google.com/finance/stockscreener

In a short paper, submitted online,

Go to Yahoo Stock Screener and complete a sort of your choosing. Screen shot that sort for your paper and place it in your paper as Figure 1 – Yahoo Stock Screener. How many results did it yield? Pick one that you recognized and briefly discuss the company.
Go to Google Stock Screener and complete a sort of your choosing. Screen shot that sort for your paper and place it in your paper as Figure 2 – Google Stock Screener. How many results did it yield? Pick one that you recognized and briefly discuss the company?
Which stock screener did you prefer and why?
If you prefer to create a short Prezi, Educreations video, or narrated Power Point, that works as well!

Q58

Please read very careful to instructions. IF you can help me with this assignment, I will ask for the same person help within the following assignments I have. If you help with this work, I will also give a bonus after its all done. Ive chosen mcdonalds for the orinization of my choice. Thank you so very much. I need this done by wend. let me kno if you can do the work for me!  only IT experience!

 

 

 

 

As you start your investigation into an introduction to information technology (IT), you will take this opportunity in the first assignment to create the template for you to add your assignments each week. This first assignment will not only have you investigate systems, but also establish the framework for future submissions.

The assignments each week build upon the work and knowledge of previous weeks. You will create 1 single document that contains all of the weekly assignments, in separate sections, culminating with the final submission being a single document with all of the weekly assignments contained within.

You are responsible for adding each of these ongoing Individual Project assignments into your Key Assignment document that will contain all of the assignments completed during this course.

The template document should follow this format:

  • Introduction to IT Document Shell
  • Use Word
  • Title Page
    • Course number and name
    • Project name
    • Student name
    • Date
  • Table of Contents (TOC)
    • Use an autogenerated TOC.
    • Place it on a separate page.
    • It should be a maximum of 3 levels deep.
    • Be sure to update the fields of the TOC so it is up-to-date before submitting your project.
  • Section Headings (create each heading on a new page with TBD as content except for sections listed under New Content below)
    • Section 1: Information Systems Overview
      • This section will be used to describe the organization and talk about information systems and the roles needed to support them.
    • Section 2: Information Systems Concepts
      • This section will focus on database management systems and networks.
    • Section 3: Business Information Systems
      • This section looks at data and systems that process data.
    • Section 4: System Development
      • This section will be used to look at the system development life cycle.
    • Section 5: Information Systems and Society
      • This section combines all previous sections and gives the opportunity to look at securing information systems.

New Content for Section 1: Information Systems Overview

  • Describe an organization of your choice. You will use this organization as you focus on the concept of information systems.
  • With all of the available choices and technology, describe how the organization goes about the process of choosing the information system.
  • Discuss the job functions that are needed to support the intended information system used by the organization.
  • You should provide at least 1-2 pages of discussion for this information.

 

Q59

Question 1 Valuation – zero-coupon bond A U.S. Government bond with a face amount of $10,000 with 8 years to maturity is yielding 3.5%. What is the current selling price?

Question 2 Valuation – preferred stock What is the value of a share of preferred stock that pays a $9.50 dividend, assume k is 12%.

Question 3 Valuation – convertible bond You purchased one of AAA Corp.’s 9%, 15-year convertible bonds at its $1,000 par value a year ago when the company’s common stock was selling for $25. Similar bonds without a conversion feature returned 10% at the time. The bond is convertible into stock at a price of $35. The stock is now selling for $40. Assume no dividends. a) You exercise the conversion feature today and immediately sold the stock you received. Calculate the total return on your investment. b) What would your return have been if you had invested $1,000 in AAA’s stock instead of the bond?

Question 4 A $1000 par value convertible bond has a conversion price of $50. It is currently selling for $1,120 despite the fact that the bond’s coupon rate and the market rate are equal. The common stock obtained upon conversion is selling for $54 per share. What is the convertible bond’s conversion premium?

Question 5 Valuation – zero-coupon bond A U.S. Government bond with a face amount of $10,000 with 13 years to maturity is yielding 5.5%. What is the current selling price?

Question 6 Present value of single sum problem You are going to be given $100,000 in 12 years. Assuming an interest rate of 3.5%, what is the present value of this amount?

Question 7 Future value of single sum problem You put $2,000 in an investment account today which will earn 8% over the next 14 years, what is the future value?

Question 8 Present value of single sum problem You are going to be given $45,000 in 7 years. Assuming an interest rate of 2.5%, what is the present value of this amount?

Question 9 Future value of single sum problem You put $5,000 in an investment account today which will earn 6% over the next 11 years, what is the future value?

Question 10 Present value of annuity problem You will receive $1,200 at the end of the next 15 years, assuming a 8% discount rate, what is the present value of the cash flows?

 

Q60

Calculate the financial ratios for the assigned company's financial statements, and then interpret those results against company historical data as well as industry benchmarks: Review Pepsi, Apple OR Best Buy's company's financial statements from the past three years. •Compare the financial ratios with each of the preceding three (3) years (e.g. 2014 with 2013; 2013 with 2012; and 2012 with 2011). •Compare the calculated financial ratios against the industry benchmarks for the industry of your assigned company. Show financial calculations where appropriate. Write a 500 to 750 word summary of your analysis

 

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Q1

Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

Q2

1 Provide an outline of the cost-benefits analysis method.
2 Describe each of the following types of innovation:
? Incremental innovation
? Disruptive innovation
? Architectural innovation
? Radical innovation
3 Describe Schumpeter’s theory of innovation including the five types of innovations described in the theory.
4 List the basic elements of the concept of creativity
5 List the five organisational learning principles.
6 List three quality management and continuous improvement theories.

Q3

Support activities in the value chain that involve innovative product design and programs to attract highly talented engineers and scientists characterize what generic strategy? A. Stuck-in-the middle B. Overall cost leadership C. Focused differentiation D. Differentiation

Q4

  1. What are the specific risks associated with using each business-level strategy? (cost leadership, differentiation, focused cost leadership, focused differentiation, and integrated cost leadership/differentiation)

Q5

exclusive menswear industry? the Ralph Bauren management chosen to compete in the a. Low Cost b. Focused Low Cost c. Differentiation d. Focused Differentiation e. Best Cost 26. This type of strategy is aimed at securing a comown unique tastes and preferences product that they perceive as unusually weil suited to ive advantage by offering customers a a. A broad spectrum of b. Niche c. Cost conscious d. Global e. None of the above Micro Machines Incorporated, computer market. Recognized widely for its engineering capabilities Micro Machines has more than 128,000 employees and more than Micro Machines strives to manufacturer the lowest customer expectations. Answer the following three (3) questions a global technology company, manufacturers software products for the personal and outstanding management processes, 270 manufacturing locations worldwide. products at the lowest possible costs with features that exceed based on this scenario 27. Which generic strategy has Micro Machines chosen to utlize to compete in the global softwrare market? a. Low b. Focused Low Cost c. Differentiation d. Focused Differentiation e. Best Cost 28. A firm pursuing the above strategy Seeks to be the low-cost provider in the largest and fastest growing (or best) market segment Tries to out compete a low-cost provider by attracting buyers on the basis of charging the best price Seeks to deliver superior value to expectations on price a. b. C. d. None of the above buyers by excoeding their expectations and bealng their 29. The big danger or risk of the above strategy is a. That buyers will be highly skeptical about paying a relatively low price for upscale attributes b. A strategy that is “stuck in the middle', the low-cost leaders will be able to steal away customers on the basis of a lower price and high-end differentiators will be able to steal away customers with the appeal of better product attributes That it will be unable to achieve top-notch quality at a rock-bottom cost Becoming too highly integrated and not relying enough on outsourcing c. d.

Q6

Give a company or product strategies examples (show howstrategies help the company grow) for each FIVE GENERIC COMPETITIVESTRATEGIES 1. Lower Cost Provider Strategies 2. Board Different Strategies 3. A Focused Low- Cost Strategy 4. A Focused Differentiation Strategy 5. Best Cost Provider Strategies Attached

Q7

Give a company or product strategies examples (show howstrategies help the company grow) for each FIVE GENERIC COMPETITIVESTRATEGIES 1. Lower Cost Provider Strategies 2. Board Different Strategies 3. A Focused Low- Cost Strategy 4. A Focused Differentiation Strategy 5. Best Cost Provider Strategies Attached

Q8

Edward is the president of Edge Truss Works, a firm thatmanufactures two types of trusses for space applications: Aluminumand composite. The demand for the aluminum model is 650 trusses permonth; demand for the composite truss is 400 per month. Edge has amonthly operating capacity of 1600 hours, with the aluminum modeltaking up 1.5 hours to produce and the composite model requiring 2hours. Each aluminum truss sold yields a $12K profit, and profitfor the aluminum model is $14K. Edge has listed the followinggoals: 1) Attain a profit as close to $12,000K as possible eachmonth 2) Avoid underutilization of the firm’s production capacity 3) Sell as many trusses as possible Set up and solve this problem as a goal programming model withexcel. Attached

Q9

Consider a generalization of Median-of-Five algorithm which hasa parameter α for an integer α ≥ 1. Instead of partitioning inputinto n/5 blocks of size 5, the algorithm partitions the input inton/(2α + 1) blocks of size 2α + 1 (assume n is a power of 2α + 1).Note that the algorithm becomes the median-of-five algorithm when α= 2. a) Follow the same steps as slide 14 of lecture notes to derivea recursive formula for the time complexity T(n) of this algorithmas a function of n and α (there is no need to solve the recursion;just deduce the recursive definition of T(n)). b) Assume α = 3 (the algorithm will be “median of 7”). Rewritethe recursion for this particular α and try to solve the recursionby guessing that T(n) ∈ O(n). Follow the same steps as in theslides and indicate whether we can state T(n) ∈ O(n). c) [bonus] Assume α = 1 (the algorithm will be “median of 3”).Rewrite the recursion for this particular α and solve the recursionto provide a tight bound (in terms of Θ) for the time complexity ofthis algorithm. Attached

Q10

share what you learned from the talk with your classmates. Include the presenter, key points and solutions that they provided to make the world more accessible to persons with disabilities. Transcripts are available, as usual, for TED talks in case anyone needs it as well.

Deep sea diving in a wheelchair by Sue Austin

 

 

Q11

Prepare a 300- to 700-word paperbased on your readings for this week describing “your” definitionof the role and application of management functions used by today’shealth care managers

Q12

With this activity you will develop your analysis of a TED talk https://tedcom/talks/mandy_len_catron_falling_in_love_is_the_easy_part?
utm_source=tedcomshare&utm_medium=email&utm_campaign=tedspread–b
Presenter: Mandy Len Catron FYI: TED Talks was selected because each speech video should have enough depth or substance, and
video quality to allow close viewing and analysis
Listen to the presentation several times, paying close attention to how the individual uses non-verbal
communication, composes sentences, and organizes thoughts, etc Use the outline below to structure
your analysis:
1 Purpose: General and specific purpose (and implied if different from stated purpose)
2 Non-verbal delivery
1 Movement in Your Speech
2 Visual Aids
3 Strategies for Success
1 Pathos: tone, emphasis, engagement
2 Logos: clarity, conciseness, arrangement
3 Ethos: credibility, expectation, reference
4 Style
1 Appeals (to emotions, logic, ethos)
2 Figurative language (similes, metaphors, symbols, imagery)
3 Use of language, word choices (diction)
4 Passive or active voice
5 Simple or complex sentences; short or long sentences
5 Oral strategies and tactics
1 Music
2 Volume
3 Speech patterns (articulation, intonation, emphasis)
4 Other sound effects
Develop your analysis using the variables in all 5 of the areas above Make sure you develop your
arguments and ideas thoroughly

Q14

With this activity you will analyze a TED talk –tedcom/talks”>http://wwwtedcom/talks

 

First, select a “talk” (aka presentation or
speech) of interests from the 1,100 TED Talks (ranging in
length from 3 to 18 minutes)

 

FYI: TED Talks was selected because each speech video should
have enough depth or substance, and video quality to allow close viewing and
analysis

 

Second, review chapters 10, 11 and 12 of your text

 

Third, listen to the presentation several times, looking
deeply at how the individual uses non-verbal communication, composes sentences,
and organizes thoughts, etc Pay particular attention to the following
areas:

 

 

 

  1. Purpose:
    General and specific purpose (and implied if different from stated
    purpose)

 

 

 

 

  1. Non-verbal
    delivery

 

 

  1. Movement
    in Your Speech

 

  1. Visual
    Aids

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Strategies
    for Success

 

 

  1. Pathos:
    tone, emphasis, engagement

 

  1. Logos:
    clarity, conciseness, arrangement

 

  1. Ethos:
    credibility, expectation, reference

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Style

 

 

  1. Appeals
    (to emotions, logic, ethos)

 

  1. Figurative
    language (similes, metaphors, symbols, imagery)

 

  1. Use
    of language, word choices (diction)

 

  1. Passive
    or active voice

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  1. Simple
    or complex sentences; short or long sentences

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Oral
    strategies and tactics

 

 

  1. Music

 

  1. Volume

 

  1. Speech
    patterns (articulation, intonation, emphasis)

 

  1. Other
    sound effects

 

 

 

Four, report on all 5 of the areas above

 

Be sure to include a hyperlink so we can view the
presentation you opted to share with us

 

Q15

Online communication has become increasingly common Why is netiquette critical for professional and personal success? What do you do to ensure your writing follows the netiquette guidelines listed in the handout in the link :

http://wwwcoloradoedu/geography/gcraft/notes/ethics/html/netiquettehtml

 

Q16

Need to add a TOWS Matrix to my Paper

– See page 16 of attachment (Use page page 16 “Tows Analysis ” highlighted section area to implement a TOWS Analysis on pages 17 and 18 chart example)

 

Q17

As consumers we make purchasing decisions every day. maybe without being aware of it, we are constantly comparing perceived value and cost to make these decisions. Sometimes we choose to buy a product from a firm pursuing a cost leadership strategy, sometimes from one pursuing a differentiation strategy. Is that so? Why?please tell the class about one or more products you have purchased whose manufacturer(s) followed a cost leadership strategy and one or more products you have purchased whose manufacturer(s) followed a differentiation strategy. For each product reflect about why the manufacturer’s strategy was successful in capturing you as a purchaser. do you understand some things about the seller’s approach that you didn’t before? How will your new knowledge impact your future buying decisions? Make sure to use your posts to demonstrate your understanding of the unit’s material by using its vocabulary and applying its theories to your experience. answer with reference.

Q18

You shared that the differentiation strategy involves making your product or service different from your competitor’s However, don’tall companies try to differentiate their products whether they’re pursuing a strategy of differentiation or not? If you take a look at generic store-brand products, arguably the most pure example of a product using the low-cost strategy, even those will try to assert some differentiation through branding, even if the product inside the packaging comes from the same manufacturer How is that type of differentiation separate from using astrategy of differentiation?

Q19

  1. When using a cost leadership strategy,
    a firm would offer:
    a. a standard, no-frills product.
    b. a highly-differentiated product.
    c. a prestige product
    d. an expensive product of superior design
    and quality.
  2. Management should choose an
    organizational strategy that:
    a. allows the organization to practice the
    strategy of differentiation, rather than cost leadership.
    b. emphasizes the use of digital media,
    rather than traditional media, in the marketing of products.
    c. bears consistency with the
    organization’s mission and capitalizes on its distinctive competencies.
    d. empowers the organization to grow
    without creating new products or entering new markets.
  3. Which of the following represents
    the final phase of the strategic planning process?
    a. Creating an organizational mission
    b. Formulating an organizational portfolio plan
    c. Setting organizational objectives
    d. Creating organizational strategies
  4. Which of the following
    observations pertains to strategic business units?
    a. They share the organizational mission statement of the larger
    organization.
    b. They have centralized management, no competitors, and little autonomy.
    c. They are a number of organizations which have come together to achieve
    some common goal.
    d. They can be planned independently of the other businesses of the total
    organization.
  5. Biotex is an enterprise that is
    composed of three parts. Its biotech section, which is working to develop crops
    that are pest and disease-resistant, provides about half of its sales.
    Pharmaceuticals from its G.D. Searle subsidiary contribute a third of its
    revenues; and food products, dominated by the artificial sweetener NutraSweet,
    make up less than 20 per cent of its total revenue. These three divisions are
    Biotex’s _____.
    a. strategic business units
    b. buying centers
    c. venture teams
    d. cross-functional units
  6. Biotex is an enterprise that is
    composed of three parts. Its biotech section, which is working to develop crops
    that are pest and disease-resistant, provides about half of its sales.
    Pharmaceuticals from its G.D. Searle subsidiary contribute a third of its
    revenues; and food products, dominated by the artificial sweetener NutraSweet,
    make up less than 20 per cent of its total revenue. These three divisions under
    Biotex would generally:
    a. have no competitors.
    b. lack the power to operate independently.
    c. have centralized planning and management.
    d. have their own distinct missions.

51.
_____ are methods used to determine how resources should be allocated
among the various SBUs.
a. Portfolio models
b. Matrix models
c. Variable models
d. Vector models

  1. _____ is the step of the marketing
    management process which involves analyzing the position of the marketing
    division of the firm in terms of its past, present, and future situation.
    a. Situation analysis
    b. Vendor analysis
    c. Post-hoc segmentation analysis
    d. New product analysis
  2. The cooperative environment
    includes:
    a. all firms and individuals who have a vested interest in accomplishing
    the firm’s objectives.
    b. primarily other firms in the industry that rival the organization for
    both resources and sales.
    c. the attitudes and reactions of the general public, social and business
    critics.
    d. protection against business competition and consumer rights.
  3. Which of the following parties would
    come under the cooperative environment of the firm?
    a. A rival firm
    b. A non-profit organization that the firm
    donates funds to
    c. A government that is imposing
    restrictions on trade and commerce
    d. A supplier who has been chosen for sole
    sourcing
  4. The _____ for a soft-drink
    manufacturer would include other brands of soft-drinks, fruit juice, bottled
    water, sports drinks, caffeine-free colas, and dairy beverages.
    a. competitive environment
    b. technological environment
    c. cooperative environment
    d. economic environment

 

Q20

How do creative people come up with great ideas? Organizational psychologist Adam Grant studies “originals”: thinkers who dream up new ideas and take action to put them into the world. In this talk, learn three unexpected habits of Listen to Adam Grant in this Ted talk:http://www.ted.com/talks/adam_grant_the_surprising_habits_of_original_thinkers#t-20146.In your first post, write a post with at least 300 words and discuss the three unexpected habits of originals, provide an example of each, and discuss two points that you found really interesting in this video.

Q21

  1. According to Porter, companies that wish to
    dominate broad markets should operate using a ________ strategy.
    A. Cost leadership with a low cost.
    B. Differentiation with a low cost.
    C. Cost leadership with a high cost.
    D. All of these.
  2. Which of the following demonstrates a company
    that has implemented a low-cost, broad-market strategy?
    A. Neiman Marcus.
    B. Payless Shoes.
    C. The Sharper Image.
    D. Walmart.
  3. If a business is following a focused strategy
    then its competitive scope is ________.
    A. Broad market.
    B. Narrow market.
    C. Broad range products.
    D. Broad range of services.
  4. When applying Porter’s three generic strategies,
    Tiffany & Co. has a competitive scope and cost strategy that is
    __________.
    A. Broad market—high-cost strategy.
    B. Narrow market—low-cost strategy.
    C. Narrow market—high-cost strategy.
    D. Broad market—low-cost strategy.
  5. When analyzing the bookstore industry, some of
    today’s businesses compete with different business strategies and cost
    strategies. Which of the following is using a broad market competitive scope
    along with a low cost strategy?
    A. Amazon.com.
    B. Any local independent book store that specializes in antique books.
    C. Barnes & Noble.
    D. Target.
  6. Which of the following is similar to focused
    strategy versus broad strategy?
    A. Large market versus leadership.
    B. Large market versus uniqueness.
    C. Niche market versus large market.
    D. Niche market versus generic.
  7. Your boss, Tom Repicci, has asked you to analyze
    the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the
    following companies are using a cost leadership strategy?
    A. Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue.
    B. British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic.
    C. Sky Taxi—a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service.
    D. All of these.

 

Q22

Chapter 05_The Five Generic Competitive Strategies Question: What are the distinctive features of a broad differentiation strategy? Under what circumstances is a broad differentiation strategy appealing?

Q23

Assignment 2Think Global But Act LocalStep 1:Watch the following TED Talk:https://www.ted.com/talks/chimamanda_adichie_the_danger_of_a_single_story?language=enStep 2:List three takeaways from the talk. These can be things you learned, insights that the talk inspired orpersonal experiences related to the talk.Step 3:Why are ethnocentrism and stereotypes harmful?Step 3:Think global but act local is a common phrased used within marketing. Pick a global companywithin the food industry (i.e. McDonald’s, Starbucks, KFC, Pizza Hut, Coca Cola, Taco Bell). Next,pick a country and research your chosen company within that country. Note any similarities and anydifferences between the U.S. and international company. For example, how do the menus compare?Can you find photos that show the differences?

 

Q24

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

What does it mean to say that strategy and structure have a reciprocal relationship? and What are the characteristics of the functional structures used to implement the cost leadership, differentiation, integrated cost leadership/differentiation, and focused business-level strategies?

Q25

Kelly McGonigal How to Make Stress Your Friend.

TED TALKS:

KELLY McGENIGAL HOW TO MAKE STRESS YOUR FRIEND

TALI SHORT THE OPTIMISM BIAS

SHENA IYENJAR HOW TO MAKE CHOICE EASIER

60 MINUTES DIAGNOSING AUTISM (15:47)

LIST TOP TEN THINGS YOU LEARNED FROM THE VIDEO. DISCUSS ONE OF THEM

IN DETAL.

MUST BE TYPED AND TURNED IN BY NOV 20 (Not emailed)

Answer preview………
According to McGonigal, the primary role of the psychologist is making patients happier and healthier. The scholar notes that there is a correlation between stress and specific ailments such as colds and heart attack. Additionally, the scholar indicates that having stress in one’s life can exacerbate these conditions leading to death. The levels of stress experienced by an individual also had a direct correlation to the risk of demise. A profoundly depressed individual had a 43% chance of dying whereas individuals that took pharma to manage their conditions had the lowest risk of dying. The scope of this paper is to offer a summary of the findings of McGonigal………..

APA 305 words

 

Q26

Hello. I’m currently working on the last section to myassignment and I’m running into issues. I’ll post a screenshot ofthe directions provided to us, my 5 classes, and a screenshot of myconsole output. Can you help me fix my code? I don’t know whereit’s going wrong and I can’t figure it out. Please leave commentson what I did wrong so I can learn from it. Thank you so much!

Q27

Identify and explain a significant contribution made by Chinese immigrants or Indian immigrants to American society and/or to the workforce during this time period.View Solution:
Identify and explain a significant contribution made by Chinese

Q28

Give an example drawn from the life of a college

Give an example drawn from the life of a college student of each of the following types of logical fallacies: fallacy of composition, correlation-causation fallacy, post- hoc fallacy, and the zero sum game fallacy.

Give an example drawn from the life of a college

 

Q29

This is for discusiion writing. But it requires a good grammar and spelling.

Chapter 5

On page 144 of the textbook under “Building A Team” is the case study entitled “An Experiential Exercise: Laying Off Workers.” Read the case study and answer the four questions at the end. Write a minimum of 250 words.

Chapter 10

Page 275 of the text briefly mentions the topic of listening. Research articles on the topic of ACTIVE LISTENING and select one.

  1. Provide a synopsis of the key points of the article.
  2. Appraise yourself (honestly!!) on how well you actively listen. Describe some ways you can either implement/improve your active listening skills.
  3. Include the link to the article.

 

Q30

What does it mean the world is “flat,” according to Thomas L. Friedman, author of The World is Flat? What is the most interesting issue raised, or fact you learnt, from the video? Do you agree or disagree with Mr. Friedman regarding this issue? Why, or why not?

Q31

Discussion:
Burn Out Blues
Employee “burnout” is common, yet there is little empirical research or understanding of it.
Question 1.Describe a time in which you have experienced burnout. What led to the burnout? How did you feel and think while experiencing it? How did you overcome burnout?
Questions 2.Describe three ways that you think are best for overcoming burnout. Make sure to support your suggestions with details and explanations.
Write your answer/response in detail with examples and facts and figures using APA style of formatting, size 12, font Times new roman and answer must be single spaced.

Q32

ournal
communicating your needs to your support network; writing a professional email; and reading, processing, and responding to feedback.
Consider moments in your life when you have received truly eye opening feedback. You may consider this moment in the context of your academic career, professional career, or personal life. Use the following as guiding questions:
•What was the experience like?
•What did you learn about yourself?
•How did you respond to the feedback at the time that it was given?
•Did you see it as constructive criticism or as an attack on your work?
•How did you learn from the experience?
•In what ways did the experience help you to grow in terms of the skills you were trying to master?
Response should be at least 200 words and should follow APA format. No references or citations are necessary.

 

Q33

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

 

Q34

you will be writing a satirical essay addressing a problem in your community

For this Unit Project, you will be writing a satirical essay addressing a problem in your community. You may choose community on any level: local, school, national, or world. You may choose a topic as large as global warming or as focused as uniforms in your high school. I recommend choosing something on the national scale for ease of research.

  • Click on the link in the Red Boxto view the Project Rubrics for this project.

Possible topics could include:

  • Global warming
  • Health care
  • Food stamps or unemployment benefits
  • Gun control
  • Immigration
  • NSA domestic surveillance
  • Gay marriage
  • Marijuana legalization
  • National debt
  • Education reform

These are a few suggestions, but you may choose any topic that you can satirize. (The exception to this is abortion rights. This topic is off-limits for this essay.)

Once you have chosen a topic, your paper should explain the debate:

  • What are the arguments on either side?
  • What logical, ethical, and emotional appeals are used?
  • Who are the key figures in the debate (politicians, actors, news pundits, etc)?
  • Use a minimum of four quotes, properly cited.

Then, propose a ridiculous solution to the problem. Proceed with your paper by using logical, ethical, and emotional appeals to make a satirical case as to why your ridiculous solution is the “best” solution.

Your whole essay should be written in a satirical tone, in the way that Swift does in Modest Proposal. (You can also refer to Stephen Colbert as an excellent modern example.) Sell your solution!

You must use all three of the following satirical devices:

  • Exaggeration or hyperbole
  • Understatement
  • Irony or Sarcasm

Part 2:

Now that you have constructed your satirical argument, turn that into a multi-media presentation. Turn your argument into either a video or a PowerPoint presentation.

Here, give you argument more dimension. Your presentation should include a variety of additional materials:

  • Video clips from key figures in the debate
  • Sound
    • Music
    • A recording of your voice
  • Pictures
  • Animations

This essay should be between two and five pages (500-1250 words) in length. Your final draft should be saved and submitted as .doc or .pdf file. It should be in 12-point font in Times New Roman. Your presentation must be at least three minutes long or include a minimum of ten slides.

10% of your grade will be on grammar and mechanics. Write as clearly and correctly as you can. This means that 90% of your grade is based on your ideas – however, you will not earn an A if you do not proofread carefully and check for errors.

……………Answer Preview……………

Throughout the past few decades, global warming has become a problem which everyone is trying to look for a solution. The world is bewildered on how to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which of emitted into the atmosphere on a daily basis. If this is not controlled at all, most likely the whole human race will face terrible consequences. However, in my opinion, global warming will do more good than harm and even should not be a topic of focus at all; nor does it pose any threat to the human race….

APA572 words Added to cart

 

Q35

Rhetorical Situation

Frist project Rhetorical Analysis and Commentary:

 

Rhetorical Situation

 

Matt Sanders is a popular clinical psychology professor who also doubles as the director of family support and parenting at Greenland Brisbane University in Australia. He authored the book, “Becoming a Learner: Realizing the Opportunity of Education”. In this book, Sanders explained how students are expected to behave for them to become better learners at school. According to Sanders, many students start their college studies without a vivid and clear knowledge of the importance of higher education. This is seen where students will just attend college classes because their parents have paid school fees or because of some societal pressure requiring people to attend college after high school (Ormrod 29). The main target audiences for this book are high school and college students. The book aims to inform them about the significance of becoming a learner.

Generative argument techniques

Professor Sanders is well acquainted with a majority of college students because he interacts with a vast number of them in his career. By listening and observing these students, Sanders has established the learning issues facing students in university. In his book, he develops a feeling of identification by listing the problems associated with learners. Because most issues are common among the student population, the author has created a peculiar feeling of identification with the target audience. Hence, they could feel that their issues are being addressed. With the good analysis of data, the author demonstrates the impacts of inefficient learning on students’ learning abilities (Sanders 33). According to the book, learners must make their academic decisions without any influence. Parents are advised to abstain from pushing their kids into professions, which they dislike. Sanders believe that such actions could interfere with a child’s learning process because the kid will only attend college to please them and pass exams, and may never learn anything.

Persuasive argument techniques

Sanders thinks his claims are legitimate. To ensure the readers accept these claims, he employs rhetorical approaches to appeal to the readers. Through persuasion, Sanders makes his readers believe his conclusion. The first approach is the use of logos or logical argument. He uses logical fallacies to persuade the audience to accept his claims. Within the book, he argues that for students to become learners, they must be willing and able to sacrifice something in their lives. The book has also employed ethos. Sanders has used his personal experience as a teacher in various universities in family support and parenting. Based on his experience, readers can believe his argument. In conjunction, the book has employed pathos to appeal to the emotions of the audience in order to draw attention to the content. This is evidenced where Sanders gives examples of individuals who destroyed their education because they lacked learning skills. He further shows how learners enter college with high ambitions only to forget them before they finish (Harris & Gaspar 51).

Commentary

After repeatedly reading this text, I can confidently articulate that Sanders has used an extremely constructive perspective. Wisdom and knowledge are two different things just as learning and becoming a knowledgeable individual. According to Sanders, Passing exams is not a guarantee that a person will acquire the highest paying job. I concur with the author because many students are currently obtaining good grades. However, besides good academic performance, not all can get good jobs, and not all have gained jobs of equal levels (Blumberg & Weimer 73). This difference stems from the fact that true learning and caliber of each student differs. Sanders use a personal writing angle. The book has a remarkable number of the author’s personal examples, which add a unique taste to the book. His main agenda is that college education is not a guarantee of good future but common sense and wisdom.

Work Cited Sanders, M. (2012). Becoming a Learner: Realizing the Opportunity of Education. Upper Saddle River, N.J: Independent Publisher.

Blumberg, P., & Weimer, M. (2012). Developing Learner-Centered Teaching: A Practical Guide for Faculty. New York: Wiley.

Ormrod, J. E. (2014). Educational psychology: Developing learners. Upper Saddle River, N.J: Pearson.

Harris, V. & Gaspar, A. (2001). Helping learners learn: Exploring strategy instruction in language classrooms across Europe. Strasbourg: Council of Europe.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Annotated Bibliography Multiple Sides Essay

 

Does Cellphone Make People Less or More Connected?

 

Cellphone use has predominantly increased all over the world and is becoming the most preferred mode of communication for everyone. A mobile is principally a hand-held telephone that makes and receives phone calls over radio links in a broad geographical zone. Cellular phones are essential items nowadays with every individual expected to have them on themselves wherever they are regardless of what they are doing. Manufacturers of cellphones have improved their designs and capabilities to the point that cellphones can do everything from surfing the internet, communicating, and even scheduling one’s itinerary. These have increased human attachment to mobile phones, with most individuals interacting more often within the contacts on their phones rather than meeting up physically. It is common to find everyone in a room focused on their cellphones rather than engaged in face-to-face communication with other people. Research and studies have established that humans are continuously getting less connected due to their excessive use of cellphones.

Increased usage of mobile phones has led to a loss of communication in the society where people do not talk anymore (Kluger 5). Through research, Kluger shows that there is a persistent problem in society where numbers on phone calls and text messages are compared. It is established that the number of text messages sent has increased consistently over the years and is still increasing on a daily basis. Many individuals prefer to text someone rather than call and engage in meaningful conversation. Increased cell phone use has given rise to conversation-phobia and breakage of the classic communication process of talking to one another. This is a trend that is taking its toll on the younger generation and is speculated totally to disorient the communication process that has been in place if nothing is done about it. Excessive usage of phones has taken its toll on the younger generation who seem to avoid talking at any opportunity they get. The process of communication is continually getting corrupted by cell phone usage that gives preference to texting rather than calling.

Constant cell phone usage by individuals does not only have a negative impact on their communication but also on their behavior towards one another (Sifferlin 1). Several studies have been conducted that show how increased usage of mobile telephones affects human behavior by making them less socially responsible and reducing their desire to engage each other in conversations. Sifferlin attributes the glut of information and availability of alternative means of communication as the primary contributing factor to the loss of desire to communicate to one another. Increased mobile phone usage and the advent of smartphones have led to theformation of social circles within the internet. Individuals are grouping themselves on virtual networks and forgetting to relate to one another on a physical basis. As much as social circles can be said to improve communication of individuals within it, it is known for locking out those who are not members. Individuals within social circles deny entry to those deemed non-members thereby adversely affecting the connectivity between them. Continued use of smart phones has encouraged discrimination of people and a total disregard for people who are thought not to belong within a social set up.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Scientific research also shows that there is a worsening case of pro-social behavior due to usage of mobile phones. These deteriorations of behavior have an adverse effect on interpersonal communications, which in the end causes a loss in connectivity. Scientists have proved through research that active mobile usage causes a loss in desire to communicate on a face-to-face basis. In addition, persistent phone usage causes a loss of empathy where individuals lose the desire to engage in community building activities like charity.

Persistent engagement with the phone causes one not to engage frequently with the community as admitted by several athletes who said they used their phones as a means to avoid others (Abraham 3). Their focus often is on the social relationships within their virtual networks. Such self-centered relationships only expose them to what the group goes through in life, setting standards that are the norm within that social set-up. Attitudes are therefore set for those perceived not to be qualified enough to be within their virtual setting. Such categorizations and clusters breed hatred and a total disregard for other challenges that might be affecting other members of the community. For instance, people will be less affectionate about the homeless and the poor in society, provided individuals do not belong to their social set ups; it is of least concern whatever happens to them (Abraham 15). In the end, such a community of cell phone users does not connect effectively with everyone; rather, they openly shun and keep away from one another, and hence, a total breakdown in communication.

Regardless of the adverse issues involved with an upsurge of mobile phone usage, it has its benefits that are beneficial to communication. Experts have continually suggested that continued use of mobile phones increases interpersonal communication. In fact, the more people communicate with mobile phones, the higher the likelihood of engaging in face-to-face communication (Goscicki 1). However, the cons outweigh the pros and its high time classical communication strategies were encouraged over the contemporary ones that promote the use of smartphones.

Works Cited Abraham, Ajay T., Anastasiya Pocheptsova, and Rosellina Ferraro. The Effect of Mobile Phone Use on Prosocial Behavior. University of Maryland: Smith School of Business, 2012. Web. 30 March 2015.

Goscicki, Claire. “Study Discovers How Cell Phone Use Affects Social Interactions.” The Michigan Daily 31 March 2011. Web. 30 March 2015.

Kluger, Jeffrey. “We Never Talk Any More: The Problem with Text Messaging.” 31 August 2012. CNN. Web. 30 March 2015.

Sifferlin, Alexandra. “Is Your Cell Phone Making You a Jerk?” TIME 20 February 2012. Web. 30 March 2015.

 

 

 

 

…………………..Answer Preview…………………..

NameProfessorCourseDate

            Understanding of a rhetorical situation assignment acted as a basic orientation into the introduction of becoming a learner. A psychology professor, matt sanders, explained in his book how we students are expected to behave while in school. Good behavior comes in handy with being able to be a good learner. Undertaking this assignment depicted the essence of taking studies. There is clear explanation on the need of higher……………..

MLA

330 Words

 

Q36

Review of the Quick serve Restaurant

Review Essay

Assignment Sheet

 

You might be very familiar with the type of writing that is expected from you for essay 2. In fact, you might have read dozens of these when trying to decide which new car or phone to buy, or which film to watch or restaurant to visit.

 

For our second assignment, we will write a review essay.

 

Purpose:Provide your audience with a thorough and helpful review of a consumer product (e.g., a phone, an app, etc.) or a place (a restaurant, a service –like the writing center). We are not simply looking for a purely personal opinion: your review should use appropriate, clear, and fair criteria. In other words:

 

  • Ask yourself, “What are some of the legitimate expectations a user or consumer of my subject could have?”
  • Check if these expectations are met
  • Show how or not they are met (provide evidence)
  • Reach your overall judgment

 

 

Audience:Think of your audience as the people who would most benefit or would be most interested in reading your review. Depending on your topic, your audience will change and you will have to adapt to it.

 

Length: You will be writing a650-word essay. It should contain an introduction, supporting body paragraphs, and a conclusion. In the body of this essay, you will discuss in separate paragraphs how well your subject fares in each of the criteria you selected and give supporting details and evidence to support your claims.

 

Due Dates: The only way to produce a good essay is to write multiple drafts. For this reason, we will have multiple due dates.

W 2/25: Full rough draft of your narrative is due at conference time.

M 3/2: Revised draft due for revision workshop

W 3/4: Final draft of your review is due by the end of the day: submit a digital copy through D2L and a hard copy in class.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

………………Answer Preview………………

Name:

Instructor:

Course:

Date:

Review of the Quickserve Restaurant

There is a lot that one could expect from a service industry. One of the expectations would be that the customers are treated with respect and everything they ask for is available at the service station. A gas station in which the attendants are often rude to the customers is less likely to get clients as compared to one in which the attendants are friendly. In as much as an employee’s job is always to ensure that the consumer gets their need met, approach to having the needs met matters a lot in the service industry. Particular challenges face the food…………………

MLA

690 Words

 

Q37

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

How do Rauschenberg and Johns use their artworks to both closet and reveal their relationship and sexual identities

INSTRUCTIONS: Read Silver’s article carefully. It is helpful to take notes while

reading in order to organize your thoughts.

How do Rauschenberg and Johns use their artworks to both closet and reveal their

relationship and?

How does Warhol critique the notion of authorship and identity in his Pop

paintings?

How does Andy Warhol critique the work of Rauschenberg and Johns through his

pop style?

 

Q38

Submit a 1000 word essay on the differences between childbearing practice

Submit a 1,000 word essay on the differences between . These can include hypnobirthing, medical childbirth, cesarean, and others.

Use the suggested websites, along with your own research, citing at least two outside sources (and the textbook).

Essays should include the pros and cons of at least two as well as your personal opinion of the issue.

Include a minimum of three scholarly references. (reference the book also)

apa formatting

use subtitles for readability.

quality is a must and good grammar is required.

 

Q39

Submit a 1000 word essay on the differences between childbearing practice

Submit a 1,000 word essay on the differences between . These can include hypnobirthing, medical childbirth, cesarean, and others.

Use the suggested websites, along with your own research, citing at least two outside sources (and the textbook).

Essays should include the pros and cons of at least two as well as your personal opinion of the issue.

Include a minimum of three scholarly references. (reference the book also)

apa formatting

use subtitles for readability.

quality is a must and good grammar is required.

 

Q40

Explain the emergence of a new imperialism in the late 19th century. What ways did some people support and justify this new imperialism

Explain the emergence of a in the late 19th century. What ways did some people support and justify this new imperialism, and how did others oppose it? How did the First World War affect the imperialist ?

 

 

Q42

Imitation of reality

Reading response of Against Interpretation

plz read the materials i upload and, write any comments that after you read.

Make sure that professor can feel that you truely understanding what this article is talk about.

DO NOT USE EXRA RESOURCES OR ANY RESERCH THAT IS NOT APPERED IN THE ARTICLE

one page,double space

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Q43

Discuss the ways in which Wright`s manifesto on the African American writer and writing

In essay form, discuss the ways in which Wright`s manifesto on the African American writer and writing, and quot; Blueprint for Negro Writing, and quote; is a departure from the views of our Writers |(Schuyler and Hughes) and /or indebted to them.

(Note: Do consider the possibility that Wright may both offer radically new ideas and lean on certain established viewpoints that preceded him)

Reading sources: The Negro-Art Hokum by George Schuyler

The Negro Artist and the Racial Mountain by Langston Hughes

Sweat by Zora Neale Hurston

Blueprint for Negro writing by Richard Wright

The of living Jim Crow: An Autobiographical Sketch by Richard Wright

Please use some detail examples from the sources in the essay to support the idea

 

Q44

Compose an analytical essay of at least 1,200 words in which you offer an interpretation of a literary element

Compose an analytical essay of at least 1,200 words in which you offer an interpretation of a in one of the assigned short story. Write your analysis focusing on one of the following elements in one of the assigned story: “A Good Man Is Hard to Find,”

Character

Theme

Symbolism

Imagery

Setting

Start by selecting one of the short stories assigned by your instructor. Brainstorm to identify the literary element that you would like to explore in the story. Choose from character, theme, symbolism, imagery, or setting. Then, develop a thesis that offers a specific interpretation of this element. Do not do any outside research at this point. When finished, should be at least 1,200 words (approximately four double-spaced pages).

Tips for the Essay

Open your introduction with an engaging opener, such as a question, quote from the story, or interesting idea. Then, connect to the short story and mention the title and the author. End your introduction with a thesis statement that interprets one literary element of the story (such as theme, symbolism, or characterization).

The body paragraphs should support your thesis. Present specific aspects of the short story that help to illustrate your points. Make sure to quote from the story and analyze specific lines that support your argument.

Include a strong concluding paragraph that summarizes your main points and explains the significance of the thesis.

 

Q45

You are faced with a decision to remove a child from an abusive/neglectful home

You are faced with a decision to remove a child from an abusive/neglectful home. Describe how you would arrive at a decision that carefully considers the conflicting factors of and child safety. Explain/support your position.

Reference: Kilpatrick, A. & Holland, T. (2009). Working with Families: An Integrative Model by Level of Need (5th edition). Boston: Pearson Publishing. Chapter 5

 

Q46

Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451ASSIGNMENTS DUE1. Complete the discussions.2. Write a 850 word essay which demonstrates how Fahrenheit 451 follows the steps of narrative structure (exposition, rising action, climax, falling action, resolution/denouement).Include an outline and Works Cited page where you will list the short story you are discussing.You must use MLA format, but you are not to use outside sources for this paper; this is your own analysis.Cite examples from your text in support of your argument, either as direction quotations or paraphrases.This is not simply a summary of the story. Instead, you should identify how each part of the narrative structure develops in the story.If it is helpful, please review “Writing a Literary Analysis” from the short story lesson during week two.Do not confuse this essay with your research paper. This essay is totally your own thinking from studying the steps of narrative structure and reading the novel. Your research paper reflects the conclusions you draw from information gleaned in your research and is on a selected topic other than narrative structure.AssignmentNOVEL ESSAYComplete your assignment using word-processing software such as MS Word 365 (download free software at ), LibreOffice (download free software at ), or other per course requirements. Save your file as an .rtf file or .doc to ensure that it can be opened at any computer. Submit your assignment by selecting the title link, browsing to, and attaching your saved file. Make sure to select SUBMIT. You may view your posting both on this page and under My Grade (available under Tools).Please note: You must have your outline and your plagiarism statement included in your assignment. Everything in one document is preferred. I will not grade essays without these two items.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #4Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451.This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #5Explain the primary conflict in your Fahrenheit 451. How do other conflicts in Fahrenheit 451 affect the primary conflict?This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardNARRATIVE STRUCTUREDefine the steps to Narrative structure and respond to one student with examples of at least 2 of those terms. Think about the short stories and novel we have read.Steps in Narrative Structure Exposition. Rising action Climax/crisis Falling action Denouement This assignment is worth 10 points. No minimum word count; however, please summarize the terms in your own words and not “cut and pasted” from your text. 100 word

 ……………………………..Answer Preview………………………………….The first and most dominant form of symbolism notable in the fictional novel is a phoenix. It is a symbol of rebirth. The main theme behind the symbol is the fact that something, upon creation, will have to fall at some point. The author compares man to the Phoenix, in the sense that he burns himself up just to rise again in the ashes. It is a form of hope and resilience of mankind towards nature. The second form of symbolism used is blood through which the writer uses to represent a repressed human’s instinct. Mildred permanently loses her primal instinct and self which remains unaltered when her blood is mechanically replaced after poisoning……………………………………………..

 

Q47

Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451.ASSIGNMENTS DUE1. Complete the discussions.2. Write a 850 word essay which demonstrates how Fahrenheit 451 follows the steps of narrative structure (exposition, rising action, climax, falling action, resolution/denouement).Include an outline and Works Cited page where you will list the short story you are discussing.You must use MLA format, but you are not to use outside sources for this paper; this is your own analysis.Cite examples from your text in support of your argument, either as direction quotations or paraphrases.This is not simply a summary of the story. Instead, you should identify how each part of the narrative structure develops in the story.If it is helpful, please review “Writing a Literary Analysis” from the short story lesson during week two.Do not confuse this essay with your research paper. This essay is totally your own thinking from studying the steps of narrative structure and reading the novel. Your research paper reflects the conclusions you draw from information gleaned in your research and is on a selected topic other than narrative structure.AssignmentNOVEL ESSAYComplete your assignment using word-processing software such as MS Word 365 (download free software at ), LibreOffice (download free software at ), or other per course requirements. Save your file as an .rtf file or .doc to ensure that it can be opened at any computer. Submit your assignment by selecting the title link, browsing to, and attaching your saved file. Make sure to select SUBMIT. You may view your posting both on this page and under My Grade (available under Tools).Please note: You must have your outline and your plagiarism statement included in your assignment. Everything in one document is preferred. I will not grade essays without these two items.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #4Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451.This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #5Explain the primary conflict in your Fahrenheit 451. How do other conflicts in Fahrenheit 451 affect the primary conflict?This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardNARRATIVE STRUCTUREDefine the steps to Narrative structure and respond to one student with examples of at least 2 of those terms. Think about the short stories and novel we have read.Steps in Narrative Structure Exposition. Rising action Climax/crisis Falling action Denouement This assignment is worth 10 points. No minimum word count; however, please summarize the terms in your own words and not “cut and pasted” from your text. 100 words ………………………………..Answer Preview……………………………….

Regardless of the content that is contained in a given story, it is necessary for the format to be inclusive of a beginning, the middle as well as an end that is well defined. The characters highlighted in Fahrenheit 415 are not well developed. Montag’s character is portrayed as being shallow. Several points which are commendable are made in Fahrenheit 415. However, some depth is lacking (Bradbury 8). However, the book has been able to adhere to the provisions that are made for narrative structures…………………………………………..

MLA

1506 Words

 

Q48

Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451.

ASSIGNMENTS DUE1. Complete the discussions.2. Write a 850 word essay which demonstrates how Fahrenheit 451 follows the steps of narrative structure (exposition, rising action, climax, falling action, resolution/denouement).Include an outline and Works Cited page where you will list the short story you are discussing.You must use MLA format, but you are not to use outside sources for this paper; this is your own analysis.Cite examples from your text in support of your argument, either as direction quotations or paraphrases.This is not simply a summary of the story. Instead, you should identify how each part of the narrative structure develops in the story.If it is helpful, please review “Writing a Literary Analysis” from the short story lesson during week two.Do not confuse this essay with your research paper. This essay is totally your own thinking from studying the steps of narrative structure and reading the novel. Your research paper reflects the conclusions you draw from information gleaned in your research and is on a selected topic other than narrative structure.AssignmentNOVEL ESSAYComplete your assignment using word-processing software such as MS Word 365 (download free software at ), LibreOffice (download free software at ), or other per course requirements. Save your file as an .rtf file or .doc to ensure that it can be opened at any computer. Submit your assignment by selecting the title link, browsing to, and attaching your saved file. Make sure to select SUBMIT. You may view your posting both on this page and under My Grade (available under Tools).Please note: You must have your outline and your plagiarism statement included in your assignment. Everything in one document is preferred. I will not grade essays without these two items.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #4Explain the use of symbolism in Fahrenheit 451.This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardBRADBURY DISCUSSION #5Explain the primary conflict in your Fahrenheit 451. How do other conflicts in Fahrenheit 451 affect the primary conflict?This assignment is worth 15 points, as are all of the reading discussions. Make certain you use at least 250 words in your post and respond to at least one student with at least 100 words to receive your full credit.Discussion BoardNARRATIVE STRUCTUREDefine the steps to Narrative structure and respond to one student with examples of at least 2 of those terms. Think about the short stories and novel we have read.Steps in Narrative Structure Exposition. Rising action Climax/crisis Falling action Denouement This assignment is worth 10 points. No minimum word count; however, please summarize the terms in your own words and not “cut and pasted” from your text. 100 words………………………….Answer Preview……………………………..Regardless of the content that is contained in a given story, it is necessary for the format to be inclusive of a beginning, the middle as well as an end that is well defined. The characters highlighted in Fahrenheit 415 are not well developed. Montag’s character is portrayed as being shallow. Several points which are commendable are made in Fahrenheit 415. However, some depth is lacking (Bradbury 8). However, the book has been able to adhere to the provisions that…………………………………MLA1506 Words

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Q49

ssay on Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth

Provide a brief summary of Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”. In addition to the book’s basic plot, discuss as well how this relate’s to society and what significant lessons can be learned from it.

Essay/answer has to be no less than 500 words. Thank you!

………………………..Answer Preview………………………….

Set in the remote rural region of China probably early 20th century, the book narrates a moving tale about a humble uneducated farmer Wang Lang and his wife, Olan. The story begins when Olan is still a slave to the Hwang family. Wang Lang encouraged by his mother goes the Hwang family and pleads with them to “sell” him a wife. He buys O-lan, and they live a life of significant success, shared respect and work (Buck, 1931). The paper analyses the book “Good Earth” and how the book relates to the society…………………………………..

APA

825 Words

 

Q50

Descartes and Elisabeth

Essay about Elisabeth

Write a three or four paragraph essay answering the topic given. The essays will be completed and submitted by the time specified on the course calendar.
What is Elisabeth asking Descartes to clarify? What was his answer from your reading? Do you believe that Descartes gave an adequate answer? Explain, in your opinion, why or why not?

Q51

Cultural factors that influence the development of ethical relationships

In a paper 1,000-1,250 words, complete the following:

  1. Explain that influence the development of ethical relationships in or between.
  2. Evaluate the different perspectives on the ethics of developing, maintaining, or ending relationships in members of different cultural groups?
  3. Explain how differing cultural values and norms may influence conflict styles.
  4. Give specific illustrations that show different conflict styles of people from different cultures.
  5. Project must have a minimum of five scholarly sources.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

This assignment assesses the following competencies:

Comp 4.1 Evaluate the connection between ethical communication and different worldviews.

Comp 2.3 Compare and contrast how communicative behaviors reflect various cultural norms.

 

Q52

Cultural factors that influence the development of ethical relationships

In a paper 1,000-1,250 words, complete the following:

  1. Explain that influence the development of ethical relationships in or between.
  2. Evaluate the different perspectives on the ethics of developing, maintaining, or ending relationships in members of different cultural groups?
  3. Explain how differing cultural values and norms may influence conflict styles.
  4. Give specific illustrations that show different conflict styles of people from different cultures.
  5. Project must have a minimum of five scholarly sources.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

This assignment assesses the following competencies:

Comp 4.1 Evaluate the connection between ethical communication and different worldviews.

Comp 2.3 Compare and contrast how communicative behaviors reflect various cultural norms.

 

Q53

What is the relationship between the dao and all thingTalk about Lao Tzu1.What is the dao of Lao tzu2.How to focus the dao3.What is the relationship between the dao and all things.4.Then talk all about mother dao in 7 sentences“The Tao that can be told of is not the ;The name that can be named is not the eternal name.The Nameless is the origin of Heaven and Earth;The Named is the mother of all things.”“There was something undifferentiated and yet complete,Which existed before heaven and earth.Soundless and formless, it depends on nothing and does not change.”5. Provide the bibliographical entries of the three peer-reviewed articles and the primary source (if applicable) according to the correct forms of the academic style (Analysis > Interpretation > Evaluation > Critique > Resolution). It means you find 3 people who also interpretation about the mother dao ( 7 sentences above in the quote ” “) Focus on how these 3 people interpret about mother dao, and the have your own Analysis>Interpretation>Evaluation>Critique>Resolution)6.Bibliography5-6pages (Time Roman, double space)You can use the sources I provide below as well as any sources you have on the book or online.Please do your own words ( I will turn it via Turnitin)HiI’m fineJust correct that the question title isWhat does Lao Tzu mean by the “mother Dao” in Tao Te Ching?Lao Tzu, not La TzuIf you have any question please let me know.Appreciate your help.Thank you so much

Q54

Contemporary artist Shepard Fairey

 

Watch the attached and other videos about contemporary artist Shepard Fairey, artist and creator of the OBEY brand. Write about how his artwork has influenced popular culture in the last 10 years. Include 2 examples of 2 different ways that you can see the influence in contemporary culture. No more than 1 page long

 

Shepard Fairey: Obey This Film ……………………….Answer Preview…………………………….Shepard Fairley is a contemporary street art artist who utilizes public art to stir masses into action. He engages his artwork to encompass political

 

Q55

How do we determine the voluntariness of a confession? What are some constitutional challenges to a confession

How do we determine the voluntariness of a confession? What are some to a confession? (Hint: constitutional challenges are tied to an )

300-400 words is enough.

 

Q56

Cons of cell phones

LASA 2: Persuasive Research Paper

READ THE ATTACHED WORK AND ADD 2 PAGES ( 550-600 WORDS)

8 to 10 pages

Assignment 1 Grading Criteria Maximum Points
Thesis Statement: You have a single, main point (a thesis statement), and all sentences in your paper directly relate to and support your thesis statement. Your main point is a clearly defined claim and is consistent with current research on the subject selected. 24
Quality of Support: You support your initial claim with the evidence you have gathered during your research, and moderate use of your personal experience. You give full credit for any ideas that are not your own. You have explained within the text of the paper the reason for the use of any biased or non-academic source. 24
Presentation of Support: Your reader can easily determine which words are quotes, which words are summaries or paraphrases, and which words are your own ideas. You correctly cite every claim that is not your own or common knowledge and include all necessary information. If the item cited contains quotes, you provide a page or paragraph number. You correctly quote and paraphrase, using the criteria in your text. You use p. for a single page and pp. for multiple pages. 24
Identifying Opposing Arguments: You present the strongest arguments against your claim; you avoid the “straw man” fallacy and argue as hard for the other side as you argue for your own. 30
Responding to Opposing Arguments: You evaluate each possible objection and reply appropriately; not all objections can be refuted but all must be addressed. 30
References Used: Personal communications are only cited within the paper, not on the references page. All other sources must match with a references citation for every source used in the paper and an in-text citation for every source listed on the references page. You have few or no sources that end in “.com” or “.org”. 28
Proprietary Database and Governmental Web site Usage: For governmental pages, you offer the exact address of the cited Web page, not the home page of the sponsoring organization. If your reader cannot access the page, you have included a complete citation to the page’s location, including DOI where possible. You have removed artifacts (underlining, colored text, etc.) from the URL and any period at the end of the citation. 10
Length and Substance: The paper meets the length requirements of 8–10 pages of actual text (excluding the title, abstract and reference pages). The work is not padded to meet the length designation, and the discussion in all areas is detailed but succinct. 10
Reference Page Format: Title (References) and text are in standard form, not bold, italics, or all caps, and in hanging-indent format. You have not used authors’ first names, only their initials. You have correctly capitalized the titles of your reference works. You have included all required information for each type of citation, according to APA style, and your text. You have used the appropriate abbreviations as presented in your text. 20
Abstract: Your abstract is titled “Abstract” and is not in bold-faced type; it contains 120 words or fewer and is numbered page two (with numerals in place of word numbers). The paragraph is not first-line indented and is double spaced. 16
Research Paper Format: Your title page is double-spaced, as is the rest of the paper. On the title page you have a header with the words “Running Head:” followed by your running head and a left-aligned page number. For the rest of the paper, you have a running head with five spaces and then the numeral 1; headers are one-half inch from the top of each page, and all margins are one inch. The title is in standard text, is not bolded or in italics, and should be centered on the page. Dates are not part of the cover for APA papers. 20
Organization: You present your argument in a way that is easy to understand. 20
Style, Word Choice, and Audience: How do you say what you have to say? For this assignment, assume that your audience includes the members of this class. Your tone should be college-level, without referring to yourself, or addressing the reader directly. Delivery should be objective, in the third-person voice. 16
Grammar and Mechanics: Use correct spelling, punctuation, sentence structure, apostrophe usage, and homophone. You present your argument academically. 20
TurnItIn 8
Total: 300

……………………………….Answer Preview…………………………………..

The technological invention of cellular mobile phones has revolutionized many spheres of life and made the world a global village (Katz, 2008). It is substantiated the fact that what the mobile technology has brought in this computer era is of tremendous value. We can all attest to the fact that communication has been streamlined and made realizable with these gadgets. Talking to a distant cousin is simply the click of a button. These great social media forums (Facebook, Twitter, WhatsApp), are some of the best features mostly used and supported by portable electronic devices…………………………………………….

APA

 

Q58

For the Unit 6 Assignment you will compose a 500 word essay based upon your observations of a political or governmental meeting

For the Unit 6 Assignment you will compose a 500 word essay based upon your observations of a political or , speech, gathering, or similar activity that concerns either or civil liberties.

You will need to first identify an activity that you will be able to attend. Examples of relevant activities include political speeches, town/city council meetings, school board meetings, political rallies or protests, public forums, or any similar activity that include topics pertinent to either civil liberties or civil rights. If you have any questions regarding the viability of the activity that you have in mind, contact the instructor. Though it is not preferable, you may choose to view a recorded version of the activity (speeches, Congressional proceedings, political rallies, and similar events are often available online) if your schedule precludes you from attending a “live” event.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Within a 500 Word essay please include:

An introduction.

Describe the observed political event in detail, including the environment and people involved.

Describe how the event is directly related to the study of civil liberties or civil rights and how one may better understand these topics by attending a similar event.

Make note of any aspects of the event that seemed confusing to you and/or any questions that came to mind during the observation.

Support your answer(s) with information obtained from the text and at least one academic source.

A conclusion.

Correct grammar and syntax

APA format

The Assignment should be at least 500 words, and must use and cite the text and primary documents as sources. Cite the work internally and in full reference at the end, following APA style guidelines. Citation is important to build the definitions, demonstrate your research, and to make it clear which ideas are yours and which are from the source. Check with the Writing Center for APA style tips and assistance.

 

 

 

Q58

Write an essay in which you state your personal rights and responsibilities as a citizen of your community or school

Write an essay in which you state your personal rights and responsibilities as a citizen of your community or school. Your paper should be approximately two pages. At the end of your essay, give your definition of.

 

Q59

Awareness on the Existence of Social Disconnectivity in the Contemporary Society

After reviewing the Learning Activities, think about whether you want to continue exploring the problem you discussed in Unit 2 (topic shown in question title). Then, respond in at least two well-developed paragraphs to the following questions:

Create three research questions about your selected topic and develop a potential thesis statement. The thesis statement should be no more than one or two sentences and propose a solution to a problem; including a reason in the statement that begins with “since” or “because” is also recommended, and the statement should be debatable. An example of such a thesis would be “High schools in the San Antonio Independent School District should provide tablets to students to encourage more learning outside of the classroom and increase ” Then, identify the type of claim your thesis represents (proposal, value, etc.).

Have you ever tried to make this argument to friends or colleagues before? If so, how successful or unsuccessful was your argument? If not, what do you think you would need to do to persuade friends or colleagues to agree with your argument?

 

Answer Preview for Awareness on the Existence of Social Disconnectivity in the Contemporary Society

APA

295 Words

 

Q60

Assignment 4: Persuasive Paper Part 2: Solution and Advantages

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.

Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 4: Persuasive Paper Part 2: Solution and Advantages
Due Week 7 and worth 200 points

Using feedback from your professor and classmates, revise Part 1 and develop the solution and identify the advantages of the solution. Note: The disadvantages or challenges with your answers will be in Part 3.

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

Provide Part I: Revision of A Problem Exists (3-4 pages)

  1. Revise, using feedback from the professor and classmates, your Persuasive Paper Part I: A Problem Exists.

Develop Part 2: Solution to Problem and Advantages (3-4 pages for 6-8 pages total)

  1. Include a defensible, relevant thesis statement clearly in the first paragraph. (The thesis statement may need to be modified to reflect added information and purpose of this part.)
  2. Explain a detailed, viable solution that supports your thesis. This should be one or two (1-2) paragraphs.
  3. State, explain, and support the first advantage (economic, social, political, environmental, social, equitable, ethical/moral, etc.) to your solution. This should be one or two (1-2) paragraphs.
  4. State, explain, and support the second advantage (economic, social, political, environmental, social, equitable, ethical/moral, etc.) to your solution. This should be one or two (1-2) paragraphs.
  5. State, explain, and support the third (and fourth if desired) advantage (economic, social, political, environmental, social, equitable, ethical/moral, etc.) to your solution. This should be one or two (1-2) paragraphs.
  6. Use effective transitional words, phrases, and sentences.
  7. Provide a concluding paragraph / transitional paragraph that summarizes the proposed solution and its advantages.
  8. Develop a coherently structured paper with an introduction, body, and conclusion.
  9. Use one (1) or more rhetorical strategies (ethos, logos, pathos) to explain advantages.
  10. Support advantage claims with at least three (3) additional quality relevant references. Use at least six (6) total for Parts 1 and 2. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting guidelines:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Note: Submit your assignment to the designated plagiarism program so that you can make revisions before submitting your paper to your professor.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Recognize the elements and correct use of a thesis statement.
  • Recognize the use of summary, paraphrasing, and quotation to communicate the main points of a text.
  • Analyze the rhetorical strategies of ethos, pathos, logos in writing samples and for incorporation into essays or presentations.
  • Correct grammatical and stylistic errors consistent with Standard Written English.
  • Prepare a research project that supports an argument with structure and format appropriate to the genre.
  • Revise drafts to improve clarity, support, and organization. Recognize how to organize ideas with transitional words, phrases, and sentences.
  • Incorporate relevant, properly documented sources to substantiate ideas.
  • Write clearly and concisely about selected topics using proper writing mechanics.
  • Use technology and information resources to research selected issues for this course.
  • One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Click here to view the grading rubric for this assignment.

 

……………………Answer Preview…………………..

Genetically engineering refers to the altering of the genes of the DNA of a living thing. This is also referred to as biotechnology and involves altering the nature and traits of the living thing that would otherwise not be possible through natural means. There have been major concerns on the rate at which people are turning to genetically engineered foods. Considering the health effects that these foods pose to the consumer, there are many concerns on the implications of GM crops and the main concern is on how the ecological systems that are being introduced are posing dangers and have severe side effects. There is huge need to turn to sustainable ways of farming and producing food as this assists…..

APA

1033 words

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Q61

Assignment 2: Issues in Neuroscience

Post your response to the question below with at least 200 words in the Discussion Area by Saturday, April 5, 2014. Cite information from at least one academic source, such as your textbook or an article from the Argosy Online Library, to support your statements.

Assignment 2: Issues in Neuroscience

In the Visual Ability test, a split-brain patient was shown an image in the left visual field but could not name the object. Explain why and identify the specialized functions that were discovered with regard to hemispheric lateralization. Consider some of the difficulties the split-brain operation causes and the strategies you would recommend to help a patient manage them. Was it ethical to do this study? Was it right to trade the suffering experienced by participants for the knowledge gained by the research?

………………………..answer preview…………………………

In the 1940s it was established that disconnecting the two hemisphere of cerebral through dividing corpus callosum reduced the effects of epilepsy among the epileptic patients. This was because the sectioning of the nerve fibres’ bridge which connected the two hemispheres did not interfere with the interhemispheric processing. However, tests carried out on patients who had been operated reveal………………………

APA

380 words

 

Q62

Art History Criticism

Art History Criticism

The paper need to be a minimum of 6 pages and you should have at least 5 references/sources in your bibliography(not from wikipedia). Use iconographical (it is very important, please use this method) way to analysis it.

Analysis the Last Super by Leonardo da Vinci, also need to compare this to another Last Super by Tintoretto.

Compare symbolism and the context (Renaissance)/ the Counter Reformation.

………………………….Answer Preview…………………………………

It is a work of painting by Leonard Da Vinci. Being 15th century work, Last Supper is regarded as one of the most famous paintings in the world. According to historical iconographers, the work is said to have commenced between 1494 and 1945. Leonard da Vinci’s patrons Duke of Milan and Ludovico commissioned it as one of the plans of renovating the church buildings. The work portrays the scene of Jesus’ Last Supper with his disciples as how………………………………………..

APA

1744 Words

 

Q63

Visit a cathedral nearby (if you can!). Compare and contrast this cathedral to the Gothic cathedrals

About

Week 3 Entry: Visit a cathedral nearby (if you can!). Compare and contrast this to the Gothic cathedrals we study week 3. (Post a picture if you can!)

NOTE: You can also choose another one you have visited or you can choose to write about the one in the Macauley video or one you find online that you like!

 

 

Q64

Describe these two works of art by applying at least three questions art historians ask and four words art historians use

Select two works of art, each from a different movement. Please use the following:

  1. – The Dance Lesson, Edgar Degas, 1879 Oil on canvas, 38 x 88 cm. Retrieved from
  2. Arts and Crafts Movement– The Kiss, 1908, Gustav Klimt, Oil on canvas, 180 x 180 cm. Retrieved from

In your paper,

Describe these two works of art by applying at least three questions art historians ask and four words use.

Explain how iconographic, historical, political, philosophical, religious, and social factors of the movements are reflected in each work of art.

Include images of both works of art in an appendix at the end of your paper.

Your paper must be three to five pages in length, excluding the title and reference pages and images.

note:  The text book for this class is: Kleiner, F. S. (2017). Gardner’s art through the ages: The Western perspective (15th ed., Vol. II).

 

………………. 1040 words

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Q65

Identify at least two examples of artwork and architecture used in religious worship

: Tombs and Treasures

Art in

Identify at least two examples of artwork and architecture used in religious worship from Chapter 2: Ancient Near East.

In 500 words, discuss their purpose, iconography and cultural context. Apply new terms. Include the images, or hyperlinks to the images, referenced in your assignment, and utilize APA formatting and citations. Must be original work.

 

 

Q66

American History

:In 200 words compare and contrast the philosophies of the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists that emerged during the time period of the Constitutional Convention through the ratification of the U.S. (roughly the late 1780s). In your answer, make sure to also include how the philosophies of both parties were reflective of the American society of the time.

 

Q67

2 page essay on the suggested readings

…………………………….Answer Preview………………………………Being’ relates to the state of being at a place, aware of oneself or being in a particular space. Thus, ‘being’ allows individuals to interact with the environment they find themselves in well. While used in spatial viewing, ‘being’ refers to the aspect of people engaging their imaginations and perceptions about the physical places they are in. Thus, ‘being’ enhances people’s perceptual awareness and consciousness, thus enabling them to behave and act on th………………………………….

 

Q68

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.a

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ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

 

Q1

John has applied and been approved a licence to operate a casino in Melbourne, which later on he
named it The Casino East. John has received 10-year licence from Victorian Government to operate
the casino. He also received approval for Casino’s building for a long period of time (90 years).
John was instructed by the relevant Government agency to pay $180 million for the approved
casino’s licence and $80 million as prepaid rent covering the first 10 years of casino’s rental. John
has negotiated to pay $400,000 rental per year for the remaining 80 years of the lease.
With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether casinos prepaid rent is
considered a revenue expense or a capital expense.

Q2

  1. Gain an understanding of the nature of the entity and its industry and then identify
    key business risks. After this is completed, assess where the risks of material misstatements could be in the financial report. Consider the factors affecting both
    Inherent Risk and Control Risk. Finally, apply the Audit Risk Model [AR = f (IR,
    CR, DR)] to the selected company. Which risk rating would you apply (Low, Medium
    or High) to the company’s inherent risk assessment and control risk assessment?
    How does this affect your assessment of Detection Risk and Audit Risk?
    Perform analytical procedures of the Statement of Financial Position and of Financial
    Performance over the last three years using appropriate ratios and/or metrics. Select
    four key ratios and provide a brief explanation in the report. This should be
    presented in a table format.
    3. Discuss with your group members which account balances are considered “material”.
    Explain how you calculated materiality for planning purposes and provide appropriate
    justification for your decision-making.

 

Q3

  1. Gain an understanding of the nature of the entity and its industry and then identify
    key business risks. After this is completed, assess where the risks of material misstatements could be in the financial report. Consider the factors affecting both
    Inherent Risk and Control Risk. Finally, apply the Audit Risk Model [AR = f (IR,
    CR, DR)] to the selected company. Which risk rating would you apply (Low, Medium
    or High) to the company’s inherent risk assessment and control risk assessment?
    How does this affect your assessment of Detection Risk and Audit Risk?
    2. Perform analytical procedures of the Statement of Financial Position and of Financial
    Performance over the last three years using appropriate ratios and/or metrics. Select
    four key ratios and provide a brief explanation in the report. This should be
    presented in a table format.
    3. Discuss with your group members which account balances are considered “material”.
    Explain how you calculated materiality for planning purposes and provide appropriate
    justification for your decision-making.

 

Q4

The purpose of the Group Assignment is to provide students with an opportunity
to work in a collaborative environment in solving two case problems by citing the
relevant legal rules and cases and applying these to the facts of the case.
In this Group Assignment, students are required to:
4. Demonstrate the legal principles for managing a company in particular the
company’s relationship with others.
5. Critically analyse the concept of corporate internal rules and management.
6. Analyse the role and responsibility of directors and members in the
management of the company.
7. Analyse the interaction between members’ rights, directors’ duties and
corporate governance

Q5

Purpose
This assignment aims at developing your group’s understanding of latest cyber security issues and
their impacts on business operations. Your group is required to critically evaluate three recent cyber
security case studies and their lessons to business organisations.
Required
Your group is required to conduct a literature search and select three (3) cyber security case studies
that are published between 2014 – 2019. Based on the selected case studies, your group is required
to prepare a written report to cover the following points:
? Description of case company in each case
o General information of the company
o Key business processes of the company
? Cyber security issues covered in each case
o Key cyber security issues identified in each case
o Risks associated with the issues
o Impacts of the issues on case company
? Lessons learnt from each case
o Actions reported in each case to address the identified issues
o Outcomes of the reported actions
o Proposed actions other than the reported ones that could be taken to address the
issues
o Suggestions for preventing the issues in future

 

Q6

Rick advises you that he sold the following assets during the 2019 income year: (a) As previously indicated, Rick owns a number of Australian shares. On 17 September 2018, he purchased 100,000 Cardinal Resources Ltd shares under a contract of purchase for $4,200. Brokerage costs separately incurred on the same date came to $40. Later on 9 June 2019, Rick sold 60,000 of these shares for $3,240. Rick also paid brokerage fees of $20 in relation to the sale on this date. These shares were a non-active asset. Rick did not receive any dividends from these shares during the period of ownership.

Q7

Topic:
Workplaces today are undergoing dramatic changes and the future presents many challenges and
opportunities for both HRM and employees.
Technological change, particularly the development of artificial intelligence (AI) and new generation
robotics, are said to represent a “third wave” of economic development that will displace current jobs and
current employment patterns and will fundamentally impact upon the very fabric of society itself.
Task:
1. Broadly discuss these trends and also discuss their impact at the societal level in 40 to 50 years’ time. Will
society be better or worse overall for most people?

 

Q8

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Q9

Comparison of four key financial institutions: commercial banks, insurance companies,
investment banks and investment funds in Australia from the perspective of a potential
investor who would like to invest into the institutions
Criteria for comparison include: (1) classification (the group of financial institutions it belongs
to); (2) market sector of operation; (3) key business activities; and (4) main source of income.
Organize your group’s comparison in a relevant table. Your group’s research should be
supported by a fact finding of real life examples of a commercial bank, insurance company,
and investment bank and investment fund in Australia. Your group’s discussion on each
example should reflect the above mentioned criteria and the following information: (i) what
is the code of stock listed, (ii) when was the company’s stock was first listed, (iii) what is the
current market capitalization of that stock, (iv) the current total share outstanding, (v) who is
the chairman and who is the CEO of that company, (vi) a graph of five year dividend payment
for each company and (vii) next dividend date. Using ASX and ASIC websites for the fact
finding. Your group is not allowed to choose the cases I have used as examples in this
assignment instruction.

Q10

Week 2

Financial data for Safety Hire as of 30 June 2019 are:

Required:
Prepare an income statement for the month of June and a balance sheet in account format for Safety Hire as at 30 June 2019. (10 marks)

Week 3

On 1 July 2018 Nicole Andreou opened a beauty parlour. The following transactions occurred during the first month of operations (ignore GST).

Use the following account titles and numbers: Cash at Bank, 100; Accounts Receivable, 101; Supplies, 102; Equipment, 103; Loan Payable, 200; Nicole Andreou, Capital, 300; Nicole Andreou, Drawings, 301; Revenue, 400; Rent Expense, 500; Advertising Expense, 501; Insurance Expense, 502; Telephone Expense, 503.

Required:

  1. a) Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
  2. b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance

format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)

  1. c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Week 4

The financial year for Drip Dry Cleaning Services ends on 30 June. Using the following information, make the necessary adjusting entries at year-end. Ignore GST. Ignore Narration.

  1. On 15 February, Danielle Drip’s business borrowed $16 000 from Northern Bank at8% interest. The principal and interest are payable on 15 August.
  2. Drip Dry Cleaning Services purchased a 1-year insurance policy on 1 March of the current year for $660. A 3-year policy was purchased on 1 November of the previous year for $2700. Both purchases were recorded by debiting Prepaid Insurance.
  3. The business has two part-time employees who each earn $220 a day. They both worked the last 3 days in June for which they have not yet been paid.
  4. On 1 June, the Highup Hotel paid the business $2100 in advance for doing their dry cleaning for the next 3 months. This was recorded by a credit to Unearned Dry Cleaning Revenue.
  5. The supplies account had a $280 debit balance on 1 July. Supplies of $1560 were purchased during the year and $190 of supplies are on hand as at 30 June.

Required:
Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at 30 June. (10 marks)

Date Accounts Ref Debit Credit

Week 5

The adjusted trial balance columns in the worksheet of Elliot Painting Services are as follows.

Adjusted trial balance Income statement Balance sheet
Debit Credit Debit Credit Debit Credit

Account Cash at Bank

Accounts Receivable Prepaid Rent
Office Supplies Equipment

Accum. Depr. Equip’tAccounts Payable Salaries Payable Unearned Revenue F. Elliot, Capital

  1. Elliot, Drawings Painting Revenue Salaries Expense
    Rent Expense Depreciation Expense Telephone Expense Office Supplies Used Sundry Expenses

Profit for the period

1 230 75 600 1 800 8 320 160 000

22 000

106 000 6 050 8 040 4 020 10 080 9 200 $412 340

ELLIOT PAINTING SERVICES

Worksheet (Partial)
for the year ended 30 June 2019

25 000 54 000 8 760 3 430 101 500

219 650

$412 340

Required:

  1. a) Complete the worksheet. (6 marks)
  2. b) Prepare the closing entries necessary at 30 June 2019, assuming that this date is the end of the

entity’s accounting period.(4 marks)

 

Q11

Week 2

Financial data for Safety Hire as of 30 June 2019 are:

Required:
Prepare an income statement for the month of June and a balance sheet in account format for Safety Hire as at 30 June 2019. (10 marks)

Week 3

On 1 July 2018 Nicole Andreou opened a beauty parlour. The following transactions occurred during the first month of operations (ignore GST).

Use the following account titles and numbers: Cash at Bank, 100; Accounts Receivable, 101; Supplies, 102; Equipment, 103; Loan Payable, 200; Nicole Andreou, Capital, 300; Nicole Andreou, Drawings, 301; Revenue, 400; Rent Expense, 500; Advertising Expense, 501; Insurance Expense, 502; Telephone Expense, 503.

Required:

  1. a) Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
  2. b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance

format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)

  1. c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Week 4

The financial year for Drip Dry Cleaning Services ends on 30 June. Using the following information, make the necessary adjusting entries at year-end. Ignore GST. Ignore Narration.

  1. On 15 February, Danielle Drip’s business borrowed $16 000 from Northern Bank at8% interest. The principal and interest are payable on 15 August.
  2. Drip Dry Cleaning Services purchased a 1-year insurance policy on 1 March of the current year for $660. A 3-year policy was purchased on 1 November of the previous year for $2700. Both purchases were recorded by debiting Prepaid Insurance.
  3. The business has two part-time employees who each earn $220 a day. They both worked the last 3 days in June for which they have not yet been paid.
  4. On 1 June, the Highup Hotel paid the business $2100 in advance for doing their dry cleaning for the next 3 months. This was recorded by a credit to Unearned Dry Cleaning Revenue.
  5. The supplies account had a $280 debit balance on 1 July. Supplies of $1560 were purchased during the year and $190 of supplies are on hand as at 30 June.

Required:
Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at 30 June. (10 marks)

Date Accounts Ref Debit Credit

Week 5

The adjusted trial balance columns in the worksheet of Elliot Painting Services are as follows.

Adjusted trial balance Income statement Balance sheet
Debit Credit Debit Credit Debit Credit

Account Cash at Bank

Accounts Receivable Prepaid Rent
Office Supplies Equipment

Accum. Depr. Equip’tAccounts Payable Salaries Payable Unearned Revenue F. Elliot, Capital

  1. Elliot, Drawings Painting Revenue Salaries Expense
    Rent Expense Depreciation Expense Telephone Expense Office Supplies Used Sundry Expenses

 

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1 230 75 600 1 800 8 320 160 000

22 000

106 000 6 050 8 040 4 020 10 080 9 200 $412 340

ELLIOT PAINTING SERVICES

Worksheet (Partial)
for the year ended 30 June 2019

25 000 54 000 8 760 3 430 101 500

219 650

$412 340

Required:

  1. a) Complete the worksheet. (6 marks)
  2. b) Prepare the closing entries necessary at 30 June 2019, assuming that this date is the end of the

entity’s accounting period.(4 marks)

 

Q12

You have been asked by the CEO of a major Australian Bank to advise them on their strategy
formulation for International expansion.
The Bank has developed a reputable brand in the Australian and New Zealand markets and is now
looking for suitable acquisitions and strategic partnerships in foreign markets in order to grow their
business.
The three markets that they are currently assessing for entry are; France, Brazil and South Korea
(ROK). You are required to assess the attractiveness of each of the three markets and put forward
recommendation(s) for future action based on a co-operative discussion in your groups.
By working in co-operative groups, select a well-known Financial Services (FS) multi-national entity
or consult with your tutor and ensure that it has not been selected by another group. Analyse the
selected and approved FS multi-national entity and consider the following factors:
• The differences in the structure of each market identified for entry
• The estimated size and profitability of each market identified for entry
• The potential problems in selling to and supporting the MNE in each market identified for
entry
• The likely future developments in each market identified for entry
• The potential foreign exchange and trade implications
In this report,
• Use sub-headings
• Use appropriate paragraphing
• Reference the sources used with correct in-text citation conventions
• Provide a full list of references at the end using correct referencing conventions
• Check the safe-assign report and modify the submission if it is Medium or High risk.
Your final submission is due Friday of Week 10 at Midnight. Late submissions will attract penalties
at the rate of -5 % per day.

 

Q13

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Q14

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Q15

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

Q16

Your Task
• You are required to prepare a business letter to answer all of the following questions.
• You are also required to prepare a short video presentation (3 to 5 mins) summarising the
key issues you have addressed in your letter.
Assessment Description
Assume that you are a team of graduate accountants working for Pitcher Group Ltd, a public
accounting firm Situated at 346 Gregory Avenue, Melbourne, VIC 3000. The Manager of your
firm, Ms. Michelle Pitcher has asked you to draft a letter in response to an email received from a
client – Mr. Andrew Dixon, the Managing Director of Dixon Ltd, raising several accounting issues
– see the copy of the email on the next page.
The maximum length for the body of the letter is 1,000 words. You should address all the
technical issues/discussion in the letter, followed by a Reference List.
• Part A: Technical component 10% – This mark covers the technical content of your advice
and the explanation on each of the issues, the calculations, and the sources used.
• Part B: Communication Skills – Letter Writing 5% – This mark covers the generic skills of
Letter writing; layout, clear meaning, structure and organisation, appropriate tone and
grammar, spelling, and punctuation, etc. throughout the whole assignment.
• Part C: Communication Skills – Video Presentation 5% – You have to prepare a 3-5 minute
video presentation that will keep the audience engaged; the presentation should be wellrehearsed and supplementary material, such as slides and visual aids must be of a
professional standard.

Q17

Questions: 1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’ budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q18

JIM is considering implementing a 401K program for its employees. The program plan will include the company matching at 50% of the employee’s contribution up to 6% contribution. The Human Resources manager proposing this plan feels it will reduce turnover, improve morale, and provide a competitive edge when recruiting new employees. The HR manager has estimated JIM’s annual contribution to be $300,000 and the savings to be $70,000 in employee turnover costs and improved performance. Management is concerned about this additional cost.

  • Explain the 401 K limits and special treatment for highly-compensated
  • Document how, as a tax analyst, you see this program.
  • Document what, if any, will be the tax implications of this program.

 

Q19

Background
You were recently employed as a management accountant in a listed firm on the ASX. The Managing
Director of your company has formed a small taskforce to explore the possibility of implementing a
Balanced Score Card (BSC) system in the company. You are assigned to work with others in the
taskforce due to your management accounting background.
Required
Your group is required to prepare a report to provide advice on the suitability of the BSC for an ASXlisted company, which is selected by your group. The company selected must be “unique” and it is
NOT allowed to be the same as another group.
NOTE – You must check your selected ASX listed company on shared excel sheet. If the company has
already been selected, then you must go back and select another ASX listed company.

Q20

Case 1: (15 marks) a) Explain the nature of business combination? (5 marks) b) Explain, with examples, the accounting for business combination through direct or indirect acquisitions? (5 marks) c) Please explain the difference between New vs old lease accounting standard (AASB 117 Leases, AASB 16 Leases)? (5 marks) Case 2: (15 marks) On 1 July 2017, Chancellor Ltd purchased 90% of the issued shares of Park Ltd for $800,000. At this date, the fair value of the NCI in Park Ltd was $88,500. The following balances appeared in the records of Park Ltd at this date: Share capital $400,000 General reserve 40,000 Retained earnings 200,000 At 1 July 2017, all the identifiable assets and liabilities of Park Ltd were recorded at fair value except for the following: Carrying amount Fair value Equipment (cost $720,000) Inventories $600,000 320,000 $800,000 400,000 Land 360,000 400,000 The equipment had a remaining useful life of 4 years beyond 1 July 2017, with benefits to be received on a straight-line basis over the period. By 30 June 2018, all the inventories were sold externally. Any adjustments for differences at acquisition date between carrying amounts and fair values are made in the consolidation worksheet. For the year ended 30 June 2019, the following information is available: (a) During the year, Park Ltd sold inventory to Chancellor Ltd for $800,000. The original cost of the inventory was $640,000. At 30 June 2019, Chancellor Ltd had 20% of the inventory on hand. (b) On 1 January 2019, Park Ltd sold an item of equipment to Chancellor Ltd for $20,000 at a before-tax profit of $4,000. Chancellor Ltd treated the asset as part of its inventory and it was still on hand at 30 June 2019. (c) On 1 July 2018, Chancellor Ltd sold some equipment to Park Ltd for $40,000. The carrying amount of the equipment at this date was $24,000. Park Ltd treated the asset as a non-current asset and depreciated it using the straight-line method over 5 years.

Q21

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected
journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better
spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary
organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q22

  1. Reflections on any one topic covered in the unit that interests you the most from this unit. Why was
    it interesting and what had you learnt from it?
    Reflections on your experience as a group member in the group assignment. What went well, what
    did not go to plan and what had you learnt from it?
    3. Reflections on what you had learned from the group assignment. What insights had you gained and
    what had you learned from this experience?

Q23

Mr Dominic Supreme owns a pizza restaurant. However, for public health reasons he has now closed the
restaurant side of the business and is currently operating on a takeaway basis only. He has several employees
working in the kitchen and delivering pizzas. He also owns various assets, including a rental property.
Enzo is Dominic’s head chef and he is provided with the use of a Toyota RAV4 motor car as well as his salary of
$100,000 per year. The car was purchased by Dominic on 1 April 2018 for $55,000. Dominic has not made the
election under section 10 of the Fringe Benefits Tax Assessment Act. Enzo travelled 10,000 km in the car during
the FBT year ended 31 March 2019 and, of this, 4,000 km were for business purposes. Enzo paid for the petrol
for the car and this amounted to $900 for the FBT year ended 31 March 2019. Enzo was not reimbursed for the
petrol.
Maria is Dominic’s store manager and she was given an interest free loan of $500,000 by Dominic on 1 January
2019. Maria used the loan for two purposes: 60% for the purchase of an investment property and 40% to pay
off her home mortgage.
Because of the current health crisis, Dominic pays the private health insurance premiums of all his staff and
these premiums were $55,000 for the year ended 31 March 2019.
Dominic purchased a rental property on 1 July 2018 for $1,200,000. To finance this purchase, he borrowed $1
million from Megabank at an interest rate of 5%. To arrange for the loan Dominic paid a total of $4,000 for a
loan application fee, a valuation fee and legal fees on 1 July 2018. He also paid stamp duty of $52,000 and
$3,200 in legal fees in connection with the purchase of the property.
In August 2018 Dominic fixed the door to the rental property which was broken at the time of his purchase for a
cost of $900. He also purchased new refrigerator for the rental property of $3,000 on 1 November 2018. The
useful life of the refrigerator is 10 years. Dominic replaced the entire roof of the rental property in October
2018 at a cost of $35,000 after it was severely damaged in a hailstorm in September 2018. He used substantially
the same type of material that was there before.
On 10 June 2019 he sold the rental property for $1,500,000. The costs he incurred on the sale were $30,000 for
real estate agent’s commission and $2,000 for advertising. He also sold the refrigerator on 10 June 2019 for
$2,000. With the proceeds of the property sale, Dominic repaid his loan from Megabank on the date of sale.
Dominic purchased some BHP Billiton Limited shares in May 1990 for $50,000 and then sold them in May 2019
for $100,000. He purchased an antique clock for $600 in June 2000 and sold it in June 2019 for $4,000. Dominic
also sold his Mercedes sports car in April 2019 for $60,000 which he purchased in April 2001 for $20,000.
Dominic wants to maximise his deductions at all times. Assume that Dominic can claim GST input tax credits for
the provision of all fringe benefits he provides apart from the loan.
Required:
Part 1 (10 marks)
What fringe benefits tax (FBT) must Dominic pay for the year ended 31 March 2019?
Part 2 (10 marks)
What is Dominic’s net capital gain or net capital loss for the year ended 30 June 2019?
Part 3 (10 marks)
What income tax deductions can Dominic claim for the year ended 30 June 2019?
Please note: Students must give reasons for their answer. This discussion must include an analysis of the
pertinent sections of the relevant legislation, rulings and the relevant case law. If relevant, students must show
calculations.

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Q24

  • “Revaluation of non-current asset doesn’t impact the recognition of future tax associated with that asset”. Evaluate this statement. (4 marks)
    2) Discuss whether revaluation of non-current asset will lead to a deferred tax asset or a tax liability. (2 marks)
    3) In your opinion, comment whether the deferred tax asset and deferred tax liability meet the definition and recognition for an asset and a liability according to the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting. (4 marks)
    Part B (7 marks)
    4) Provide and comment on an example (other than revaluation of non-current assets) that leads to a deferred tax asset in the chosen company. Evaluate its impact on financial position from the perspective of investors. (3 marks)
    5) Provide and comment on an example (other than revaluation of non-current assets) that leads to a deferred tax liability in the chosen company. Evaluate its impact on financial position from the perspective of investors. (3 marks)
    6) In your opinion, are there any deferred tax asset or deferred tax liability that are not recognised in the annual report of the chosen company? (2 marks)
    2 marks will be awarded to effective communication and presentation of this report.

Q25

  1. Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
    b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)
    c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Q26

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries. Assignment questions 1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic. 2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries. 3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

Q28

The unadjusted trial balance of Inaknot Insurance Corp. includes the following account balances at December 31, 2020, its fiscal year-end. Assume all accounts have normal debit or credit balances. Prepaid insurance Truck Unearned commissions revenue Rent earned Advertising expense Salaries expense Supplies expense $ 1,800 18,000 9,000 -0- 5,000 25,000 900 The following information is available: a. A physical count indicates that $200 of supplies have not been used at December 31. b. The prepaid insurance consists of a one-year policy, effective October 1. c. The truck was purchased on July 1; it is expected to have a useful life of 6 years. No depreciation has been recorded during the year. d. The unearned commission revenue at December 31 is $7,500. e. Two days of salary amounting to $200 remain unpaid and unrecorded at December 31; the amounts will be included with the next Friday’s payment, which will be in January. f. Rental revenue of $300 has not yet been received for a sublet of part of a warehouse for 2 weeks during December. g. A $300 bill for December advertising has not yet been recorded. Required: Prepare all necessary adjusting entries at December 31, 2020. General ledger account numbers and descriptions are not necessary.

 

Q29

Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected
journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better
spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary
organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q30

  • Provide a brief background in your own words to the role of a conceptual framework in
    accounting, including benefits of having one, together with problems and criticisms of the
    current (2010) framework. (3 Marks)
    Page 2 Kaplan Business School Assessment Outline
    2) In your own words and in your opinion, what should be the objective of general purpose
    financial reporting? (3 Marks)
    3) In your own words, explain what you understand by the term ‘prudence’. How can an
    ‘asymmetrically prudent’ accounting treatment lead to the understatement of income in
    one period but an overstatement in future periods? (3 Marks)
    4) a) In your own words, explain what is meant by the concept of substance over form.
    You can use examples from within and/or outside accounting to help answer this
    (3 Marks)
    b) Do you agree with the board’s decision to state explicitly that a faithful
    representation represents the substance of an economic phenomenon instead of
    merely representing its legal form? Justify your answer. (3 Marks)

 

Q31

  1. Discuss and provide an analysis of items in the statement of cash flow and identify item(s) which
    relate to the balance sheet.
    Explain the company’s performance based on Earnings per Share (EPS) and provide EPS
    calculations for the last two consecutive periods.
    3. Discuss whether EPS is a useful performance indicator for the company.
    4. Explain how the material movements in the statement of changes in equity is reflected and
    reported in the statement of cash flows.
    5. Discuss the items recorded as Non-Current Liabilities, including the related notes and provide an
    explanation of the material movements of each item.
    6. Based on the capital structure of the company selected, discuss the potential advantages and
    disadvantages of each source of capital.

Q32

The aim of this assignment is to produce a requirements document that captures the
functional requirements for an information system that supports the current needs of
the Holmes Hair management system as defined later in the Case Study Description.
This is a business report and should be written accordingly i.e. directed to the
customer who is “Holmes Hair”. It should reflect your understanding of the tasks
required.
Students will be able to:
2) Evaluate system implementation and post implementation systems
requirements.
3) Identify, critically analyse and investigate the process of exploring problem
areas in a given context
4) Apply analysis and modelling techniques in the context of practical problems,
discuss alternative models and solutions
5) Apply problem solving and object oriented design skills to build a simple
systems prototype
6) Understand the ICT profession in systems analysis and design
8) Review and describe the major legal and ethical issues with respect to
systems analysis and design

 

Q33

A council health inspector threatens to close down a restaurant by issuing a fake health violation
notice if the owner does not make a financial payment to him. If the restaurant owner does not
cooperate, the restaurant cannot be opened for business and the negative publicity will drive
customers away. Faced with the potential economic loss, the owner makes the payment.
Required:
a) What type of fraud is this? (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
b) What controls can be implemented to prevent or detect the fraud? (6 marks, maximum 200
words)
Week 3
How is a credit check in the advanced technology system fundamentally different from a credit check
in the basic technology system? (10 marks, maximum 300 words)

Q34

  1. What are the December 31, 2018, Investment Income and Investment in Clay account balances assuming Adams uses the: ? Equity method. ? Initial value method. 2. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for expenses in its December 31, 2018, consolidated income statement? 3. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for equipment in its December 31, 2018, consolidated balance sheet? 4. What is Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance assuming Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the: ? Equity value method. ? Initial value method. 5. What worksheet adjustment to Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance is required if Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the initial value method? 6. Prepare the worksheet entry to eliminate Clay’s stockholders’ equity. 7. What is consolidated net income for 2018?

 

Q35

  1. What are the December 31, 2018, Investment Income and Investment in Clay account balances assuming Adams uses the: ? Equity method. ? Initial value method. 2. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for expenses in its December 31, 2018, consolidated income statement? 3. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for equipment in its December 31, 2018, consolidated balance sheet? 4. What is Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance assuming Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the: ? Equity value method. ? Initial value method. 5. What worksheet adjustment to Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance is required if Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the initial value method? 6. Prepare the worksheet entry to eliminate Clay’s stockholders’ equity. 7. What is consolidated net income for 2018?

 

Q36

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Q37

Luxurious firm performs its expenditure cycle activities using its integrated ERP system as follows: • Employees in any department can enter purchase requests for items they note as being either out of stock or in small quantity. • Occasionally, special items are ordered that are not regularly kept as part of inventory, from a specialty supplier who will not be used for any regular purchases. In these cases, an accounts payable clerk creates a one-time supplier record. • Each day, employees in the purchasing department process all purchase requests from the prior day. To the extent possible, requests for items available from the same supplier are combined into one larger purchase order in order to obtain volume discounts. Purchasing agents use the Internet to compare prices in order to select suppliers. If an Internet search discovers a potential new supplier, the purchasing agent enters the relevant information in the system, thereby adding the supplier to the approved supplier list. Purchase orders above $10,000 must be approved by the purchasing department manager. Electronic Data Interchange is used to transmit purchase orders to most suppliers, but paper purchase orders are printed and mailed to suppliers who are not Electronic Data Interchange capable. • Receiving department employees have read-only access to outstanding purchase orders. Usually, they check the system to verify existence of a purchase order prior to accepting delivery, but sometimes during rush periods they unload trucks and place the items in a corner of the warehouse where they sit until there is time to use the system to retrieve the relevant purchase order. In such cases, if no purchase order is found, the receiving employee contacts the supplier to arrange for the goods to be returned. • Receiving department employees compare the quantity delivered to the quantity indicated on the purchase order. Whenever a discrepancy is greater than 5%, the receiving employee sends an email to the purchasing department manager. The receiving employee uses an online terminal to enter the quantity received before moving the material to the inventory stores department. Required: Identify weaknesses in Luxurious firm existing expenditure cycle procedures, explain the resulting problems, and suggest as solution.

 

Q38

Question 1
Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

 

Q39

  1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one?B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher educationsystem in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted PeopleSoft,an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records andother important functions. The project was referred to as the Common ManagementSystem (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and itsmanagement took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls.The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community.During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at theentrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the ArtAppreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their membershipcards.At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurercounts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon thetreasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive anauthenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal.The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their systemof internal control over cash admission fees.The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise alteringthe physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However,the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvementefforts.Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review theinternal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement.RequiredIndicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smithshould identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

Q40

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Q41

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

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Q42

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Q43

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

Q44

art A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

Q45

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Q46

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single docu

Q47

  • Prepare a current worksheet to calculate taxable income and the current tax liability as at 30 June 2011, and prepare any necessary journal entry; 2) Prepare a deferred tax worksheet (use the below format in your answer) to determine the deferred tax balances as at 30 June 2011, and prepare any necessary journal entries.
    NB:
    a) Only include accounts that will incur temporary differences between carrying amounts and tax bases, use asset net values to calculate the temporary differences. b) It will be necessary to reconstruct some accounts in order to determine either accounting or tax items.

Q48

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

Q49

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Q50

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

Q52

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Q53

Assessment 2 Assessment Type: Case study report – theory and calculations – individual assessment

Purpose: To allow students to apply the technical knowledge of relevant accounting standards to financial reporting settings. This assessment relates to learning outcomes c, d. Value: 30%

Due Date: Week 9 – 8:00 pm Wednesday of Week 9

Submission: Submission must be made to the Moodle Assignment Link on the KOI Moodle Subject Home Page by 8.00 pm Wednesday of Week 9. A printed copy must be submitted to the Lecturer at the Week 9 Lecture to assist with marking. All assignments must have a signed KOI Assignment Coversheet included with the submission.

Topic: Research Individual Assignment

Task Details: Mags Ltd is an Australian mail-order company. Although the sector in Australia is growing slowly, Mags Ltd has reported significant increases in sales and net income in recent years. While sales increased from $50 million in 2009 to $120 million in 2018, profit increased from $3 million to $12 million over the same period. The stock market and analysts believe that the company’s future is very promising. In early 2019, the company was valued at $350 million, which was three times 2018 sales and 26 times estimated 2019 profit.

Company management and many investors attribute the company’s success to its marketing flair and expertise. Instead of competing on price, Mags Ltd prefers to focus on service and innovation, including: •

free delivery • a free gift with orders over $200.

As a result of such innovations, customers accept prices that are 60% above those of competitors, and Mags maintains a gross profit margin of around 40%.

Nevertheless, some investors have doubts about the company as they are uneasy about certain accounting policies the company has adopted. For example, Mags Ltd capitalises the costs of its direct mailings to prospective customers ($4.2 million at 30 June 2018) and amortises them on a straight-line basis over 3 years. This practice is considered to be questionable as there is no guarantee that customers will be obtained and retained from direct mailings.

In addition to the mailing lists developed by in-house marketing staff, Mags Ltd purchased a customer list from a competitor for $800 000 on 4 July 2019. This list is also recognised as a non-current asset. Mags Ltd estimates that this list will generate sales for at least another 2 years, more likely another 3 years. The company also plans to add names, obtained from a phone survey conducted in August 2019, to the list. These extra names are expected to extend the list’s useful life by another year.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Mags Ltd.’s 2018 statement of financial position also reported $7.5 million of marketing costs as noncurrent assets. If the company had expensed marketing costs as incurred, 2018 net income would have been $10 million instead of the reported $12 million. The concerned investors are uneasy about this capitalisation of marketing costs, as they believe that Mags Ltd.’s marketing practices are relatively easy to replicate. However, Mags Ltd argues that its accounting is appropriate. Marketing costs are amortised at an accelerated rate (55% in year 1, 29% in year 2, and 16% in year 3), based on 25 years’ knowledge and experience of customer purchasing behaviour.

Required: Discuss the requirements under AASB138 / IAS 38 Intangible Assets how Mag Ltd should account for the costs. Provide reasons for your answer in reference to relevant paragraphs of AASB138 / IAS 38.

Research requirements: Students need to support their analysis with reference to relevant material from the text and a minimum of eight (8) suitable, reliable, current and academically acceptable sources – this should include at least 2 peer-reviewed academic journal articles.

Presentation: 2000 + 10% word short report format. Title page, executive summary, table of contents, appropriate headings and sub-headings, recommendations/findings/conclusions, in-text referencing and reference list (Harvard – Anglia style), attachments if relevant. Single spaced, font Times New Roman 12pt, Calibri 11 pt or Arial 10 pt.

Marking Guide:

Interpretation and representation 20%

Calculations 20%

Analysis20%

Assumptions20%

Communication 20%

Total mark will be scaled to a mark out of 30 subject marks.

 

Q54

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small
proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was
agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local.
As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or
undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your
firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy
Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items:
? The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017
? All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement
date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations
? The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018
In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of
assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at
acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced,
but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts.
Required:
Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks
and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections. (10 marks)

 

Q55

QUESTION ONE: Absorption and Variable Costing: Prepare and Reconcile Variable costing Statements
Audiophonics Limited manufactures and sells high-quality and durable ear buds for use with personal electronics that are custom moulded to each customer’s ear. Cost data for the product follows

Q56

  1. Identify each item in the accounting records as either an asset, a liability, or ownership interest
    or Equity (identifying separately the expenses and revenues which contribute to the change in
    the ownership interest).
    b) Prepare a statement of financial position (balance sheet) at 30 June Year 2.
    c) Prepare an income statement (profit and loss statement) for the year ended 30 June Year 2.

Q57

You are required to develop a report to the CEO and Board of the company, identifying the internal control procedures required within the organisation.
You will be required to submit the report following organisational formatting procedures and recommendations to address the internal control requirements for the company.
Your answers are required to be grammatically correct and where there is a report to present it should be completed as a business report.

Q58

Aves Treats, Inc. produces bird seeds. All direct materials used in the production process are added at the beginning of the manufacturing process. Labor and overhead are added evenly thereafter, as each unit is mixed and packaged. Aves Treats uses process costing and had the following unit production information available for the months of June and July: The units remaining in work in process at the end of June were 30% complete. During the month of July, all of the beginning work in process units was completed and the units remaining in work in process at the end of the month were 60% complete. a) Refer to the information above. For the month of June, the number of equivalent units of direct materials produced was: b) Refer to the information above. For the month of June, the number of equivalent units of labor and overhead produced was: c) Refer to the information above. For the month of July, the number of equivalent units of direct materials produced was: d) Refer to the information above. For the month of July, the number of equivalent units of labor and overhead produced was:

Q59

Examine the CAFR. Utilizing the CAFR obtained for Exercise/Problem 1-15, examine the financial statements included in the financial section and answer the following questions. If the CAFR you have obtained does not conform to GAAP, it is recommended that you obtain one that does. a. Government-wide Statements. What are the titles of the two government-wide statements? Are total assets larger for governmental activities or business-type activities? Which function or program has the highest net cost? What kinds of general revenues are available to cover the net cost of governmental activities? Were business-type activities “profitable”? That is, is the excess of revenues over expenses positive? b. Governmental Funds. Does the report state the basis of accounting used for the General Fund? What types of assets and liabilities are included on the governmental funds balance sheet? Is this reporting consistent with the basis of accounting being followed? c. Identify which of the major funds, if applicable, are special revenue funds, debt service funds, capital projects funds, and permanent funds. Are you able to determine which funds are considered nonmajor? (Hint: look for supplementary information.) What fund balance categories are being used? d. Proprietary Funds. List the names of the proprietary fund types included in the financial statements. Do the financial statements provide evidence that all proprietary funds use accrual accounting? e. Fiduciary Funds. List the names of the fiduciary funds included in the fund financial statements. Identify whether each of these is an agency fund, investment trust fund, pension (and other employee benefit) trust fund, or private-purpose trust fund. Do the financial statements provide evidence as to what basis of accounting these funds use? f. Notes to the Financial Statements. Read the notes to the financial statements, so that you can refer to them as needed in subsequent chapters. What significant accounting policies are discussed in the first note? With regard to revenue recognition, how do the notes define the term available for paying current period obligations?

Q60

You have recently joined as a Trainee Accountant at Accountants in Action in the
Huon Valley, with two other Trainee Accountants who are currently studying
accounting at the University of Tasmania. As a part of the training, your manager has
given your team a task of recording the transactions that occurred in a local
producer’s business Green Hills Produce for January 2020.
Your manager informed your team that this business was opened by Mr Johnno Linn,
on the 1st of January 2020 and he is the sole owner of this proprietorship. Green
Hills Produce sells local fresh produce and condiments to local customers. The
manager has supplied you with the following information and the tasks allotted to
your team are provided below.

 

Q61

You have recently joined as a Trainee Accountant at Accountants in Action in the
Huon Valley, with two other Trainee Accountants who are currently studying
accounting at the University of Tasmania. As a part of the training, your manager has
given your team a task of recording the transactions that occurred in a local
producer’s business Green Hills Produce for January 2020.
Your manager informed your team that this business was opened by Mr Johnno Linn,
on the 1st of January 2020 and he is the sole owner of this proprietorship. Green
Hills Produce sells local fresh produce and condiments to local customers. The
manager has supplied you with the following information and the tasks allotted to
your team are provided below.

Q62

  1. Use the high-low method to estimate the cost behaviour for the complex’s electricity costs,
    assuming that the variable costs vary in proportion to the hours of operation. Express the total
    cost behaviour in formula form (Y = a + bx). What is the variable electricity cost per hour of
    operation? (5 marks)
    b) During July, the complex will open for 570 hours. Predict the complex’s total electricity costs for
    July using the cost estimation method employed in above requirement a). (3marks)
    c) What is the main drawback of the high-low method of cost estimation? (2 marks, maximum 150
    words)

Q63

Required
Prepare a report to the managing director of Paradise Industries to evaluate the processes, risks
and internal controls for Paradise Industries’ expenditure and conversion cycle. In your report, you
need to include the following items:
? System flow chart of expenditure cycle
? System flow chart of conversion cycle
? Analysis of physical internal control weaknesses in the expenditure cycle
? Analysis of the risks exist in the conversion cycle and the changes needed to reduce the risks
Assignment Structure
The report should include the following components:
? Assignment cover page clearly stating your name and student number
? A brief introduction of what the report is about
? Body of the report with appropriate section headings
? Conclusion
? List of references

Q64

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document

Q65

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Explain what a computer program written in Python does and translate a given algorithm into
Python code.
2. Identify and fix the various types of coding errors i.e. syntax, logical, and run-time.
3. Apply standard algorithms and libraries and import built-in modules to solve a given problem.
4. Understand and explain the basic programming constructs.
5. Understand the ICT profession and professional expectations of computer programming.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions for
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.

Q66

Assessment Task – Tutorial Questions Assignment 1Unit Code: HA3021Unit Name: Corporations LawAssignment: Tutorial Questions Assignment 1Due: 11:30pm 15thMay 2020Weighting: 25%Total Assignment Marks: 50 MarksPurpose: This assignment is designed to assess your level of knowledge of the key topics covered in this unitUnit Learning Outcomes Assessed:1. Discuss the foundations of Australian Corporations Law and constitutional aspects and administration.2. Apply legal principles to real case situations in the context of different types of business organizations and the legal issues that arise in day to day business.3. Analyse the incorporation process and characteristics of corporate legal personality.4. Demonstrate the legal principles for managing a company in particular the company’srelationship with others.5. Critically analyse the concept of corporate internal rules and management.6. Analyse the role and responsibility of directors and members in the management of thecompany.7. Analyse the interaction between members’ rights, directors’ duties and corporategovernance.8. Analyse the procedures regarding external administration and winding up.9. Identify and analyse legal issues arising from the administration of a company.Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard. The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.1
The questions to be answered are:Week 1 Question (10 marks)Differentiate between a sole trader, company and a partnership. Support your answer to this byciting the advantages and disadvantages of using each business structure. (10 marks) Week 2 Question (10 marks)Teresa and Alison operate a partnership making and selling jam. A reduced supply of fruit has resulted in a fall in sales. Alison purchased a large supply of glass jars that must be paid for within 30 days. The funds are not available to meet this expense. Teresa was not consulted when Alison bought the jars and insists that Alison pay for them out of her personal savings.What do you think will be the legal consequences here resulting from Teresa’s decision not to consult Alison? (10 marks)Week 3 Question (10 marks)Provide a case summary of the case “Salomon v Salomon & Co Ltd [1897]” using the IRAC method. What was the significance of this case law in relation to the legal concept of separate legal entity? (10 marks)Week 4 Question (10 marks)When can the corporate veil be lifted under the Corporations Act to make directors liable forcorporate debts? (10 marks)Week 5 Question (10 marks)Provide a case summary of the case “Lee v Lee’s Air Farming Ltd [1960] UKPC 33” using the IRAC method. What legal principle came out of this case in relation to why the court lifted the corporate veil in this case? (10 marks)Submission Directions:The assignment has to be submitted via Blackboard. Each student will be permitted one submissionto Blackboard only. Each student needs to ensure that the document submitted is the correct one.2
Academic IntegrityAcademic honesty is highly valued at Holmes Institute. Students must always submit work that represents their original words or ideas. If any words or ideas used in a class posting or assignment submission do not represent the student’s original words or ideas, the student must cite all relevant sources and make clear the extent to which such sources were used. Written assignments that include material similar to course reading materials or other sources should include a citation including source, author, and page number.In addition, written assignments that are similar or identical to those of another student in the class is also a violation of the Holmes Institute’s Academic Conduct and Integrity Policy. The consequence for a violation of this policy can incur a range of penalties varying from a 50% penalty through to suspension of enrolment. The penalty would be dependent on the extent of academic misconduct and the student’s history of academic misconduct issues. All assessments will be automatically submitted to Safe-Assign to assess their originality.Further Information:For further information and additional learning resources, students should refer to their Discussion Board for the unit.3

Q68

BAO3306 : AUDITING – “Document to Assist the Audit Manager in Planning an Audit.” – Auditing Assignment – Victoria University

On successful completion of this unit, students should be able to:

– Develop an appreciation of the reasons for the existence of a societal demand for audit and assurance services, and an understanding of the current environment in which auditors operate, including legal, ethical and professional aspects.
– Demonstrate an understanding of the key auditing principles, concepts and practices used by auditors to gather evidence and make judgments in order to form an audit opinion on the fair presentation of financial reports
– Develop an insight into the audit of specific transactions and account balances
– Be aware of the auditor’s responsibility in completing an audit
– Obtain basis understanding of other types of assurance engagement

 

Q69

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items: • The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017 • All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations • The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018 In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts. Required: Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections.(220 words)

Q70

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary
company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million,
on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small
proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its
incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to
access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm
provide assurance on the following three items:
• The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017
• All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to
ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations
• The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018
In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that
they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very
important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less
work done on the previous year’s management accounts.
Required:
Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and
the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections. (10 marks)

Q71

You are required to develop a report to the CEO and Board of the company, identifying the internal control procedures required within the organisation.
You will be required to submit the report following organisational formatting procedures and recommendations to address the internal control requirements for the company.
Your answers are required to be grammatically correct and where there is a report to present it should be completed as a business report.

Q72

  1. On August 20,2013, Bella Andres, CPA and partner, was offered and accepted the engagement to audit the annual financial statements of Japee Corporation for the fiscal and calendar years ended December 31, 2018. The audit began on September 15,2018, and ended on March 7, 2019. Japee Corporation is regulated by the SEC. Bella served as controller of Japee Corporation from November 5, 20014 until January 10, 2018, at which time she terminated her employment with Japee. Bella owned a material amount of Japee Corporation’s common stock from November 5, 2004 until August 15, 2018, at which time she sold the stock. Violation of Codes of Ethics? Why? 2. Tan and Canada, a firm of certified public accountants, audited the accounts of Sterling Skins, Inc., a corporation that imports and deals in fine furs. Upon completion of the examination, the auditors supplied Sterling Skins with twenty copies of the certified statement of financial statement. The firm knew in a general way that Sterling wanted that number of copies of the auditor’s report to furnish to banks and other potential lenders. The statement of financial position I question was in error by approximately P800,000. Instead of having a P600,000 net worth, the corporation was insolvent. The management of Sterling Skins had doctored the books to avoid bankruptcy. The assets had been overstated by P500,000 of fictitious and nonexisting accounts receivable and P300,000 of nonexisting skins listed as inventory when in fact Sterling Skins had only empty boxes. The audit failed to detect these fraudulent entries. JC, relying on the certified statement of financial position loaned Sterling Skins P200,000. They seek to recover their loss from Tan and Canada. Required: State whether each of the following is true or false and give your reasons: a. If JC alleges and proves negligence on the part of Tan and Canada he will be able to recover his loss. b. If JC alleges and proves constructive fraud (that is, gross negligence on the part of Tan and Canada) he will be able to recover his loss. c. JC does not have a contract with Tan and Canada. d. Unless actual fraud on the part of Tan and Canada could be shown, JC could not recover. e. JC is a third-party beneficiary of the contract Tan and Canada made with Sterling Skins.

Q73

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.

 

Q74

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items: • The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017 • All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations • The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018 In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts. Required: Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections.(220 words)

Q75

Using the information provided about Noyers Ltd and appropriate research regarding the
industry and other economic factors:
a. Assess the key business risks of Noyers Ltd from the information available to you (at
least six (6) need to be identified);
b. Explain the implications of each risk identified on the financial statements;
c. Identify the related financial statement accounts at risk.
d. Identify the related management assertion (refer to ASA 315) most at risk for each
financial statement account identified as being at risk.
e. Justify your identification of the management assertion at risk.
Use the spreadsheet template tab Task 1 in order to complete this task.
Task 2
Materiality assessment requires an auditor to make judgements about the size of
misstatements that would be considered ‘material’ to the users of the financial statements.
The auditor will design procedures in order to identify and correct errors or irregularities that
would have a material effect on the financial report and affect the decision making of the
users of the financial report. Materiality is used in determining audit procedures, sample
selections, and evaluating differences from client records to audit results. It is the maximum
amount of misstatement, individually or in aggregate, that can be accepted in the financial
report.
In selecting the base figure to be used to calculate materiality, an auditor should consider the
key drivers of the business. They should ask, ‘What are the end users (i.e. shareholders, banks
etc.) of the accounts going to be looking at?’ For example, will shareholders be interested in
profit figures that can be used to pay dividends and increase share price?
S & A Partners’ audit methodology dictates that one planning materiality (PM) amount is to
be used for the financial report as a whole (that is, rather than separate PMs for the income
statement and the balance sheet). The basis selected is the one determined to be the key
driver of the business.

 

Q76

Learning Objective Understand and perform a purchasing process cycle
Scenario In order to process a complete purchasing process you will take on different roles within the GBI company, e.g. purchasing agent, warehouse worker, accounting clerk. Overall, you will be working in the Materials Management (MM) and the Financial Accounting (FI) departments.

 

Q77

  1. On August 20,2013, Bella Andres, CPA and partner, was offered and accepted the engagement to audit the annual financial statements of Japee Corporation for the fiscal and calendar years ended December 31, 2018. The audit began on September 15,2018, and ended on March 7, 2019. Japee Corporation is regulated by the SEC. Bella served as controller of Japee Corporation from November 5, 20014 until January 10, 2018, at which time she terminated her employment with Japee. Bella owned a material amount of Japee Corporation’s common stock from November 5, 2004 until August 15, 2018, at which time she sold the stock. Violation of Codes of Ethics? Why? 2. Tan and Canada, a firm of certified public accountants, audited the accounts of Sterling Skins, Inc., a corporation that imports and deals in fine furs. Upon completion of the examination, the auditors supplied Sterling Skins with twenty copies of the certified statement of financial statement. The firm knew in a general way that Sterling wanted that number of copies of the auditor’s report to furnish to banks and other potential lenders. The statement of financial position I question was in error by approximately P800,000. Instead of having a P600,000 net worth, the corporation was insolvent. The management of Sterling Skins had doctored the books to avoid bankruptcy. The assets had been overstated by P500,000 of fictitious and nonexisting accounts receivable and P300,000 of nonexisting skins listed as inventory when in fact Sterling Skins had only empty boxes. The audit failed to detect these fraudulent entries. JC, relying on the certified statement of financial position loaned Sterling Skins P200,000. They seek to recover their loss from Tan and Canada. Required: State whether each of the following is true or false and give your reasons: a. If JC alleges and proves negligence on the part of Tan and Canada he will be able to recover his loss. b. If JC alleges and proves constructive fraud (that is, gross negligence on the part of Tan and Canada) he will be able to recover his loss. c. JC does not have a contract with Tan and Canada. d. Unless actual fraud on the part of Tan and Canada could be shown, JC could not recover. e. JC is a third-party beneficiary of the contract Tan and Canada made with Sterling Skins.

 

Q78

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

 

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

 

 

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Question 1:     Mathematics

 

Math 111 – S2020 –  Covering Week 14 –  Weekly Assignment

Directions:  Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work.  Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so.   All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering.   Your final answer must be circled.

 

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem.  Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

 

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between  and its antiderivative.  Give examples.

 

 

(5 points) Using the knowledge that  , explain why the indefinite integral must have the  “added at the end.  Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

 

Two students are studying on campus.  Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library.  Zach texts John that he’s hungry.  John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer.  Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time.  Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

 

Given Zach travels with the velocity      and John travels with velocity    where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach.  In other words,  and

 

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer?  How long does it take John to get there?

 

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( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by  and the x-axis.  Determine the area bound by by  and the x-axis.

 

 

 

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

 

 

(  6 points)

  1. Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
  2. Evaluate the definite integral    to find the area bound by  and the x-axis.
  3. Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

 

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9  points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at .  Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)?   If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

 

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)?  If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

For  on the interval   using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval.  Which will overestimate?  Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values.  You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

 

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

 

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Question 2:     Finance

 

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

 

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

  • (iii)  Provide for auditors remuneration
  • (iv)  Income tax expense
  • (v)  Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
  • (vi)  Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

  • (vii)  Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
  • (viii)  Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
  • (ix)  On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

  • (a)  Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
    (21 Marks)
  • (b)  Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
    (4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

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Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

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Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

  1. a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
    b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

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Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

 

Who can write an admission essay for my new college

Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

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Question 3:     Mathematics

 

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
A 95% confidence interval with
A. 2.262
B. 2.861
C. 1.671
D. 2.045
E. 2.571
F. 2.205
G. 1.665

 

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

.

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About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best).  For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

 

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications.  State the null and alternative hypothesis.

 

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better.  State the null and alternative hypotheses.

 

 

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For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

 

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

 

 

 

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

 

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

 

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A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

 

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

a. Type I Error
b. Type II Error
c. We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
d. We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

 

The critical value at 90% confidence is
Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
The value of 1-P should be set equal to
The organization must select an SRS of at least
A. 1.645
B. 0.50
C. 0.50
D. 423
E. 1.96
F. 1.976
G. .25
H. .75
I. 466
J. 1692

 

 

Question 4:     Chemistry

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

 

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

 

 

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

 

  • The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

 

Temperature of Air (oC)

(x-axis)

Volume of Air (mL)

(y-axis)

100 140
20 110
4 105

 

 

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________oC

 

 

  • Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

 

Answer:

 

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  • Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

 

Answer:

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CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

 

 

1.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

 

2.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

 

3.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

 

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

 

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Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t1 vs. v1, t2 vs. v2 and t3 vs.v3). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

 

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

Temperature (°C) Volume of Water (mL) Volume of Air (mL)

(Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)

Part 1

(t1, v1)

Part 2

(t2, v2)

Part 3

(t3, v3)

 

Temperature of Boiling water:

 

Total Volume of Flask:

 

 

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

 

 

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

 

Absolute Zero: _____________ oC

 

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Question 5:     Other

 

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

 

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

  • Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
  • Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

  • Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
  • Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
  • Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted.   While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

  • Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
  • Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
  • Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
  • Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
  • Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

  • Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
  • Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
  • Major divisions are clear visually.
  • All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

  • No misspellings or typos are present.
  • Writer uses complete sentences.
  • Work is writer’s original text.
  • Grammar and punctuation are correct

 

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Question 6:     History

 

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

 

Question 7:     Law

 

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

 

 

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

 

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus.  You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

 

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

 

 

 

I.

 

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

 

 

 

II.

 

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female.  In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination.  Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

 

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.  The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City.  The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

 

 

III.

 

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram.  Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

 

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

 

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Question 8:     Computer Science

 

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

 

Question 9:     General

 

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

 

A                                  B                                               C

Adversity            Beliefs About A             Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events)            (Our thoughts)                (how we feel and behave)

 

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

 

Question 10:   Other

 

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

 

 

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity.  I am giving you  quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons.  Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image.   Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core?  (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms: aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different.  Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life?  Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law.  Take all this to the next step.  Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

 

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Part II

 

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

 

 

Question 11:   Religious Studies

 

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

 

Question 12:               Finance

 

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project: €1,800,000 €2,900,000 €2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project: €350,000 €390,000 €280,000

 

  • BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
  • The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
  • The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
  • Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
  • Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
  • Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
  • If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
  • The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
  • Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
  • The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

 

 

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Question 13:   Business Finance

 

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

 

Question 14:               Finance

 

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

  • Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

 

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Question 15:   Engineering

 

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

  1. a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
  2. b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

 

Question 16:               Mathematics

 

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

  1. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
  2. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
  3. What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
  4. Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
  5. Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

 

Question 17:   Computer Science

 

Assignment 3 Question

 

Further Background

 

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

 

Complete the Following

 

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

 

Agile Methodologies

 

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

Plan and Monitor Project

 

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

  • Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
  • Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
  • Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

  • be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
  • be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
  • be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

 

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MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA STANDARDS
High Distinction Distinction Credit Pass Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

6 marks

Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00) Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09) Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49) Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89) Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about

which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.

Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.

Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

6 marks

Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(5.10-6.00)

Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(4.50-5.09)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases.

(3.90-4.49)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors.

(3.00-3.89)

Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong.

Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong.

Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong.

(0.00-2.99)

Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures)

2 Marks

Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49) Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29) Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation

1 Marks

Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00) Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84) Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74) Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64) Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

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REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

 

Question 18:               Business

 

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

 

Question 19:               General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

 

Question 20:               General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 21:               General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 22:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

  1. There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 23:               Statistics

1.

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor.  The participants are divided by gender.  Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

 

2.

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

 

3.

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

 

4.

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

5.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

 

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6.

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

 

7.

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

 

8.

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

 

9

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

 

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

 

 

 

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Question 24:   Music

 

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

 

  1. A)

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

 

  1. B)

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

 

  1. C)

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

 

  1. D)

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

 

  1. A)

They taught themselves.

 

  1. B)

They learned in school.

 

  1. C)

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

 

  1. D)

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

 

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

 

  1. A)

None of the above

 

  1. B)

Machismo

 

  1. C)

It was difficult for them to learn the music

 

  1. D)

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

 

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

 

  1. A)

immigration

 

  1. B)

drug dealing

 

  1. C)

social diseases

 

  1. D)

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

 

  1. A)

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

 

  1. B)

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

 

  1. C)

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

 

  1. D)

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

 

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

 

  1. Form

 

  1. Texture

 

  1. Pitch

 

  1. Timbre

 

4.Rhythm

1.

Volume and articulation of sounds

2.

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

3.

Frequency of the tone

4.

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

5.

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

6.

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

 

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

  1. Refers to the dancer him/herself

 

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

 

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

 

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

1.

Body

2.

Time

3.

Space

4.

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

 

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

 

. Idiophones

 

. Chordophones

 

1.Aerophones

 

Vibrations of air columns

 

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

 

Vibrations of strings

 

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

 

  1. A)

A piano solo

 

  1. B)

An opera

 

  1. C)

An open drum circle

 

  1. D)

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

 

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

 

  1. A)

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

 

  1. B)

the sung farewell in a corrido.

 

  1. C)

a statement of protest in popular song.

 

  1. D)

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

 

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

 

  1. A)

Diaspora

 

  1. B)

Essentialization

 

  1. C)

Stereotype

 

  1. D)

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

 

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

 

  1. A)

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

 

  1. B)

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

 

  1. C)

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

 

  1. D)

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

 

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

 

  1. A)

Triple meter

 

  1. B)

Compound meter

 

  1. C)

Huapango

 

  1. D)

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

 

  1. A)

Tecnobanda

 

  1. B)

Quebredita

 

  1. C)

Chicken scratch

 

  1. D)

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

 

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

 

  1. A)

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

 

  1. B)

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

 

  1. C)

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

 

  1. D)

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

 

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

 

  1. A)

Gloría Rios

 

  1. B)

Amparo Ochoa

 

  1. C)

Judith Reyes

 

  1. D)

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

 

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

 

  1. A)

Emilio Zapata

 

  1. B)

Jorge Negrete

 

  1. C)

Agustín Lara

 

  1. D)

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

 

  1. A)

Idiophone

 

  1. B)

Membranophone

 

  1. C)

Aerophone

 

  1. D)

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

 

  1. A)

Bajo sexto

 

  1. B)

Mandolin

 

  1. C)

Guitarrón

 

  1. D)

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

 

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

 

  1. A)

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

 

  1. B)

giving space to women composers.

 

  1. C)

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

 

  1. D)

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

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Question 21 options:

 

  1. A)

Kunqu

 

  1. B)

Zarzuela

 

  1. C)

Opera

 

  1. D)

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

 

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

 

  1. A)

Zapateado

 

  1. B)

Ceili

 

  1. C)

Baile

 

  1. D)

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

 

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

 

  1. A)

May 5th.

 

  1. B)

April 15th.

 

  1. C)

September 16th.

 

  1. D)

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

 

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

 

  1. A)

Music, verse, and instrumentation

 

  1. B)

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

 

  1. C)

Music, verse, and choreography

 

  1. D)

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

 

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 26 (1 point)

 

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 27 (1 point)

 

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 28 (1 point)

 

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 29 (1 point)

 

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 31 (1 point)

 

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 32 (1 point)

 

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 33 (1 point)

 

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 34 (1 point)

 

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 35 (1 point)

 

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 37 (1 point)

 

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 38 (1 point)

 

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 39 (1 point)

 

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 25:               Business

 

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled.  For example:

  • What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
  • How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
  • Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

  • Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
  • Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
  • Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
  • Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
  • Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

 

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Question 26:               Business

 

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

 

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Question 27:               Business

 


For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
  2. Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
  3. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

 

Question 28:               Economics

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

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  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

 

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

 

  • Question 10

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 3

10 out of 10 points

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

 

 

  • Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

 

  • Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

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If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

 

 

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

 

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Question 29:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

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If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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Question 30:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Question 31:               Psychology

 

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

 

Grogginess

 

Blurred vision

 

Headaches

 

Dryness of the mouth

 

  1. The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

 

transfer information into long-term memory.

 

remember significant events from the distant past.

 

perform basic mathematical calculations.

 

remember one’s own name.

 

  1. One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

 

is generally reversible

 

is not reversible

 

involves a slow increase in symptoms

 

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

  1. Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

 

can result from short term use

 

can result from low doses

 

occurs in less than 2% of patients

 

may often be irreversible

  1. Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

 

A familiar person is actually a double.

 

You are a famous or important person.

 

People are out to get you.

 

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

 

  1.  Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
  2. Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

 

The rights of mentally ill individuals

 

The rights of society to be protected

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

 

NGRI

 

GBMI

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

 

schizotypal personality disorder

 

schizoaffective disorder

 

schizophreniform disorder

 

brief psychotic disorder

  1. One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

 

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

 

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

 

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

 

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

  1. Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

 

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

 

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

 

both of these statements are correct

 

neither of these statements are correct

  1. Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

 

children tend to outgrow ADHD

 

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

 

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

 

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

  1. Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

 

restricted behavior pattern

 

social impairment

 

ritualistic behavior

 

maintenance of sameness

  1. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

 

an anxiety disorder

 

a mood disorder

 

a split personality

 

obsessive-compulsive disorder

  1. The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

 

careless mistakes

 

fidgeting

 

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

 

all of these

  1. If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

 

head trauma

 

Parkinson’s disease

 

Huntington’s disease

 

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Alzheimer’s disease

  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

 

Disorganized speech

 

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

 

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

 

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

  1. According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

 

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

 

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

 

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

 

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

  1. Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

 

psychological testing

 

mental status exam

 

autopsy

 

reported observations of the patient by family members

  1. Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
  2. The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

 

hallucinations

 

delusions

 

both a and b

 

neither a nor b

  1. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

 

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

 

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

 

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

 

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

  1. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

 

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dementia

 

Alzheimer’s

 

delirium

 

amnesic disorder

  1. In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

 

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

 

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

 

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

 

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

  1. If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

 

hallucinations.

 

delusions.

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

 

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

 

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

 

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

 

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

 

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

 

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

 

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

 

None of the above

  1. Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

 

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

 

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

 

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

 

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

 

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

 

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

 

None of these

  1. The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

 

is based on well controlled studies

 

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

 

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

 

has no scientific evidence

 

 

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  1. Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

 

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

 

stimulant medication

 

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

 

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

  1. The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

 

over-involvement

 

criticism

 

emotional distance

 

Hostility

  1. Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

 

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

 

have a genetic component

 

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

 

are unique to children

  1. Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

 

at birth

 

by age one

 

by age three

 

by teen years

  1. At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

 

jealous

 

erotomanic

 

somatic

 

persecutory

  1. The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

 

variable home structure

 

 

unshared environment

 

 

environmental phenomenon

 

 

unique perceptive interpretation

 

 

 

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  1. Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

 

 

 

Question 32:   Psychology

 

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

 

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

 

the development of primary sex characteristics

 

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

 

 

 

.

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

 

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

 

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

 

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

 

hypothalamus

 

pituitary gland

 

thyroid hormones

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

 

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

 

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

 

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

 

epiphyses.

 

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

 

estrogens

 

androgens

 

thyroid glands

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

 

infants.

 

toddlers.

 

elementary schoolchildren.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

 

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

 

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

 

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

 

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

 

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

 

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

 

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

 

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

 

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

 

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

 

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

 

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

 

greater in girls than boys.

 

about the same in both genders.

 

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

 

Lilly, someone who began dating early

 

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

 

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

 

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

 

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

 

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

 

body fat.

 

hormones.

 

diet and exercise.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

 

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

 

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

 

sex differences in body fat.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

 

appearance of facial hair

 

growth of testes and scrotum

 

growth of penis

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

 

genetically inherited.

 

often determined culturally.

 

a major embarrassment for most boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

 

underarm hair.

 

menarche.

 

acne.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

 

androgens only; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; testes

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

 

regular ovulation

 

development of the nipples of the breasts

 

growth of pubic hair

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

 

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

 

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

 

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

 

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

 

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

 

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

 

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

 

nutritional deficiencies

 

excessive exercise

 

All of the above

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

 

genetic factors.

 

environmental factors.

 

None of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

 

good nutrition

 

family conflict

 

peer pressure

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

 

her most stressful days of the month

 

days she feels most sexually aroused

 

her biological sister living in a different city

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

 

endocrine trend.

 

menarche trend.

 

secular trend.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

 

secular trend.

 

longitudinal trend.

 

physiologic trend.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

 

sanitation.

 

infectious diseases.

 

genetics.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

 

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

 

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

 

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

 

cross-sectional

 

cross-sequential

 

secular

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

 

cross-sectional study.

 

cross-sequential study.

 

correlational study.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

 

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

 

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

 

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

 

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

 

early maturation

 

stressful life events

 

the delayed phase preference

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

 

family relationships.

 

nutrition.

 

activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

 

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

 

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

 

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

longitudinal design.

 

adolescent growth spurt.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

 

mood fluctuations throughout the day

 

television, computers, and artificial light sources

 

early school starting times

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

 

school should be held year-round.

 

school should begin later in the morning.

 

school should begin earlier in the morning.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

 

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

 

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

 

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

 

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

 

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

 

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

 

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

 

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

 

less likely to be depressed.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

 

Alison, who is a late mature

 

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

 

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

 

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

 

when the girl reaches menarche early

 

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

 

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

 

 

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A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

 

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

 

do better in school.

 

be ostracized by their classmates.

 

get along with their parents.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

 

greater popularity

 

a more positive self-concept

 

greater confidence in one’s self

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

 

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

 

experiment with drugs and alcohol

 

All of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

 

often expected to be more mature than they are.

 

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

 

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

 

more intellectual curiosity.

 

greater exploratory behavior.

 

higher levels of social initiative.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

 

less frequent temper tantrums

 

less depression

 

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

 

being less popular, especially with boys

 

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

 

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

 

have a more negative self-image.

 

succeed in school.

 

perceive themselves as attractive.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

 

the developmental readiness hypothesis

 

the maturational deviance hypothesis

 

genetic makeup

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

 

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

 

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

 

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

 

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

 

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

 

All of the above.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

 

early; late

 

late; late

 

early; early

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

 

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

 

delayed phase preference

 

secular trend

 

feedback loop

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

 

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

 

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

 

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

 

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

 

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

 

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing White boys

 

early-maturing White girls

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

 

 

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decreases from childhood to adolescence.

 

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

 

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

 

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

normal adolescent eating patterns.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

 

depression

 

alcohol and tobacco use

 

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder

 

obesity.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder.

 

deprivation syndrome.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

obesity nervosa.

 

purging.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

 

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

 

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

 

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

 

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

 

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

 

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

 

to be physically inactive.

 

suffer from chronic illness.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

 

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

 

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

 

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

 

chronic illness.

 

cardiovascular disease.

 

risky behaviors.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

 

suicide

 

homicide

 

cancer

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

 

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

 

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

 

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

 

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

 

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

 

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

 

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

 

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

 

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

 

Hispanic females

 

White females

 

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

 

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

 

whether biologic

 

 

 

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Question 33:   Education

 

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

 

 

Question 34:               Health Care

 

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 35:               Health Care

 

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

 

Question 36:               Health Care

 

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

 

 

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

 

 

 

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

 

 

 

 

  • Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

 

 

 

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  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

 

 

 

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

 

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

 

 

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

 

 

 

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  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

 

 

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

 

 

 

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  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

 

 

 

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

 

 

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

 

 

 

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

 

 

 

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

 

 

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

 

 

 

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

 

 

 

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

 

 

 

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

 

 

 

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  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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 Question 37:  Other

 

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

  • ·  Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
  • ·  Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

  • ·  Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
  • ·  Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
  • ·  Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

  • ·  Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
  • ·  Custom Tab Stops
  • ·  Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

  • ·  Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
  • ·  Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

  • ·  Custom Margins
  • ·  WordArt
  • ·  Paragraph Shading
  • ·  Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
  • ·  Insert and format an image
  • ·  A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
  • ·  Columns

Submission:

  • ·  Print your document
  • ·  Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.
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  •  Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score Item 12 8 4 0
Content Content is well chosen and well written Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written Very little relevant content is included in the resume
Overall Look Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
Header/Footer Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document. Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer Content is not included in the header or footer
Tab Stops Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable Custom tab stops make the content less readable Custom tab stops are not applied
Styles Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Styles make the content less readable Styles are not applied
Font Choices Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Font choices make the content less readable Custom fonts and font styles are not included
Paragraph and Line Spacing Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable Custom spacing makes the content less readable Custom spacing is not included
Other Features Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism Did not use any other features

 

 

 

 

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Question 38:               Biology

 

 

 

 

  1. Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

 

 

 

  1. Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

 

________________________

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE?
  2. An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

  1. If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

  1. Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
  2. All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

 

 

  1. Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
  2. BB X Bb
  3. Bb x bb
  4. BB X bb
  5. Bb x Bb

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
  2. Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
  3. Because both parents passed on white alleles

 

 

 

 

  1. In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
  2. male with
  3. male without
  4. female with
  5. female without

 

 

 

14   The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

 

What is the name of this graphic device?

 

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

 

 

 

  1. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

 

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

 

 

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

 

 

 

 

  1. When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

 

 

 

  1. Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

 

 

 

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  1. A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

 

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

 

 

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’.  The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

 

 

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

 

 

 

 

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Question 39:               Biology

 

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

  • Why study primates?
  • What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

  • What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

  • Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

  • How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
  • Why do primates have long growth and development?
  • What are the primate residence patterns?
  • What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
  • What is the importance of grooming?
  • How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

o

  • Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
  • What is the basic primate social unit?
  • How do primates communicate?
  • What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

  • Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
  • Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

  • Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

  • Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

  • Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
  • What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

  • What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
  • How do primates acquire food?
  • How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

    • What is a hominin?
    • Why did hominins emerge?
    • Patchy Forest Hypothesis
    • Provisioning Hypothesis
    • What is bipedalism?
    • What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?
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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

  • What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
  • What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

  • What is honing and non-honing chewing?
  • What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
  • What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

  • For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

2

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

  • Homo hablis
    o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

  • Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

  • Homo naledi
  • Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

 

 

 

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  • What are archaic Homo sapiens?
  • Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

  • Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
    o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

3

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

 

Australopithecines (robust) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

 

Homo Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

4

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

5

 

 

Question 40:               Finance

 

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

 

 

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Question 41:               Finance

 

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

 

 

 

 

Question 1:     Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

 

Substance abuse

  1. Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
  2. Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
    B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
    C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
    D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
  3. Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
  4. Compensation
    B. Denial
    C. Suppression
    D. Undoing
  5. Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
  6. Alcohol
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Heroin
    D. Marijuana
  7. Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
  8. Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
    B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
    C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
    D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
  9. Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
  10. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
    B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
    C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
    D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
  11. Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
  12. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
    B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
    C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
    D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
  13. The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
  14. Aid in GABA inhibition.
    B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
    C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
    D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
  15. Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
  16. Diazepam
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methadone
  17. Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
  18. Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
    B. Recurrent flashback events
    C. Psychological dependence after initial use
    D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
  19. The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
  20. Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
    B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
    C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
    D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
  21. The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
  22. Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
    B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
    C. Women working in careers outside the home
    D. Women working in the home
  23. Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
  24. Depressant.
    B. Hallucinogenic.
    C. Stimulant.
    D. Tranquilizing.
  25. When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
  26. Acetylcholine excess
    B. Dopamine depletion
    C. Serotonin inhibition
    D. Norepinephrine rebound
  27. Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
  28. Caretaking.
    B. Codependent.
    C. Helpful.
    D. Supportive.
  29. During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
  30. How long have you used substances?
    B. How often do you use substances?
    C. How do you get substances into your body?
    D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
    E. How much of each substance do you use?
    F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
    G. What substances do you use?

2

  1. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
  2. Seizures
    B. Shivering
    C. Anxiety
    D. Chest pain
  3. Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
  4. Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
    B. Control eating impulses
    C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
    D. Eat only three meals per day
  5. A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
  6. Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
    B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
    C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
    D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
  7. Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
  8. Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
    B. Succimer (Chemet)
    C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
    D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

 

 

 

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  1. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
  2. Naloxone (Narcan)
    B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. Magnesium sulfate
    D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
  3. During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
  4. “I trust you not to purge.”
    B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
    C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
    D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
  5. A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
  6. “If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
    B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
    C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
    D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
  7. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
  8. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
    B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
    C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
    D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
  9. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
  10. The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
    B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
    C. The family is poor
    D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
  11. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
  12. They tend to overprotect their children
    B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
    C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
    D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
  13. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
  14. Remaining with the client and staying calm
    B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
    C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
    D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
  15. Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
  16. Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
    B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
    C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
    D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
  17. Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
  18. Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
    B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
    C. Discussing the future with the client
    D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

 

 

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  1. A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
  2. Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
    B. Focus discussions on food and weight
    C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
    D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
  3. Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
  4. Carbonated beverages
    B. Aftershave lotion
    C. Toothpaste
    D. Cheese
  5. Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
  6. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
    B. Provide privacy during meals
    C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
    D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
  7. Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
  8. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
    B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
    C. Use of drugs or alcohol
    D. History of previous victimization
  9. A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
  10. Acetate accumulation
    B. Thiamine deficiency
    C. Triglyceride buildup.
    D. A below-normal serum potassium level
  11. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
  12. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
    B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
    C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
    D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
  13. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
  14. Client’s physical needs
    B. Client’s safety needs
    C. Client’s psychosocial needs
    D. Client’s medical needs
  15. The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
  16. Accept responsibility for own behaviors
    B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
    C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
    D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
  17. A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
  18. Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
    B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
    C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
    D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

 

 

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  1. A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
  2. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
    B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
    C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
    D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
  3. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
  4. A postoperative infection
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Acute sepsis.
    D. Pneumonia.
  5. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
  6. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Opiate withdrawal
    D. Cocaine withdrawal
  7. A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
  8. Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
    B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
    D. Epinephrine.
  9. A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
  10. “I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
    B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
    C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
    D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
  11. Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
  12. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
    B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
    C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
  13. A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
  14. “Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
    B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
    C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
    D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
  15. A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
  16. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
    B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
    C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
    D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
  17. When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
  18. Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
    B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
    D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
  19. A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
  20. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
    B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
    C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
    D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
  21. A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
  22. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
    B. Depression and physical withdrawal
    C. Silence and noncompliance
    D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
  23. A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
  24. “I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
    B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
    C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
    D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
  25. A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
  26. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
    B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
    C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
    D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

 

 

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  1. A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
  2. Coronary artery spasm
    B. Brady arrhythmias
    C. Neurobehavioral deficits
    D. Panic disorder
  3. A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
  4. Begin after seven (7) days
    B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
    C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
    D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
  5. Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
  6. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
    B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
    C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
    D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
  7. A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
  8. Keeping the client restrained in bed
    B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
    C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
    D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
  9. Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
  10. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
    B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
    C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
    D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
  11. Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
  12. One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
    B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
    C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
    D. One who talks about wanting to die
  13. Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
  14. Allergies
    B. Cancer
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. Hepatitis A
  15. Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
  16. The student discusses conflicts over drug use
    B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
    C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
    D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
  17. A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
  18. Clozapine (Clozaril)
    B. Thiothixene (Navane)
    C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
    D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
  19. A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
  20. Al-Anon
    B. Make Today Count
    C. Emotions Anonymous
    D. Alcoholics Anonymous
  21. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
  22. Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
    B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
    C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
    D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
  23. Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
  24. Antisocial personality disorder
    B. Borderline personality disorder
    C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
    D. Narcissistic personality disorder
  25. Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
  26. Has only moderate impulse control
    B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
    C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
    D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
  27. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
  28. Manipulate her husband
    B. Gain control of one part of her life
    C. Commit suicide
    D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

 

 

 

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  1. A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
  2. Psychotherapy
    B. Total abstinence
    C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
    D. Aversion therap

3

Paranoid schizo, schizo

  1. A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
  2. an example of presenting reality.
    B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
    C. focusing on emotional content.
    D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
  3. A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
  4. “I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
    B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
    C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
    D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
  5. A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
  6. reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
    B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
    C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
    D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
  7. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
  8. Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
    B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
    C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
    D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
  9. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
  10. take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
    B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
    C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
    D. go to their room until the voices go away.
  11. A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
  12. Assist the client with feeding.
    B. Assist the client with showering.
    C. Reassure the client about safety.
    D. Encourage socialization with peers.
  13. A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
  14. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  15. The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
  16. has a more predictable onset of action.
    B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
    C. produces fewer drug interactions.
    D. has a longer duration of action.
  17. A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
  18. “Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
    B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
    C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
    D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
  19. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
  20. Risk for violence toward self or others
    B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
    C. Ineffective family coping
    D. Impaired verbal communication
  21. The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
  22. his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
    B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
    C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
    D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

 

 

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  1. Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
  2. decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
    B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
    C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
    D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
  3. A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
  4. Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
    B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
    C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
    D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
  5. Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
  6. Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
    B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
    C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
    D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
  7. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
  8. delusion.
    B. looseness of association.
    C. illusion.
    D. hallucination.
  9. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
  10. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
    C. haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. midazolam (Versed)
  11. A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
  12. “I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
    B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
    C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
    D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
  13. A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
  14. Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
    B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
    C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
    D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
  15. For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
  16. Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
    D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
  17. A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
  18. “This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
    B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
    C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
    D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
  19. Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
  20. Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
    B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
    C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
    D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

 

 

 

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  1. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
  2. Tardive dyskinesia
    B. Dystonia
    C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    D. Akathisia
  3. What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
  4. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    B. haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
    D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
  5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
  6. Aggressive behavior
    B. Paranoid thoughts
    C. Emotional affect
    D. Independence needs
  7. During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
  8. “When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
    B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
    C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
    D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
  9. The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
  10. a false belief about the functioning of the body.
    B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
    C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
    D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
  11. A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
  12. Agranulocytosis
    B. Extrapyramidal effects
    C. Anticholinergic effects
    D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  13. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
  14. Helping the client to participate in social interactions
    B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
    C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
    D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
  15. A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
  16. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  17. A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
  18. Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
    B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
    C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
    D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
  19. Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
  20. Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
    B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
    C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
    D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
  21. The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
  22. Benztropine (Cogentin).
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
    C. propranolol (Inderal).
    D. haloperidol (Haldol).
  23. A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
  24. Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
    B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
    C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
    D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
  25. A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
  26. disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
    B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
    C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
    D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
  27. A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
  28. Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
    B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
    C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
    D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
  29. A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

 

 

 

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Question 2:     Heath Care

 

  1. A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

 

  1. A)           Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
  2. B)            Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
  3. C)            Encourage the client to go to bed early.
  4. D)           Keep the client busy during the day.

 

 

  1. A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

 

  1. A)           Provide ample information.
  2. B)            Support the client when in delusion.
  3. C)            Reduce distracting stimuli.
  4. D)           Offer a large-muscle activity

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

 

  1. A)           Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
  2. B)            Administer lithium before meals.
  3. C)            Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
  4. D)           Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

 

  1. During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

 

  1. A)           Reactive depression
  2. B)            Mania
  3. C)            Psychotic depression
  4. D)           Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

 

  1. A)           Weight gain
  2. B)            Lack of energy
  3. C)            Memory loss
  4. D)           Increased sleep

 

 

  1. What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

 

  1. A)           Hepatotoxicity
  2. B)            Hypertensive crisis
  3. C)            Orthostatic hypotension
  4. D)           Hyperalertness

 

 

  1. Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

 

  1. A)           Euthymia
  2. B)            Dysthymia
  3. C)            Cyclothymia
  4. D)           Psychotic depression

 

 

  1. Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

 

  1. A)           Psychosis
  2. B)            Serotonin syndrome
  3. C)            Hypertensive crisis
  4. D)           Hallucinations

 

 

 

 

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  1. Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Dopamine
  3. C)            GABA
  4. D)           Acetylcholine

 

 

  1. Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

 

  1. A)           Behavioral therapy
  2. B)            Supportive psychotherapy
  3. C)            Interpersonal psychotherapy
  4. D)           Cognitive therapy

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

 

  1. A)           Major depression
  2. B)            Seasonal affective disorder
  3. C)            Bipolar disorder
  4. D)           Reactive depression

 

 

 

 

  1. The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

 

  1. A)           The central nervous system
  2. B)            The autonomic nervous system
  3. C)            The limbic system
  4. D)           The peripheral nervous system

 

  1. A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Norepinephrine
  3. C)            Epinephrine
  4. D)             Dopamine
  5. The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

 

  1. B)            Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

 

  1. C)            Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

 

  1. D)           Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

 

  1. The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

 

  1. A)           “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
  2. B)            “How long have you been taking the medication?”
  3. C)            “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
  4. D)           “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

 

 

 

 

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Page 6

 

  1. A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
  2. A)           Fruit salad
  3. B)            Lobster
  4. C)            Pork medallions
  5. D)           Spinach and feta salad

 

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

 

  1. A)           Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
  2. B)            Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
  3. C)            Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
  4. D)           Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

 

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

 

  1. A)           Hypertension
  2. B)            Dizziness
  3. C)            Hallucinations
  4. D)           Sexual dysfunction

 

 

  1. The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

 

  1. A)           “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
  2. B)            “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
  3. C)            “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
  4. D)           “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

 

 

  1. The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

 

  1. A)           Vagal nerve stimulation
  2. B)            Electroconvulsive therapy
  3. C)            Deep brain stimulation
  4. D)           Transcranial magnetic stimulation

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  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

 

  1. A)           Headache
  2. B)            Blurred vision
  3. C)            Hearing loss
  4. D)           Vertigo

 

 

  1. Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

 

  1. A)           Do not leave any syringe unattended.
  2. B)            Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
  3. C)            View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

 

  1. D)           Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

 

 

  1. The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

 

  1. A)           “How are you currently feeling?”
  2. B)            “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
  3. C)            “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
  4. D)           “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

 

  1. A)           Hopelessness
  2. B)            Risk for Injury
  3. C)            Disturbed Sleep Pattern
  4. D)           Ineffective Coping

 

  1. Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Client appearance
  2. B)            Body language
  3. C)            Speech
  4. D)           Energy level
  5. E)            Work history

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

 

  1. A)           Thyroid gland and thyroxin
  2. B)            Pineal gland and melatonin
  3. C)            Pancreas and insulin
  4. D)           Pituitary gland and oxytocin

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

 

  1. A)           September/October
  2. B)            February/March
  3. C)            April/May
  4. D)           December/January

 

 

  1. When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

 

  1. A)           The disease remits as the client ages.
  2. B)            The disease increases as the client ages.
  3. C)            The depression increases as the client ages.
  4. D)           The manic phase increases as the client ages.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

 

  1. A)           A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
  2. B)            Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
  3. C)            Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
  4. D)           Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

 

  1. A)           Antidiabetics
  2. B)            Antihypertensives
  3. C)            Anticonvulsants
  4. D)           Antianginals

.

 

 

  1. The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

 

  1. B)            Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
  2. C)            Limit sodium intake daily.
  3. D)           Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
  4. E)            Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
  5. F)             Monitor intake and output

 

 

  1. The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

 

  1. A)           Mania
  2. B)            Hypothyroidism
  3. C)            A pituitary deficiency
  4. D)           A cerebral vascular accident

 

  1. When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

 

  1. A)           Cold and allergy medications
  2. B)            Antiulcer medications
  3. C)            Multivitamins
  4. D)           Laxatives

 

  1. Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

 

  1. A)           Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
  2. B)            Install skylights.
  3. C)            Sleep in a darkened room.
  4. D)           Stay indoors during the winter time.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
  2. A)           Speaking in slow, brief sentences
  3. B)            Presenting the reality of the situation
  4. C)            Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
  5. D)           Being present without speaking

 

 

 

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Question 3:     Health Care

 

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. “I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
  2. “I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
  3. “I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
  4. “I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

 

 

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

 

  1. Bladder distention
  2. Decreased blood pressure
  3. Calf swelling
  4. Diminished bowel sounds
  5. Calf swelling

 

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

  1. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
  2. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
  3. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
  4. A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
  2. Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
  3. Remove the stockings at least once per shift
  4. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

 

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

 

  1. Auscultate lung sounds
  2. Measure urine output
  3. Monitor blood pressure readings
  4. Monitor serum electrolyte levels
  5. Auscultate lung sounds

 

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

 

  1. “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  3. “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  4. “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

 

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

 

  1. Touch the face with a cotton ball
  2. Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
  3. Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
  4. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

 

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

 

  1. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
  2. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
  3. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
  4. Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

 

 

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A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Walking briskly
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Performing isometric exercises
  4. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

 

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

 

  1. Erythema on pressure points
  2. Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
  3. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
  4. A bowel movement every other day

 

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
  2. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
  3. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
  4. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

 

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Check the client for injuries
  2. Move hazardous objects away from the client
  3. Notify the provider
  4. Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
  2. Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
  3. Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
  4. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

 

 

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

 

  1. “I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
  2. “Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
  3. “You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
  4. “The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

 

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

 

  1. “Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
  2. “Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
  3. “Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
  4. “Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
  2. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
  3. Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
  4. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
  5. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

 

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

 

 

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  1. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
  2. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
  3. Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
  4. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

 

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
  2. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

 

  1. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
  2. Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
  2. Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
  3. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
  4. Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

 

 

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

 

  1. Insert an implanted port
  2. Close a laceration with sutures
  3. Place an endotracheal tube
  4. Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

 

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

 

  1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
  2. Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
  3. Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
  4. Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

 

 

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A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Lacrimal apparatus
  2. Pupil clarity
  3. Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
  4. Visual fields
  5. Visual acuity

 

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

 

  1. The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
  2. When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
  3. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
  4. The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

 

  1. Airborne
  2. Droplet
  3. Contact
  4. Protective environment

 

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
  2. Draw up medications together in the same syringe
  3. Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
  4. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
  2. Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
  3. Cleanse the wound from the center outward
  4. Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

 

 

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A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

 

  1. A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
  2. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
  3. A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
  4. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

 

  1. Purulent exudate
  2. Warmth
  3. Skin blanching
  4. Bleeding

 

 

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

 

  1. Critical pathway
  2. Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  3. Transfer report
  4. Medication administration record (MAR)

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

 

  1. Protective environment
  2. Airborne precautions
  3. Droplet precaution
  4. Contact precautions

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Suction the client’s airway
  2. Administer a bronchodilator
  3. Increase the humidity in the client’s room
  4. Assist the client to an upright position

 

 

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A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

 

  1. BUN 15 mg/dL
  2. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
  3. Sodium 143 mEq/L
  4. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

 

 

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

 

  1. Bend at the waist
  2. Keep his feet close together
  3. Use his back muscles for lifting
  4. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

 

 

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

 

  1. The medication
  2. The route
  3. The dose
  4. The frequency

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

 

  1. Tomato juice
  2. Banana slices
  3. Pancakes
  4. Fried egg

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

 

  1. “What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
  2. “I blame medical science for not curing me.”
  3. “Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
  4. “Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask the client to consider a direct donation
  2. Withhold the blood transfusion
  3. Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

 

 

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
  2. Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
  3. Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
  4. Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

 

  1. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
  2. Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
  3. Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
  4. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

 

 

 

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

 

  1. Role ambiguity
  2. Sick role
  3. Role overload
  4. Role conflict

 

  1. Role overload

 

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

 

  1. “When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
  2. “Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
  3. “At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
  4. “Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

 

  1. Biofeedback
  2. Aloe
  3. Feverfew
  4. Acupuncture

 

 

 

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A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

 

  1. “I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
  2. “I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
  3. “I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
  4. “I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

 

 

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  3. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  4. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

 

  1. “We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
  2. “This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
  3. “After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
  4. “We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

 

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

 

  1. Tell the client which food should eat first.
  2. Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
  3. Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
  4. Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

 

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

  1. “I’m having mild pain.”
  2. “The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
  3. “I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
  4. “The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

 

  1. “They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. “They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
  3. “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
  4. “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

 

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

 

  1. Neck vein distention
  2. Urine specific gravity 1.010
  3. Rapid heart rate
  4. Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

  1. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
  2. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
  3. Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  4. Administer a pain medication to the client

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
  2. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
  3. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
  4. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

 

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

 

  1. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
  2. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
  3. Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
  4. Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

 

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. Place the client in a side-lying position
  2. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  3. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  4. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

 

 

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
  2. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  3. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  4. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

 

 

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

 

  1. Side-lying
  2. Supine
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Trendelenburg

 

 

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Question 4:     Health Care

 

1)      A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Turn the patient every 2 hr
  2. i)        The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
  3. b)      Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
  4. i)        The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end  of life
  5. c)      Hold oral care
  6. i)        The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
  7. d)     Increase the room’s temperature
  8. i)        Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

 

2)      A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. a)      Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
  2. i)        The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  3. b)      Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
  4. i)        A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  5. c)      Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
  6. i)        Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
  7. d)     Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
  8. i)        The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

 

3)      A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Place the client in a side lying position
  2. i)         The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
  3. b)      Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  4. i)        Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
  5. c)      Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  6. i)        The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
  7. d)     Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
  8. i)        The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

 

4)      A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

  1. a)      The client is receiving formula at room temperature
  2. i)        Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
  3. b)      The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
  4. i)        Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
  5. c)      The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
  6. i)        Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
  7. d)     The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
  8. i)        It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

 

 

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5)      A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

  1. a)      Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
  2. i)        A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
  3. b)      Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
  4. i)        And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
  5. c)      Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
  6. i)        The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
  7. d)     Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
  8. i)        The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

 

 

6)      A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

  1. a)      Protective environment
  2. i)        Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
  3. b)      Airborne precautions
  4. i)        Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
  5. c)      Droplets precautions
  6. i)        Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal  pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
  7. d)     Contact precautions
  8. i)        Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

 

7)      A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
  2. i)        The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
  3. b)      Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
  4. i)        Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
  5. c)      Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
  6. i)        In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
  7. d)     Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
  8. i)        Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

 

8)      A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

  1. a)      Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
  2. i)        The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  3. b)      Complete an incident report
  4. i)        The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  5. c)      Consult the facility’s risk manager
  6. i)        The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
  7. d)     Notify the nursing manager
  8. i)        The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

 

9)      A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

  1. a)      “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
  2. i)        As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
  3. b)      “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
  4. i)        Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
  5. c)      “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
  6. i)        Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
  7. d)     “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
  8. i)        Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

 

10)  A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

  1. a)      “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. i)        The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
  3. b)      “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  4. i)        The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
  5. c)      “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  6. i)        The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
  7. d)     “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
  8. i)        With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

 

 

11)  A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

  1. a)      Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
  2. i)        The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
  3. b)      Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
  4. i)        Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
  5. c)      Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
  6. i)        Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
  7. d)     Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
  8. i)        An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

 

12)  A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. i)        A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
  3. b)      “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
  4. i)        Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
  5. c)      “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
  6. i)        The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
  7. d)     “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
  8. i)        The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

 

13)  A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. i)        A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  3. b)      Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  4. i)        Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  5. c)      Lock the remaining  medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  6. i)        The nurse should not lock the remaining  controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
  7. d)     Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
  8. i)        The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

 

14)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

  1. a)      “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
  2. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  3. b)      “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
  4. i)        This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
  5. c)      “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
  6. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  7. d)     “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
  8. i)        This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

 

 

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15)  A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

  1. a)      Insert the catheter at 45* angle
  2. i)        Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
  3. b)      Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  4. i)         The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
  5. c)      Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  6. i)        The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
  7. d)     Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
  8. i)        The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

 

16)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

  1. a)      Use a bed exit alarm system
  2. i)        The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
  3. b)      Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
  4. i)        Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
  5. c)      Apply one soft wrist restraint
  6. i)        Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
  7. d)     Dim the lights in the pt’s room
  8. i)        Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

 

 

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17)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Assist the pt into a prone position
  2. i)        The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
  3. b)      Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
  4. i)        The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
  5. c)      Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
  6. i)        The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
  7. d)     Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
  8. i)        The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

 

18)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  1. a)      Numbness of the extremities
  2. i)        Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
  3. b)      Bradycardia
  4. i)        Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
  5. c)      Positive Chvostek’s sign
  6. i)        A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
  7. d)     Abdominal cramping
  8. i)        The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

 

19)  A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

  1. a)      Crackles
  2. i)        Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
  3. b)      Rhonchi
  4. i)        Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
  5. c)      Friction rub
  6. i)        Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
  7. d)     Normal breath sounds
  8. i)        These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

 

 

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20)  A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
  2. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
  3. b)      “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
  4. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
  5. c)      “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
  6. i)        The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
  7. d)     “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
  8. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

 

21)  A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

  1. a)      Increase in hematocrit
  2. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
  3. b)      Increase in respiratory rate
  4. i)        Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
  5. c)      Decrease in heart rate
  6. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
  7. d)     Decrease in capillary refill time
  8. i)        Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

 

 

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22)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

  1. a)      Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
  2. i)        The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  3. b)      Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
    i)     The 1staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
  4. c)      Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  5. i)        If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  6. d)     Administer a pain medication to the client
  7. i)        Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

 

23)  A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

  1. a)      Role ambiguity
  2. i)        Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
  3. b)      Sick role
  4. i)        Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
  5. c)      Role overload
  6. i)        The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
  7. d)     Role conflict
  8. i)        Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

 

 

 

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24)  A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
  2. i)        The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
  3. b)      Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
  4. i)        The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
  5. c)      Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
  6. i)        The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
  7. d)     Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
  8. i)        When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

 

25)  A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

  1. a)      During the admission process
  2. i)        Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
  3. b)      As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
  4. i)        Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
  5. c)      During the initial team conference
  6. i)        Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
  7. d)     After consulting with the pt’s family
  8. i)        The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

 

26)  A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. a)      “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
  2. i)        Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
  3. b)      “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
  4. i)        Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
  5. c)      “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
  6. i)        Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
  7. d)     “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
  8. i)        Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

 

27)  A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

  1. a)      A lesion with uniform pigmentation
  2. i)        Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  3. b)      New appearance of petechiae
  4. i)        Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  5. c)      A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
  6. i)        An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
  7. d)     The presence of a papule
  8. i)        Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

 

 

 

 

 

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28)  A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Insert the needle at a 15* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
  3. b)      Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
  4. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
  5. c)      Administering the medication into the abdomen
  6. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
  7. d)     Massage the site following the injection
  8. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

 

29)   A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

  1. a)      Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
  2. i)        The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
  3. b)      Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
  4. i)        Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
  5. c)      Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
  6. i)        The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
  7. d)     Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
  8. i)        Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

 

30)  A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

  1. a)      Critical pathway
  2. i)        A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
  3. b)      Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  4. i)        SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
  5. c)      Transfer report
  6. i)        The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
  7. d)     Medication administration record (MAR)
  8. i)        The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

 

31)  A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
  3. b)      Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
  4. i)        The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
  5. c)      Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
  6. i)        The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
  7. d)     Massage the injection site after administration
  8. i)        The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

 

32)  A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

  1. a)      The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
  2. i)        The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
  3. b)      When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
  4. i)        To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
  5. c)      The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
  6. i)        The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
  7. d)     The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
  8. i)        The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

 

 

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33)  A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

  1. a)      “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
  2. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
  3. b)      “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
  4. i)        Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
  5. c)      “Does the pain radiate?”
  6. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
  7. d)     “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
  8. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

 

34)  A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

  1. a)      The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
  2. i)        The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
  3. b)      The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
  4. i)        The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
  5. c)      The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
  6. i)        The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
  7. d)     The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
  8. i)        The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

 

35)  A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Alginate
  2. i)        Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
  3. b)      Guaze
  4. i)        Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
  5. c)      Transparent
  6. i)        Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
  7. d)     Hydrocolloid
  8. i)        Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

 

36)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

  1. a)      Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
  3. b)      Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
  4. i)        The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

 

 

 

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Question 5:     Health Care

 

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1)    Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)    Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)    Tarsals
b)    Tibia
c)    Sphenoid
d)    Scapula
e)    Clavicle

3)    Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4)    Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5)    Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6)    An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

  1. a
    a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

8)    How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

10)    Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

12)    Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

  1. a)    E
    b)    F
    c)    G
    d)    H
    e)    I

14)    What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)    H
c)    I
d)    J
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

16)    The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

  1. e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    G
    e)    None of the selections are correct

18)    The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)    D
b)    E
c)    F
d)    I
e)    J

20)    What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)    E
b)    B
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

22)    Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

 

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23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

24)    Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

26)    The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

28)    Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

30)    This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

 

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31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and C

34)    A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
  2. a)    B
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    E
    e)    F

37)    The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

 

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38)    Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

39)    Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)    Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

41)    Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

  1. a)    C
    b)    D
    c)    H
    d)    I
    e)    J

43)    These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

  1. a)    A
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    B
    e)    F

 

 

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45)    Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)    A
b)    C
c)    D
d)    E
e)    F

47)    This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

 

 

 

 Question 6:    Biology

 

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

 

 

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

 

 

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

 

 

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene.  Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

 

 

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

 

 

 

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Question 7:     Chemistry

 

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

 

Question 8:     Physics

 

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

 

Question 9:     Psychology

 

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

 

  • What topic and research question did you pursue?
  • How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
  • Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
  • What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
  • Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
  • What insights did you gather about your research question?
  • What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 10:   Statistics

 

Mid Semester Assignment

 

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

 

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

 

  1. This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
    3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

 

  1. (20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a)  What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b)  All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c)  The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

3

  1. (14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

 

 

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(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

 

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

 

  1. (20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

 

(a)  Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b)  What is the mean and variance of X?

(c)  What is the probability that the bag of flour has less than 1kg of flour in it?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d)  If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e)  The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

 

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

 

  1. (37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

 

(a)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

 

(b)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

 

(c)  Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

 

(d)  Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

 

(e)  Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

 

(i)  If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

 

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

 

 

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

 

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

 

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

 

  1. (9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

 

(a)  What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

 

(b)  What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

 

(c)  If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

 

(d)  When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

 

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

 

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

 

 

 

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Question 11:   Psychology

 

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

 

 

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Question 12:               Business

 

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

 

 

Question 13:               Business

 

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

 

 

 

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Question 14:                Statistics

 

 

Assignment #4

  1. A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
  2. A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
  3. If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
  4. A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

 

Assignment 3

  1.     1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
  2.      a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
  3.     what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
  4.     c.  What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

 

  1.     2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
  2. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
  3. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

 

  1.    3.      Use the table below to answer the questions below:  
Column A

Z score

Column B

Area Between the mean and Z

Column C

Area beyond the Z score

.12 .0478 .4522
1.40 .4192 .0808
1.41 .4207 .0793
1.42 .4222 .0778
1.43 .4236 .0762
1.44 .4251 .0749
1.45 .4265 .0735
1.46 .4279 .0721
1.47 .4292 .0708
1.48 .4306 .0694
1.49 .4319 .0681

 

  1. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  2. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
  3. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  4. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student Year Criminal Justice Major
1 Sophmore  Yes
2 Senior  No
3 Junior  Yes
4 Freshman  No
5 Freshman  Yes
6 Sophmore  Yes
7 Sophmore  Yes
8 Junior  No
9 Sophmore  Yes
10 Sophmore  No

 

  1. What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
  2. a sophomore?
  3. a student majoring in sociology?
  4. a freshman or a sophomore?
  5. not a freshman?

 

  1. What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
  2. ±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

  1. Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
  2. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
  3. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
  4. the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

 

 

 

 

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Question 15:               Sociology

 

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

 

 

Question 16:               History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

  • Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
  • What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17:               General Question

 

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

 

Question 18:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

 

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 19:               Mathematics

 

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

 

Question 20:               Nursing

 

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

  1. What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
  2. What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
  3. Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
  4. Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
  5. What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

 

Question 21:               Biology

 

  • Why Study Biology?
  • What is Life?
  • What About?
  • How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
  • Role of Experiments
  • Experimental Design
  • Experimental Problems
  • Higher Levels of Organization
  • Scientific Names
  • Categories of Biological Classification
  • Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
  • 1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
  • Fungi
  • Plants
  • Animals
  • Animal Cell Features
  • History of Microscopes & Cells
  • Cell Theory
  • Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
  • Components of Nucleus

 

 

Question 22:               Accounting

 

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

 

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:    

 

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?     

                                                                                                               

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                  

11d. Producer surplus is the                                    

                                                                    

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?       

                                        

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

 

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except            

                                                                                                 

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:     

                                                                     

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                             

 17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?      

                                    

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that             

                                                                                         

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

 

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:          

                                                                      

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a                 

                                                                                       

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area       

                           

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area           

                

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be            

                                                

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:      

       

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:          

                                                                                                                          

 

 

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27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?         

 

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?     

 

29c.  The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:                                                                                                                           

  1. The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:    

                                                        

31c. Frictional unemployment is   

                                                                                                  

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases       

                                      

34a. Technological improvement causes                                                         

                             

                 

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by        

                                                                                                                          

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,      

                                                                                              

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that     

                                                              

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

 

40d. An increase in the price level will        

                                                                                      

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?                                                                                                                                             

                        

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect       

      

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can               

                                                        

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause                 

                                                                                                            

                                                                                                                                  

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?               

                                                                                         

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

 

 

 

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50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.                

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?                                                                           

 

Question 23:   Accounting

1)    The financial system is primarily a means by which    1)
A)    funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)    the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)    business firms distribute their goods.
D)    money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)    Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?    2)
A)    Wells Fargo Bank    B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit    D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)    If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):    3)
A)    liability to both you and Intel.    B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.    D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?    4)
A)    corporate equities    B) life insurance
C) bank deposits    D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)    Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)    profitability    B) risk sharing    C) information    D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-­‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)    Economists define risk as
A)    the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)    the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)    the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Economists define liquidity as
A)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)    the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)    the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-­‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)    the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)    Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)    computer    B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine    D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)    reduces the difference between the return on three-­‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-­‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)    relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)    guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)    eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  13-­‐14  Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)    Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)    bonds.    B) dividends.    C) stocks.    D) coupons.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

 

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Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)    Securitization is the process of    11)
A)    issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)    converting loans into securities.
C)    issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)    reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)    If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)    a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    Financial markets    13)
A)    act as go-­‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)    channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)    channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)    generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is    14)
A)    a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)    a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)    an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)    Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)    Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)    George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)    Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)    Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)    Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)    primarily through government agencies.
B)    indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)    indirectly through financial markets.
D)    directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)    Bank of America
C)    NASDAQ
D)    Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    bank    B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund    D) insurance company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)    The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)    provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)    provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)    help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)    borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)    Financial intermediaries
A)    include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)    directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)    include banks and other depository institutions.
D)    are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)    in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)    for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)    in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)    for government securities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)    A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)    both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)    both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)    both involve the use of financial markets.
D)    both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.    B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.    D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)    Economists define money as 24)
A)    cash in circulation.
B)    bonds issued by large corporations.
C)    anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)    deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)    The Federal Reserve System    25)
A)    is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)    is the central bank of the United States.
C)    is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

  1. D)    is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
    Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)    Monetary policy refers to the government’s    26)
A)    plans for retiring the national debt.
B)    management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

  1. C)    decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
    D)    decisions on how much money to spend.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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27)    Diversification refers to the    27)
A)    difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)    difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)    difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)    splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)    The purpose of diversification is to
A)    increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)    reduce tax liability.
C)    reduce risk.
D)    reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)    The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)    savers to earn interest tax-­‐free.
C)    savers to hold many assets.
D)    borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    Liquidity
A)    was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)    is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)    is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)    is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)    Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)    treasury bond    B) stock
C) money market mutual fund    D) house
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)    Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)    bonds issued by state governments    B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds    D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)    The financial system performs the role of communicating information by    33)
A)    incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)    constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)    providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)    constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)    The distinguishing feature of a well-­‐functioning financial market is the
A)    continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)    increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)    continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)    incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)    In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)    the Federal Reserve System.
B)    Congress and the President acting together.
C)    the President.
D)    Congress.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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36)    In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)    Fannie Mae.
B)    Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)    the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)    the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)    A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)    large businesses.    B) federal government.
C) small businesses.    D) state governments.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)    What made the recession of 2007-­‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)    it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)    the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)    the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)    the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)    All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)    there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)    large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)    the financial system was disrupted
D)    unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)    Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    the savings of relatives and friends
B)    their own savings
C)    global investors
D)    local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)    All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)    it involves small loans
B)    lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)    many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-­‐income countries
D)    the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)    Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)    Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)    Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)    More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)    Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)    The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)    securitization    B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading    D) microlending
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)    Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)    securitization    B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting    D) lending to households
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)    All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)    coupon payments on bonds    B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks    D) fees on loans

46)    Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both    50)
A)    help regulate the banking system.
B)    reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)    sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)    directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)    All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    alt-­‐A mortgages.
B)    mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)    adjustable-­‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)    subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52)    Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A)    when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

  1. C)    when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)    All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    lenders loosened lending standards.
B)    borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)    mortgage-­‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)    investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  15-­‐16  Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)    Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)    those with fixed-­‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)    those with adjustable-­‐rate mortgages
C)    subprime borrowers
D)    those with alt-­‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)    The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed    55)
A)    the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)    the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

 

 

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  1. C)    the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
    D)    the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
    Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
    financial crisis
    Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)    Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?    56)
A)    J.P. Morgan    B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)    Alt-­‐A borrowers were those who
A)    borrowed using “ʺinterest-­‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)    did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)    chose adjustable-­‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-­‐rate mortgages.
D)    used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)    The financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)    American International Group (AIG)    B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)    At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)    declines in the value of mortgage-­‐backed securities.
B)    holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)    defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)    not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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60)    Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:    60)
A)    alt A    B) securitized    C) adjustable    D) subprime
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)    The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to    61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)    allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)    increase the return to savers
D)    enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)    An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently    1) is
A)    they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)    they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)    the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)    they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)    By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)    goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)    individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)    individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)    individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

 

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AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)    The most important economic benefit from specialization is  that it    3)
A)    eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)    makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)    makes barter possible.
D)    leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    When an economy relies on specialization,    4)
A)    each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)    the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)    each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)    Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must    5)
A)    have an extensive system of higher education.
B)    develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)    be heavily agricultural.
D)    be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)    Barter is    6)
A)    the basis for economic specialization.
B)    the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)    another name for money.
D)    an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Under a system of barter    7)

A)    currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)    goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)    each individual trades output directly with another.
D)    only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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8)    Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)    An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)    An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)    An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)    An individual deposits three twenty-­‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    In a barter system individuals    9)
A)    will almost invariably specialize.
B)    find it impossible to specialize.
C)    find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)    must be entirely self-­‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)    A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)    the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)    taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)    the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)    traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11)    Under a barter system
A)    each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

  1. B)    prices for goods are very stable.
    D)    each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
    Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12)    How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100    B) 1,000 C) 10,000    D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)    poorly-­‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)    the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)    the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)    the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card.   Andy’ʹs   problem   illustrates   the   drawback   to   a   barter   system   known   as   A)   the specialization problem.
B)    the transactions problem.
C)    the many prices problem.
D)    the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)    Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)    Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)    The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)    Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)    Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)    Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)    government rationing
B)    barter
C)    money
D)    the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)    Marlboro cigarettes    B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins    D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)    Money eliminates the need for
A)    people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)    specialization.
C)    the market system.
D)    any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)    Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that    19)
A)    the need for specialization is reduced.
B)    the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)    the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)    transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)    Commodity money can best be described as    20)
A)    standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)    a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A)    the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)    The introduction of money to an economy results in:    22)
A)    a more efficient barter system    B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization    D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    Money can BEST be described as:    23)
A)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)    any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)    commodities that have intrinsic value
D)    paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24)    Money is a medium of exchange in that    26)

A)    it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)    other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)    currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)    money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)    Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)    checks at commercial banks.
B)    currency.
C)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)    gold coins.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)    When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)    money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)    money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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29)    When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)    money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)    money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    An asset is
A)    the same thing as a liability.    B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

  1. C) anything that never declines in value.    D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)    The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money    31)
A)    may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)    serves as a medium of exchange.
C)    is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)    retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)    Wealth is
A)    equal to income.
B)    a flow variable.
C)    the sum of the value of assets.
D)    the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)    The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)    stock   of   all   assets,   money   is   an   individual’s   stock   of   currency   and   currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

 

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Question 24:               Economics

 

  1. Real wages in the United States in the long run:
    A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
    B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
    C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
    D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
  2. The long-run trend of real wages:
    A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
    B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
    C. has been upward.
    D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
  3. If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
    A. decreased by 2 percent.
    B. increased by 2 percent.
    C. increased by 3 percent.
    D. increased by 8 percent.
  4. Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
    A. total output.
    B. stock of capital.
    C. output per worker.
    D. international trade.
  5. Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
    A. the law of diminishing returns.
    B. improvements in technology.
    C. reductions in wage rates.
    D. increases in the quantity of labor.

 

 

 

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  1. The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
    A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
    B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
    C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
    D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
  2. The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
    A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
    B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
    C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
    D. the supply of labor has increased.
  3. If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 3 percent.
    C. fall by 3 percent.
    D. rise by 11 percent.
  4. If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 4 percent.
    C. fall by 4 percent.
    D. rise by 8 percent.
  5. Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
    B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
    C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
    D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
  6. Marginal resource cost refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
    B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
    C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
    D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

 

 

 

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  1. If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
    A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
    B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
    C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
    D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
  2. The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
    A. of diminishing returns.
    B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
    C. of declining MRC.
    D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
  3. A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
    A. perfectly inelastic.
    B. perfectly elastic.
    C. highly inelastic.
    D. highly elastic.
  4. A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
    A. marginal revenue product is zero.
    B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
    C. marginal resource cost is zero.
    D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
  5. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
  6. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
    D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

 

  1. A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
    A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
    B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
    C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
    D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
    A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
    B. is a monopsonist.
    C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
    D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 units of labor.
    B. 3 units of labor.
    C. 4 units of labor.
    D. 5 units of labor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $30.
    C. $24.
    D. $32.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $24.
    D. $30.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
    B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    C. is a “wage taker.”
    D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. has a principal-agent problem.
    B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
    C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
    D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
    A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
    B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
    C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
    D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
    A. $2.
    B. $3.
    C. $4.
    D. $16.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $8.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
    A. $8.
    B. $52.
    C. $2.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
    A. pure monopolist.
    B. discriminating monopolist.
    C. monopolistic competitor.
    D. pure competitor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 workers.
    B. 3 workers.
    C. 4 workers.
    D. 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $24.
    C. $32.
    D. $48.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
    A. $20.
    B. $16.
    C. $12.
    D. $8.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
    A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
    B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
    C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
    A. upsloping; horizontal
    B. downsloping; vertical
    C. vertical; upsloping
    D. horizontal; upsloping

 

  1. The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
    A. monopsonist.
    B. monopolist.
    C. bilateral competitor.
    D. bilateral monopolist.

 

  1. In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
    A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
    B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
    C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
    D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

 

 

  1. A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
    A. $9.
    B. $10.
    C. $15.
    D. $21.

 

 

 

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  1. Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
    A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
    B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
    C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
    D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

 

  1. In monopsony:
    A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
    B. the work force is highly mobile.
    C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
    D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
    A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
    B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
    C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
    D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

 

  1. If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
    A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
    B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
    C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
    D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

 

  1. A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
    A. worker’s wage rate.
    B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
    C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
    D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
    B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
    C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
    D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

 

 

 

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  1. Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
    A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
    A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
    B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
    C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
    D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

 

  1. As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
    A. and employment will both be lower.
    B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
    C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
    D. and employment will both be higher.

 

  1. “Player drafts” of professional athletes:
    A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
    B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
    C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
    D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

 

  1. Which of the following is not correct?
    A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
    B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

 

 

 

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  1. A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
    A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
    B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
    C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
    D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

 

  1. The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
    B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
    C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
    D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

 

  1. If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
    A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
    B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
    C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
    D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

 

  1. If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
    A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
    B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
    C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
    D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

 

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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  1. Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
    A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
    B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
    C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
    D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

 

  1. Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
    A. $15.
    B. $25.
    C. $35.
    D. $45.

 

  1. Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
    A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
    B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
    C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
    D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

 

 

 

 

  1. If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
    A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
    B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
    C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
    A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
    B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
    C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
    D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
    A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
    B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
    C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
    D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
    A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
    B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
    C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
    D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
    A. W4.
    B. W3.
    C. W2.
    D. W1.

 

  1. Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
    A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
    B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
    C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
    D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

 

  1. Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
    A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
    B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
    C. industrial unions.
    D. craft unions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and E.
    C. B and G.
    D. B and F.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and F.
    C. B and F.
    D. A and F.
  2. Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
    A. D minus A
    B. D
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
    A. D minus A
    B. F
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
    A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
    B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
    C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
    D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

 

 

 

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  1. Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
    A. inclusive unionism.
    B. exclusive unionism.
    C. bilateral monopoly.
    D. monopsony.

 

  1. Occupational licensing:
    A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
    B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
    C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
    D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

 

  1. If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
    A. wage rate will rise.
    B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
    C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
    D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

 

  1. If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
    A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
    B. employment may either increase or decrease.
    C. employment will increase.
    D. employment will decrease.

 

  1. The electricians’ union is a good example of:
    A. exclusive unionism.
    B. an industrial union.
    C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
    D. inclusive unionism.

 

  1. Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
    A. increasing the supply of labor.
    B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
    C. decreasing the demand for labor.
    D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

 

 

 

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  1. Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
    A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
    B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
    C. increase the demand for construction workers.
    D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

 

 

  1. Craft unions:
    A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
    B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
    C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
    D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

 

  1. Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
    A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
    B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
    C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
    D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

 

  1. In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
    A. be logically indeterminate.
    B. be established at the level desired by the union.
    C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
    D. always be established at the competitive level.

 

 

 

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  1. If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
    A. a cartel.
    B. countervailing power.
    C. a bilateral monopoly.
    D. an internal labor market.

 

  1. Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
    A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
    B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
    C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
    D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
    A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
    B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
    C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
    D. not alter its level of employment.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
    A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
    B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
    C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
    D. eight workers would be hired.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
    A. below $7.
    B. between $5 and $8.
    C. above $5.
    D. above $8.

 

  1. Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
    A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
    B. economy has high unemployment.
    C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
    D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

 

 

  1. Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
    A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
    B. reduces employment.
    C. undermines incentives to work.
    D. is deflationary.

 

 

 

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  1. Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
    A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
    B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
    C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
    D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

 

  1. Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
    A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
    B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
    C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
    D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

 

 

  1. If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
    A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
    B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
    C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
    D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

 

  1. Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
    A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
    B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
    C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
    D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

 

  1. Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
    A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
    B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
    C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
    D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

 

  1. Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
    A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
    B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
    C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
    D. geographic immobilities.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages:
    A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
    B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
    C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
    D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
    A. differences in worker training and skills.
    B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
    C. geographic immobilities.
    D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

 

 

 

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  1. The idea of compensating differences is used:
    A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
    B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
    C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
    D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

 

 

  1. The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
    A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
    B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
    D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

 

  1. Data on education and earnings reveal:
    A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
    B. no relationship between the two.
    C. a positive relationship between the two.
    D. a negative relationship between the two.

 

  1. According to age-earnings data,
    A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
    B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
    C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
    D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

 

 

  1. Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
    A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
    C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
    D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

 

  1. Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
    A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
    B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
    C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
    D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

 

  1. Human capital is best defined as:
    A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
    B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
    C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
    D. the exchange of money for real assets.

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. discrimination

 

  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographical immobility of workers
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. compensating wage differentials

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographic immobility of workers
    B. discrimination
    C. noncompeting groups
    D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

 

  1. Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
    A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
    B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
    C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
    D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

 

 

 

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  1. In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
    A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
    B. the neglecting or evading of work.
    C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
    D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

 

  1. Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
    A. equalizing differences.
    B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
    C. shirking.
    D. the free-rider problem.

 

  1. The idea of efficiency wages is that:
    A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
    B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
    C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
    D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

 

  1. Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
    A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
    B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
    C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
    D. increasing the supply of labor.

 

  1. Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
    A. royalties.
    B. profit-sharing.
    C. bonuses.
    D. piece rates.

 

  1. A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
    A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
    B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
    C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
    D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

 

  1. For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
    A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
    B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
    C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
    D. reduce total compensation payments.

 

  1. Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
    A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
    B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
    C. offset monopsony.
    D. address the principal-agent problem.

 

  1. One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
    A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
    B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
    C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
    D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

 

 

 

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Question25:    Psychology

 

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind  ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

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Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a  _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is  concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

 

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Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a  ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist      ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

 

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All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is  concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific.      ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true.      ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting      ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation      etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

Question 26:               Chemist

 

   Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution.  The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic.  A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

 

 

 

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ;  Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3.  Be careful with the units!

 

 

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

 

  1. a)      Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also.  Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
  2. b)       Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature.  It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time.  Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

 

Question 27:   Science

 

Midterm Exam 

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

 

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

 

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

 

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

 

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

 

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

 

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

 

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

 

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

 

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

 

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

 

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

 

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

 

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

 

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

 

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

 

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

 

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

 

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

 

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

 

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

 

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

 

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

 

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

 

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

 

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

 

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

 

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

 

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

 

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

 

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

 

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

 

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

 

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

 

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

 

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

 

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

 

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

 

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

 

Answer Key:

 Question 28:              Health Care

 

  1. To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

  1. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

  1. A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

  1. Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

  1. A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

  1. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management.  Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

  1. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

  1. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

  1. A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

  1. After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

  1. An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

  1. A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

  1. Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

  1. During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

  1. Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

  1. While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

  1. A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

  1. For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

  1. A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is