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Addiction Paper- Alcohol

You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.

 

SuperFun Toys Case Study

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set 

Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.

Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following: 

• Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

 

Case Study – SuperFun Toys

 

SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.

Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.

This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.

For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.

As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.

Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.

SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.

 

For Contemporary Decision Making

1. Provide your insights, questions and examples for  Sampling Error.
2. Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
3. Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
4. Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
5. Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
6. Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.

 

Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,

Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.

Include answers to the following:

Case 1: Bell Computer Company

• Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
• Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

 

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.

 

HRM 517 Week 9 DQ

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.

Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28

From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.

 

Community Support Pamphlet

You will  create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help.  Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.

 

MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…

Pamphlet Instructions:

Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:

• Information on both sides of the paper;
• 8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
• 12-point Times New Roman font;
• A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
• A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.

 

Normal Distribution

1. the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.

 

The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.

SEJPME Final Exam

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

CJUS Quiz 3 L U

 

Question 1

Correct Answer:

 

As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states

that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,

including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the

right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order

regarding transfer.

 

Question 2

Correct Answer:

 

____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the

equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.

 

 

Question 3

Correct

Answer:

 

At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require

the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What

is not one of the ways the case is resolved?

 

Question 4

Correct Answer:

 

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?

 

Question 5

____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment

used by the juvenile justice system.

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

Question 6

Correct Answer:

 

The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made

to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the

juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:

 

 

Question 7

Correct Answer:

 

Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,

emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders

are completely responsible for their own actions.

 

Question 8

Correct Answer:

 

At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court

intervention is necessary?

 

 

Question 9

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?

Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with

juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication

 

Question 10

Correct

Answer:

 

In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among

juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:

 

Question 11

Correct Answer:

 

Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a

____________ is filed.

 

Question 12

Correct Answer:

 

Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory

restitution programs.

Question 13

Correct Answer:

 

Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention

facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile

public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on

deficiencies in his defense.

Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the

juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document

that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights

and disposing of all the issues.

 

Question 14

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum

standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of

the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?

 

Question 15

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?

Question 16

Correct Answer:

 

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Based on the type of sanction, what correctional treatment has been

provided to Jeremy?

 

 

Question 17

Correct Answer:

 

What is false regarding what experts maintain that detention facilities

should provide youths housed in their facilities?

 

 

Question 18

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of Juvenile

Intensive Probation Supervision?

 

Question 19

Correct Answer:

 

What does a predisposition report not include?

 

Question 20

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is a problem in public defender services for

indigent juveniles in Pennsylvania?

 

Question 21

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following is not an argument in favor of probation?

The justice system continues to have confidence in deterrence

and accommodates for legal controls and public protection.

 

Question 22

Correct Answer:

 

Programs that combine get-tough elements with education, substance

abuse treatment, and social skills training are generally referred to as:

 

Question 23

Correct Answer:

 

In 2008, formal probation accounted for more than ______ of all juvenile

dispositions.

 

 

Question 24

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, about ___ percent of delinquency cases in 2008

involved males.

 

 

Question 25

Correct Answer:

 

Although there are more coed institutions for juveniles than in the past,

most girls remain incarcerated in single-sex institutions.

 

Question 26

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Correct Answer:

 

Within the context of the scenario, wearing an ankle bracelet can be

considered a:

 

Question 27

Correct Answer:

 

Programs involving outdoor expeditions that provide opportunities for

juveniles to confront the difficulties of their lives while achieving positive

personal satisfaction are generally referred to as:

 

Question 28

Correct Answer:

 

A guardian ad litem is often an attorney who represents the child during

special legal proceedings, including abuse, neglect, and dependency

cases.

 

Question 29

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, most states use the indeterminate sentence in

juvenile court.

 

Question 30

Correct Answer:

 

The typical resident of a juvenile facility is a seventeen years old,

European American male.

 

Question 31

Correct Answer:

 

In 1989, the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) of

1974 was amended to require that states allow juveniles to be detained

in adult jails and lockups.

 

Question 32

Correct Answer:

 

The typical delinquent detainee is all of the following except:

 

 

Question 33

Correct Answer:

 

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

If Gerald is convicted in a criminal court of homicide, what sentencing

option(s) does the jury have?

 

Question 34

Correct Answer:

Non-judicial adjustment and handling or processing are all names for

what is commonly known as diversion.

 

Question 35

Correct Answer:

 

In what U.S. Supreme Court case did the justices end juvenile sentences

of life without parole?

 

Question 36

Correct Answer:

 

In about fifteen states, the prosecutor has the discretion of filing charges

for certain offenses in either juvenile or criminal court, this is called:

 

Question 37

Paul is a gang member who committed a robbery. As part of his

community treatment, he must remain in his residence from 8 p.m. until 8

a.m. daily, and is required to call into his probation officer from his home

phone when a computer-generated call is made to him.

Correct Answer:

 

In addition to electronic monitoring, Paul”s requirement to remain in for

12-hour intervals is considered:

 

Question 38

Correct Answer:

 

Virtually every state provides prosecutors and judges with access to the

juvenile records of juvenile offenders.

 

Question 39

Correct Answer:

 

What is not a goal of Juvenile intensive probation supervision?

 

Question 40

Correct Answer:

 

Sheila was found delinquent and placed in a juvenile correctional facility.

While institutionalized, she took part in counseling that focuses on

current behavior and requires her to accept responsibility for her actions.

After 3 years, she will be leaving the correctional facility in two weeks.

What type of therapy is Sheila undergoing?

CJUS300 Quiz 2 Liberty University

Question 1

Correct

Answer:

 

A clique is defined as:

 

Question 2

Correct Answer:

 

It is estimated that about _____ out of every 100 child abuse or neglect

cases reaches the trial stage.

 

Question 3

Correct Answer:

 

Farrington reported that bullies are likely to have children who bully

others.

Question 4

Correct Answer:

 

Experts have concluded that many of the underlying problems of

delinquency are connected with the nature and quality of the school

experience.

 

Question 5

Correct Answer:

 

In some instances, a peer group provides the social and emotional basis

for antisocial activity. When this happens:

 

Question 6

Correct Answer:

 

At the ____________________, the social service agency presents its

case plan, which includes visitation plans, services, or other conditions of

the formal agreement.

 

 

Question 7

Correct Answer:

 

Source control strategies cut off supplies of drugs by destroying overseas

crops and arresting members of drug cartels.

 

Question 8

Correct Answer:

 

The concept of deinstitutionalization was established by the Juvenile

Justice and Delinquency Act of 1994.

 

Question 9

Correct Answer:

 

Evidence that the behavior of children of divorce improves over time is

conclusive.

 

Question 10

Correct Answer:

 

Almost two-thirds of all admissions to treatment facilities in the United

States involved ______________________ as the primary drug of

abuse.

 

Question 11

Correct Answer:

 

According to work by Gottfredson and colleagues, what is the main

difference between school programs that work and those that do not?

 

Question 12

Correct Answer:

 

 

Crack is manufactured by using _________________________ to

remove hydrochlorides to create a crystaline form of cocaine that can be

smoked.

 

 

Question 13

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, the most crucial part of an abuse or neglect

proceeding is the advisement hearing when the social service agency

presents its recommendations for care of the child.

 

Question 14

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following is not a correlate of school failure according to the

text?

 

Question 15

Correct Answer:

 

Under the parens patriae philosophy, juvenile justice procedures are:

 

Question 16

Correct

Answer:

 

Which of the following statements about gangs in the 1950s and 1960s is

false?

 

 

 

 

Question 17

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following best describes the United States Supreme Court

ruling in Ingraham v. Wright concerning corporal punishment in schools?

 

Question 18

The youngest children in a family may suffer the most from resource

dilution.

Correct Answer:

 

Question 19

Correct Answer:

 

The systematic nature of problem-oriented policing is characterized by its

adherence to a four-step model, often referred to as:

 

 

Question 20

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, what is the biggest issue with mentoring

programs?

 

Question 21

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following was noted as a problem of school-based

adolescent drug surveys?

 

 

Question 22

Correct Answer:

 

Family dysfunction increases the chances of dropping out of school

among all racial and ethnic groups.

 

Question 23

Correct Answer:

 

According to the profile developed by the U.S. Secret Service, school

shootings:

 

Question 24

Correct Answer:

 

For some adolescents, substance abuse is one of many problem

behaviors that begin early in life and remain throughout the life course.

This is known as:

 

 

Question 25

Correct Answer:

 

Kelly is 32 years old and has a history of substance abuse and

committing crimes. He drank at 10 and started using marijuana at 13 and

experimented with a variety of drugs over the years. His family was

violent and criminally inclined. He grew up in a lower-economic

neighborhood where crime thrived. Kelly dropped out of school at 16.

According to research by Elliott, which of the following is not an

association between substance abuse and delinquency?

 

Question 26

Correct Answer:

 

What happens with illegally seized evidence in juvenile proceedings?

 

Question 27

Correct Answer:

 

The main goal of Job Corps, developed and designed by the Department

of Labor, is:

 

Question 28

Correct Answer:

 

Which of the following were not among the early American gangs?

 

 

Question 29

Correct Answer:

 

A _________________ gang is heavily involved in criminality, particularly

in drug sales and they use violence to establish control over drug sale

territories.

 

Question 30

Correct Answer:

 

Casey is a 10-year old victim of sexual abuse by a family member. His

perpetrator”s case will go to trial and Casey is on the witness list.

According to the text, sexual abuse accusations often:

 

 

Question 31

Correct Answer:

Because people are generally sympathetic to abused children,

delinquents with abuse backgrounds get lighter sentences than those

who were not abused.

 

Question 32

Correct Answer:

 

According to the text, schools with fewer behavioral problems in the

student body are characterized by:

 

 

Question 33

Correct Answer:

 

Results from the most recent PRIDE survey (for the 2009-2010 school

year) indicate:

 

Question 34

Correct Answer:

 

Annually, it is estimated that the economic cost of methamphetamine use

in the United States exceeds?

 

Question 35

Correct Answer:

 

Jessica is 16, single and a mother of a 3-month old baby girl. She has

been provided weekly visits by a nurse who comes to her place of

residence. The nurse gives advice to Jessica about care of her child,

infant development, and the importance of proper nutrition.

What is not a long-term desirable effect of home visitation programs?

 

Question 36

Correct Answer:

 

Children from working poor families are most likely to suffer from

inadequate childcare.

 

Question 37

Correct Answer:

 

In ______________________, the Supreme Court rules that a child”s

asking to speak to his probation officer was not the equivalent of asking

for an attorney.

 

Question 38

Correct Answer:

 

James” parents were married for 10 years. Currently, he lives with his

divorced mom who works full-time.

Approximately what percent of children live with two parents?

 

Question 39

Correct Answer:

 

Policies that mandate specific consequences or punishments for

delinquent acts and do not allow anyone to avoid these consequences

are referred to as:

 

Question 40

Correct Answer:

Chronic victims of bullying experience more physical and psychological

problems than their peers who are not harassed by other children.

CJUS 300 Quiz 3 Liberty Uni

Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:

• Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
• Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:

o    In person surveys

o    Telephone surveys

o    Computer-based surveys

o    Focus group surveys

• Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
• Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
• Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.

Include at least four peer-reviewed references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.

 

Reflection paper

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

 

Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com

 

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

 

Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.

 

The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation

The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.

 

Signing a non-compete after employment

 

Unit I Case Study

Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Reference Attached

Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true

Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:

1. Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
2. Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?

Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.

References:

Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831

 

LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018

1. Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?

Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.

Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.

Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.

Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.

2. Workers’ compensation is defined as the:

insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.

remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.

set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.

system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.

3. Corporate officers are best described as:

directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.

owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.

employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.

partners pursuing a joint venture transaction

4. Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?

An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.

A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.

A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.

A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.

5. Which of the following best describes the term warranty?

It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.

It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.

It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.

It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.

6. Which of the following is a category of torts?

Nonintent crime

Professional malpractice

Strict liability

Personal liability

7. Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?

Special damages

Punitive damages

Binding arbitration

Specific performance

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?

They are usually not tried by the jury.

They are punishable by the death penalty.

They are tried by criminal procedure.

They are brought to court by a plaintiff.

9. Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:

creating a new status quo.

minimizing the freedom of employees.

advocating social justice.

providing a basis for compromise

10. Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?

Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.

The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.

An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.

The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.

11. Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?

It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.

It allows a business to consist of only general partners.

It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.

It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.

12. Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:

minimizing individual freedom.

maintaining the status quo.

advocating social justice

providing bases for compromise

13. A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:

allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.

end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.

enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.

control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.

14. Insider trading is considered illegal because:

it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.

it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.

it results in excessive losses for the company.

it makes use of nonmaterial public information.

15. Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?

It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.

It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.

It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.

It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.

16. Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?

Adverse possession

Reasonable grounds for suspicion

Adequate assurance of performance

Reasonable duration of detention

17. Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?

The invention must be original.

The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.

The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.

The invention must be in the form of a service.

18. Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?

The rule of reason

The per se rule

The rule of four

The pro rata rule

19. Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?

The sale of non-organic food products

The sale of adulterated food

Labeling of raw seafood products

Labeling of genetically engineered food products

20. The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.

monopoly power

implied power

enumerated power

reserved power

21. A group boycott occurs when:

competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.

competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.

parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.

parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.

22. When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?

While drafting a submission agreement

When an arbitration is binding

While entering a negotiation

When an arbitration is nonbinding

23. The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:

duty of restitution.

duty of restoration.

duty of loyalty.

duty of care

24. Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.

nonintent crime

unintentional tort

intent crime

intentional tort

25. When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.

racial discrimination

religious discrimination

sex-plus discrimination

color discrimination

26. The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.

acceptance

an offer

an agreement

consideration

27. When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.

franchise

joint venture

kickback

limited liability partnership

28. Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.

owners

common stockholders

board of directors

preferred stockholders

29. An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.

fully disclosed agency

apparent agency

implied agency

agency by ratification

30. Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?

Failure to warn

Defect in product packaging

Failure to tamperproof

Defect in manufacture

Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week

In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.

Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.

About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.

Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.

In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:

2. What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
3. Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
4. Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
5. Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.

 

Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1

Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.

1. Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county.  The country is Saudi Arabia’

.2.  Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed.  Provide a rationale for the response.

3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right.  Provide support for the analysis.

4. Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification  for the response.
5. Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
6. Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.

The Assignment must be APA Format.  Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date.  The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.

I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%.  Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.

 

Levels Of Competing Cultures

Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.

You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.

• What is the African American population of the area?
• Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
• Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
• Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
• Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
• Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?

 

NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.

(Essay must be plagiarism free)

REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2

 

The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation

Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.

Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.

http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/pcp_94869_mutchnick_cj_uop/chapter6/ch6_issue2/index.html

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based

Who is provided access?

Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed

 

Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions

This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.

1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
2. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
3. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
4. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
5. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
6. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
7. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
8. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
9. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
10. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
11. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
12. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:

(a)   Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.

(b)   Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.

1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

6. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

84. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

1. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

 

Individual

Age

Score on Popular Music Test

Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

 

1. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

 

1. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).

1. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
2. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
3. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
4. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

 

Critical Writing Assignment

Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.

Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.

Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.

 

Organizational and Strategic leadership

Question:

Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American  history

 

 

Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 3 complete solutions

 

• Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?

• Question 2

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?

• Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

• Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:

• Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because

• Question 6

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

• Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:

• Question 8

3 out of 3 points

By “noumena” Kant is referring to:

• Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

• Question 10

Rene Descartes was a:

• Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist.  They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work.  This view fits best with which truth theory:

• Question 12

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:

• Question 13

3 out of 3 points

Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.

• Question 14

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, source skepticism questions:

• Question 15

3 out of 3 points

Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.

• Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the  evidentialist principle.

• Question 17

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

• Question 18

Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:

• Question 19

3 out of 3 points

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

• Question 20

3 out of 3 points

Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?

 

Question 1

Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.

Question 2

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

Question 3

In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:

Question 4

According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:

Question 7

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 8

Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.

Question 9

According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:

Question 10

The scientific case for determinism holds that:

Question 11

Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?

Question 13

Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?

Question 14

Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?

Question 16

The term “contiguity” means:

Question 17

Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

Question 20

According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:

 

Question 1

Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?

Question 2

Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?

Question 3

One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.

Question 4

In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.

Question 5

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 6

Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?

Question 7

The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.

Question 8

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 9

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 10

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 13

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 14

Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?

Question 15

Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.

Question 16

An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.

Question 17

The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:

Question 20

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

 

Question 1

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 2

Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:

Question 3

Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting

Christian revelation.

Question 4

Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 7

According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.

Question 8

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 9

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 10

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

What is one of the advantages of Dualism?

Question 13

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 14

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?

Question 16

Which of the following is not an element of causality?

Question 17

Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.

Question 18

Metaphysical Realism says that:

Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”

Question 20

Which of these is an example of an essential property?

 

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

Question 2

According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?

Question 3

According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.

Question 4

For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:

Question 5

For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:

Question 6

For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:

Question 7

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

Question 8

Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:

Question 9

David Hume was a:

Question 10

The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 11

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

Question 12

The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:

Question 13

One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.

Question 14

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 15

Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:

Question 16

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

Question 17

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.

Question 18

Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:

Question 19

William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.

Question 20

Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?

 

• Question 1

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

• Question 2

3 out of 3 points

A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.

• Question 3

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.

• Question 4

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?

• Question 5

3 out of 3 points

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

• Question 6

3 out of 3 points

 

Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection

Term Draft Paper

APA style  Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and  what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,

demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.

 

Lib University PHIL 201 quiz 6

Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 6 complete 

More than 11 different versions

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,

Judaism, and Islam:

Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8

3 out of 3 points

It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 10

3 out of 3 points

Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?

Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 12

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14

3 out of 3 points

“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.

Question 15

3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

3 out of 3 points

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?

Question 18

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 19

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 20

Needs Grading

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Question 1

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.

Question 4

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 5

The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 6

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 7

If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 8

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9

Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 10

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11

This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12

The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 13

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 15

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18

According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.

Question 19

The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Question 1

Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 2

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 3

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 4

In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.

Question 5

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 6

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 8

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:

Question 10

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 11

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

1. There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
2. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 13

The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.

Question 14

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 16

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Question 1

Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2

According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 4

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 5

According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 6

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 7

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 8

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9

Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:

Question 10

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 11

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 13

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 14

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Selected Answer: It is possible to be wrong.

 

Question 1 3 out of 3 points

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:

Question 2 3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 3 3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4 3 out of 3 points

The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 5 3 out of 3 points

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 7 3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 3 out of 3 points

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 9 3 out of 3 points

Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.

Question 10 3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 113 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 14 3 out of 3 points

Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 15 3 out of 3 points

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

1. There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.

ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 16 3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 17 3 out of 3 points

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18 3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 19 3 out of 3 points

The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

• Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

• Question 2

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

• Question 3

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

• Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

• Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

• Question 6

3 out of 3 points

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

• Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

• Question 8

3 out of 3 points

Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

 

• Question 9

Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

• Question 10

3 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

• Question 11

3 out of 3 points

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

• Question 12

3 out of 3 points

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

• Question 13

3 out of 3 points

A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

• Question 14

3 out of 3 points

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

• Question 15

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

• Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

• Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

• Question 18

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

• Question 19

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

 

Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.

Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non­existence is not possible:

Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as first­cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non­existence is not possible:

Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.

Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 The fine­tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non­believers, she is acting like:

Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.

Question 13 Non­temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The fine­tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

 

Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment

Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.

Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.

Include the following in your evaluation:

• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.

Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.

CJA/475

 

Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444

Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.

• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Securing Low Income Housing

 

Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library

Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:

• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

 

Emergency Management Communication Paper

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

 

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

 

Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375

Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:

• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

The Response and Recovery of City “X”

 

The Safety of Urban Air Mobility

 

Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management

The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.

An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There

Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

 

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.

Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.

• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

 

How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?

How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.

Defend or refute one of the following statements

1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.

Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

White Privilege and Colorism

White Privilege and Colorism

Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.

Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.

Include answers to the following questions:

• What is White privilege?
• If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
• Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
• What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
• What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?

Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.

Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines

 

Factorial math problem help!

How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.

 

Clock hand problem

What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.

Windowless room math problem, help!!

A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?

Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard

The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.

HELP: Card Stopping Optimization

In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?

Noticing Patterns in Addition

What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.

Black and White Marbles in Two Jars

Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.

A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.

Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.

What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?

 

Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger

In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a

mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.

Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode

of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,

either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve

or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology

more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.

History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP

In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?

Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!

Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.

English Help

is this a metaphor or hyperbole:

her hair was a mass of gray ringlets

 

I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario

This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.

For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting

Problem Scenario

(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?

(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?

Writing

(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)

(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow

(10 pts) Grammar and spelling

Discuss the American Dream

The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.

Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated